MIS chapter 8

1) Which of the following refers to policies, procedures, and technical measures used to prevent unauthorized access, alteration, theft, or physical damage to information systems?
A) Security
B) Controls
C) Benchmarking
D) Algorithms
E) Identity management

A

2) Which of the following refers to all of the methods, policies, and organizational procedures that ensure the safety of the organization’s assets, the accuracy and reliability of its accounting records, and operational adherence to management standards?
A) Legacy systems
B) SSID standards
C) Vulnerabilities
D) Security policy
E) Controls

E

3) Most computer viruses deliver a:
A) worm.
B) Trojan horse.
C) driveby download.
D) keylogger.
E) payload.

E

4) Which of the following statements about wireless security is not true?
A) SSIDs are broadcast multiple times and can be picked up fairly easily by sniffer programs.
B) Radio frequency bands are easy to scan.
C) An intruder who has associated with an access point by using the correct SSID is capable of accessing other resources on the network.
D) Intruders can force a user’s NIC to associate with a rogue access point.
E) Bluetooth is the only wireless technology that is not susceptible to hacking by eavesdroppers.

E

5) All of the following are specific security challenges that threaten the communications lines in a client/server environment except:
A) errors.
B) tapping.
C) theft and fraud.
D) radiation.
E) sniffing.

A

6) All of the following are specific security challenges that threaten corporate servers in a client/server environment except:
A) hacking.
B) malware.
C) denial-of-service attacks.
D) sniffing.
E) vandalism.

D

7) All of the following are specific security challenges that threaten corporate systems in a client/server environment except:
A) theft of data.
B) copying of data.
C) alteration of data.
D) radiation.
E) hardware failure.

D

8) CryptoLocker is an example of which of the following?
A) Worm
B) SQL injection attack
C) Sniffer
D) Evil twin
E) Ransomware

E

9) Which of the following statements about Internet security is not true?
A) The use of P2P networks can expose a corporate computer to outsiders.
B) A corporate network without access to the Internet is more secure than one that provides access.
C) VoIP is more secure than the switched voice network.
D) Instant messaging can provide hackers access to an otherwise secure network.
E) Smartphones have the same security weaknesses as other Internet devices.

C

10) A Trojan horse:
A) is software that appears to be benign but does something other than expected.
B) is a virus that replicates quickly.
C) is malware named for a breed of fast-moving Near-Eastern horses.
D) installs spyware on users’ computers.
E) is a type of sniffer used to infiltrate corporate networks.

A

11) A salesperson clicks repeatedly on the online ads of a competitor in order to drive the competitor’s advertising costs up. This is an example of:
A) phishing.
B) pharming.
C) spoofing.
D) evil twins.
E) click fraud.

E

12) Which of the following is a virus that uses flaws in Windows software to take over a computer remotely?
A) Sasser
B) Zeus
C) Cryptolocker
D) ILOVEYOU
E) Conficker

E

13) ________ is malware that hijacks a user’s computer and demands payment in return for giving back access.
A) A Trojan horse
B) Ransomware
C) Spyware
D) A virus
E) An evil twin

B

14) ________ is malware that logs and transmits everything a user types.
A) Spyware
B) A Trojan horse
C) A keylogger
D) A worm
E) A sniffer

C

15) Which of the following statements about botnets is not true?
A) Eighty percent of the world’s malware is delivered by botnets.
B) Botnets are often used to perpetrate DDoS attacks.
C) Ninety percent of the world’s spam is delivered by botnets.
D) Botnets are often used for click fraud.
E) It is not possible to make a smartphone part of a botnet.

E

16) Using numerous computers to inundate and overwhelm the network from numerous launch points is called a(n) ________ attack.
A) DDoS
B) DoS
C) SQL injection
D) phishing
E) botnet

A

17) Which of the following is not an example of a computer used as a target of crime?
A) Knowingly accessing a protected computer to commit fraud
B) Accessing a computer system without authority
C) Illegally accessing stored electronic communication
D) Threatening to cause damage to a protected computer
E) Breaching the confidentiality of protected computerized data

C

18) Which of the following is not an example of a computer used as an instrument of crime?
A) Theft of trade secrets
B) Intentionally attempting to intercept electronic communication
C) Unauthorized copying of software
D) Breaching the confidentiality of protected computerized data
E) Schemes to defraud

D

19) Which of the following specifically makes malware distribution and hacker attacks to disable websites a federal crime?
A) Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
B) Economic Espionage Act
C) Electronic Communications Privacy Act
D) Data Security and Breach Notification Act
E) National Information Infrastructure Protection Act

E

20) The intentional defacement or destruction of a website is called:
A) spoofing.
B) cybervandalism.
C) cyberwarfare.
D) phishing.
E) pharming.

