|
Which of the following is a business activity that an organization does especially well relative to its competition? |
d. Core competence |
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The condition that exists when the organization’s parts interact to produce a joint effect that is greater than the sum of the parts acting alone is known as: |
b. synergy. |
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When properly managed, _____ can create additional value with existing resources, providing a big boost to the bottom line. |
a. synergy |
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_____ can be defined as the combination of benefits received and costs paid by the customer. |
b. Value |
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After Sunshine Systems merged with RTD Enterprises, company executives noticed that due to increased employee collaboration between the two units, costs were down and revenues increased within both areas. This is an example of what business phenomenon? |
d. Synergy |
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When AT&T decided to buy Media One, a cable company, it was pursuing a(n) _____ strategy. |
d. corporate-level |
|
_____ level strategy pertains to the major functional departments within the business unit. |
e. Functional |
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When Philip-Morris, the tobacco giant, bought Kraft, Inc., it was pursuing a _____. |
a. corporate-level strategy |
|
Which of the following pertains to the organization as a whole? |
c. Corporate-level strategy |
|
Sears’ decision to sell off much of its financial services division is an example of a: |
a. corporate-level strategy. |
|
A corporate-level strategy is concerned with the question: |
a. what business are we in? |
|
When Coca-Cola introduced Surge, a new citrus soft-drink, what type of strategy was being pursued? |
e. Business-level strategy |
|
Ford’s decision to completely redesign its Ford Taurus can be classified as a: |
b. business level strategy. |
|
Janessa is the CEO of a privately-held software company. In defining corporate-level strategies, which of the following questions would she most likely be concerned with? |
b. What business are we in? |
|
Decisions regarding the proper amount of advertising for a particular good or service are related to: |
d. business-level strategies. |
|
Which of these questions is central to a functional-level strategy? |
c. How do we support our chosen strategy? |
|
Which of the following lists the strategic management process in proper order? |
d. Evaluate current mission/goals; Perform SWOT analysis; Define new mission/goals; Formulate strategy; Execute strategy. |
|
_____ refers to the use of managerial tools to direct resources toward the achievement of strategic goals. |
c. Strategy execution |
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Which of the following refers to the planning and decision making that lead to the establishment of the organization’s goals and of a specific strategic plan? |
a. Strategy formulation |
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Fred has been assigned to conduct a SWOT analysis for his organization, Acme, Inc. As part of this assignment, Fred will: |
b. search for the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats that impact his firm. |
|
Techniques used to monitor external environments include: |
e. all of these. |
|
Classy Clay has extremely creative employees who, in the opinion of the organization, keep the company ahead of the competition. The creativity of these employees would be classified as a(n) _____. |
d. internal strength |
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Paramount, Inc. is particularly concerned about pending legislation in Congress that would further regulate their organization. This legislation would be classified as a(n) _____. |
c. external threat |
|
Sherri has been asked to participate on a cross-functional task force that is charged with performing an audit checklist for her advertising firm. The task force will analyze organizational strengths and weaknesses as they apply to the firm. Sherri’s task is to analyze management quality, staff quality, degree of centralization, and organizational charts. This level of analysis pertains to which area of the audit? |
a. Management and organization |
|
Where does the information about opportunities and threats comes from? |
c. Scanning the external environments |
|
What type of organizational unit has a unique business mission, product line, competitors, and markets relative to other units in the same corporation? |
c. Strategic business unit |
|
How business units and product lines fit together in a logical way is the essence of: |
b. portfolio strategy. |
|
Gatekeep Utilities is a subsidiary of GW Enterprises. Gatekeep has a mission and product line that is unique from GW. Gatekeep’s competitors are also very different from those of its parent, and the subsidiary markets to a very different group of customers. As such, Gatekeep can be described as a(n) _____. |
d. strategic business unit |
|
The BCG matrix organizes along which of the following dimensions? |
c. Business growth rate and market share |
|
Double Click, Inc. has a number of strategic business units. Their hand-held computer unit has a large market share in this rapidly growing industry. Their hand-held computer business would be classified as: |
b. a star. |
|
Which of these is true about the cash cow? |
d. It has a large market share in a slow growth industry. |
|
The star has a: |
a. large market share in a rapidly growing industry. |
|
Which of the following portfolio categories is made up of poor performers who command only a small share of a slow growth market? |
d. Dog |
|
The question mark has a: |
c. small market share in a rapidly growing industry. |
|
Which of these is true about the dog division? |
d. It has a small share of a slow growth market. |
|
Gillette operates numerous strategic business units. Most of its units in the personal care division have low market share but high business growth. These units are classified as _____. |
b. question marks |
|
