BENIGN TUMOR |
A noncancerous tumor that will not spread throughout the body. |
CARCINOGEN |
Any chemical agent that causes cancer by damaging DNA. Carcinogens are a type of mutagen. |
GERM-LINE MUTATION |
A mutation occurring in gametes; passed on to offspring. |
MALIGNANT TUMOR |
A cancerous tumor that spreads throughout the body. |
MUTAGEN |
Any chemical or physical agent that can damage DNA by changing its nucleotide sequence. |
MUTATION |
A change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA. |
PROTO-ONCOGENES |
A gene that codes for a protein that helps cells divide normally. |
SOMATIC MUTATION |
A mutation that occurs in a body (nongamete) cell; not passed on to offspring. |
TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENE |
A gene that codes for proteins that monitor and check cell cycle progression. When these genes mutate, tumor suppressor proteins lose normal function. |
CARRIER |
An individual who is heterozygous for a particular gene of interest, and therefore can pass on the recessive allele without showing any of its effects. |
HOMOZYGOUS |
Having two identical alleles. |
DOMINANT ALLELE |
An allele that can mask the presence of a recessive allele |
INDEPENDENT ASSORTMENT |
The principle that alleles of different genes are distributed independently of one another during meiosis. |
GAMETES |
Specialized reproductive cells that carry one copy of each chromosome (that is, they are haploid). Sperm are male gametes; eggs are female gametes. |
MEIOSIS |
A specialized type of nuclear division that generates genetically unique haploid gametes. |
HAPLOID |
Having only one copy of every chromosome. |
HOMOLOGOUS CHROMOSOMES |
A pair of chromosomes that both contain the same genes. In a diploid cell, one chromosome in the pair is inherited from the mother, the other from the father. |
DIPLOID |
Having two copies of every chromosome. |
EMBRYO |
An early stage of development reached when a zygote undergoes cell division to form a multicellular structure. |
GENOTYPE |
The particular genetic makeup of an individual. |
HETEROZYGOUS |
Having two different alleles. |
PHENOTYPE |
The visible or measurable features of an individual. |
PUNNETT SQUARE |
A diagram used to determine probabilities of offspring having particular genotypes, given the genotypes of the parents. |
RECESSIVE ALLELE |
An allele that reveals itself in the phenotype only if a masking dominant allele is not present. |
RECOMBINATION |
An event in meiosis during which maternal and paternal chromosomes pair and physically exchange DNA segments. |
ZYGOTE |
A fertilized egg. |
AMNIOCENTESIS |
A procedure that removes fluid surrounding the fetus to obtain and analyze fetal cells to diagnose genetic disorders. |
MULTIFACTORIAL INHERITANCE |
An interaction between genes and the environment that contributes to a phenotype or trait. |
AUTOSOMES |
Paired chromosomes present in both males and females; all chromosomes except the X and Y chromosomes. |
NONDISJUNCTION |
The failure of chromosomes to separate accurately during cell division; nondisjunction in meiosis leads to aneuploid gametes. |
CONTINUOUS VARIATION |
Variation in a population showing an unbroken range of phenotypes rather than discrete categories. |
PEDIGREE |
A visual representation of the occurrence of phenotypes across generations. |
INCOMPLETE DOMINANCE |
A form of inheritance in which heterozygotes have a phenotype that is intermediate between homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive. |
ANEUPLOIDY |
An abnormal number of one or more chromosomes (either extra or missing copies). |
CODOMINANCE |
A form of inheritance in which both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype. |
GONADS |
Sex organs: ovaries in females, testes in males. |
POLYGENIC TRAITS |
A trait whose phenotype is determined by the interaction among alleles of more than one gene. |
SEX CHROMOSOMES |
Paired chromosomes that differ between males and females, XX in females, XY in males. |
TRISOMY 21 |
Carrying an extra copy of chromosome 21; also known as Down syndrome. |
X-LINKED TRAITS |
A phenotype determined by an allele on an X chromosome. |
Y-CHROMOSOME ANALYSIS |
Comparing sequences on the Y chromosome to examine paternity and paternal ancestry. |
ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY |
A protective response, mediated by lymphocytes, that confers long-lasting immunity against specific pathogens. |
INNATE IMMUNITY |
Nonspecific defenses, such as physical and chemical barriers and phagocytic cells that are present from birth and are always active. |
