FL3-AAMC

more stable product

will have highest percentage

Power equation

P = Fv force x velocity

C/P AAMC Fl #3

https://quizlet.com/283122672/cp-aamc-fl-3-flash-cards/

3. Which of the following compounds is most likely to be a major product in step 2 if the aldol condensation is NOT followed by a dehydration reaction?

remember to count your attached atoms!!! the one I picked had five bonds!!!!! –coz if there is no dehydration, then the OH would be present instead of the double bond –product of aldol condensation is b-hydroxyketone

8. If a generator-brake system alone were engaged when the railcar was moving, which of the following graphs would most accurately represent the subsequent speed of the railcar?

think: x —> v —-> a x/dt = v; v/dt = a velocity/time graph = acceleration for slope, would be straight line if constant acceleration, but velocity is changing, so acceleration is not constant velocity is scalar – speed and direction Coz the speed of the car decreases in time such that the decelerating force declines linearly with speed, according to the passage. Because the decelerating force is directly proportional to the deceleration acceleration, it follows that the decelerating acceleration itself declines linearly with speed. Finally, because the decelerating acceleration is the rate of change of velocity, or the slope of the velocity vs. time graph, then the slope of the graph must decrease in time F=ma, m will be constant, since force is decreasing linearly, acceleration is decreasing. Slope of v, t graph = a, so in the answer choices the slope cannot stay the same because a is changing not constant, and it is decreasing overall since deceleration First to be clear, the passage states "Force decreases linearly with Speed" BUT the axes on the graphs are Velocity vs Time. Choice A would be if you had a CONSTANT decelerating force Choice D shows the expected result of a LINEARLY DECREASING decelerating force. It helps to think of it conceptually. At high speed the force of deceleration will also be high, so the velocity will drop quickly (steep slope). At low speed the force of deceleration will be small, so the rate at which velocity drops will be slow (shallow slope). also: https://www.quora.com/What-is-meant-by-constant-acceleration

The relative thermodynamic stability of isomeric organic compounds can be inferred from which of the following types of experimental data?

A.Boiling points
B.UV-visible absorption spectra
C.Mass spectroscopic fragmentation patterns
D.Heats of combustion

got right, just remember and that less heat means greater stability b/c lower heat means less energy (more stable) and higher heat means higher energy (less stable) Solution: The correct answer is D. This is an Organic Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Nature of molecules and intermolecular interactions." The answer to this question is D because the relative thermodynamic stability of isomers can be determined based on the amount of heat produced when the compounds are combusted; less heat, greater stability. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because one must choose the appropriate experimental data to answer the question. Any differences in the heat given off can be used to say that a compound is more stable (it had a lower energy to begin with, so less heat is given off) or less stable (it had a higher energy to begin with, so more heat is given off).

Radioactive tritium (3H) labeled guanine has been used to measure the rate of biochemical processes that involve its binding or incorporation.

Guanine

Given that water is the solvent for this type of experiment, what is the best site for tritium labeling?

A.I
B.II
C.III
D.IV

thought wrong, was asking which spot would tritium stay fixed to with water as solvent Solution: The correct answer is A. This is an Organic Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Structure, function, and reactivity of biologically-relevant molecules." The answer to this question is A, because the best site for tritium labeling would not exchange the tritium ions for protons in water. All of the N−H sites (II−IV) would readily exchange tritium protons due to their lone pair-facilitating protonation and subsequent tritium exchange with water, but the C−H site (I), lacking a lone pair, would retain its tritium label. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because the selection of the tritium-labeling site under aqueous conditions is essential to the experimental design.

The energy of activation for the reaction described in the passage is given by the energy of:

A.the reactants minus the energy of the products.
B.the products minus the energy of the reactants.
C.the activated complex minus the energy of the products.
D.the activated complex minus the energy of the reactants.

got right, just remember Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a General Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of chemical thermodynamics and kinetics." The answer to this question is D because the activation energy for a reaction represents the minimum energy barrier necessary to be overcome by the reactants on the path to products. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you must identify the relationship among the closely related concepts of activation energy for a reaction, energies of the reactants, and energy of the activated complex.

