MGMT4665 HRM 7,9,10,11

Which of the following would be considered an important organizational goal in recruiting efforts?
a. Attract as many applicants as possible for a job.
b. Attract one or two highly qualified applicants for a job.
c. Use the recruiting process to explicitly differentiate among applicants.
d. Optimize the size of the pool of qualified applicants.
e. Make the job opening sound as challenging as possible to the applicants.

d. Optimize the size of the pool of qualified applicants.

Judd is a human resource manager responsible for creating a pool of qualified applicants from which his employer can choose. Judd is involved in human resource
a. alternative work arrangements.
b. recruiting.
c. selecting.
d. planning.
e. training.

b. recruiting.

Kraft Foods, which makes and distributes grocery products, uses online recruiting for sales personnel. On its website, Kraft says, "A Sales Representative distributes, sells, and promotes Kraft products. You are the primary link with retail customers and consumers. You execute company promotions, meet inventory needs, and monitor the competition within your region. Most of your time is spent problem solving with your customer to create a win-win solution." Which of the following goals of recruiting is Kraft trying to meet with this statement?
a. Ensuring that applicants are qualified
b. Selecting the best applicants for the job
c. Providing an honest assessment of the job
d. Generating fine distinctions between applicants
e. Keeping the applicant pool at a reasonable size

c. Providing an honest assessment of the job

Which of the following would NOT be considered an advantage of internal recruiting?
a. It motivates existing employees to perform.
b. It provides advancement opportunities to existing employees.
c. It sustains organizational knowledge.
d. It provides a strong force for cultural change.
e. It prevents the ripple effect.

d. It provides a strong force for cultural change.

The second step in the selection process is to
a. generate a pool of qualified applicants.
b. gather information about the pool of qualified applicants.
c. evaluate the qualifications of each applicant.
d. make a decision regarding who is the best fit for a job.
e. extend a job offer to an applicant.

c. evaluate the qualifications of each applicant.

Which of the following would be considered an advantage of external recruiting?
a. It may stifle creativity and new ideas in the organization.
b. It can cause the ripple effect.
c. It may damage existing employees’ motivation.
d. It can enhance organizational vitality and innovation.
e. It sustains the existing organizational culture.

d. It can enhance organizational vitality and innovation.

What is probably the MOST common method organizations use for internal recruiting?
a. Referrals
b. Job posting
c. Union halls
d. Walk-in applicants
e. Supervisory recommendations

b. Job posting

Alan frequently attends professional presentations and training seminars at his work location. At one of these presentations, it was announced that a new supervisory position in Alan’s department was about to be created and that there would be a formal external search. Which recruiting method was used?
a. Direct application
b. Job posting
c. Advertisements
d. Word of mouth
e. Supervisory recommendation

d. Word of mouth

At which step in the selection process is information gathered about the candidates?
a. Step one
b. Step two
c. Step three
d. Step four
e. Step five

a. Step one

In Spring 2003, the Seattle Mariners baseball team hired hitter Raul Ibanez. Which type of employment test would be most likely to establish Ibanez’s qualifications for this position?
a. A psychomotor ability test
b. A cognitive ability test
c. An intelligence test
d. A personality test
e. An integrity test

a. A psychomotor ability test

If an organization wants to assess whether an applicant can actually perform a particular job, which selection technique would BEST provide this assessment?
a. Employment test
b. Cognitive ability test
c. Integrity test
d. Work simulation
e. Structured interview

d. Work simulation

Bob has worked for a local hotel for nearly three years and is interested in advancing his career in the organization. He notices one day on the bulletin board that a promotion opportunity in his work group is available, so he decides to apply for the position. What type of recruiting method was used?
a. Referral
b. Job posting
c. Direct applicant
d. College recruit
e. Word-of-mouth recruit

b. Job posting

Which of the following external recruiting techniques is MOST associated with the goal of finding jobs for unemployed individuals?
a. Public employment agencies
b. Private employment agencies
c. Executive search firms
d. College placement offices
e. Job postings

a. Public employment agencies

Which external recruitment technique is typically targeted toward higher-level positions?
a. Public employment agencies
b. Headhunters
c. Advertisements
d. Private employment agencies
e. College placement offices

b. Headhunters

Which of the following errors is related to the initial meeting that occurs between an interviewer and interviewee?
a. First impression
b. Contrast
c. Similarity
d. Nonrelevancy
e. Inadequate knowledge of the job

a. First impression

Westside Elementary School received a number of applications for a teaching position. The school wants to increase the diversity of its staff, who are mostly white females. The top two applicants were both white females, but a Hispanic female and an African-American male were almost ranked as highly, with all four showing very close scores. The school decided to hire the Hispanic female. They were making their selection decision based on
a. banding.
b. alternate-form reliability.
c. construct validity.
d. screening.
e. discriminatory testing.

a. banding.

