Which of the following is an organic growth factor? |
B) NAD+ and Vitamin B1 |
Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth? |
B) Glucose consumption |
In one hospital, Pseudomonas aeruginosa serotype 10 infected the biliary tract of 10% of 1300 patients who underwent gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures. After each use, endoscopes were washed with an automatic reprocessor that flushed detergent and glutaraldehyde through the endoscopes, followed by a tap water rinse. P. aeruginosa 10 was not isolated from the detergent, glutaraldehyde, or tap water. What was the source of the infections? |
B) A biofilm in the reprocessor |
Patients with indwelling catheters are susceptible to infections because |
D. Biofilms develop on catheters |
If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen (15N), most of 6) radioactivity will be found in the cells’ |
D) DNA and proteins. |
Which of the following elements is NOT correctly matched with its cellular function? A) sulfur — used for synthesis of thiamin and biotin |
E) None of the answers is correct; all of the elements are correctly matched. |
Pathogenic bacteria isolated from the respiratory or intestinal tracts of humans are |
D) capnophiles that grow best in carbon dioxide incubators. |
The biosafety level (BSL) for most introductory microbiology laboratories is |
A) BSL-1. |
The biosafety level (BSL) for a clinical microbiology laboratory working with potentially airborne pathogens, such as tuberculosis bacteria, is |
C) BSL-3. |
A sample of milk is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one-milliliter sample of the milk is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. One milliliter of the third dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 54 colonies, indicating that the original milk sample contained A) 54 cells. B) 540 cells. C) 5400 cells. D) 54,000 cells. E) 540,000 cells. |
D) 54,000 cells. |
Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth? A) glucose consumption |
A) glucose consumption |
Which of the following is the best method to sterilize heat-labile solutions? A) pasteurization |
B) membrane filtration |
Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death? A) All the cells in a culture die at once. |
D) The cells in a population die at a constant rate. |
Which of the following chemical agents is used for sterilization? A) chlorine |
B) ethylene oxide |
Which of the following substances is used for surgical hand scrubs? A) chlorine bleach |
C) chlorhexidine |
Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched? A) bacteriostatic — kills vegetative bacterial cells |
A) bacteriostatic — kills vegetative bacterial cells |
The antimicrobial activity of chlorine is due to which of the following? A) the formation of hypochlorous acid |
A) the formation of hypochlorous acid |
Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE? A) Contaminating organic debris such as blood or sputum decrease effectiveness. |
B) Some agents inactivate viruses by attacking cell membrane lipids. |
Which of the following does NOT achieve sterilization? A) pasteurization |
A) pasteurization |
Which of the following is a limitation of the autoclave? A) It cannot be used with heat-labile materials. |
A) It cannot be used with heat-labile materials. |
An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n) A) virucide. |
C) disinfectant. |
Application of heat to living cells can result in all of the following EXCEPT A) breaking of hydrogen bonds. |
C) decreased thermal death time. |
Which of the following disinfectants acts by disrupting the plasma membrane? A) bisphenols |
A) bisphenols |
Oxidizing agents include all of the following EXCEPT A) chlorine. |
D) glutaraldehyde |
Disinfection of water is achieved by all of the following EXCEPT A) ozone. |
B) peracetic acid. |
All of the following substances are effective against nonenveloped viruses EXCEPT A) chlorine. |
C) alcohol. |
Which of the following methods is used to preserve food by slowing the metabolic processes of foodborne microbes? A) lyophilization |
D) freezing |
Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide? A) 100 percent |
B) 70 percent |
All of the following factors contribute to hospital-acquired infections EXCEPT A) some bacteria metabolize disinfectants. |
E) None of the answers is correct; all of these factors may contribute to hospital-acquired |
Which of the following treatments is the most effective for controlling microbial growth? A) 63°C for 30 minutes |
D) They are equivalent treatments. |
Which of the following could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper? |
B) gamma radiation |
Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE? A) Contaminating organic debris such as blood or sputum will decrease effectiveness. |