The limiting reagent in the experiments described in the passage is:

A.iodine.
B.zinc.
C.methanol.
D.iodide.
Solution: The correct answer is A.

This is a General Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Atoms, nuclear decay, electronic structure, and atomic chemical behavior." The answer to this question is A because the number of iodine atoms provided in the reaction is less than the 2:1 ratio with zinc atoms that is required for a stoichiometric reaction. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you recognize and identify the limiting reagent based on the amounts of reactants present.

got right, just remember 2:1 mole ratio, need twice as many moles for I for Zn Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a General Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Atoms, nuclear decay, electronic structure, and atomic chemical behavior." The answer to this question is A because the number of iodine atoms provided in the reaction is less than the 2:1 ratio with zinc atoms that is required for a stoichiometric reaction. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you recognize and identify the limiting reagent based on the amounts of reactants present.

What is the period of the voltage source that operates the plasma pencil?

A.2000 ns
B.1500 ns
C.1000 ns
D.500 ns

got right, just remember starts repeating means new period one period – shortest repition time and T = 1/f Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Physics question that falls under the content category "Translational motion, forces, work, energy, and equilibrium in living systems." The answer to this question is C because the period of a time-varying signal is the shortest repetition time. According to Figure 2, each pulse is on for 500 ns, then off for 500 ns. Thus, the time between consecutive pulses is 500 ns + 500 ns = 1000 ns. It is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question because it asks you to use data to answer research questions and draw conclusions.

The glucose meter measures the current produced during Reaction 2. If 0.67 μmol of electrons were measured, what mass of glucose was present in the sample? (Note: The molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol = 180 μg/μmol.)

A.20 μg
B.60 μg
C.90 μg
D.270 μg

proportions used b/c 2 mole per e- Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a General Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Electrochemistry and electrical circuits and their elements." The answer to this question is B because the stoichiometry of the reaction is 2 mol e- per mole of glucose consumed. The device measured 0.67 (2/3) μmol of electrons, indicating that 0.33 (1/3) μmol of glucose was consumed. This weighs 60 μg, based on its molar mass of 180 g/mol. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because you must determine and use a scientific formula to solve a problem.

What additional substance is necessary for Reaction 2 to take place?

A.FAD
B.NADH
C.H2O
D.Acetyl-CoA

2 e- oxidation had to occur, was thinking FAD was only 1 e- carrier… got turned around The correct answer is A. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of chemical thermodynamics and kinetics." The answer to this question is A because an oxidizing agent is required for Reaction 2 to proceed. Of the choices listed, only FAD is a cofactor oxidant. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because knowing the cofactors and their biochemical roles are fundamental biochemical concepts.

Which experimental condition is NOT necessary to achieve reliable data for Michaelis-Menten enzyme kinetics?

A.Initial velocity is measured under steady state conditions.
B.Solution pH remains constant at all substrate concentrations.
C.The concentration of enzyme is lower than that of substrate.
D.The reaction is allowed to reach equilibrium before measurements are taken.

do not want equilibrium when measuring kinetics!!! Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of chemical thermodynamics and kinetics." The answer to this question is D because once the reaction reaches equilibrium, measurement of Vo will be impossible and the kinetic data will look the same regardless of substrate concentration. Hence, response D is not necessary (nor desirable) to achieve reliable data for Michaelis−Menten enzyme kinetics. In contrast, Distractors A−C are essential to obtain reliable Vo versus substrate concentration data to calculate KM and Vmax using Michaelis−Menten enzyme kinetics. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because the question probes the experimental conditions required to obtain reliable data.