B

21) Evil twins are:
A) Trojan horses that appears to the user to be a legitimate commercial software application.
B) e-mail messages that mimic the e-mail messages of a legitimate business.
C) fraudulent websites that mimic a legitimate business’s website.
D) computers that fraudulently access a website or network using the IP address and identification of an authorized computer.
E) bogus wireless network access points that look legitimate to users.

E

22) Pharming involves:
A) redirecting users to a fraudulent website even when the user has typed in the correct address in the web browser.
B) pretending to be a legitimate business’s representative in order to garner information about a security system.
C) setting up fake website to ask users for confidential information.
D) using e-mails for threats or harassment.
E) setting up fake Wi-Fi access points that look as if they are legitimate public networks.

A

23) Which of the following is the single greatest cause of network security breaches?
A) Viruses
B) User lack of knowledge
C) Trojan horses
D) Cyberwarfare
E) Bugs

B

24) Tricking employees into revealing their passwords by pretending to be a legitimate member of a company is called:
A) sniffing.
B) social engineering.
C) phishing.
D) pharming.
E) snooping

B

25) According to Ponemon Institute’s 2015 Annual Cost of Cyber Crime Study, the average annualized cost of cybercrime for companies in the United States was approximately:
A) $1.5 million.
B) $15 million.
C) $150 million.
D) $1.5 billion.
E) $15 billion.

B

26) Which of the following refers to eavesdroppers driving by buildings or parking outside and trying to intercept wireless network traffic?
A) War driving
B) Sniffing
C) Cybervandalism
D) Drive-by tapping
E) Snooping

A

27) ________ is a crime in which an imposter obtains key pieces of personal information to impersonate someone else.
A) Identity theft
B) Spoofing
C) Social engineering
D) Evil twins
E) Pharming

A

28) ________ identify the access points in a Wi-Fi network.
A) NICs
B) Mac addresses
C) URLs
D) UTMs
E) SSIDs

E

29) A foreign country attempting to access government networks in order to disable a national power grid is an example of:
A) phishing.
B) denial-of-service attacks.
C) cyberwarfare.
D) cyberterrorism.
E) evil twins.

C

30) According to the 2016 Identity Fraud Study by Javelin Strategy & Research, how much did consumers lose to identity fraud in 2015?
A) $1.5 million
B) $15 million
C) $150 million
D) $1.5 billion
E) $15 billion

E

31) All of the following have contributed to an increase in software flaws except:
A) the growing complexity of software programs.
B) the growing size of software programs.
C) demands for timely delivery to markets.
D) the inability to fully test programs.
E) the increase in malicious intruders seeking system access.

E

32) Which of the following is an example of a keylogger?
A) Zeus
B) Conficker
C) Sasser
D) ILOVEYOU
E) Cryptolocker

A

33) Smartphones have the same security flaws as other Internet-connected devices.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

34) The Apple iOS platform is the mobile platform most frequently targeted by hackers.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

B

35) Viruses can be spread through e-mail.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

36) The term cracker is used to identify a hacker whose specialty is breaking open security systems.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

B

37) Wireless networks are more difficult for hackers to gain access too because radio frequency bands are difficult to scan.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

B

38) A computer virus replicates more quickly than a computer worm.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

B

39) One form of spoofing involves forging the return address on an e-mail so that the e-mail message appears to come from someone other than the sender.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

40) Sniffers enable hackers to steal proprietary information from anywhere on a network, including e-mail messages, company files, and confidential reports.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

41) DoS attacks are used to destroy information and access restricted areas of a company’s information system.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

B

42) Zero defects cannot be achieved in larger software programs because fully testing programs that contain thousands of choices and millions of paths would require thousands of years.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

43) Most IoT devices support sophisticated security approaches.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

B

44) Malicious software programs referred to as spyware include a variety of threats such as computer viruses, worms, and Trojan horses.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

45) What are the security challenges faced by wireless networks?
Short Answer:

