MKT 3010 Ch. 15-20 Lecture Videos & Applied Activities

c

Which of the following is a transactional function of intermediaries? a) inspecting, testing, or judging products and assigning them quality grades b) providing marketing information to customers and suppliers c) contacting potential customers, promoting products, and seeking orders d) purchasing in large quantities and breaking into smaller amounts desired by customers e) creating product assortments from several sources to serve customers

c

Which of the following is a facilitating function of intermediaries? a) physically moving a product to customers b) purchasing products for resale or acting as an agent for the supply of a product c) extending credit to customers d) assembling products at a convenient location to offer better customer service e) contacting potential customers, promoting products, and seeking orders

d

______________ utility involves enhancing a product or service to make it more appealing to buyers. a) Product b) Time c) Place d) Form e) Possession

0

Dare Denims Inc. is a retail company that displays all its manufactured products on the company website. Customers can choose from the displayed products and place their orders. The products will then be delivered to them by the company’s logistics team. How many intermediary levels operate in the company’s marketing channel? a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4

e

A strategic channel alliance is defined as an arrangement whereby: a) a firm maintains its own salesforce and performs all channel functions by itself. b) a firm tries to place its products in as many retail outlets as possible. c) channel conflicts are resolved by a channel captain. d) consumers can buy products without a face-to-face meeting with a salesperson. e) one firm’s marketing channel is used to sell another firm’s products.

c

Which of the following is true of vertical marketing systems? a) Forward integration is a practice followed in contractual vertical marketing systems. b) Franchising is an example of an administered vertical marketing arrangement. c) Wholesaler-sponsored voluntary chains are contractual vertical marketing systems. d) Retailers own manufacturers in all corporate vertical marketing systems. e) Producers own retailers in all corporate vertical marketing systems.

b

A local soft-drink manufacturer stocks it products in as many stores as possible in the state where it operates. It has an internal team to ensure good relationships with the different retailers who sell its product, and also constantly tries to get more retailers to sell its product. In this case, which of the following does the company use to cover its target market? a) selective distribution b) intensive distribution c) backward integration d) forward integration e) exclusive distribution

b

A horizontal conflict is most likely to occur in a marketing channel if: a) intermediaries fail to give adequate attention to a manufacturer’s products. b) a manufacturer increases its distribution coverage in a geographical area. c) different types of retailers carry different brands. d) disagreements arise over distribution of profit margins among channel members. e) a channel member bypasses another channel member in the same marketing channel.

e

A channel captain is defined as a channel member that: a) owns a member at the next level down in the channel. b) competes with other members at the same level for influence or profits. c) has the weakest financial position in a marketing channel. d) holds a franchise agreement with another member in the channel. e) coordinates, directs, and supports other channel members.

e

Which of the following is the first step in choosing a supply chain configuration? a) understanding the supply chain b) harmonizing the supply chain with a marketing strategy c) determining the intermediaries in a distribution channel d) resolving conflicts in a supply chain e) understanding the customer

a

The objective of logistics management in a supply chain is to minimize total logistics costs while a) delivering the appropriate level of customer service. b) effectively managing the practice of forward integration. c) exclusively distributing goods and services. d) selectively distributing goods and services. e) intensively distributing goods and services.

e

_____________ is a process of reclaiming recyclable and reusable materials, returns, and reworks from the point of consumption or use for repair, remanufacturing, redistribution, or disposal. a) Selective distribution b) Exclusive distribution c) Inventory control d) Yield management e) Reverse logistics

b

As Starbucks expands in Chile, the company wants store décor and paper goods used to be controlled by ________. a) franchisees b) Starbucks corporation c) licensed Starbucks owners

b

Starbucks wants future stores in Chile to serve: a) locally grown coffee to support local business. b) imported, roasted coffee from Starbucks only. c) imported, roasted coffee from a variety of vendors.

b

Starbucks puts a major focus on: a) an experience designed by franchise owners. b) a consistent experience from store to store. c) a local vibe that varies store layout and furnishings.