What is the general structure of a hydroxamic acid?

remember acetylation and passage said which N and what happened Solution: The correct answer is C. This is an Organic Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Structure, function, and reactivity of biologically-relevant molecules." The answer to this question is C because a hydroxamic acid was described in the passage as resulting from the acetylation (attachment of RC=O) of the hydroxylamine nitrogen (NHOH) in Compound 2. Only Response C fits this description. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because the concepts of acetylation and hydroxylamine structure must be combined to ascertain the correct answer.

At pH 7.5, at what relative rate does the enzyme hydroxylate Compound 1 compared to nonproductively producing H2O2 as a result of interacting with lysine? (Note: Assume equal availability of both substances.)

A.0.50
B.0.75
C.1.5
D.2.0

should have thought rate and 2:1 ratio 1 and 2 were the values, so it was twice as fast Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of chemical thermodynamics and kinetics." The answer to this question is D because at pH 7.5 the value of kFAD for Compound 1 is 2, while the value of kFAD for lysine is 1. Thus, under identical conditions, SidA will hydroxylate Compound 1 twice as fast as it nonproductively forms H2O2 as a result of interacting with lysine. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because the examinee is asked to use data to draw a conclusion; in this case, the ratio of kFAD for Compound 1 to kFAD for lysine.

Which structure represents a component of the HRP cofactor?

was a porphyrin, basic unit of that is pyrrole -sided ring with N remember furanose is 5-sided w/O instead of N Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Structure, function, and reactivity of biologically-relevant molecules." The answer to this question is A, because the cofactor is heme, which is a porphyrin. The basic unit of a porphyrin is the pyrrole ring, a five-sided heterocycle containing one nitrogen atom. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because recalling that heme is a porphyrin and remembering the structure of the ring components of a porphyrin are essential for answering this question.

What is the resistivity of the best-performing PANI described in the passage?

A.0.002 Ω•cm
B.50 Ω•cm
C.200 Ω•cm
D.500 Ω•cm

resistivity is inverse of conductivity Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Physics question that falls under the content category "Electrochemistry and electrical circuits and their elements." The answer to this question is C because resistivity is the inverse of the conductivity, which is 1/5.0 × 10-3 (Ω∙cm)-1 = 200 Ω∙cm. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it asks you to determine and use scientific formulas to solve problems.

What is the correct expression for the ΔG′° for the transition observed in the experiments described in the passage?

A.ΔG′° = -RTe([native]/[unfolded])
B.ΔG′° = -RTe([unfolded]/[native])
C.ΔG′° = -RTln([native]/[unfolded])
D.ΔG′° = -RTln([unfolded]/[native])

just forgot K = product/reactant Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Structure, function, and reactivity of biologically-relevant molecules." The answer to this question is D because the equilibrium constant for DNA unfolding is Keq = [unfolded]/[native] as the unfolded DNA is considered to be a product. Thus, ΔG′° = −RTlnKeq = −RTln([unfolded]/[native]). It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires a scientific equation and its application to experimental data.

Which statement about the unfolding cooperativity and pK of the oligonucleotides is consistent with the data in Figure 1?

A.The oligonucleotide with the highest pK displays the highest unfolding cooperativity.
B.The oligonucleotide with the lowest pK displays the highest unfolding cooperativity.
C.The oligonucleotide with the second highest pK displays the highest unfolding cooperativity.
D.The oligonucleotide with the second highest pK displays the lowest unfolding cooperativity.

lower pKa = more acidic and proton goes to the higher value whether pH or pKa 6 < 8 so if pKa 6 then will be deprotonated in pH 8 write out to not get confused!!! Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Structure, function, and reactivity of biologically-relevant molecules." The answer to this question is B because the pK is the pH at which the fraction of folded DNA is 0.5. This occurs at the lowest value in 5hmC-WT. Cooperativity is measured as the slope of the unfolding transition. This is also highest in 5hmC-WT. It is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question because it requires interpreting graphical data in order to draw scientific conclusions.