Wireless networks are vulnerable because radio frequency bands are easy to scan. Both Bluetooth and Wi-Fi networks are susceptible to hacking by eavesdroppers. Local area networks (LANs) using the 802.11 standard can be easily penetrated by outsiders armed with laptops, wireless cards, external antennae, and hacking software. Hackers use these tools to detect unprotected networks, monitor network traffic, and, in some cases, gain access to the Internet or to corporate networks. Wi-Fi transmission technology was designed to make it easy for stations to find and hear one another. The service set identifiers (SSIDs) identifying the access points in a Wi-Fi network are broadcast multiple times and can be picked up fairly easily by intruders’ sniffer programs. Wireless networks in many locations do not have basic protections against war driving, in which eavesdroppers drive by buildings or park outside and try to intercept wireless network traffic. A hacker can employ an 802.11 analysis tool to identify the SSID. An intruder that has associated with an access point by using the correct SSID is capable of accessing other resources on the network, using the Windows operating system to determine which other users are connected to the network, access their computer hard drives, and open or copy their files. Intruders also use the information they have gleaned to set up rogue access points on a different radio channel in physical locations close to users to force a user’s radio NIC to associate with the rogue access point. Once this association occurs, hackers using the rogue access point can capture the names and passwords of unsuspecting users.

46) Explain how an SQL injection attack works and what types of systems are vulnerable to this type of attack.
Short Answer:

SQL injection attacks take advantage of vulnerabilities in poorly coded web application software to introduce malicious code into a company’s systems and networks. These vulnerabilities occur when a web application fails to properly validate or filter data entered by a user on a web page, which might occur when ordering something online. An attacker uses this input validation error to send a rogue SQL query to the underlying database to access the database, plant malicious code, or access other systems on the network. Large web applications using databases are most vulnerable, as they may have hundreds of places for inputting user data, each of which creates an opportunity for an SQL injection attack.

47) How is the security of a firm’s information system and data affected by its people, organization, and technology? Is the contribution of one of these dimensions any more important than the other? Why?
Short Answer:

There are various technological essentials to protecting an information system: firewalls, authentication, encryption, anti-virus protection etc. Without technology implemented correctly, there is no security. A firm’s employees are its greatest threat, in terms of embezzlement and insider fraud, errors, and lax enforcement of security policies. Probably the most important dimension is organization, because this is what determines a firm’s business processes and policies. The firm’s information policies can most enhance security by stressing intelligent design of security systems, appropriate use of security technology, and the usability of its security processes.

48) The HIPAA Act of 1996:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.
E) identifies computer abuse as a crime and defines abusive activities.

D

49) The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.
E) identifies computer abuse as a crime and defines abusive activities.

A

50) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act:
A) requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.
B) specifies best practices in information systems security and control.
C) imposes responsibility on companies and management to safeguard the accuracy of financial information.
D) outlines medical security and privacy rules.
E) identifies computer abuse as a crime and defines abusive activities.

C

51) Which of the following is the most common type of electronic evidence?
A) Voice-mail
B) Spreadsheets
C) Instant messages
D) E-mail
E) VOIP data

D

52) Which of the following is a type of ambient data?
A) Computer log containing recent system errors
B) A file deleted from a hard disk
C) A file that contains an application’s user settings
D) A set of raw data from an environmental sensor
E) Data that has been recorded over

B

53) Computer forensics tasks include all of the following except:
A) presenting collected evidence in a court of law.
B) securely storing recovered electronic data.
C) collecting physical evidence on the computer.
D) finding significant information in a large volume of electronic data.
E) recovering data from computers while preserving evidential integrity.

C

54) Target has had to pay out over $100 million to U.S. banks, credit card companies and consumers as a result of a data breach in 2013.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

55) Three major concerns of system builders and users are disaster, security, and human error. Of the three, which do you think is most difficult to deal with? Why?
Short Answer:

Disaster might be the most difficult because it is unexpected, broad-based, and frequently life threatening. In addition, the company cannot know if the disaster plan will work until a disaster occurs, and then it’s too late to make corrections. Security might be the most difficult because it is an ongoing problem, new viruses are devised constantly, and hackers get smarter every day. Furthermore, damage done by a trusted employee from inside cannot be obviated by system security measures. Human error might be most difficult because it isn’t caught until too late, and the consequences may be disastrous. Also, administrative error can occur at any level and through any operation or procedure in the company.