Which of the following statements would be MOST appropriate as part of a realistic job preview for the job of restaurant waiter?
a. Exciting opportunity to learn skills that enable you to quickly start your own profitable business.
b. Hazardous exposure to dangerous chemicals and sharp equipment.
c. You will have considerable autonomy and responsibility when performing your duties outside of the organization.
d. You will spend much of your work day on your feet.
e. Chance to network with wealthy individuals and make valuable contacts for professional positions.

d. You will spend much of your work day on your feet.

The Civil Rights Act applied to all employment decisions, but this legislation is the most critical for
a. development programs.
b. designing training seminars.
c. selection decisions.
d. developing pay scales.
e. developing a benefits package.

c. selection decisions.

Which of the following is NOT an important piece of information necessary for performing a utility analysis of a selection system?
a. The cost of the selection system
b. A definition of job success for new hires
c. Estimates of the success rate under different scenarios
d. The construct and content validity of selection measures
e. The cost of a selection error

d. The construct and content validity of selection measures

The number years spent working in a profession is an example of which of the following basic selection criteria?
a. Education
b. Competencies
c. Experience
d. Skills
e. Abilities

c. Experience

A truck driving certification is an example of which of the following basic selection criteria?
a. Education
b. Competencies
c. Experience
d. Skills
e. Abilities

a. Education

An organizational recruiter tells prospective recruits that her company is active in environmental affairs. What is the recruiter doing?
a. Encouraging recycling by recruits
b. Signaling organizational values to improve fit
c. Giving a realistic job preview to recruits
d. Communicating the organization’s strict environmental policies
e. Warning new recruits that they will be required to perform community service as part of their jobs

b. Signaling organizational values to improve fit

Which selection criteria more directly relate to specific qualifications and capabilities of an individual to perform a specific job?
a. Competencies and experience
b. Skills and education
c. Abilities and competencies
d. Experience and education
e. Skills and abilities

e. Skills and abilities

Which of the following is NOT a goal of the recruiting process?
a. To generate the largest possible pool of applicants
b. To encourage applicants who are well qualified
c. To keep recruiting costs low
d. To choose appropriate sources and methods of recruiting
e. To create an applicant pool that meets the needs of the organization

a. To generate the largest possible pool of applicants

Which is the following is a disadvantage of external recruiting?
a. hurts a company’s ability to attract management talent
b. may foster stagnation
c. may hurt motivation
d. brings in new ideas
e. prevents new ideas

c. may hurt motivation

Which of the following is a disadvantage of internal recruiting?
a. hurts a company’s ability to hire management talent
b. may foster stagnation
c. may hurt motivation
d. brings in new ideas
e. increases turnover

b. may foster stagnation

____ enable recruiting to utilize both internal and external perspectives.
a. Realistic job previews
b. Internships
c. Headhunters
d. Private employment agencies
e. Advertisements

b. Internships

The evaluation of applicant qualifications is part of which step of the selection process?
a. Step 1
b. Step 2
c. Step 3
d. Step 4
e. Step 5

b. Step 2

Gathering applicant information is part of which step of the selection process?
a. Step 1
b. Step 2
c. Step 3
d. Step 4
e. Step 5

a. Step 1

Refer to Scenario 7.1. Which of the following techniques would be MOST likely to help Walker and his staff reduce the volume of applicants for consultant positions, while not reducing the quality?
a. Job posting
b. Private employment agencies
c. College placement offices
d. Electronic recruiting
e. None of these

Refer to Scenario 7.1. If Walker decides to use online recruiting for the consulting positions, which of the following is NOT a likely outcome?
a. The number of applicants will be reduced.
b. The quality of applicants will vary a great deal.
c. Applicants will all be residents of communities near Brilliance offices.
d. The cost of recruiting will increase sharply.
e. The diversity of applicants will decline.

Refer to Scenario 7.1. Adamina, a native resident of California, is considering applying for a consulting position. Which of the following is NOT likely to be one of Adamina’s goals?
a. Financial and nonfinancial compensation
b. Working close to her hometown
c. Challenging work opportunities
d. Job security
e. Opportunities for advancement and training

Refer to Scenario 7.1. Which of the following recruiting techniques would be MOST likely to help Brilliance hire staff with better high-tech skills?
a. Job posting
b. Recruiting consultants
c. Private employment agencies
d. Advertisements
e. Word of mouth

Refer to Scenario 7.1. Which of the following methods for filling Indira Chaudhuri’s position will result in the organization’s continuing need to recruit?
a. Referrals
b. Headhunters
c. Internal recruiting
d. Advertisements
e. Electronic recruiting

b. Private employment agencies a. The number of applicants will be reduced. b. Working close to her hometown c. Private employment agencies c. Internal recruiting

Many organizations prefer to use both internal and external recruiting strategies.

T

Job posting is an external recruiting mechanism.

F

Word-of-mount recruiting is usually an expensive way to identity potential job candidates.

F

The Social Security Act of 1935 specified that private employment agencies are part of the recruiting process.

F

Headhunters are usually utilized for high-level management and executive positions.

T

Education is the formal classroom training that an individual has received.

T

All questions on an employment application must relate to an individual’s ability to perform the job.

T

Psychomotor ability tests measure mental skills.

F

The projective technique involves showing individuals abstract stimuli and then asking them to describe what is seen.