a

______________ is not an important factor for Starbucks’ expansion in Chile. a) Expanding more rapidly b) Corporate-controlled store design c) Limiting channel conflict

c

Starbucks wants to make sure that ____________ has/have the most brand control. a) licensed Starbucks owners b) franchisees c) the Starbucks corporation

e

When Jeff Bezos founded Amazon.com in 1994, he was laying the foundation for the world’s largest _______________, because Amazon.com uses the Internet to make its products and services available to its consumers. a) indirect marketing channel b) electronic communication channel c) electronic production channel d) multichannel marketing channel e) electronic marketing channel

a

Amazon creates many utilities for its customers, but perhaps the most valuable utility for consumers is ____________, the utility created by having the offerings available where consumers need it, on Amazon.com! a) place b) time c) possession d) form e) purchase

b

To improve its inventory turnover, Amazon shares purchasing forecasts and sales information with its suppliers to ensure that the right amount of the right product arrives at the right place at the lowest possible cost. When Amazon and its suppliers work together to move a product from the source of raw materials to consumption it is an example of ____________. a) intensive distribution b) logistics c) selective distribution d) disintermediation e) channel captaining

b

Amazon and its suppliers have an intense focus on cost and efficiency in the supply chain with a goal of creating ____________ for consumers. a) greater customer service b) lower prices c) possession utility d) higher prices e) narrower selection

a

Shoppers on Amazon.com have differing needs that must be satisfied during the exchange which often include the need for information, convenience, variety, and/or pre- or postsale services. These needs are collectively referred to as ___________. a) buyer requirements b) exchange parameters c) distribution intensity d) dual distribution e) seller requirements

a

A student goes onto Amazon.com to purchase a biology textbook that was published by McGraw-Hill Higher Education and then sold to Amazon through a book wholesaler. In this marketing channel, Amazon.com would best be classified as a __________. a) virtual retailer b) wholesaler c) bricks and mortar retailer d) manufacturer e) supplier

a

One of the major drawbacks of online shopping is the lack of instant gratification because consumers must wait for their products to be delivered. One of Amazon’s recent innovations is the development of unmanned aerial drones that allow Amazon to provide its customers with faster delivery service, in some cases 30 minute delivery. This innovation in supply chain management serves as an example of innovation driven by an understanding of the ___________. a) customer b) wholesalers c) manufacturers d) stakeholders e) cost structure

b

_____ includes all activities involved in selling, renting, and providing products and services to ultimate consumers for personal, family, or household use. a) Wholesaling b) Retailing c) Manufacturing d) Branding e) Advertising

b

Which of the following statements is true of retailing? a) Status is one of the utilities provided by retailers. b) Time is one of the utilities provided by retailers. c) Retailing creates no value for customers. d) Retailing includes only the actions involved in renting products to customers. e) Producers and suppliers meet through retailing actions.

a

Which of the following utilities is offered by most retailers in varying degrees? a) time b) task c) information d) service e) status

e

_______________ involve multiple outlets under common ownership. a) Contractual systems b) Independent retailers c) Wholesale systems d) Franchises e) Corporate chains

a

E-kart, a nationwide chain of retail stores, deals with only electronic household appliances. It sells a wide variety of electronic products, ranging from washing machines to personal care appliances, and the products are generally expensive. E-kart is most likely a a) single-line store. b) scrambled merchandise store. c) category killer. d) unlimited-line store. e) general merchandise store.

a

Stores that carry a broad product line, with limited depth, are referred to as: a) general merchandise stores. b) limited-line stores. c) specialty merchandise stores. d) category killers. e) single-line stores.

d

______________ is also known as door-to-door retailing. a) Direct-mail and catalog retailing b) Television home shopping c) Online retailing d) Direct selling e) Telemarketing

c

Which of the following statements is true of direct-mail and catalog retailing? a) It involves personal interaction and demonstration in consumers’ homes. b) It decreases marketing efficiency. c) It eliminates the cost of a store and clerks. d) It is also known as door-to-door retailing. e) It uses telephones to sell directly to consumers.

a

________________ is possible when consumers watch a shopping channel in which products are displayed and then place orders over the telephone or the Internet. a) Television home shopping b) Direct-mail and catalog retailing c) Direct selling d) Automatic vending e) Telemarketing

d

_________________ includes all activities related to managing a store and the merchandise in the store. a) Shopper marketing b) Wholesaling c) Retail communication d) A retailing mix e) A marketing mix

e

Which of the following statements is true of retail pricing? a) Discounting a product is referred to as markup. b) Retailers must decide only on the markup while setting prices. c) Markup is the process of removing products that do not sell at their original prices. d) Taking a markdown refers to increasing the price on a product. e) The timing of a markdown greatly affects sales.

c

____________________ refers to the use of displays, coupons, product samples, and other brand communications to influence consumer behavior in a store. a) Drop shipping b) Store-location management c) Shopper marketing d) Category management e) Multichannel retailing

d

Which of the following statements is true of the wheel of retailing? a) Older retail outlets usually face competition from high-status, low-margin stores. b) Retail outlets usually enter a market as high-status, high-margin stores. c) According to the wheel of retailing, retail outlets usually reduce their prices with time. d) It explains the continual change observed in retail businesses. e) It explains how retail outlets structure their branding and communication efforts.