56) Hackers and their companion viruses are an increasing problem, especially on the Internet. What are the most important measurers for a firm to take to protect itself from this? Is full protection feasible? Why or why not?
Short Answer

For protection, a company must institute good security measures, which will include firewalls, investigation of personnel to be hired, physical and software security and controls, antivirus software, and internal education measures. These measures are best put in place at the time the system is designed, and careful attention paid to them. A prudent company will engage in disaster protection measures, frequent updating of security software, and frequent auditing of all security measures and of all data upon which the company depends. Full protection may not be feasible in light of the time and expenses involved, but a risk analysis can provide insights into which areas are most important and vulnerable. These are the areas to protect first.

57) Define computer forensics and describe the types of problems it is designed to address.
Short Answer:

Computer forensics involves the scientific collection, examination, authentication, preservation, and analysis of data held on or retrieved from computer storage media in such a way that the information can be used as evidence in a court of law. It deals with the following problems: Recovering data from computers while preserving evidential integrity Securely storing and handling recovered electronic data Finding significant information in a large volume of electronic data Presenting the information to a court of law Electronic evidence may reside on computer storage media in the form of computer files and as ambient data, which are not visible to the average user. An example might be a file that has been deleted on a PC hard drive. Data that a computer user may have deleted on computer storage media can be recovered through various techniques. Computer forensics experts try to recover such hidden data for presentation as evidence. An awareness of computer forensics should be incorporated into a firm’s contingency planning process.

58) Your company, an online discount pet supply store, has calculated that a loss of Internet connectivity for 3 hours results in a potential loss of $2,000 to $3,000 and that there is a 50% chance of this occurring each year. What is the annual expected loss from this exposure?
A) $500
B) $1,000
C) $1,250
D) $1,500
E) $2,500

C

59) Application controls:
A) can be classified as input controls, processing controls, and output controls.
B) govern the design, security, and use of computer programs and the security of data files in general throughout the organization.
C) apply to all computerized applications and consist of a combination of hardware, software, and manual procedures that create an overall control environment.
D) include software controls, computer operations controls, and implementation controls.
E) monitor the use of system software and prevent unauthorized access to software and programs.

A

60) ________ controls ensure that valuable business data files on either disk or tape are not subject to unauthorized access, change, or destruction while they are in use or in storage.
A) Software
B) Administrative
C) Data security
D) Implementation
E) Input

C

61) An analysis of an information system that rates the likelihood of a security incident occurring and its cost would be included in which of the following?
A) Security policy
B) AUP
C) Risk assessment
D) Business impact analysis
E) Business continuity plan

C

62) A statement ranking information risks and identifying security goals would be included in which of the following?
A) Security policy
B) AUP
C) Risk assessment
D) Business impact analysis
E) Business continuity plan

A

63) Which of the following defines acceptable uses of a firm’s information resources and computing equipment?
A) An information systems audit policy
B) A CA policy
C) A MSSP
D) A UTM system
E) An AUP

E

64) Which of the following focuses primarily on the technical issues of keeping systems up and running?
A) Business continuity planning
B) Security policies
C) Disaster recovery planning
D) An AUP
E) An information systems audit

C

65) An acceptable use policy defines the acceptable level of access to information assets for different users.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

B

66) How can a firm’s security policies contribute and relate to the six main business objectives? Give examples.
Short Answer:

A firm’s security policies can contribute and relate to the six main business objectives as follows: (1) Operational excellence: Security policies are essential to operational excellence. A firm’s daily transactions can be severely disrupted by cybercrime such as hackers. A firm’s efficiency relies on accurate data. In addition, information assets have tremendous value, and the repercussions can be devastating if they are lost, destroyed, or placed in the wrong hands. (2) New products, services, business models. Security policies protect a company’s ideas for new products and services, which could be stolen by competitors. Additionally, enhanced security could be seen by a customer as a way to differentiate your product. (3) Customer and supplier intimacy: Customers rely on your security if they enter personal data into your information system, for example, credit card information into your e-commerce site. The information you receive from customers and suppliers directly affects how able you are to customize your product, service, or communication with them. (4) Improved decision making: Secure systems make data accuracy a priority, and good decision making relies on accurate and timely data. Lost and inaccurate data would lead to compromised decision making. (5) Competitive advantage: The knowledge that your firm has superior security than another would, on an otherwise level playing field, make your firm more attractive to do business with. Also, improved decision-making, new products and services, which are also affected by security (see above), will contribute to a firm’s competitive advantage. Strong security and control also increase employee productivity and lower operational costs. (6) Survival: New laws and regulations make keeping your security system up to date a matter of survival. Inadequate security and control may result in serious legal liability. Firms have been destroyed by errors in security policies.