T

Research indicates that unstructured interviews are the best predictors of subsequent job performance.

F

____ refers to all of the pay and benefits provided to employees for the completion of work.
a. Salary
b. Pay substructure
c. Total compensation
d. Fair labor standards
e. Incentives

c. Total compensation

Which of the following employee behavioral outcomes is MOST likely under conditions of perceived internal inequity as compared to external inequity?
a. Lower morale
b. Higher conflict
c. Lower satisfaction
d. Lower motivation
e. All of these

e. All of these

Jorge, a supervisor for a large luxury hotel, compared his salary to other supervisors in the same organization. He found that his base pay was about 25 percent less than other individuals in similar supervisory jobs. Jorge is experiencing
a. internal inequity.
b. lateral inequity.
c. position inequity.
d. external inequity.
e. compensation inequity.

a. internal inequity.

Information used to assess external equity is likely collected with
a. pay surveys.
b. benefits administrators.
c. compensation calculators.
d. random telephone interviews.
e. none of these.

a. pay surveys.

____ occurs when a company indicates to employees the importance of certain behaviors by paying for such behaviors.
a. Supporting
b. Suggesting
c. Spiraling
d. Benchmarking
e. Signaling

e. Signaling

In general, salaries are paid to
a. professionals.
b. executives.
c. line workers.
d. all of these.
e. both professionals and executives.

e. both professionals and executives.

A laborer who is responsible for landscaping a local golf course likely receives
a. a salary.
b. a wage.
c. broad incentive pay.
d. no overtime.
e. a pension but no worker’s comp.

b. a wage.

Which of the following would be considered a DISADVANTAGE of the use of above-market compensation?
a. It may encourage voluntary turnover.
b. It is less costly to the organization.
c. It may create a culture of competitive superiority.
d. It may not attract the highest-quality employees.
e. It may encourage a sense of entitlement among employees.

e. It may encourage a sense of entitlement among employees.

Organizations are MOST likely to be able to pay below-market compensation rates in an area with
a. high unemployment.
b. high cost of living.
c. high wage levels.
d. high labor costs.
e. highly skilled workers.

a. high unemployment.

One of the largest consulting firms in the world prefers to hire many entry-level consultants and then retain only about 10 percent by the third year. This strategy allows them to become acquainted with many workers and keep only the best. On the basis of this strategy, the firm pays below-market salaries. Which of the following is NOT a likely outcome of paying below-market rates?
a. It may encourage voluntary turnover.
b. It is less costly to the organization.
c. It may create a culture of competitive superiority.
d. It may not attract the highest-quality employees.
e. It may lead to feelings of resentment among employees.

c. It may create a culture of competitive superiority.

Which of the following is NOT a likely factor in determining an organization’s compensation strategy?
a. The organization’s ability to pay
b. The organization’s legal context
c. Influence of unions
d. Location of the organization
e. The organization’s job classification system

e. The organization’s job classification system

The National Association for Law Placement (NALP) gathers and presents information about average compensation for attorneys, including data specific to regions, specializations, years of experience, and size of the firm. The NALP is creating
a. a job evaluation.
b. a pay survey.
c. pay compression.
d. external equity.
e. a pay structure.

b. a pay survey.

What is the general method used to determine the relative value or worth of jobs to an organization?
a. Job analysis
b. Comparable worth
c. Job evaluation
d. Compensable factors
e. Pay compression

c. Job evaluation

The U.S. postal system utilizes different job grades to pay employees, which is part of a
a. job ranking system
b. classification system
c. regression-based system
d. factor comparison method
e. No method

b. classification system

The job evaluation system that results in a number of job grades is called
a. job ranking.
b. the classification system.
c. the point system.
d. the factor comparison method.
e. job analysis.

b. the classification system.

Which job evaluation method identifies a job’s various compensable factors for which the organization is willing to provide compensation?
a. Job ranking
b. Classification system
c. Point system
d. Job analysis
e. Comparable worth

c. Point system

An aspect of a job for which an organization is willing to provide compensation is called a
a. comparable worth issue.
b. pay grade.
c. job class.
d. compensable factor.
e. job evaluation.

d. compensable factor.

Which job evaluation method assesses jobs in a factor-related manner?
a. Point system
b. Factor comparison method
c. Job ranking
d. Classification system
e. Regression-based system

b. Factor comparison method

Which of the following would NOT be considered an argument in favor of knowledge-based pay?
a. Employees focus on growth and the accumulation of new knowledge.
b. The organization will gain flexibility.
c. The organization will develop a more knowledgeable workforce.
d. Assessing what a person knows is much easier than assessing what the person does.
e. Employees are paid for what they are worth to the company.

d. Assessing what a person knows is much easier than assessing what the person does.