b

Which of the following statements is true of the retail life cycle? a) It explains how a retail outlet enters a market. b) It represents the changes in a retailer’s market share over time. c) It explains the competition faced by retail outlets from high-status stores. d) According to the retail life cycle, retail outlets enter a market as high-margin stores. e) Retailers experience maximum profits in the accelerated-development stage.

e

According to the retail life cycle, which of the following retail outlets is most likely in the accelerated development stage? a) value-retail centers b) fast-food outlets c) online retailers d) department stores e) single-price stores

c

Which of the following types of wholesalers carries a broad assortment of merchandise and performs all channel functions? a) cash and carry wholesalers b) specialty merchandise wholesalers c) full-line wholesalers d) truck jobbers e) rack jobbers

d

____________________ work for several producers and carry noncompetitive, complementary merchandise in an exclusive territory. a) Truck jobbers b) Full-line wholesalers c) Desk jobbers d) Manufacturer’s agents e) Rack jobbers

a

________________ are independent firms or individuals whose principal function is to bring buyers and sellers together to make sales. a) Brokers b) Truck jobbers c) Drop shippers d) Agents e) Rack jobbers

c

The Mall of America, while located in chilly Minneapolis, MN, is located at the intersection of major freeways, with easy access to a major airport in a thriving metropolitan area. Store location is to the retailing mix as __________ is to the marketing mix. a) publicity b) product c) place d) price e) promotion

b

The Mall of America is currently more than 4.87 million square feet and has more than 400 stores—with plans for expansion. With its large size and diverse retail offerings, the Mall of America would best be classified as a(n) ______________. a) power center b) regional shopping center c) multichannel retailer d) central business district e) strip mall

d

To keep consumers coming to the Mall of America from around the world, mall management must ensure that the retail offerings at the mall include a mix of national department stores and specialty retail. The mix of retailers at the Mall reflects the ______ element of the retailing mix. a) shopper marketing b) retail pricing c) store location d) merchandise e) retail communication

a

In the retail positioning matrix, the Mall of America would be positioned in the _________ breadth of product line, and _________ value added quadrant. a) broad, high b) broad, low c) narrow, high d) medium, low e) narrow, low

c

To compete with the convenience of online retail, the Mall of America offers a mix of sit-down dining, fast casual, and fast food dining choices. The various dining experiences are a ____________ for Mall of America as compared to online malls. a) source of parity b) multichannel offering c) point of differentiation d) wholesale distribution

a

The Mall of America utilizes _____________ as it combines the traditional elements of promotion including advertising, social media, and personal selling with functional and psychological elements to position the mall and create its high-end image. a) retail communication b) merchandise c) retail pricing d) shopper marketing e) retail location

d

To create ____________ utility for her customers, Martha decides to open the Coffee Collective close to the college campus. a) time b) directive c) possession d) place e) form

d

The Coffee Collective, a(n) ______________, is the most common form of retail ownership. a) corporate chain b) self-service retailer c) contractual system d) independent retailer e) limited retailer

c

Decisions by the Coffee Collective regarding which type of organic dog biscuit to offer is an example of which retail mix component? a) Communication b) People c) Merchandise d) Pricing e) Location

c

When Martha was starting the Coffee Collective, she purchased the right furniture—painted with certain colors, hired the right employees, and is now selling appropriate snacks. These are all examples of which component of the retail mix? a) People b) Pricing c) Communication d) Location e) Merchandise

a

When measuring the effectiveness of her retailing strategy, Martha decides to measure the sales per square foot, which is calculated by dividing ______________ by selling area in square feet. a) total sales b) discounted sales c) total visits d) lead to close ratio e) consumer traffic

c

Which of the following statements is true of the communication process? a) A response is the impact a message has had on a sender’s knowledge. b) Consumers who read, see, or hear a message constitute the source. c) Feedback is a sender’s interpretation of a response. d) While decoding, a sender transforms a set of ideas into symbols. e) While encoding, a receiver transforms a set of symbols into an idea.

b

Encoding is the process in which: a) a sender interprets a response from a receiver. b) a sender transforms an idea into a set of symbols. c) a receiver sends a response to a sender. d) receivers of a message align their frame of reference with that of a sender. e) a receiver transforms symbols back to an idea.

a

In a communication process, ____________ consists of extraneous factors that can work against effective communication by distorting a message. a) noise b) a response c) feedback d) a feedback loop e) a field of experience

b

Which of the following elements of the promotional mix is a form of customized interaction? a) advertising on the radio b) public relations c) sales promotion d) advertising on television e) direct marketing

b

Which of the following is an advantage of advertising? a) It contains no absolute costs. b) It can reach large numbers of people. c) Feedback can be received immediately. d) Messages can be developed and adapted quickly. e) It facilitates customized interaction.