B) A true antimicrobial control agent is equally effective against both bacteria and viruses. |
A suspension of 106 Bacillus cereus endospores was put in a hot-air oven at 170°C. Plate counts were used to determine the number of endospores surviving at the time intervals shown. In Figure 7.1, what is the thermal death time? A) 150°C |
C) 60 minutes |
In Figure 7.1, the thermal death point for this culture is A) 15 minutes. |
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided |
In Figure 7.1, the decimal reduction time (D value) for the culture is approximately A) 0 minutes. |
B) 10 minutes and 15 mins |
Which of the following results in lethal damage to nucleic acids? A) heat |
E) heat, radiation, and some chemicals |
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) organic acids — food preservation |
E) alcohols — open wounds |
A disk-diffusion test using Staphylococcus gave the following results: Disinfectant/ Zone of inhibition (mm) In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against Staphylococcus? A) A |
C) C |
Disinfectant/ Zone of inhibition (mm) In Table 7.1, which compound was the most effective against E. coli? 30) A) A |
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. |
Disinfectant/ Zone of inhibition (mm) In Table 7.1, which compound was bactericidal? A) A |
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. |
Table 7.2 The fate ofE. coli O157:H7 in apple cider held at 8°C for 2 weeks, with and without preservatives, is shown below: Cider only > 2.2 In Table 7.2, which preservative is most effective? A) potassium sorbate |
B) sodium benzoate |
An iodophor is a(n) A) agent that reduces oxygen. |
E) iodine mixed with a surfactant. |
Ethylene oxide 3 A) is a good antiseptic. |
D) is a sterilizing agent. |
All of the following substances are used to preserve foods EXCEPT A) nisin. |
E) biguanides. |
In Table 7.3, which disinfectant is the most effective at stopping bacterial growth? A) Doom |
A) Doom |
In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was bactericidal? A) Sterl |
C) Mortum |
In Table 7.3, which disinfectant was most effective against Salmonella? |
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. |
All of the following are effective for destroying prions EXCEPT A) NaOH+ autoclaving at 134°C. |
D) boiling. |
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) plasma sterilization — free radicals |
E) ultraviolet radiation — desiccation |
All of the following are methods of food preservation EXCEPT A) ionizing radiation. |
B) microwaves. |
The preservation of beef jerky from microbial growth relies on which method of microbial control? A) supercritical CO2 |
E) desiccation |
If you were preparing nutrient agar at home and did not have an autoclave, what could you use to sterilize the nutrient agar? A) hydrogen peroxide |
D) pressure cooker at 121°C for 15 minutes |
Bone and tendons for transplant are decontaminated by A) plasma sterilization. |
C) supercritical fluids. |
Which one of the following is most resistant to chemical biocides? A) gram-positive bacteria |
C) gram-negative bacteria and mycobacteria |
A gene is best defined as A) a segment of DNA. |
E) a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product |
Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A) DNA ligase — joins segments of DNA |
D) RNA polymerase — makes a molecule of RNA from an RNA template |
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) DNA polymerase joins nucleotides in one direction only. |
D) DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome. |
DNA is constructed of A) two strands of nucleotides running antiparallel. |
A) two strands of nucleotides running antiparallel. |
Which of the following is NOT a product of transcription? A) rRNA |
D) a new strand of DNA |
Which of the following statements about bacteriocins is FALSE? A) Bacteriocins kill bacteria. |
B) They cause food-poisoning symptoms. |
In Figure 8.1, which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine-requiring? A) 1, 2, 3, and 9 |
C) 4 and 8 |
Table 8.1 Culture 1: F+, leucine+, histidine+ Culture 2: F-, leucine-, histidine- In Table 8.1, what will be the result of conjugation between cultures 1 and 2? A) 1 will remain the same;2 will become F+ and recombination may occur |
D) 1 will remain the same;2 will become F+, leucine-, histidine- |
Table 8.1 Culture 1: F+, leucine+, histidine+ Culture 2: F-, leucine-, histidine- In Table 8.1, if culture 1 mutates to Hfr, what will be the result of conjugation between the two cultures?
A) They will both remain the same. |
B) 1 will remain the same; recombination will occur in 2 |
An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called a(n) A) operator. |
B) inducible enzyme. |
When glucose is high, cAMP is _____ : CAP _____ bind the lac operator, and RNA polymerase _____ bind the lac promoter.