While performing a job evaluation for a nursing home, Brad compared two jobs to a benchmark job. He found that the job of nurses’ aide required a high level of physical effort, a moderate level of responsibility, and a low level of skill. By comparison, the job of occupational therapist had a low level of physical effort, but a high level of both responsibility and skill. Therefore, occupational therapists are paid more. Brad is using the ____ job evaluation technique.
a. job- ranking
b. classification system
c. regression-based system
d. job analysis
e. factor comparison

e. factor comparison

How does the United States rank in terms of the cost of benefits relative to that of other countries around the globe?
a. Much higher
b. A small percentage higher
c. About the same
d. Lower
e. Costs cannot be compared across countries.

d. Lower

When is pay compression MOST likely to develop?
a. When employee skill levels increase faster than managerial skill levels
b. When the market rate for starting salaries increases faster than organizations can give raises to existing employees
c. When an organization’s internal resources increase faster than it is able to hire new employees
d. When the organization can provide monetary rewards more easily than intangible benefits
e. When existing employees make more than new entrants in the organization

b. When the market rate for starting salaries increases faster than organizations can give raises to existing employees

When Piccadilly Cafeterias filed for bankruptcy protection in the fall of 2003, its pension fund did not have enough assets to cover expected future payments. Which law ensures that retirees will receive their pensions as promised?
a. Tax Reform Act of 1986
b. Tax Reform Act of 1997
c. ERISA
d. FMLA
e. Economic Recovery Tax Act

c. ERISA

Which mandated employee benefit is designed to provide a basic subsistence payment to employees between jobs?
a. Unemployment insurance
b. Social security
c. Workers’ compensation
d. Medical insurance
e. Accidental death and dismemberment insurance

a. Unemployment insurance

Which mandated type of insurance covers individuals who suffer a job-related illness or accident?
a. Unemployment insurance
b. Social security
c. Workers’ compensation
d. Health insurance
e. Accidental death and dismemberment insurance

c. Workers’ compensation

Which of the following is NOT a mandated benefit?
a. workers’ compensation
b. social security
c. unemployment insurance
d. private pension plan
e. all of these benefits are mandated

d. private pension plan

Which of the following is NOT a nonmandated benefit?
a. paid time off
b. workers’ compensation
c. health insurance
d. defined benefit plan
e. defined contribution plan

b. workers’ compensation

A special program that helps prevent employee sickness is called a(n)
a. defined contribution plan
b. employee assistance plan
c. wellness program
d. defined benefit plan
e. workers’ compensation

c. wellness program

A special program that helps employees with drug or alcohol problems is called a(n)
a. cafeteria-style benefits plan
b. employee assistance plan
c. wellness program
d. defined benefit plan
e. workers’ compensation

b. employee assistance plan

A program that allows employees to select the benefits they want is called a(n)
a. cafeteria-style benefits plan
b. employee assistance plan
c. wellness program
d. defined benefit plan
e. workers’ compensation

a. cafeteria-style benefits plan

Refer to Scenario 9.1. Chocolatta University administrators justify the high costs of its benefits programs by espousing which particular theory?
a. Equity theory
b. Efficiency wage theory
c. Motivational theory
d. Expectancy theory
e. Reinforcement theory

b. Efficiency wage theory

Refer to Scenario 9.1. Which of the following is a benefit that Ms. Almond may NOT legally drop from Chocolatta’s benefits package?
a. Health insurance
b. Employee assistance program
c. Unemployment insurance
d. Life insurance
e. Vacation pay

c. Unemployment insurance

Refer to Scenario 9.1. In the midst of all this activity, Professor Nestlé severely burned himself while demonstrating in class the art of the flaming dessert. He will therefore be away from work and recuperating for three to six months. What benefit will help Professor Nestlé pay his bills while he is out of commission?
a. Unemployment insurance
b. Health maintenance organization
c. Social security
d. Elder care
e. Workers’ compensation

e. Workers’ compensation

Refer to Scenario 9.1. Ms. Almond is considering one cost-cutting option, in which employees are asked to make a small co-payment for each doctor’s or dentist’s visit. What is this called?
a. Cafeteria-style benefits
b. Coordination of benefits
c. Defined benefits
d. Sharing costs
e. Health maintenance organization

d. Sharing costs

Refer to Scenario 9.1. Regardless of benefit reductions due to budget setbacks, Ms. Almond feels strongly that Chocolatta should continue to provide help for faculty and staff with recurring chocolate cravings. Otherwise, classroom materials tend to disappear, and employees get severe sugar headaches. Which type of benefit would this be classified as?
a. Employee assistance plan
b. Life-cycle plan
c. Workers’ compensation
d. Health maintenance plan
e. Employee wellness plan

a. Employee assistance plan

Internal equity involves comparisons to employees working in similar jobs in other companies.

F

The fundamental purpose of compensation is to provide an adequate reward system for employees so that they feel valued.

T

Under Equal Pay Act of 1962, workers must be paid the same money that other employees earn working in similar jobs in other companies.

F

Wages are paid to employees based on the time they function in a particular job.

T

A maturity curve is a schedule specifying the amount of annual increase a person will receive.

T

The downside to above-market compensation levels is increased employee absenteeism and turnover.

F

The outcome of a point system job classification structure is the grading of jobs.

F

The point system utilizes compensable factors to evaluate the importance of jobs.

T

Skill-based pay plans are related mostly to hourly workers.