e

Which of the following is a disadvantage of personal selling? a) It cannot be used to give complex information b) The feedback is delayed. c) It is not very persuasive. d) One cannot control to whom a presentation is made. e) It is very expensive.

c

Which of the following is true of a firm’s promotional mix? a) A target audience does not affect the balance of elements in the promotional mix. b) A lot of money is spent in the promotional mix in the decline stage of a product. c) Coordinating a consistent promotional effort is necessary. d) The composition of the promotional mix remains constant across the product life cycle. e) The promotional mix is independent of the channel strategies for a product.

c

Informing consumers in an effort to increase their level of awareness is the primary promotional objective in the ___________ stage of the product life cycle. a) end b) decline c) introduction d) maturity e) growth

d

Which of the following is true of channel strategies? a) A push strategy directs the promotional mix at ultimate consumers. b) In a push strategy, the flow of demand stimulation is from consumers to manufacturers. c) A pull strategy directs the promotional mix to channel members. d) A pull strategy encourages consumers to ask retailers for a product. e) In a pull strategy, the flow of demand stimulation is from manufacturers to consumers.

e

Which of the following steps occurs in the implementation stage of the promotion decision process? a) identifying the target audience b) selecting the right promotional tools c) setting the budget for a promotion d) designing a promotion e) pretesting the promotion

e

Which of the following is the best approach for setting a promotion budget? a) competitive parity budgeting b) the all-you-can-afford budgeting method c) the percentage-of-sales budgeting approach d) trail budgeting e) objective and task budgeting

a

Which of the following steps occurs in the evaluation stage of the promotion decision process? a) making needed changes to a promotion b) pretesting a promotion c) scheduling a promotion d) specifying the objectives for a promotion e) identifying the target audience for a promotion

c

________________ are the result of offers that contain all the information necessary for a prospective buyer to make a decision to purchase and complete the transaction. a) Quotations b) Lead magnets c) Direct orders d) Prospects e) Leads

b

_____________ is the result of an offer designed to generate interest in a product or service and a request for additional information. a) Motivation generation b) Lead generation c) A direct order d) A limited order e) Traffic generation

d

Which of the following is true of direct marketing? a) The effect of direct marketing is similar in all countries. b) Databases are the results of organizations’ efforts to create employee profiles. c) Most marketers want the ability to generalize communication efforts. d) Information technology has greatly influenced direct marketing. e) There are no privacy concerns in direct marketing.

a

Which of the following should the shop owners do first before they decide on a promotional program? a) Identify the target audience. b) Schedule the promotions. c) Pretest the promotions.

b

To accomplish a successful repositioning of the brand, Taco Bell needed to inform its consumers that Taco Bell food should be thought of as an experience rather than as just fuel. In the communication process, Taco Bell would be the __________ and the consumer would be the ___________. a) encoder, decoder b) source, receiver c) source, decoder d) message, receiver e) encoder, receiver

e

During the creative process, Taco Bell considered a number of different slogans, finally setting on Live Mas! The Live Mas! campaign reinforces Taco Bell’s position as a dynamic brand whose customers enjoy experiencing the world and trying things first. Live Mas! is Taco Bell’s _____________ in the communication process. a) channel of communication b) noise c) response d) feedback e) message

e

When communicating with its target audience, Taco Bell considered each of its ___________ including social media channels, packaging, point of purchase displays, and advertising. These places of contact between a firm and its customers are critical elements for building an integrated marketing communication plan. a) products b) sources c) noises d) traffic generators e) touch points

e

As part of its integrated marketing communication strategy, Taco Bell utilized commercials aired during the Super Bowl. This form of ___________ has an extremely large reach and hefty price tag. a) direct marketing b) sales promotion c) public relations d) personal selling e) advertising

a

To give consumers an incentive to try its new Doritos Locos Tacos, Taco Bell gave out free samples of the new tacos to its customers. The free Doritos Locos tacos giveaway is an example of ________. a) sales promotion b) direct marketing c) public relations d) personal selling e) advertising

c

Taco Bell allocates its promotional budget to 70% traditional media, which includes television advertising; 20% to digital media, which includes website development; and 10% to new media channels. The fact that the message consumers receive is the same regardless of which channel delivers it reflects Taco Bell’s dedication to ___________. a) lead generation b) push strategies c) integrated marketing communications d) promotional budgeting e) hierarchy of effects

b

Twitter, Facebook, Vine, Instagram, and Snapchat were all utilized to engage customers during the Doritos Locos Tacos introduction as part of the _______________ component of the campaign. a) sales promotion b) social media c) public relations d) direct selling e) promotional mix

d

Which of the following types of advertisements tell people what a product is, what it can do, and where it can be found? a) comparative advertisements b) advocacy advertisements c) reminder advertisements d) pioneering advertisements e) competitive advertisements

d

Which of the following types of advertisements state the position of a company on an issue? a) pioneering institutional advertisements b) competitive institutional advertisements c) comparative advertisements d) advocacy advertisements e) reminder institutional advertisements