67) What is the role of an information systems audit?
Short Answer:

An information systems audit examines the firm’s overall security environment as well as controls governing individual information systems. The auditor should trace the flow of sample transactions through the system and perform tests, using, if appropriate, automated audit software. The information systems audit may also examine data quality. The audit should review technologies, procedures, documentation, training, and personnel. A thorough audit will even simulate an attack or disaster to test the response of the technology, information systems staff, and business employees. The audit lists and ranks all control weaknesses and estimates the probability of their occurrence. It then assesses the financial and organizational impact of each threat. Management is expected to devise a plan for countering significant weaknesses in controls.

68) How does disaster recovery planning differ from business continuity planning?
Short Answer:

Disaster recovery planning devises plans for the restoration of disrupted computing and communications services. Disaster recovery plans focus primarily on the technical issues involved in keeping systems up and running, such as which files to back up and the maintenance of backup computer systems or disaster recovery services. Business continuity planning, on the other hand, focuses on how the company can restore business operations after a disaster strikes. The business continuity plan identifies critical business processes and determines action plans for handling mission-critical functions if systems go down.

69) Which of the following specifications replaced WEP with a stronger security standard that features changing encryption keys?
A) TLS
B) AUP
C) VPN
D) WPA2
E) UTM

D

70) Which of the following statements about passwords is not true?
A) Authentication cannot be established by the use of a password.
B) Password systems that are too rigorous may hinder employee productivity.
C) Passwords can be stolen through social engineering.
D) Passwords are often disregarded by employees.
E) Passwords can be sniffed when being transmitted over a network.

A

71) An authentication token is a(n):
A) device the size of a credit card that contains access permission data.
B) type of smart card.
C) gadget that displays passcodes.
D) electronic marker attached to a digital authorization file.

C

72) All of the following are currently being used as traits that can be profiled by biometric authentication except:
A) fingerprints.
B) facial characteristics.
C) body odor.
D) retinal images.
E) voice.

C

73) A firewall allows the organization to:
A) enforce a security policy on data exchanged between its network and the Internet.
B) check the accuracy of all transactions between its network and the Internet.
C) create an enterprise system on the Internet.
D) check the content of all incoming and outgoing e-mail messages.
E) create access rules for a network.

A

74) ________ use scanning software to look for known problems such as bad passwords, the removal of important files, security attacks in progress, and system administration errors.
A) Stateful inspections
B) Intrusion detection systems
C) Application proxy filtering technologies
D) Packet filtering technologies
E) Firewalls

B

75) Currently, the protocols used for secure information transfer over the Internet are:
A) TCP/IP and SSL.
B) S-HTTP and CA.
C) HTTP and TCP/IP.
D) S-HTTP and SHTML.
E) SSL, TLS, and S-HTTP.

E

76) In which method of encryption is a single encryption key sent to the receiver so both sender and receiver share the same key?
A) SSL/TLS
B) Symmetric key encryption
C) Public key encryption
D) Private key encryption
E) Distributed encryption

B

77) A digital certificate system:
A) uses third-party CAs to validate a user’s identity.
B) uses digital signatures to validate a user’s identity.
C) uses tokens to validate a user’s identity.
D) is used primarily by individuals for personal correspondence.
E) protects a user’s identity by substituting a certificate in place of identifiable traits.

A

78) All of the following are types of information systems general controls except:
A) application controls.
B) computer operations controls.
C) physical hardware controls.
D) software controls.
E) administrative controls

A

79) For 100-percent availability, online transaction processing requires:
A) high-capacity storage.
B) a multi-tier server network.
C) fault-tolerant computer systems.
D) dedicated phone lines.
E) a digital certificate system.

C

80) In controlling network traffic to minimize slow-downs, a technology called ________ is used to examine data files and sort low-priority data from high-priority data.
A) high availability computing
B) deep packet inspection
C) application proxy filtering
D) stateful inspection
E) unified threat management

B

81) An authentication system in which a user must provide two types of identification, such as a bank card and PIN, is called:
A) smart card authentication.
B) biometric authentication.
C) two-factor authentication.
D) symmetric key authorization.
E) token authentication.