T

Executive compensation is usually based on salary and incentive pay.

T

Andy, a regional manager for an office supply retail company, must formally evaluate each one of his immediate employees every year. This process is known as
a. benchmarking.
b. feedback interview.
c. 360-degree feedback.
d. discipline documentation.
e. performance appraisal.

e. performance appraisal.

Which of the following was NOT given as a reason for the importance of performance appraisal?
a. It helps managers assess the quality of their recruitment and selection activities.
b. It provides documentation that an organization’s promotion and reward allocation activities are nondiscriminatory.
c. It plays a large role in allocation of profit-sharing rewards to employees.
d. It provides useful input into an organization’s human resource planning process.
e. It provides feedback to employees, which may enhance their motivation and development.

c. It plays a large role in allocation of profit-sharing rewards to employees.

Which of the following is one of the different terms for performance appraisal?
a. performance evaluation
b. performance review
c. employee appraisal
d. employee evaluation
e. all of these are different terms for performance appraisal

e. all of these are different terms for performance appraisal

What should be considered the ultimate goal of performance appraisal?
a. To provide performance information in a useful form
b. To provide information about an individual’s performance on all relevant dimensions
c. To be able to improve performance on the job
d. To document employment-related decisions based on performance
e. To determine equitable rewards

c. To be able to improve performance on the job

Which of the following is NOT considered one of the responsibilities of the organization in the performance appraisal process?
a. To develop the general performance appraisal process
b. To determine the timing of the performance appraisals
c. To make clear and specific performance standards available to managers
d. To have the ratee express a clear, unbiased view of his or her performance
e. To communicate performance standards to employees

d. To have the ratee express a clear, unbiased view of his or her performance

The role of the rater in the performance appraisal process includes all of the following EXCEPT
a. helping to develop clear performance standards.
b. collecting information about employee performance behaviors.
c. learning organizational performance standards.
d. requiring the ratee to gain an understanding of how his or her behavior affects performance.
e. preparing the employee to work at desired levels.

d. requiring the ratee to gain an understanding of how his or her behavior affects performance.

Which of the following factors could impact a supervisor’s motivation, rather than ability, to provide a meaningful performance appraisal?
a. Inadequate job knowledge
b. Favoritism toward specific workers
c. Inadequate opportunity to observe employee performance
d. Changing technology, which may impact the supervisor’s understanding of job tasks the employee is required to perform
e. The supervisor’s being promoted from a different functional area of the organization

b. Favoritism toward specific workers

____ are the most frequently utilized source of information in the appraisal process.
a. Supervisors
b. Peers
c. Subordinates
d. Customers
e. Upper managers

a. Supervisors

360-degree feedback utilizes information collected from
a. customers.
b. employees.
c. supervisors.
d. subordinates.
e. all of these.

e. all of these.

A ____ method of performance appraisal involves directly assessing each employee next to other employees.
a. paired comparison
b. 360-degree
c. BARS
d. rating
e. graphic rating scale

a. paired comparison

Which method of performance appraisal involves grouping employees into frequencies of performance evaluations?
a. Ranking
b. Paired comparison
c. Forced distribution
d. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
e. Critical incident

c. Forced distribution

Supervisor Katy is establishing a list of the best to worst performers in the department. Which performance appraisal method is Katy utilizing?
a. Paired comparison
b. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
c. Behavioral Observation Scale (BOS)
d. Forced distribution
e. Simple ranking

e. Simple ranking

Which of the following is NOT a potential problem associated with the use of graphic rating scales in the performance appraisal process?
a. Attribution of too much objectivity to results
b. Leniency or severity error
c. The number of included performance dimensions must be restricted to a few
d. Halo error
e. Range restriction

c. The number of included performance dimensions must be restricted to a few

Which type of performance appraisal rating method focuses on particularly good or bad performance?
a. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
b. Behavioral Observation Scale (BOS)
c. Management By Objective (MBO)
d. Critical incident method
e. Graphic rating scale

d. Critical incident method

Which type of performance appraisal rating method is particularly reliable because examples of performance are provided in the categories of evaluation?
a. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
b. Paired comparison method
c. Management By Objective (MBO)
d. Critical incident method
e. Graphic rating scale

a. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)

The performance appraisal of a restaurant includes sections that require employees and managers to develop goals for the next rating period. This restaurant is apparently using which performance appraisal method?
a. 360-degree feedback
b. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
c. Simple ranking
d. Management by Objective (MBO)
e. Critical incident

d. Management by Objective (MBO)

The following item appears on a student evaluation form, to assess a student’s preparation outside of class. What type of performance appraisal is represented by this example?
1 = Often unprepared when called on. Frequent late assignments.
2 = Sometimes unprepared when called on. Hands in 2-3 assignments late.
3 = Unprepared on occasion, but not often. Hands in 2 or fewer late assignments.
4 = Usually well-prepared when called on, but may be unprepared on 1-2 occasions. All assignments handed in on time.
5 = Always prepared when called on. Hands in every assignment early or on time.

a. Management by Objective (MBO)
b. Critical incident
c. Simple ranking
d. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
e. 360-degree feedback

d. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)

At Lorenzo’s workplace, the performance appraisal process includes measurements of organizational citizenship behaviors, such as volunteering for unpleasant tasks and helping new employees socialize into the work team. Lorenzo’s employer is
a. enforcing job requirements.
b. using inappropriate information.
c. committing a halo error.
d. relying on a ranking method.
e. rating contextual performance.

e. rating contextual performance.