…

Which of the following types of advertisements intends to simply bring the company’s name to the attention of the target market again? a) pioneering institutional advertisements b) advocacy advertisements c) comparative institutional advertisements d) competitive advertisements e) reminder institutional advertisements

b

Which of the following steps generally occurs after an advertising program has been developed? a) The advertising budget is prepared. b) The advertisement copy is pretested. c) The advertising medium is selected. d) The advertisement is scheduled for airing. e) The target audience is identified.

e

Which of the following tests is a pretest? a) an inquiry test b) an attitude test c) a sales test d) an aided test e) a jury test

b

Which of the following steps is carried out to evaluate an advertising program? a) pretesting the advertising copy b) posttesting the advertisement c) scheduling the advertisement d) designing the advertisement e) setting the advertisement budget

e

Which of the following is an advantage of using television as a medium for advertising? a) It is an inexpensive medium. b) The messages on television have long exposure times. c) It is easy to convey complex material through television. d) The messages are imperishable and permanent. e) It can help advertisers target a specific audience.

c

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using newspapers for advertising? a) They have poor reach potential in local markets. b) It takes a long time to place an ad in a newspaper. c) The messages on newspapers have a short life span. d) Consumers usually take a long time to respond to ads in newspapers. e) It is expensive to place ads in newspapers.

e

Which of the following is a disadvantage of outdoor advertising? a) It has poor visibility. b) There are no opportunities for repeat exposure. c) It is expensive. d) There is a lack of focus on local markets. e) Advertising copy needs to be short.

c

_________________ are a sales promotion tool used to encourage and reward repeat purchases by acknowledging each purchase made by a consumer and offering a premium as purchases accumulate. a) Product placements b) Contests c) Loyalty programs d) Sweepstakes e) Deals

a

_________________ are sales promotions that require participants to submit some kind of entry but are purely games of chance requiring no analytical or creative effort by the consumer. a) Sweepstakes b) Loyalty programs c) Deals d) Product placements e) Premiums

e

_______________ are best defined as advertising programs by which a manufacturer pays a percentage of the retailer’s local advertising expense for advertising the manufacturer’s products. a) Product advertising b) Reminder advertising c) Institutional advertising d) Competitive advertising e) Cooperative advertising

e

_________________ are methods of obtaining nonpersonal presentation of an organization, product, or service without direct cost. a) Sales tools b) Trade promotions c) Cooperative advertising d) Sales promotions e) Publicity tools

e

_______________ is a form of communication management that seeks to influence the image of an organization and its products and services. a) Cooperative advertising b) Subcontracting c) Forward buying d) Benchmarking e) Public relations

e

Identify the accurate statement regarding self-regulation. a) It promotes single transactions to improve profits for a company. b) It maximizes regulatory constraints and regulations. c) It discourages the development of new promotional standards. d) It involves exclusively using public service announcements for promotion. e) It involves imposing standards on promotional activities that reflect the values of society.

c

Blue Ginger Multi-grain Blue Rice Chips are in the _________ stage of the product life cycle. a) decline b) maturity c) introduction

a

The primary goal for the Blue Ginger Multi-grain Blue Rice Chips campaign should be: a) to inform. b) to persuade. c) to remind.

b

Blue Ginger Multi-grain Blue Rice Chips would be considered a ___________ for Kellogg’s. a) complementary product b) new product c) replacement product d) replacement product

b

The Blue Ginger Multi-grain Blue Rice Chips advertisement would be classified as a(n): a) institutional advertisement. b) product advertisement. c) corporate advertisement.