A) high; does; does |
C) low; does not; does not |
Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell A) by crossing over. |
D) as naked DNA in solution. |
Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by A) transduction. |
E) All of the answers are correct. |
Which of the following statements regarding a bacterium that is R+ is FALSE? A) R+ can be transferred to a different species. |
E) it is F+ |
The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it causes A) base substitutions. |
B) the formation of highly reactive ions. |
According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the 1 |
C) substrate must bind to the repressor. |
Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by the A) corepressor-repressor complex binding to the operator. |
A) corepressor-repressor complex binding to the operator. |
In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 4′? |
C) adenine |
In Figure 8.2, if base 4 is thymine, what is base 11′? |
C) thymine |
In Figure 8.2, base 2 is attached to A) deoxyribose. |
A) deoxyribose. |
The damage caused by ultraviolet radiation is A) repaired during translation. |
E) cut out and replaced. |
Table 8.2 UUA /leucine /UAA /nonsense GCA /alanine/ AAU /sparagine AAG /lysine /UGC /cysteine GUU/ valine/ UCG, UCU/ serine Refer to Table 8.2. If the sequence of amino acids encoded by a strand of DNA is serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, what is the order of bases in the sense strand of DNA?
A) 3′ TCTCGTTTGTTA |
C) 3′ AGACGTTTCAAT |
Table 8.2 UUA /leucine /UAA /nonsense GCA /alanine/ AAU /sparagine AAG /lysine /UGC /cysteine GUU/ valine/ UCG, UCU/ serine Refer to Table 8.2. If the sequence of amino acids encoded by a strand of DNA is serine-alanine-lysine-leucine, the coding for the antisense strand of DNA is
A) 5′ ACAGTTTCAAT. |
B) 5′ TCTGCAAAGTTA. |
Table 8.2 UUA /leucine /UAA /nonsense GCA /alanine/ AAU /sparagine AAG /lysine /UGC /cysteine GUU/ valine/ UCG, UCU/ serine Refer to Table 8.2 The anticodon for valine is |
D) CAA. |
Table 8.2 UUA /leucine /UAA /nonsense GCA /alanine/ AAU /sparagine AAG /lysine /UGC /cysteine GUU/ valine/ UCG, UCU/ serine Refer to Table 8.2. What is the sequence of amino acids encoded by the following sequence of bases in a strand of DNA? 3′ ATTACGCTTTGC A) leucine-arginine-lysine-alanine |
D) Translation would stop at the first codon. |
Table 8.2 UUA /leucine /UAA /nonsense GCA /alanine/ AAU /sparagine AAG /lysine /UGC /cysteine GUU/ valine/ UCG, UCU/ serine Refer to Table 8.2. If a frameshift mutation occurred in the sequence of bases shown below, what would be the sequence of amino acids coded for? 3′ ATTACGCTTTGC
A) asparagine-arginine-lysine-alanine |
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. |
Figure 8.3 – Metabolic Pathway Gene A / Gene B Compound A->Compound B-> Compound C In Figure 8.3, if compound C reacts with the allosteric site of enzyme A, this would exemplify A) a mutation. |
E) feedback inhibition. |
Figure 8.3 – Metabolic Pathway Gene A / Gene B Compound A->Compound B-> Compound C In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is a repressible enzyme, compound C would A) bind to RNA polymerase. |
E) bind to the corepressor. |
Figure 8.3 – Metabolic Pathway Gene A / Gene B Compound A->Compound B-> Compound C In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is an inducible enzyme, A) compound C would react with gene A. |
B) compound A would bind to the repressor. |
Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation A) copies RNA to make DNA. |
D) transfers DNA horizontally, to cells in the same generation. |
The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is fromThermus aquaticus, and the template is from a human cell. The DNA synthesized would be most similar to A) human DNA. |
A) human DNA. |
<b>amino acid encoded chart missing</b> Based on the information in Table 8.3, prostate cancer is probably the result of which kind of mutation? A) frameshift |
D) nonsense |
<b>picture missing</b> In Figure 8.4, the antibiotic chloramphenicol binds the 50S ribosome as shown. From this information you can conclude that chloramphenicol A) prevents translation in eukaryotes. |
D) prevents translation in prokaryotes. |
The mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon is A) repression. |
D) catabolite repression |
The mechanism by which the presence of arabinose controls the arabinose operon is A) translation. |
C) induction. |
If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you determine with the most accuracy? A) the primary structure of the protein |
A) the primary structure of the protein |
An enzyme that makes covalent bonds between nucleotide sequences in DNA is A) transposase. |
B) DNA ligase |
An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is A) DNA ligase. |
D) RNA polymerase. |
An enzyme that catalyzes the cutting and resealing of DNA, and is translated from insertion sequences, is A) transposase. |
A) transposase. |
Repair of damaged DNA might be viewed as a race between an endonuclease and A) primase. |
E) methylase. |
The cancer generas produces mRNA containing an extra exon that includes a number of UAA codons. Cancer cells produce ras mRNA missing this exon. This mistake most likely is due to a mistake by A) UV radiation. |
C) snRNPs. |
The miRNAs in a cell A) are found in prokaryotic cells. |
E) allow different cells to produce different proteins. |
Assume the twoE.coli strains shown below are allowed to conjugate. Hfr: pro+, arg+, his+, lys+, met+, ampicillin-sensitive F: pro-, arg-, his-, lys-, met-, ampicillin-resistant What supplements would you add to glucose minimal salts agar to select for a recombinant cell that is lys+, arg+, amp-resistant?