When a rater compares people against one another instead of using a set standard, which type of error is the rater exhibiting?
a. Projection
b. Halo
c. Horns
d. Contrast
e. Distributional

a. Projection

When a rater tends to use only one part of a rating scale, this is known as
a. distributional error.
b. contrast error.
c. halo error.
d. horns error.
e. projection error.

a. distributional error.

Which career stage may involve individuals’ viewing work as less important and nonwork activities as more important?
a. Maintenance
b. Disengagement
c. Establishment
d. Exploration
e. Trial

b. Disengagement

What is the final step in the career planning process?
a. Individual assessment
b. Career counseling
c. Exploration
d. Communication
e. Trial

b. Career counseling

What mechanism in the career planning process is designed to align the organization’s and individual’s expectations of the individual’s role and career prospects within the organization?
a. Individual assessment
b. Specification of career paths
c. Performance management
d. Communication
e. Career counseling

e. Career counseling

All of the following would place limitations on the effectiveness of career planning EXCEPT
a. individuals may find new opportunities outside the employing organization at unexpected times.
b. the organization has little flexibility in altering the career paths it predicts for its employees over time.
c. the organization’s human resource needs can change over time.
d. unanticipated mergers and acquisitions can change career opportunities.
e. people can experience changes in interests or priorities.

b. the organization has little flexibility in altering the career paths it predicts for its employees over time.

Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding the individual perspectives on careers?
a. Individuals who closely monitor their careers understand the reasons for success and failure.
b. An individual’s perception of work success or failure has an important impact on his or her self image.
c. Individuals can rely on their employer to manage their careers.
d. Individuals who take responsibility for their careers are prepared to deal with career setbacks.
e. Individuals directly experience the impact of career events.

c. Individuals can rely on their employer to manage their careers.

Which career stage may involves individuals’ analysis of their own competences and skills.
a. Maintenance
b. Individual assessment
c. Establishment
d. Exploration
e. Trial

b. Individual assessment

What is the first step in the career planning process?
a. Individual assessment
b. Career counseling
c. Exploration
d. Communication
e. Trial

a. Individual assessment

The type of error that involves giving low ratings to all employees by using unrealistically high standards is called:
a. central tendency
b. halo error
c. horns error
d. leniency
e. severity

e. severity

The type of error that involves giving average ratings to all employees is called:
a. central tendency
b. halo error
c. horns error
d. leniency
e. severity

a. central tendency

The type of error that involves giving low ratings to an employee based on one performance dimension is called:
a. central tendency
b. halo error
c. horns error
d. leniency
e. severity

c. horns error

Refer to Scenario 10.1. Ellen, representing Tent-Stations’ human resource department, will be in charge of all of the following facets of the new performance management system EXCEPT
a. determining the timing of the performance appraisals.
b. ensuring that performance standards are clearly communicated to employees.
c. linking performance appraisal information to training and development efforts.
d. linking performance appraisal information to the company’s compensation system.
e. collecting employees’ performance information on a day-to-day basis.

e. collecting employees’ performance information on a day-to-day basis.

Refer to Scenario 10.1. Given Tent-Stations’ work structure, what additional source of performance information may be critical in assessing employee performance?
a. Supervisors
b. Peers
c. Customers
d. Self
e. Top management

b. Peers

Refer to Scenario 10.1. Considering the team-based approach used by Tent-Stations, which method for appraising performance would likely be the WORST choice?
a. 360-degree feedback
b. Simple ranking
c. Critical incident
d. BARS
e. MBO

b. Simple ranking

Refer to Scenario 10.1. By considering employees behaviors that go beyond their formal job duties, what aspect of performance is being included in the new performance management system?
a. Contextual performance
b. Strategic performance
c. Behavioral performance
d. Critical performance
e. Global performance

a. Contextual performance

Refer to Scenario 10.1. Ellen would like to ensure that Tent-Stations employees who are asked to do performance appraisals are as accurate as possible. All BUT which of the following actions may be helpful in this regard?
a. Frame-of-reference training
b. Rewards for raters who do a good job of performance appraisal
c. Rater-accuracy training
d. Elimination of any threat of punishment for raters who do a poor job of performance appraisal
e. Reinforcement to raters of the importance of performance appraisal

d. Elimination of any threat of punishment for raters who do a poor job of performance appraisal

Appraisals play a role in the performance management process, but such feedback does not directly impact compensation decisions.

F

The supervisor is typically the rater in the performance appraisal process.

T

A 360-degree evaluation only uses information collected from people working below the person being rated.

F

In the paired comparison method of performance appraisal, a manager places employees in a simple rank-order

F

A critical incident is an example of particularly good or bad employee performance.