At which buffer pH would two out of four of the proteins adhere to a cation-exchange column?

A.3.0
B.7.0
C.9.5
D.11

remember at pH below pI, it is + Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Separation and purification methods." The answer to this question is B because a cation-exchange column only binds to positively charged proteins, which only occurs when the pH is less than the pI. At pH 7.0, both proteins A and B would be positively charged. With distractors A, C, and D, there would be four, one, and zero positively charged proteins, respectively. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because it inquires about the experimental conditions needed to achieve a desired result.

A common column material used in size-exclusion chromatography is dextran, a polysaccharide of glucose. Which type of interaction most likely occurs between proteins and the dextran column material?

A.Aromatic
B.Hydrophobic
C.Salt bridge
D.Hydrogen bonding

glucose should have thought of OH groups and H bonding Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Separation and purification methods." The answer to this question is D because a polysaccharide of glucose has numerous hydroxyl groups that can hydrogen bond to the polar side chains that are typically exposed on a protein surface. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires making a correlation between scientific principles, associating structural features with intermolecular forces.

Which halogen has the highest first ionization energy?

A.Iodine
B.Bromine
C.Chlorine
D.Fluorine

was thinking Cl b/c had just seen Cl has higher e- AFFINITY!!!! F has highest IONIZATION energy Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a General Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Atoms, nuclear decay, electronic structure, and atomic chemical behavior." The answer to this question is D, because fluorine is the smallest halogen and appears at the top of the column of Group 17. With fewer electrons to shield the valence electron from the nucleus, fluorine will exhibit the highest first ionization energy. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because you must recognize the relative chemical behavior for an atom based on the principle of shielding of valence electrons.

in SOUND

frequency does NOT change!!!

Assume that in the study with the rat tissues, fluid flows at a speed of 0.30 mm/s through a typical capillary opening caused by a burst microbubble. Given this, which of the following is closest to the volume flow rate of fluid passing through the opening?

A.4.5 × 106 μm3/s
B.7.5 × 106 μm3/s
C.1.2 × 107 μm3/s
D.4.5 × 107 μm3/s

write out your equations!! and pay attention to question… said burst microbubble, looked at wrong diameter Q = AV Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Physics question that falls under the content category "Importance of fluids for the circulation of blood, gas movement, and gas exchange." The answer to this question is B because the volume flow rate is given by 2.5 × 104 µm2 × 0.30 mm/s = 7.5 × 106 µm3/s. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it asks you to determine and use scientific formulas to solve problems.

Given that the speed of sound in the rat tissues was 1500 m/s, the wavelength of the ultrasound wave used in the study was closest to:

A.34.5 mm.
B.6.5 mm.
C.1.5 mm.
D.0.65 mm.

write out numbers including scientific notation!! v = f(wavelength) Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Physics question that falls under the content category "How light and sound interact with matter." The answer to this question is D because the wavelength is given by (1500 m/s)/(2.3 MHz) = 0.65 mm. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it asks you to determine and use scientific formulas to solve problems.

Suppose that a blood vessel of cross-sectional area A carries microbubbles at a speed v into a capillary bed. If the capillary bed is made up of n capillaries, each with cross-sectional area a, with what speed will the blood flow in the capillary bed?

write out equations!!! Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Physics question that falls under the content category "Importance of fluids for the circulation of blood, gas movement, and gas exchange." The answer to this question is B because, according to the continuity equation, if u is the speed of flow in the capillary bed, then A × v = n × a × u, so u = A × v/(n × a). It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem-solving question because it asks you to determine and use scientific formulas to solve problems.

Which of the following animal pairs best illustrates the outcome of convergent evolution?

A.The dolphin and the shark
B.The domestic sheep and the mountain goat
C.The polar bear and the panda bear
D.The light-colored and the dark-colored forms of the peppered moth

Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of heritable information from generation to generation and the processes that increase genetic diversity." The answer to this question is A because convergent evolution is defined as a process whereby distantly related organisms independently evolve similar traits to adapt to similar needs. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires scientific evaluation of various animal traits in relation to convergent evolution.