ANTIBODY |
A protein produced by B cells that binds to antigens and either neutralizes them or flags other cells to destroy pathogens. |
INTERFERON |
Antiviral proteins produced by virally infected cells to help protect adjacent cells from becoming infected. |
ANTIGENIC DRIFT |
Changes in viral antigens caused by genetic mutation during normal viral replication. |
LYMPH MODES |
Small organs in the lymphatic system where B and T cells may encounter pathogens. |
AUTO IMMUNE DISEASE |
A misdirected immune response in which the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells. |
LYMPHATIC SYSTEM |
The organ system of vessels and organs where B and T lymphocytes develop and that works with the immune system, allowing B and T cells to respond to pathogens. |
CELL-MEDIATED IMMUNITY |
The type of adaptive immunity that rids the body of altered (that is, infected, cancerous, or foreign) cells. |
LYMPHOCYTES |
A specialized white blood cell of the immune system. |
CYTOTOXIC T CELL |
A type of T cell that destroys infected, cancerous, or foreign altered cells, including virally infected cells. |
MACROPHAGE |
A phagocytic cell that resides in tissues and plays an important role in the inflammatory response. |
HISTAMINE |
A molecule released by damaged tissue and during allergic reactions. |
MEMORY CELLS |
A long-lived B or T cell that is produced during an immune primary response and that can be activated rapidly in a secondary response. |
IMMUNE SYSTEM |
A system of cells and tissues that acts to defend the body against foreign cells and infectious agents. |
NATURAL KILLER CELLS |
A type of white blood cell that acts during the innate immune response to find and destroy virally infected cells and tumor cells. |
INFLAMMATION |
An innate defense that is activated by infection or local tissue damage; characterized by redness, swelling, and pain. |
NEUTROPHIL |
A phagocytic cell in the circulation that plays an important role in the inflammatory response. |
ANTIGEN |
A specific molecule (or part of a molecule) to which specific antibodies can bind, and against which an adaptive response is mounted. |
PATHOGEN |
Infectious agents including certain viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites. Many pathogens trigger an immune response. |
B CELLS |
White blood cells that mature in the bone marrow and produce antibodies during the adaptive immune response. |
PHAGOCYTE |
A type of white blood cell that engulfs and ingests damaged cells and pathogens. |
HELPER T CELLS |
A type of T cell that helps activate B cells to produce antibodies during humoral responses. |
PLASMA CELL |
An activated B cell that divides rapidly and secretes an abundance of antibodies. |
ALLERGY |
A misdirected immune response against environmental substances such as dust, pollen, and foods that causes discomfort in the form of physical symptoms. |
ANTIGENIC SHIFT |
Changes in antigens that occur when viruses exchange genetic material with other strains. |
COMPLEMENT PROTEINS |
Proteins in blood that help destroy pathogens by coating or puncturing them. |
HUMORAL IMMUNITY |
The type of adaptive immunity that fights free-floating pathogens infections and other foreign substances in the circulation and lymph fluid. |
IMMUNITY |
The resistance to a given pathogen conferred by the activity of the immune system. |
PRIMARY RESPONSE |
The adaptive response mounted the first time a particular antigen is encountered by the immune system. |
T CELLS |
White blood cells that mature in the thymus and can destroy infected cells or stimulate B cells to produce antibodies, depending on the type of T cell. |
THYMUS |
The organ in which T cells mature. |
VACCINE |
A preparation of killed or weakened microorganisms or viruses that is given to people or animals to generate a memory immune response. |
VIRUS |
An infectious agent made up of a protein shell that encloses genetic information. |
How do the two alleles of the CFTR gene in a lung cell differ? a. They are inherited from different parents. |
a |
Which of the following is(are) TRUE of a single human liver cell? a. There are 46 chromosomes present. |
e |
Which of the following is(are) TRUE of a single human gamete? a. There are 46 chromosomes present. |
c |
What is the genotype of a person with cystic fibrosis? a. The genotype includes two mutant CFTR genes, one each on the homologous chromosomes for chromosome 7. |
a |
A diploid cell of baker’s yeast has 32 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in each of its haploid spores? a. 32 |