T

Central tendency occurs when a manager rates all employees as average.

F

Contextual performance is comprised of requirements of a job that an employee accomplishes or performs.

F

Another name for contextual performance is organizational citizenship behavior.

T

The first stage of the traditional model of career stages is called exploration.

T

Career counseling usually occurs between an employee and an in-house clinical psychologist.

F

The process of dealing with individuals in a company who are represented by a union is called:
a. labor relations.
b. benchmarking.
c. total quality management.
d. management by objectives.
e. negotiated contracting.

a. labor relations.

____ is the process by which managers and union representatives negotiate the terms and conditions of employment.
a. Benchmarking
b. Total quality management
c. Negotiated contracting
d. Management by objectives
e. Collective bargaining

e. Collective bargaining

Which of the following acts required management to bargain with labor unions in good faith?
a. Taft-Hartley Act
b. Wagner Act
c. Landrum-Griffin Act
d. Sherman Act
e. Union Shop Act

b. Wagner Act

Which of the following acts required labor unions to bargain with management in good faith?
a. Taft-Hartley Act
b. Wagner Act
c. Landrum-Griffin Act
d. Sherman Act
e. Union Shop Act

a. Taft-Hartley Act

Overall, union membership since 1955 has been
a. holding steady.
b. increasing greatly.
c. constant.
d. erratic.
e. decreasing at an alarming rate.

d. erratic.

The earliest unions to be developed in the United States represented specific types of workers and were known as
a. professional networks.
b. job societies.
c. worker permit groups.
d. trade associations.
e. craft unions.

e. craft unions.

The first major union to have a significant impact in the United States was called the
a. American Federation of Labor.
b. Knights of Labor.
c. Congress of Industrial Organizations.
d. Captains of Workers.
e. Labor Club Organization.

b. Knights of Labor.

The American Federation of Labor focused on what types of work?
a. Blue-collar jobs
b. Craft-based jobs
c. Professional-level jobs
d. Secretarial jobs
e. White-collar jobs

b. Craft-based jobs

The Taft-Hartley Act of 1947 outlawed
a. union membership.
b. collective bargaining.
c. union shops.
d. union stewards.
e. union negotiations of working conditions.

c. union shops.

The Landrum-Griffin Act of 1959 requires national labor unions to elect new leaders every ____ years.
a. two
b. three
c. five
d. ten
e. fifteen

c. five

Which of the following is the MOST accurate statement?
a. Union-management relations are more hostile today than they were in the past.
b. Unions are more powerful today than in the past, compared to the power of employers.
c. Unions today rarely struggle with traditional, basic issues, such as wages.
d. As unions have become smaller, their power has diminished.
e. Employers today are controlled almost completely by powerful unions, due to increased regulation of business.

d. As unions have become smaller, their power has diminished.

Which of the following issues are receiving more attention from unions in recent years?
a. Wages and hours
b. Health benefits
c. Pension benefits and job security
d. Union membership
e. New labor legislation

c. Pension benefits and job security

Once a bargaining unit has been determined, what is the next step in the unionization process?
a. Having to get 30 percent of eligible workers to sign authorization cards
b. Conducting a secret ballot election
c. Petitioning the NLRB to hold an election
d. Instituting grievance procedures for dispute resolution
e. Collective bargaining over a labor contract

a. Having to get 30 percent of eligible workers to sign authorization cards

Which of the following is necessary in order for decertification to occur?
a. The union must have served as the collective bargaining agent for the employees for at least one year.
b. No labor contract can currently be in force.
c. A majority of the members of the bargaining unit must vote for decertification.
d. All of these.
e. Both the union must have served as the collective bargaining agent for the employees for at least one year and no labor contract can currently be in force.

e. Both the union must have served as the collective bargaining agent for the employees for at least one year and no labor contract can currently be in force.

Which of the following is NOT a mandatory subject of collective bargaining?
a. Wages
b. No-strike clauses
c. Pension benefits
d. Health benefits
e. Working hours

b. No-strike clauses

The International Brotherhood of Teamsters (a union representing truck drivers and others) collectively bargains with Univar, the largest distributor of chemical products in the United States. Prior to collective bargaining, who should have the responsibility of examining the financial condition of Univar?
a. Univar
b. The Teamsters’ leadership
c. Truck drivers who are members of the Teamsters
d. Both Univar and the Teamsters’ leadership
e. Univar, the Teamsters’ leadership, and truck drivers who are members of the Teamsters

d. Both Univar and the Teamsters’ leadership

Which of the following is the term given to items such as wages, working hours, and benefits?
a. Mandatory items
b. Permissive items
c. Negotiated items
d. Price-point items
e. Strike items

a. Mandatory items

In negotiating a labor agreement, the union has decided that a pay raise of $1 per hour for every employee is the minimum they will accept. If they are offered less than that, they will strike. This amount is called the
a. union resistance point.
b. management resistance point.
c. union target point.
d. management target point.
e. midpoint.

a. union resistance point.