According to the passage, relative to slow-twitch fibers, fast-twitch fibers are likely to exhibit which property?

A.Greater Ca2+-pumping capacity
B.Increased capillary density
C.More mitochondria
D.Higher levels of oxygen-binding proteins

read the passage!! said slow twitch rely on aerobic Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biochemistry question that falls under the content category "Principles of bioenergetics and fuel molecule metabolism." The answer to this question is A because according to the passage, slow-twitch fibers are adapted for aerobic exercise which suggests they are likely, relative to fast-twitch fibers, to have increased capillary density, larger numbers of mitochondria, and higher levels of oxygen-binding proteins. The names of the fibers themselves give insight into their relative rates of contraction. Thus, it is unlikely that slow-twitch fibers will have greater Ca2+-pumping capacity, than fast-twitch fibers. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires the evaluation of scientific explanations.

The Cgr1 and Cgr2 proteins are produced from:

A.separate mRNAs transcribed from different promoter sequences upstream of each gene.
B.a single mRNA transcribed from a single promoter sequence upstream of the operon.
C.a single RNA transcribed from a single promoter sequence and alternately spliced to produce separate mRNAs.
D.separate mRNAs translated from a single promoter upstream of the operon.

operon – A set of genes transcribed under the control of an operator gene. More specifically, an operon is a segment of DNA containing adjacent genes including structural genes, an operator gene, and a regulatory gene. An operon is thus a functional unit of transcription and genetic regulation. think lac operon and trp but they are single mRNAs Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is B because an operon containing two genes in prokaryotic cells is transcribed from a single promoter upstream of the first gene in the operon. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires scientific evaluation of the process that produces the Cgr1 and Cgr2 proteins.

Which action(s) could contribute to the positive inotropic effect of digoxin on cardiac myocytes?

Decrease transport of Ca2+ to the extracellular environment.
Increase availability of intracellular Ca2+ to bind to troponin.
Increase overall Ca2+ stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
A.II only
B.III only
C.I and II only
D.I, II, and III

Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and integrative functions of the main organ systems." The answer to this question is D because all of these actions will lead to an increase in intracellular calcium levels, resulting in enhancement of the contractile force of the heart. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires scientific evaluation of various scenarios to determine their outcomes.

HDACs change chromatin by:

A.decreasing its coiling and promoting DNA replication.
B.increasing its condensation and inhibiting transcription.
C.decreasing charge repulsion between acetyl groups, which increases transcription.
D.loosening the attachment of DNA to nucleosome core particles.

read the passage carefully Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is B because the passage states that HDACs counter the effects of histone acetyltransferases (HATs). As histone acetylation typically promotes transcription by modifying chromatin structure, HDACs would inhibit transcription by condensing chromatin structure. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires knowledge of how transcription can be altered by histone and chromatin modification.

The average osmotic pressure of ocean water is 28 atm corresponding to a concentration of 0.50 M solutes (approximated as NaCl). What is the approximate concentration of solutes (also approximated as NaCl) present in blood with an osmotic pressure of 7 atm?

A.0.12 M
B.0.25 M
C.2.0 M
D.3.5 M

Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a General Chemistry question that falls under the content category "Assemblies of molecules, cells, and groups of cells within single cellular and multicellular organisms." The answer to this question is A because osmotic pressure is directly proportional to solute concentration. Since the osmotic pressure of blood is one-fourth that of ocean water, the solute concentration is also one-fourth that of ocean water, or 0.25 × 0.50 M = 0.12 M. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires working with scientific models to solve a problem.

Why is the level of tubulin included in the Figure 2B?