b

Advertisers want to have an understanding about the number of different people or households exposed to their advertisement. In other words, they want to know about the ad’s ___________. a) frequency b) reach c) rating d) gross margin

c

As pointed out in the video, the idea of getting the right ad, at the right time, for the right user, in the moment when he or she is most interested in that topic is the key to the success of _____________. a) newspaper advertising b) television commercials c) search advertising d) radio advertising

a

As advertisers manage their interactive marketing communications (IMC) programs, they can compare the effectiveness of the various types of advertising available by calculating _________ which refers to the cost of reaching 1,000 individuals or households with the advertising message in a given medium. a) cost per thousand b) cost per click c) overall cost d) cost per medium

d

Google AdWords functions much like direct response marketing because AdWords asks that customers take action by clicking on an advertisement. This response is similar to that required with __________. a) magazines b) newspapers c) yellow pages d) infomercials

a

Online advertising has the unique feature of being interactive; the use of drop-down menus, built-in games, or search engines that engage viewers are excellent examples of __________. a) rich media b) flexible media c) raw media d) frequency media

e

When the Coffee Collective purchases advertisements on the radio announcing its new patio for dog-loving coffee drinkers, this would be a form of _________ advertisement. a) competitive b) bandwagon c) demonstration d) reminder e) informational

e

A(n) _____________ is a web page that serves as a publicly accessible personal journal and online forum for an individual or organization. a) wiki b) virtual social world c) virtual game world d) e-commerce portal e) blog

b

When a social medium is impersonal, it is said to be low in: a) credibility b) self-disclosure. c) social authority. d) permanence. e) expense and access.

c

Which of the following social media is low in media richness? a) virtual social worlds b) social networking sites c) collaborative projects d) virtual game worlds e) content communities

a

_______________ is a website that enables users to send and receive messages not more than 140 characters long. a) Twitter b) Facebook c) YouTube d) LinkedIn e) Pinterest

e

_____________ is a business-oriented website that lets users post their professional profiles to connect to a network of businesspeople. a) Twitter b) Facebook c) Pinterest d) Wikipedia e) LinkedIn

a

_______________ is used by marketing managers mainly for business-to-business image building and networking with industry-related groups. a) LinkedIn b) YouTube c) Facebook d) Twitter e) Wikipedia

c

When traditional media are used in advertising communications, a) word-of-mouth communication is absent. b) there is multiway communication between a sender and a receiver. c) communications generally end with the receiver. d) there is a completely different strategic marketing process compared to social media. e) the goal is to receive messages from active receivers about the joys of using a brand.

c

Which of the following statements is true of the use of social media in brand communications? a) Brand managers always use only one social medium for promoting their brand. b) It deliberately seeks to ensure that a message ends with an individual receiver. c) It is used to reach active receivers, who will then become brand evangelists. d) It generally uses one-way communication from sender to receiver. e) It uses a completely different strategic marketing process compared to traditional media.

a

In the context of social media, evangelists are those who: a) send messages to friends and advertisers about the joys of using a brand. b) do not receive generally any messages from advertisers on social media. c) are technology-illiterate and are yet to embrace social media. d) write and preach about the ill-effects of technology. e) work as brand managers and try to promote and advertise their brands on social media.

e

The ______________ measure ties to the number of times an ad loads and a user might see it, but not whether the user has actually reacted to it. a) cost per visitor b) cost per click c) cost per action d) cost per ad e) cost per thousand

c

Which of the following is true of performance measures linked to inputs or costs? a) The cost per thousand measure points to the actual sales made by an advertiser. b) The cost per click measure ties to the number of times an ad loads. c) The cost per action measure ties loosely to actual sales. d) There are four performance measures for social networks linked mainly to inputs or costs. e) The cost per action measure gives the rate to be paid for every click on an ad.

a

The ______________ measure ties loosely to actual sales and most closely ties the cost of a social media ad to the sales revenues the ad generates. a) cost per action b) cost per ad c) cost per click d) cost per thousand e) cost per visitor

b

A ________________ is a computer-based network that triggers actions by sensing changes in the real or digital world. a) social system b) smart system c) social networking site d) social medium e) database system

a

Which of the following is a smartphone app that has resulted from a rise in mobile marketing? a) loyalty programs b) content management programs c) virtual games d) tweets e) customer-based promotions

b

_______________ is an example of a marketing activity conducted through personal mobile devices to which consumers are connected individually and continuously. a) Horizontal integration b) Mobile marketing c) Soft power promotion d) Telemarketing e) Megamarketing

c

One key criterion for selecting social networks is the number of daily visitors to the website. When comparing LinkedIn traffic to Facebook traffic, we find that LinkedIn has _____________ unique daily visitors when compared to Facebook. a) about the same b) many more c) significantly fewer

a

The average age of the University of Phoenix graduate student is 36 years old. Which social media network’s age demographic profile more closely aligns with the target audience for the University of Phoenix graduate school? a) LinkedIn b) There is insufficient information to answer this question c) Facebook

b

The percentage of LinkedIn users with bachelor’s degrees is ___________ the percentage of Facebook users with bachelor’s degrees. a) about half b) more than twice c) approximately the same