Which of the following tactics is illegal?
a. Picketing
b. Boycotts
c. Economic strikes
d. Lockouts
e. All of these

e. All of these

Which of the following types of arbitration gives the parties the MOST incentive to reach a settlement on their own?
a. Target point arbitration
b. Take-it-or-leave-it arbitration
c. Strike-based arbitration
d. Neutral arbitration
e. Final-offer arbitration

e. Final-offer arbitration

Who normally conducts the first level of dispute resolution between a union member and an employer?
a. The union president
b. A member of the board of directors of the union
c. The shop president
d. The sergeant at arms
e. The shop steward

e. The shop steward

Idalia, a union member working in a union shop, has a disagreement with her supervisor about overtime pay. She goes to Nancy, her shop steward, with the complaint. What options does Nancy have to resolve this dispute?
a. Nancy can suggest that the supervisor be disciplined.
b. Nancy can call for workers to strike.
c. Nancy can ask Idalia to serve as an arbitrator for the dispute.
d. Nancy can tell Idalia that the supervisor’s decision is appropriate.
e. Nancy can request a secret ballot election.

d. Nancy can tell Idalia that the supervisor’s decision is appropriate.

Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that labor unions oppose the use of prison labor?
a. It is very easy to deny prisoners the right to form a union.
b. Prison labor displaces low-wage workers in the economy.
c. Prison labor does little to prepare prisoners for re-entry into the workforce following their release.
d. Prisoners are exploited because their wages are so low.
e. There are more prisoners today, so more work is done though prison labor.

a. It is very easy to deny prisoners the right to form a union.

One of the biggest challenges that increased technology presents to unions is that
a. younger workers are at a disadvantage.
b. telecommuting is increasing.
c. work can be performed with fewer employees.
d. disabled workers need reasonable accommodations.
e. employees need training.

c. work can be performed with fewer employees.

A(n) ____ shop agreement requires new hires to join a union within a specified period of time.
a. arbitration
b. mediation
c. strike
d. closed
e. union

e. union

A(n) ____ shop agreement requires a firm to hire individuals who are already union members.
a. arbitration
b. mediation
c. strike
d. closed
e. union

d. closed

____ are unions organized at the level of a single organization or region.
a. Nationals
b. Internationals
c. Stakes
d. Locals
e. None of these

d. Locals

Each local has an important elected position called the
a. shop steward
b. executive head.
c. department head.
d. dean of negotiations.
e. labor-mgt negotiator.

a. shop steward

____ items may be included in the collective bargaining if both parties agree.
a. Mandatory
b. Oblique
c. Permissive
d. Progressive
e. Regressive

c. Permissive

Refer to Scenario 11.1. What is the first step that Mr. Bowman should take to begin the unionization process?
a. Hold a secret ballot election.
b. Ask the National Labor Relations Board to hold a certification election.
c. Call in a union organizer to stimulate interest in unionization.
d. Call for a boycott of Multinational’s goods until the employer unionizes the workers.
e. Ask for an arbitrator to decide the issue of unionization.

c. Call in a union organizer to stimulate interest in unionization.

Refer to Scenario 11.1. What percentage of workers must request a certification election before petitioning the National Labor Relations Board to conduct an election?
a. 15 percent
b. 30 percent
c. 40 percent
d. 50 percent
e. 75 percent

b. 30 percent

Refer to Scenario 11.1. Before a certification election can be held,
a. workers must file a specific grievance against management.
b. a majority of the workers must express an interest in unionization.
c. the National Labor Relations Board must define the bargaining unit.
d. the current labor contract must have expired.
e. 10 percent of the workers must sign authorization cards.

c. the National Labor Relations Board must define the bargaining unit.

Refer to Scenario 11.1. For a certification election to succeed,
a. a majority of the workers in the bargaining unit must approve the union.
b. a majority of workers who signed authorization cards must approve the union.
c. 30 percent of the workers in the bargaining unit must approve the union.
d. 30 percent of the workers voting in the election must approve the union.
e. a majority of the workers voting in the election must approve the union.

e. a majority of the workers voting in the election must approve the union.

Refer to Scenario 11.1. Which of the following social issues is NOT a concern that Multinational employees would be likely to have about their employer’s plans?
a. Child labor in some foreign countries
b. Increasing use of contingent workers
c. Loss of American jobs
d. Negative consequences of globalization on American workers
e. Exploitation of Third World workers

b. Increasing use of contingent workers

Local unions are usually coordinated by a regional officer.

T

Since the mid-1950s, unions have experienced decreasing difficulty in attracting new members.

F

The bargaining unit is the group of employees who are eligible for representation by the union.

T

An impasse is a situation where all parties involved will eventually reach an agreement.

F

For decertification to occur, one condition is that the union must have served as the official bargaining agent for the employees for at least one year.

T

The collective bargaining process involves two sides: management representing the employing company and the labor union representing workers.

T

A strike occurs when workers representing the union march with signs at the employer’s facility.

F

A boycott occurs when union members agree to not buy products from a targeted employer.

T

A slowdown occurs when an employer denies employees access to the workplace.

F

Arbitration assumes that key parties will agree to the recommendations of the independent third-party arbitrator.

T