A) ampicillin, lysine, arginine |
B) ampicillin, proline, histidine, methionine |
Protein synthesis in eukaryotes is similar to the process in prokaryotes in that both eukaryotes and prokaryotes
A) have exons. |
B) use codons to determine polypeptide sequences. and arrange amino acids |
Place the following surfactants in order from the most effective to the least effective antimicrobial activity: 1-Soap; 2-Acid-anionic detergent; 3-Quats. A) 1, 2, 3 |
D) 3, 2, 1 |
Iodophors differ from iodine (I2) in that iodophors A) Don’t stain. |
E) All of the above. |
Which of the following affects the elimination of bacteria from an object? A) Number of bacteria present |
E) All of the above |
Which of the following does NOT directly result from application of heat? A) Breaking of hydrogen bonds |
D) Cell lysis |
Which of these disinfectants acts by denaturing proteins? A) Alcohols |
C) Bisphenols |
Which of the following substances is NOT an oxidizing agent? A) Chlorine |
B) Glutaraldehyde |
Which of the following is NOT used to disinfect water? A) Ozone |
E) Heat |
Which of the following substances is NOT effective against nonenveloped viruses? A) Alcohol |
A) Alcohol |
Glutaraldehyde is considered one of the most effective disinfectants for hospital use. Which of the following statements about glutaraldehyde is false? A) Stains and corrodes |
A) Stains and corrodes |
Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to hospital-acquired infections? A) Some bacteria metabolize disinfectants. |
E) All of the above may contribute to hospital-acquired infection. |
Assume that one culture is a freshly opened package of dried yeast with 0.1% moisture, another culture is the same yeast with 7.5% moisture, and the third culture is a package of yeast mixed with water. Each culture was exposed to 130°C in a hot-air oven. Which graph in Figure 7.1 most likely shows the yeast with 0.1% moisture? |
C) c |
Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? A) Acid-anionic detergents |
A) Acid-anionic detergents |
Which one of the following does NOT belong with the others? A) Beta-propiolactone |
D) Hydrogen peroxide |
Which of the following will NOT inactivate endospores? A) Autoclave |
C) High pressure |
The reaction catalyzed by reverse transcriptase is A) mRNA protein. |
B) mRNA cDNA. |
Biotechnology involves the A) use of microorganisms to make desired products. |
E) use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistanct crop plants. |
Which of the following is NOT a desired characteristic of DNA vectors used in gene cloning procedures? A) large size |
A) large size |
*<b>picture missing</b>* In Figure 9.4, the bacteria transformed with the recombinant plasmid and plated on media containing ampicillin and X-gal will
A) form white, ampicillin-sensitive colonies. |
C) form white, ampicillin-resistant colonies. |
An advantage of synthetic DNA over genomic or cDNA is the ability to A) insert desired restriction sites into the DNA sequence. |
A) insert desired restriction sites into the DNA sequence. |
An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it 1 A) lacks introns. |
A) lacks introns. |
The restriction enzymeEcoRI recognizes the sequence GAATTC. Which of the following is TRUE of DNA after it is treated with EcoRI? A) All of the DNA will be circular. |
B) All of the DNA fragments will have single-stranded regions ending in AA. |
The Human Genome Project, which was completed in 2003, was focused on A) identifying all of the genes in the human genome. |
D) determining the nucleotide sequence of the entire human genome. |
Which of the following places the steps in the PCR procedure in the correct order? 1) Incubate at 94°C to denature DNA strands; 2) Incubate at 72°C for DNA synthesis; 3) Incubate at 60°C for primer hybridization. A) 2; 1; 3 |
B) 1, 3, 2 |
Which of the following are used to silence specific genes and hold promise for treating cancer or viral diseases, such as hepatitis B? A) DNA fingerprinting |