A.Tubulin is used as a control to assess the total protein level in different samples.
B.Tubulin controls the expression of NDU in hypoxia and normoxia.
C.Tubulin is induced by hypoxia at the same time as NDU.
D.Tubulin expression is regulated by NDU.

got right, just remember Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Assemblies of molecules, cells, and groups of cells within single cellular and multicellular organisms." The answer to this question is A because expression levels of tubulin, a cytoskeletal protein, is stable under most conditions, including hypoxia. Therefore, it is often used as a loading control to ascertain an equal amount of protein loading in each lane. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because it requires reasoning about the reliability and validity of research results.

Which type(s) of restriction enzyme(s) can recognize the HIF binding sequence? A restriction enzyme that has:

a four-base recognition sequence
a six-base recognition sequence
an eight-base recognition sequence
A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.I and II only

got right, just remember in the passage: CCCCGGGC Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is D because only the CCCGGG within the HIF binding sequence is palindromic. Therefore, only a restriction enzyme that recognizes a four-base sequence or a six-base sequence can recognize this sequence within the HIF binding sequence. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because it requires reasoning about use of restriction enzymes in research.

Which statement best accounts for the hereditary transmission of SDH-linked paraganglioma in a parent specific manner? SDH is:

A.an imprinted gene.
B.a Y-linked gene.
C.an X-linked gene.
D.a tumor suppressor gene.

look up imprinted genes…??? Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Transmission of genetic information from the gene to the protein." The answer to this question is A because imprinted genes are expressed in a parent-specific manner. B is incorrect because based on the passage both sexes may carry the mutated allele. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires knowledge of regulation of gene expression.

Large amounts of protein are found in the urine of a patient. Based on this information, which portion of the nephron is most likely malfunctioning?

A.
Collecting duct
B.
Distal tubule
C.
Glomerulus
D.
Loop of Henle

this would have to do with where filtration would take place Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and integrative functions of the main organ systems." The answer to this question is C because in healthy individuals, the structure of the glomerular capillaries prevents the entry of large molecules, such as proteins, into the filtrate. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because it requires knowledge of the structure and function of the different parts of the mammalian excretory system.

The rate of a typical enzymatic reaction is increased by which of the following changes?

A.
Decrease in a substrate concentration
B.
Increase in pH from 6.8 to 7.4
C.
Increase in the energy of activation
D.
Increase in temperature from 20°C to 37°C

optimum temperature for enzymes is normally 37 °C also got confused – increase reaction by DECREASING activation energy Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Biology question that falls under the content category "Structure and function of proteins and their constituent amino acids." The answer to this question is D because while the optimum pH value varies greatly from one enzyme to another, the optimum temperature for enzymes is normally 37 °C. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it involves evaluation of the effects of each response option.

Which statement is the most reasonable explanation for the observation of intrusion errors in Study 2?

A.
False information was encoded.
B.
Memory is prospective.
C.
Memory is reconstructive.
D.
Repressed information was retrieved.

false memories, not false encoding, intrusion happens during recall, after encoding Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is C because intrusions of false information into episodic memories of events (referred to as false memories), which are consistent with the accurate information being recalled, are regarded as being due to retrieval of both episodic and generic information that is consistent with that type of event. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because the question involves drawing a conclusion about the cause of an empirical observation.

The finding from Study 3 regarding the differential effect of emotional arousal on memory for central and peripheral details is best explained by which mechanism? Increasing emotional arousal:

A.
causes a restriction of the focus of attention.
B.
improves memory, but only up to an optimal level of arousal.
C.
impairs the encoding of peripheral details.
D.
enhances the retrieval of encoded central details.

unless you have a really good reason to change your answer, stick with first impression!!!! Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is A because emotional arousal seems to focus a person’s attention on the central features of an event. The hypothesis (Easterbrook, 1959) that a person will notice information that elicits arousal, but fail to process other information, has been supported by studies in which memory for an (emotional) event’s "central" aspects (directly tied to the emotion elicitor) is compared to memory for "peripheral" aspects (removed from the source of the emotional arousal). Thus, memory for the fundamental gist of the emotional event is retained, whereas memory for details (if they are encoded at all) either fades or undergoes changes. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because the question involves the evaluation of different arguments regarding cause and effect.