b |
In diploid organisms, having two homologues of each chromosome can be beneficial if one allele of a gene encodes a nonfunctional protein. Can haploid organisms survive the presence of nonfunctional alleles? a. No, because there is only one allele for the gene in each cell, and the nonfunctional allele has no other allele to mask it. |
a |
Why is it possible for two healthy parents to give birth to a child with a genetic defect such as cystic fibrosis? a. CF is normally caused by a mutation that occurs only in the sperm and eggs of the parents, so their bodies are not affected. |
c |
A human female has _____ chromosomes in each skin cell and ______ chromosomes in each egg. a. 46; 46 |
c |
A woman is heterozygous for the CF-associated gene (the alleles are represented here by the letters A and a). Assuming that meiosis occurs normally, which of the following represent eggs that she can produce? a. A |
d |
Which of the following accurately describes meiosis? a. contains two rounds of division (meiosis I and meiosis II) |
d |
Meiosis differs from mitosis in the __________. a. way in which sister chromatids separate |
e |
One of the purposes of meiosis is to __________. a. produce four zygotes instead of only two (as produced in mitosis) |
b |
Besides recombination, what other event in meiosis increases the genetic diversity of the gametes? a. the way in which chromosomes are replicated in meiosis II |
b |
An alien has 82 total chromosomes in each of its body cells. The chromosomes are paired, making 41 pairs. If the alien’s gametes undergo meiosis, what are the number and arrangement (paired or not) of chromosomes in one of its gametes? a. 41 paired chromosomes |
b |
If meiosis were to fail and a cell skipped meiosis I, so that meiosis II was the only meiotic division, how would you describe the resulting gametes? a. haploid cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes |
b |
Children often have many of the phenotypes of their parents because __________. a. they have the exact same genotypes as their parents |
b |
Women can inherit alleles of a gene called BRCA1 that puts them at higher risk for breast cancer. The alleles associated with elevated cancer risk are dominant. Of the genotypes listed below, which carries the lowest genetic risk of developing breast cancer? a. BB |
c |
In order for a child to develop cystic fibrosis, a. a sperm carrying a CF allele must fertilize an egg that also has that allele. |
a |
Assume that Emily (who has CF, a recessive disease (aa)) decides to have children with a man who does not have CF and who has no family history of CF. What combination of gametes can each of them produce, and what is the probability that they will have a child who is a carrier for CF? a. Emily: aa and man: Aa; 100% probability |
c |
What does it mean to say that a person is a heterozygous carrier for a genetic disease? a. That person has two copies of the disease allele. |
d |
What does it mean to say that a person has a heterozygous genotype for a disease gene and no disease phenotype? a. This disease has a recessive inheritance pattern. |
d |
Which of the following most influences the development of a female fetus? a. the presence of any two sex chromosomes |
e |
Why are more males than females affected by X-linked recessive genetic diseases? a. because males have a Y chromosome that does not represent the same alleles as the X chromosomes and cannot mask the X-linked recessive allele |
e |
If a man has an X-linked recessive disease, can his sons inherit that disease from him? a. Yes, all his sons have one X chromosome. |
b |
Which of the following is TRUE about Y chromosome analysis? a. It is commonly used to determine whether a woman is really a man. |
b |
Why do some people have unusual chromosome combinations, such as XYY and XXX? a. They have a genetic disease that causes an increase in the number of sex chromosomes. |
b |
Which of the following couples could have a boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)? a. a male with DMD and a homozygous dominant female |
c |
Predict the sex of a baby with an XX pair of sex chromosomes. a. male |
b |
Predict the sex of a baby with an XXY pair of sex chromosomes. a. male |
a |
Predict the sex of a baby with an X sex chromosome. a. male |
c |
Consider your brother and your son. If you are male, which will have essentially identical Y chromosomes? a. You and your brother inherited different Y chromosomes from your dad, and you passed your Y chromosome on to your son. |