C

82) Which of the following provides additional security by determining whether packets are part of an ongoing dialogue between a sender and receiver?
A) NAT
B) Packet filtering
C) Deep packet inspection
D) Stateful inspection
E) Application proxy filtering

D

83) Comprehensive security management products, with tools for firewalls, VPNs, intrusion detection systems, and more, are called ________ systems.
A) DPI
B) MSSP
C) NSP
D) PKI
E) UTM

E

84) Organizations can use existing network security software to secure mobile devices.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

B

85) The dispersed nature of cloud computing makes it difficult to track unauthorized access.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

86) Biometric authentication is the use of personal, biographic details such as the high school you attended and the first street you lived on to provide identification.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

B

87) Packet filtering catches most types of network attacks.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

B

88) NAT conceals the IP addresses of the organization’s internal host computers to deter sniffer programs.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

89) SSL is a protocol used to establish a secure connection between two computers.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

90) Public key encryption uses two keys.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

91) Smartphones typically feature state-of-the-art encryption and security features, making them highly secure tools for businesses.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

B

92) Authentication refers to verifying that a person is who he or she claims to be.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

93) You can test software before it is even written by conducting a walkthrough.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

94) When errors are discovered in software programs, the sources of the errors are found and eliminated through a process called debugging.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE

A

95) Is the cloud a safer and more secure computing environment than an in-house network? Why or why not?
Short Answer:

No; Due to the fact that cloud computing is highly distributed, and that companies are interested in keeping costs low, cloud computing providers often distribute work to data centers around the world where it can be accomplished most efficiently. This means you don’t always know who has access to your data and where it is being hosted. Also, the disperse nature of cloud data makes it difficult to track unauthorized activity.

96) Why is software quality important to security? What specific steps can an organization take to ensure software quality?
Short Answer:

Flaws in software create security vulnerabilities that open networks to intruders. Organizations should implement effective security and controls, use metrics (system assessments) and software testing, and regular/thorough testing.

97) You have just been hired as a security consultant by MegaMalls Inc., a chain of retail malls, to make sure that the security of their information systems is up to par. Outline the steps you will take to achieve this.
Short Answer:

1) Establish what data and processes are essential to the company and determine what internal and external data is essential to different employee roles within the company. 2) Conduct a security check using software metrics and provide a risk assessment. 3) Establish which legal/ethical standards need to be adhered to or are not implemented. 4) Create a security policy based on my findings

98) What is a digital certificate? How does it work?
Short Answer:

Digital certificate – an attachment to an electronic message to verify the identity of the sender and to provide the receiver with the means to encode a reply; A digital certificate system uses a trusted third party, a certificate authority, to validate a user’s identity. Then, the CA verifies a digital certificate user’s identity offline. This information is put into a CA server, which generates an encrypted digital certificate containing owner identification information and a copy of the owner’s public key. The certificate authenticates that the public key belongs to the designated owner. The CA makes itw own public key available either in print or on the internet, and the recipient of an encrypted message uses the CA’s public key to decode the digital certificate attached to the message, verifies it was issued by the CA, and then obtains the sender’s public key and identification information contained in the certificate. By using this information, the recipient can send an encrypted reply.

99) Name and describe four firewall screening technologies.
Short Answer:

Packet filtering – examines selected fields in the headers of data packets flowing back and forth between the trusted network and the Internet, examining individual packets in isolation; misses many types of attacks Stateful inspection – provides additional security by determining whether packets are part of an ongoing dialogue between a sender and receiver by setting up tables to track information over multiple packets; packets are accepted or rejected based on whether they are part of an approved conversation or attempting to establish a legitimate connection. Network Address Traslation (NAT) – can provide another layer of protection when static packet filtering and stateful inspection are employed; conceals the IP addresses of the organization’s internal host computers to prevent sniffer programs outside the firewall from ascertaining them and using that information to penetrat internal systems Application proxy filtering – examines the application content of packets by using a proxy server that stops data packets originating outside the organization, inspects them, and passes a proxy to the other side of the firewall

100) Explain how two-factor authentication increases security.
Short Answer:

It validates users through a multistep process. To be authenticated, a user must provide two means of identification, one of which is typically a physical token, such as a smartcard or chip-enabled bank card, and the other of which is typically data, such as a password or PIN. Example: a bank card