Using the diagnostic criteria displayed in Figure 1 to classify individuals for treatment, which of the following statements is NOT supported?

A.
At baseline, participants in all three therapy groups had similar levels of moderately severe insomnia.
B.
Immediately after treatment, participants in all three therapy groups scored below the threshold for diagnosis for insomnia.
C.
Across all three therapy groups, average scores remained below threshold for diagnosis at the 6-month follow-up.
D.
All participants in the study scored below the threshold for diagnosis for insomnia after treatment.

got right, just remember comparing groups not individuals, mcat being tricky Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Making sense of the environment." The answer to this question is D because the findings represent group differences and changes rather than changes for individual participants. It is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question because the question requires you to recognize an inferential conclusion that is not justified by the evidence.

When designing a study to test the hypothesis that controlling for SES should reduce racial differences in stress, which data would a researcher be LEAST likely to include in an aggregate measure of SES?

A.
Occupational status
B.
Income sources
C.
Social capital
D.
Educational attainment

social capital in quicksheets, but MCAT says not that important was thinking just income (not source) mattered, but source can be important factor Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Sociology question that falls under the content category "Social inequality." The answer to this question is C because the only option among the four choices that is not directly related to measuring socioeconomic status (SES) is social capital, which refers to the benefits provided by social networks. The other options refer to the three main components of SES (occupation, income, and education). It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because the question involves understanding how SES is typically measured.

Based on the information presented in the passage, which correlation coefficient provides the best estimate of the association between SES and level of exposure to stress?

A.
-0.20
B.
-0.05
C.
+0.15
D.
+0.50

didn’t check passage, was just looking for higher correlation number ALWAYS check passage!!!!! Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Responding to the world." The answer to this question is A because the passage (last paragraph) implies a negative correlation between socioeconomic position and exposure to stress. The other negative correlation (B) can be ruled out, because it is very weak (and thus not likely to have the kind of disproportionate effect that is discussed in the passage). It is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question because the question involves understanding the relationship between the data described in the passage and the way those data may be described using a correlation coefficient.

The predictive models described in the final paragraph of the passage are most likely based on which assumption?

A.
Some psychosocial stressors will be perceived as out-group socialization.
B.
Exposure to some psychosocial stressors will be attributed to social identity.
C.
The health consequences of some behaviors will affect identity formation.
D.
The socioeconomic gradient in health will affect some minority groups.

in or out group is measured by group you belong to, they would not consider themselves an out group self-identity – group you associate with/belong to Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Sociology question that falls under the content category "Self-identity." The answer to this question is B because the passage describes the predictions of minority stress theoretical models, which suggest that the stressors of prejudice and discrimination will contribute to elevated levels of alcohol consumption among racial/ethnic minority group members. The question asks for an assumption that underlies this prediction. The link between prejudice, discrimination, and health rests, at least partly, on the assumption that individuals will attribute stressful experiences to their status as members of a racial/ethnic group (in other words, stressors will be linked to their social identity). It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because the question involves determining an assumption that underlies a prediction.

Which imaging technique is best suited for localizing brain areas, as described in the studies of neural activity (paragraph 3)?

A.
PET
B.
EEG
C.
MRI
D.
CT

neural activity – brain function PET is combination of structure and function. So you cross out CT and MRI for structure and then EEG because that would just show brain waves (epilepsy, damage) not activation or localization in one area which you can only do with PET or fMRI (blood flow and neuronal activation coupled) While PET scans aren’t the best for structure, they can "localize brain areas" "in the studies of neural activity" as the question asks because you can trace glucose use which will show you a specific brain region. EEG is just electrical signals. Solution: The correct answer is A. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Individual influences on behavior." The answer to this question is A because for studies focusing on activation (and thus brain function), a PET scan is the best imaging tool among those listed. The other choices are other techniques that are not specifically designed for measuring brain activation in particular regions. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because the question involves identification of the brain imaging technique that is best associated with the studies described in the relevant passage section.