c |
Which of the following inheritance patterns includes an environmental contribution? a. polygenic |
d |
How are polygenic and multifactorial traits different? a. Polygenic traits are influenced by nutrition and diet, whereas multifactorial traits are not. |
b |
How is codominant inheritance different from incomplete dominant inheritance? a. In codominance, one gene is recessive to two dominant genes; in incomplete dominance, all genes are recessive. |
d |
Human skin color ranges from very light to dark black, with many distinct skin tones in between. Neglecting for a moment that skin color can be affected by sun exposure, what type of inheritance pattern probably governs skin color? a. incomplete dominance |
c |
What are the chances that a curly-haired father and a straight-haired mother can give birth to a child with curly hair? a. 0% |
b |
If two women have identical alleles of the suspected 20 height-associated genes, why might one of those women be 5 feet 5 inches tall and the other 5 feet 8 inches tall? a. because the identical 20 alleles cause variation in the phenotype |
c |
Why is type O Rh-negative the "universal donor"? a. No surface markers are present on the O Rh-negative blood cells to react with the recipient’s immune system. |
a |
What is different about red blood cells from a person with type AB blood, compared to those from other blood types? a. They carry Rh markers, whereas other blood types have none. |
b |
Which of the following is a likely result of nondisjunction in human meiosis? a. an increased risk of clinical depression |
b |
A gamete is aneuploid if __________. a. one or more homologous chromosomes fail to separate in meiosis I |
e |
Which of the following contain the normal chromosome number? a. a human egg – 46; a human sperm – 23; a human zygote – 23 |
d |
Which of the following can be determined by amniocentesis and karyotyping? a. gender |
c |
Which of the following can result in a trisomy such as Down syndrome? a. an egg with 23 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 22 chromosomes |
c |
In an otherwise normal cell, what happens if one mistake is made during DNA replication? a. Nothing; mistakes just happen. |
b |
Why does wearing sunscreen reduce cancer risk? a. Sunscreen can repair damaged DNA. |
c |
A mutation can cause a change __________. a. in the amino acid sequence of a protein |
e |
At which of the following points does a mutation exert its potentially dysfunctional effects in a cell? a. during DNA replication |
c |
DNA mutations can arise from uncorrected errors in DNA replication, inheritance, and __________. a. a poor diet lacking in vitamins and minerals |
c |
If an individual has a germline mutation, which of the following are possible sources of that mutation? a. excessive sun exposure |
d |
How does a somatic mutation in a gene alter the function of a cell? a. Base pair changes in the gene are passed directly into altered amino acids by a ribosome. |
d |
A potential cancer-causing gene coding for a protein with cell cycle control responsibilities is a ___________, and a gene coding for a protein that stimulates cell division is a ___________. a. oncogene; mutagen |
c |
What is the role of BRCA1 in normal cells? a. BRCA1 acts as a proto-oncogene. |
c |
Which of the following does not cause cancer to develop and progress? a. a proto-oncogene |
e |
A chemical that causes alterations in DNA is a ______________, and if this chemical causes cancer it is called a _______________. a. mutagen; carcinogen |
a |
Tumors that will not spread throughout the body are _________________, and those that do spread are termed ______________. a. malignant; benign |
b |
Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer development? a. It is a one-step process by which a mutation drives cancer development. |
d |
What would you say to a niece if she asked you how she could reduce her risk of breast cancer? (Assume there is no family history of breast cancer.) a. Reduce sun exposure. |
e |
Why is age a risk factor for cancer? a. Age provides the time for the cancer cells to undergo the cell cycle. |
b |
We would all have many more mutations in our genes if not for the __________. a. activity of proofreading enzymes |
a |
Which is the correct order of events in which breast cancer might develop? a. inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > mutation of p53 > additional mutations permit spreading > replication errors create an oncogene |
d |