c

Criteria for selecting a social network often includes an analysis of the characteristics of the site visitors. Since the Phoenix MBA is expensive, which social network site is able to attract a greater percentage of visitors with sufficient income to pay for the program? a) There is no difference in the income levels of Facebook and LinkedIn visitors b) Facebook c) LinkedIn

c

A third criterion utilized to select social networks for advertising purposes is the focus of the website. Given the product being marketed—the online Masters of Business Administration—which social network would likely attract visitors who would be interested in the program? a) Facebook b) Twitter c) LinkedIn

e

Social media sites like StuffDOT are often classified based on two factors; self-disclosure and ___________, which is the degree of acoustic, visual, and personal contact between two communication partners. a) capture rate b) media responsiveness c) involvement d) interactivity e) media richness

a

As consumers Dot and comment on items that they like on StuffDOT, they are creating _______, a form of online media publicly available and created by StuffDOT consumers. a) user-generated content b) webmaster-generated content c) blog-generated content d) algorithm-generated content e) community-generated content

d

To ensure that as many users as possible could utilize StuffDOT’s platform on the go, a user-friendly _______ was developed for both Android and iOS operating systems. a) human interface b) Twitter account c) LinkedIn site d) mobile app e) Facebook page

e

To gauge the popularity of the content on StuffDOT, marketing managers closely monitors the content’s ___________, the number of people who buy, share, or click on the stuff users have dotted. a) visitors b) share of voice c) fans d) unique visitors e) interaction rate

e

In order to effectively classify social media channels and locate the right channel to increase overall influence, Green Team needs to understand the type of social interaction and the media ____________, which is the degree of personal contact between the organization and potential members. a) extent b) depth c) method d) type e) richness

d

If Young Explorers realizes that Gabbie reacts better to social media than traditional marketing methods because of the ability to post relevant messages instantaneously, this would represent which difference between traditional and social media platforms? a) Access b) Permanence c) Social authority d) Time to delivery e) Credibility

a

If Green Team wants to understand the costs associated with simply building awareness within the student body, which of the following metrics would it use? a) Cost per thousand (CPM) b) Cost per click (CPC) c) Visitor frequency rate (VFR) d) Cost per action (CPA) e) Average engagement cost (AEC)

e

If Young Explorers wants to only pay for those marketing initiatives that are successful in building the size of its membership, which of the following metrics would it use? a) Visitor frequency rate (VFR) b) Cost per thousand (CPM) c) Average engagement cost (AEC) d) Cost per click (CPC) e) Cost per action (CPA)

b

The ____________ of the real and digital worlds will allow both student groups to actively engage students through the increasingly popular use of mobile marketing techniques. a) separation b) convergence c) coexistence d) divergence e) internalization

e

Which of the following best defines personal selling? a) It is the practice of using publicity tools to build a positive image of a company. b) It is the process of evaluating the selling effort of a firm. c) It is the process of assessing the salesforce of a company using behavioral evaluation. d) It is the process of developing advertising campaigns to reach a target audience. e) It is the interaction between a buyer and seller that influences purchase decisions.

b

Which of the following is true of personal selling? a) Salespeople are the critical links between a firm and its marketing team. b) Salespeople represent what a company is or attempts to be. c) Salespeople only give information about a product, but they do not sell the product. d) Personal selling can take place only in a face-to-face meeting. e) Personal selling involves a one-way communication from a seller to a buyer.

c

______________ is defined as the practice of building ties to customers based on a salesperson’s attention and commitment to customer needs over time. a) Behavioral evaluation b) Salesforce organization c) Relationship selling d) Cooperative advertising e) Salesforce automation

c

An ___________ is a salesperson who visits customers and replenish inventory stocks of resellers, such as retailers or wholesalers. a) inside order giver b) inside order taker c) outside order taker d) inside order getter e) outside order getter

b

Which of the following is true of order getters? a) They do little selling in a conventional sense. b) They persuade customers to buy and follow up on customers’ use of a product or service. c) Their primary job function is to answer simple questions and take orders from customers. d) They visit customers and replenish inventory stocks of resellers. e) They process routine reorders for products that were already sold by a company.