B) RNA interference (RNAi) |
Which of the following techniques is NOT used to introduce recombinant DNA into plants? A) microinjection |
A) microinjection |
In Figure 9.5, the marker genes used for selecting recombinant DNA are A) lacZ and ori. |
C) ampR and lacZ. |
In Figure 9.5, the gene that allows the plasmid to be self-replicating is A) HindIII. |
E) ori. |
Which of the following methods would be used to introduce the plasmid shown in Figure 9.5 into E. coli? A) transformation |
A) transformation |
Which of the following are used by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to track outbreaks of foodborne disease? A) DNA fingerprints |
E) DNA fingerprings, restriction fragment length polymorphisms, and reverse-transcriptase PCR(rtPCR) |
The use of "suicide" genes in genetically modified organisms is designed to A) delete genes necessary for modified organism’s growth. |
B) prevent the growth of the modified organisms in the environment. |
In the Southern blot technique, which of the following is NOT required? A) transfer of DNA to nitrocellulose |
D) addition of heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA |
The random shotgun method is used in A) forensic microbiology. |
E) genome sequencing. |
The study of genetic material taken directly from the environment is A) proteomics. |
D) metagenomics. |
The reaction catalyzed by DNA polymerase is A) DNA → mRNA |
D) DNA → DNA |
Which of the following methods of making rDNA could be described as "hit or miss"? A) Protoplast fusion |
A) Protoplast fusion |
Suicide genes can be controlled by the fimbriae-gene operator. This would result in the death of A) All cells. |
C) Cells making fimbriae. |
E. coli makes insulin because A) It needs to regulate its cell-glucose level. |
C) The insulin gene was inserted into it. |
Subunit vaccines can be made by genetic modification of yeast cells. A side effect of these vaccines might be A) The disease. |
E) None of the above. |
The value of cDNA in recombinant DNA is that A) It lacks exons. |
B) It lacks introns. |
Which enzyme does NOT make sticky ends? A) Enzyme Recognition |
C) Enzyme Recognition HaeIII GG↓CC CC↑GG |
The purpose of the Human Genome Project was to A) Identify all of the human genes. |
B) Sequence the nucleotides in human DNA. |
You have a small gene that you wish replicated by PCR. You add radioactively labeled nucleotides to the PCR thermocycler. After 3 replication cycles, what percentage of the DNA single strands are radioactively labeled? A) 0% |
D) 87.5% |
(chptr 9 10th ed. picture) A) Bacillus thuringiensis. |
C) A tomato plant. |
(chptr 9 10th ed. picture) A) A tomato gene. |
C) A Bacillus gene. |
(chptr 9 10th ed. picture) A) Put a gene into a plant. |
B) Put an insecticide on plant leaves. |
(chptr 9 10th ed. picture) A) A virus. |
… |
(chptr 9 10th ed. picture) A) Transformation. |
A) Transformation. |
To see the results of your work in question 33, you need to use A) Northern blotting. |
B) Southern blotting. |
Large numbers of bacterial cells are NOT found in crown galls because A) The plant kills the bacteria. |
C) A gene in plant cells is controlling growth. |
A specific gene can be inserted into a cell by all of the following EXCEPT A) Protoplast fusion. |
A) Protoplast fusion. |
PCR can be used to amplify DNA in a clinical sample. The following steps are used in PCR. What is the fourth step? A) Collect DNA. |
C) Incubate at 60°C. |
Which of the following processes CANNOT be used to insert foreign DNA into cells? A) Transformation |
E) All of the above can be used to insert foreign DNA into cells. |
An enzyme that cuts double-stranded DNA at specific nucleotide sequences. A) RNA polymerase |
C) Restriction enzyme |
In transcription, A) DNA is changed to RNA. |
B) DNA is copied to RNA. |
Microbiology chapters 6-9
Share This
Unfinished tasks keep piling up?
Let us complete them for you. Quickly and professionally.
Check Price