Which of these statements about decreasing a woman’s breast cancer risk if she inherits one of the mutant BRCA genes is TRUE? a. Diet and lifestyle changes will effectively decrease her risk to near zero. |
e |
A woman with a BRCA1 mutation __________. a. will definitely develop breast cancer |
b |
Which of the following family histories most strongly suggests a risk of inherited breast cancer due to BRCA1 mutations? a. many female relatives who were diagnosed with breast cancer in their 70s |
d |
Why do people with "inherited cancer" often develop cancer at a relatively young age? a. Predisposition increases the chances that other risk factors will lead to the progression of cancer. |
d |
Which of the following women would be most likely to benefit from genetic testing for breast cancer? a. a 25-year-old woman whose mother, aunt, and grandmother had breast cancer |
a |
Are beneficial mutations found often? |
no |
What do mutations lead to? |
dysfunctional proteins |
Why do people suffer from cystic fibrosis? |
Thick mucus in the lungs, pancreas, etc. there is improper movement of ions because chlorine is trapped inside the cell and the mucus is thick outside and affects the lungs and other organs. because of disturbance in ion movement throughout the cellular membrane |
When do you have a recessive disorder? |
when each parent has at least one recessive allele to pass onto the child |
What kind of genes decide about how strong the immune response will be? |
Modifying genes. TGFB1 is an example. |
What determines a person’s sex? |
On the Y chromosome: SRY genes determine bisexual genes into testes or ovaries |
What is analyzed in a pedigree? |
Y chromosome |
Short Tandem Repeats |
microsatellite, consisting of a unit of two to thirteen nucleotides repeated hundreds of times in a row on the DNA strand. STR analysis measures the exact number of repeating units. |
AA or AO |
Type A markers, can donate to type A or AB , can receive from type A or O donor |
BB or BO |
Type B markers, can donate to Type B or AB recipient, can receive from type B or O donor |
AB |
Type A and B markers, can donate to type AB recipient, can receive from type A, B, AB, or O donor (universal recipient) |
OO |
No blood markers, can donate to type A, B, AB or O recipient (universal donor), can receive from type O donor |
What is RH? |
an antigen that if you have it your blood type is positive and if you do not your blood type is negative |
When your blood type is positive who can you receive blood from? (positive or negative) |
when you are positive you can accept blood that is negative but not the other way around |
What are viruses composed of? |
nucleic acid and proteins |
How do viruses leave the host cell? |
cells are being damaged and cells burst and viruses can get out. the cell does not always burst though it depends on the virus |
What does the pathogen do in a cell to become a pathogen? |
the main feature is it has to cause damage. if it does not cause damage it is not considered a pathogen |
How long does it take for the primary response to occur? |
7-10 days |
What happened to the 1918 flu virus that was so deadly? |
ANTIGENIC DRIFT: mutations in the antigens in viruses change every year because of antigenic drift so we need a new flu shot every year. it is mimicking primary response instead of being sick mimics being sick so that your body will make antibodies |
Why are viruses not alive? |
they cannot replicate on their own. they need host cells to help them replicate |
What are the main 2 symptoms of inflammation? |
redness and swelling are caused by blood and blood causes redness because red blood cells leak out of capillaries and causes swelling |
Who won the Nobel Prize for discovering reverse transcriptase? |
David Hamilton |
What is an equilibrium virus? |
not lethal and spread quickly |
What is a nonequilibrium virus? |
they do not spread quickly but if they infect a person they can be lethal: HIV, ebola |
How is it possible to change a lethal virus? |
genetic shift is two viruses infecting the same cell and they exchange antigens. Bird flu antigenic shift between bird virus and human viruses cause pandemics |
Why is HIV an RNA virus? |
because it uses reverse transcriptase to transcribe into DNA |
What is cyanobacteria? |
the first photosynthesizing bacteria |
What are the three main shapes of bacteria? |
circle, oval, and spiral |
Are most bacteria autotrophs or heterotrophs? |
heterotrophs |
Are cyanobacteria aerobs or anaerobs? |
they can be both |
Health Science Test 3 (Chs 10,11, 12, 31)
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