b

Which of the following forms of team selling involves a salesperson and other company resource people meeting with buyers to discuss problems and opportunities? a) Seminar selling b) Conference selling c) Relationship selling d) Enterprise selling e) Partnership selling

b

The _____ stage of the personal selling process involves the initial meeting between a salesperson and a prospect, where the objectives are to gain the prospect’s attention, stimulate interest, and build the foundation for the sales presentation itself and the basis for a working relationship. a) presentation b) approach c) prospecting d) preapproach e) follow-up

c

The __________ presentation format assumes that given the appropriate stimulus by a salesperson, the prospect will buy. a) adaptive selling b) non-suggestive selling c) stimulus-response d) consultative selling e) canned sales

d

In the personal selling process, a(n) ___________ involves asking a prospect to make a decision on some aspect of the purchase. a) follow-up close b) neutral close c) urgency close d) trial close e) assumptive close

e

_________________ is conducted using qualitative assessments and behavioral evaluation. a) Salesforce recruitment and selection b) Salesforce training c) Salesplan formulation d) Salesforce motivation e) Salesforce evaluation

d

The three tasks that are generally involved in sales plan formulation are setting objectives, organizing the salesforce, and: a) identifying prospects. b) conducting quantitative and behavioral assessments of salespeople. c) formulating a sales quota. d) developing account management policies. e) compensating the salesforce.

e

________________ is defined as the practice of using team selling to focus on important customers so as to build mutually beneficial, long-term, cooperative relationships. a) Stimulus-response selling b) Benchmarking c) Adaptive selling d) Consultative selling e) Key account management

c

The primary responsibility of the salesperson in Pulte’s presentation stage should be: a) engaging in suggestive selling. b) delivering a standardized sales presentation. c) asking questions and listening.

c

In the need-satisfaction presentation format, who should do the majority of the talking during the presentation stage? a) The sales manager b) The sales associate c) The prospective customer

a

Which presentation format emphasizes asking probing questions and listening to responses to identify the needs and interests of prospective buyers? a) need-satisfaction presentation b) stimulus-response presentation c) formula selling presentation

a

The ideal sales presentation would be highly ________________ to meet customers’ diverse needs. a) customized b) scripted c) standardized

a

The Pulte sales presentation format should emphasize: a) only the aspects that interest the customer. b) Pulte’s strengths and weaknesses. c) all aspects in which Pulte can potentially assist the customer.

c

_______________ involves the two-way flow of information between a buyer and seller, often in a face-to-face encounter, designed to influence the purchase decision. a) Advertising b) Public relations c) Personal selling d) Publicity

b

Unlike the other major presentation formats, in the _______________ format the salesperson does not dominate the conversation but instead asks probing questions and listens to the prospective customers. a) canned presentation b) need-satisfaction c) suggestive selling d) stimulus-response

a

The client, Don Kennedy, informed Alison that price was a primary concern for his firm. Therefore, during her sales call, Alison must: a) handle this objection. b) qualify the prospect. c) pre-approach the client. d) obtain a purchase commitment.

d

Within its geographic regions, Xerox implements vertical sales teams that focus on a specific segment, such as law firms, governmental institutions, etc. This _____________ sales organization enables its sales associates to better understand the customer’s business challenges and problems. a) matrix b) product c) functional d) customer

c

Xerox uses a formal training program that includes classroom training and assigning a mentor to newer sales representatives. Salesforce training is part of the _______ function of sales management. a) salesforce motivation and compensation b) organizing c) sales plan implementation d) sales plan formulation

a

In order for Hope Springs to effectively sell its bottled water, the company needs to be effective at ________, which is the practice of building ties to customers through a salesperson’s attention and commitment to customer needs over time. a) relationship selling b) customer development c) sales management d) science selling e) direct selling

d

Ju Li believes that her sales force should sell in a conventional sense by identifying prospective clients, such as the Coffee Collective, providing them with information, persuading them to buy, closing the deal, and then following up with them after the purchase. This type of salesperson is referred to as a(n) _______. a) closer b) order clerk c) consultant d) order getter e) inside order taker

b

As Hope Springs continues to grow and establish its business-to-business market, Ju Li is considering changing her sales force philosophy to focus on _______ salespeople who simply processes orders and reorders for products that that were already sold by Hope Springs. a) order getter b) order taker c) consultant d) relational e) closer

a

Tiffany & Co., the exclusive jewelry retailer, manufactures about half of the fine jewelry items for sale through its over 250 specialty stores and boutiques worldwide. This example shows that Tiffany & Co. uses a) backward integration. b) horizontal integration. c) forward integration. d) dual distribution.

c

Among other concerns, when seeking to achieve the best coverage of the target market, marketing executives will pay attention to ________, the number of stores in a geographical area. a) easiest to work with. b) channel conflict c) density. d) cannibalization.

a

A supply chain manager’s key task is to balance time, dependability, communications, and convenience against a) total logistics management. b) distribution management. c) product replenishment. d) order processing.

d

In _________, intermediaries are inserted between the producer and consumers and perform numerous channel functions. a) a wholesaler channel b) a retailer channel c) a distributor channel d) an indirect channel