Which statement CANNOT be concluded from Table 1?

A.
Americans’ confidence in religious institutions has declined from 1973 to 2013.
B.
More than 60% of Americans had a great deal or quite a lot of confidence in organized religion in 1973.
C.
The change in percentage of Americans who have very little confidence in organized religion between 1973 and 2013 is statistically significant.
D.
The change in percentage of Americans who have very little confidence in organized religion between 1973 and 2013 represents an overall increase.

always check for statistical significance!!!!! Solution: The correct answer is C. This is a Sociology question that falls under the content category "Understanding social structure." The answer to this question is C because the table does not indicate statistical significance. Thus, a conclusion cannot be made regarding whether the percentage increase is statistically significant. It is a Data-based and Statistical Reasoning question because the question involves understanding what information can be concluded from a table.

Which statement is NOT consistent with a conflict theoretical analysis of the findings in the passage?

A.
Religion is an instrument of social control.
B.
Religion helps to legitimate inequality in society.
C.
Religion encourages passive acceptance of material conditions.
D.
Religion helps to increase social solidarity.

Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Sociology question that falls under the content category "Understanding social structure." The answer to this question is D because it represents a functionalist understanding of religion, with the reference to social solidarity. The other options each articulate how a conflict theorist, focused on social control and social inequality, would view the role of religion in society. It is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because the question involves understanding how different theoretical perspectives would be applied to research findings.

Pairs of research participants interacted for 10 min. They rated themselves and their partners on personality traits and then rated the accuracy of their partners’ ratings of them. The partners’ ratings were rated as more accurate if they were close to participants’ own self-ratings. This finding illustrates:

A.
the self-fulfilling prophecy.
B.
self-verification.
C.
the self-serving bias.
D.
self-efficacy.

self-verification – need for others to see you as you see yourself The answer to this question is B because self-verification refers to the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with one’s self-concept.

The regulation of which neurotransmitter is implicated in the specific finding reported with Study 1?

A.
Acetylcholine
B.
GABA
C.
Endorphins
D.
Serotonin

got right, just remember key things about serotonin – think mood and food mood, aggression, appetite, intestinal movements Solution: The correct answer is D. This is a Psychology question that falls under the content category "Individual influences on behavior." The answer to this question is D because the specific finding from Study 1 states that aggression and oppositional behaviors had the strongest association with the risk of hunger. Serotonin is involved in the regulation of both mood (specifically, aggression) and appetite (it is also used to regulate intestinal movements). The distractors are other neurotransmitters that are not specifically involved in the hunger drive, mood, or aggressive behavior. It is a Knowledge of Scientific Concepts and Principles question because the question involves understanding how different neurotransmitters are involved in motivation, emotion, behavior, etc.

Which response represents a symbolic interactionist’s interpretation of the research findings in the passage?

A.
The spike in holiday deaths is part of the natural cycle of increased deaths during the winter season.
B.
The practices and rituals of the holiday celebrations are in some way correlated with the spike in holiday deaths.
C.
Travel during the holiday season increases external environmental factors than can lead to an overall spike in cardiac deaths.
D.
The spike in holiday cardiac deaths is related to macro-structural factors that are exacerbated during the holidays.

got right, just remember A – biological B – symbolic interactionism C – functionalism D – macro Solution: The correct answer is B. This is a Sociology question that falls under the content category "Understanding social structure." The answer to this question is B because symbolic interactionism is most directly related to studying social practices and rituals. The other options represent different theoretical perspectives (A is purely biological, C represents functionalism, and D represents a macro-sociological perspective). It is Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because the question involves applying a theory to understand the findings from a study.