According to the BCG Matrix, which of the following exists in a mature, slow-growth industry, but is a dominant business in the industry, with a large market share? |
e. Cash cow |
|
When an organization expands into a totally new line of business, it is implementing a strategy of: |
b. Unrelated diversification |
|
Semway, a regional bank, recently announced that it would soon begin offering financial planning services. This is an example of which of these? |
a. Related diversification |
|
The purpose of _____ is to expand the firm’s business operations to produce new kinds of valuable products and services? |
b. diversification |
|
Which of the following strategies refers to moving into a new business that is related to the company’s existing business activities? |
d. Related diversification |
|
All of the following are Porter’s competitive forces except: |
a. differentiation. |
|
Which of the following is NOT one of Porter’s competitive forces? |
c. Bargaining power of stockholders |
|
Which of the following strategies involve an attempt to distinguish the firm’s products or services from others in the industry? |
b. Differentiation |
|
Which strategy can be profitable for an organization when customers are loyal and willing to pay high prices? |
d. Differentiation |
|
The _____ strategy involves seeking efficient facilities, cutting costs and using tight cost controls to be more efficient than competitors. |
a. cost leadership |
|
The human resource department at Paula’s Powerwheels is implementing a number of functional level strategies. These strategies include focusing on ways to retain and develop a stable work force and ways to improve efficiency in the organization. These functional-level strategies are consistent with which of the following strategies? |
a. Cost leadership |
|
With a(n) _____ strategy, the organization concentrates on a specific regional market or buyer group. |
c. focus |
|
Mingles, Inc. concentrates its efforts on its target market of 18 to 25 year olds. It is using a(n) _____ strategy. |
a. focus |
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General Products Inc. is a small clothing designer and manufacturer located in the United States. A vast majority of the company’s revenues comes from U.S. sales, although about ten percent of the company’s revenue come from sales to Canada. General Products Inc. can best be described as using which global corporate strategy? |
c. Export strategy |
|
FLY Industries is a global conglomerate company headquartered in the United States that does business in over fifty countries. The company seeks to balance global efficiencies and local responsiveness by hiring locally as well as from home. It can best be described as using which global corporate strategy? |
d. Transnational strategy |
|
If ABC International has standardized its product line throughout the world it is pursuing a: |
d. globalization strategy. |
|
The assumption that a single global market exists would lead to a: |
a. globalization strategy. |
|
Which of the following strategies would be appropriate when the need for both national responsiveness and global integration is low? |
c. Export |
|
_____ refers to the modification of product design and advertising strategies to suit the specific needs of individual countries. |
d. Multidomestic strategy |
|
Which of the following refers to a strategy that combines global coordination to attain efficiency with flexibility to meet specific needs in various countries? |
c. Transnational strategy |
|
Some people argue that _____ is the most difficult and most important part of strategic management. |
c. strategic execution |
|
Persuasion, motivation, and changes in cultures and values are examples of which of the dimensions used to implement strategy? |
a. Leadership |
|
59. Which of the following is NOT one of the tools used for putting strategy into action? |
b. Diversification |
|
People need to understand how their individual actions can contribute to achieving an organizational strategy. This can be accomplished by delegating authority, creating teams, and defining roles. These actions are part of which tool for putting strategy into action? |
d. Clear roles and accountability |
|
The _____ function recruits selects, trains, transfers, promotes, and lays off employees to achieve strategic goals. |
e. human resource |
|
Which of the following refers to the deployment of organizational resources to achieve strategic goals? |
c. Organizing |
|
Strategy defines _____ to do (it) while organizing defines _____ to do (it). |
c. what; how |
|
3. Organizational structure includes which of these? |
ANSWER: e |
|
4. Organization structure is defined as the: |
b. framework in which the organization defined how tasks are divided, resources are deployed, and departments are coordinated. |
|
5. The organization chart: |
d. all of these. |
|
6. The _____ delineates the chain of command, indicates departmental tasks and how they fit together, and provides order and logic for the organization. |
e. organizational chart |
|
7. Which of the following refers to the degree to which organizational tasks are subdivided into individual jobs? |
c. Work specialization |
|
8. When work specialization is extensive: |
a. employees perform a single task. |
|
9. Louise works in the manufacturing department at Ice Sculptures. The work in Louise’s department is low in task specialization. As a result, Louise: |
b. does a variety of tasks and activities. |
|
10. _____ is also referred to as work specialization. |
a. Division of labor |
|
11. Jacob was recently looking at his company’s organization chart in an attempt to discover who reports to whom. Jacob is studying his organization’s: |
d. chain of command. |
|
12. Unity of command and the scalar principle are both closely related to the: |
c. chain of command. |
|
13. _____ means that each employee is held accountable to only one supervisor. |
b. Unity of command |
|
14. The formal and legitimate right of a manager to make decisions is _____. |
c. authority |
|
15. _____ refers to a clearly defined line of authority in the organization that includes all employees. |
a. Scalar principle |
|
16. Rebecca works for a company that has clearly defined lines of authority. Each employee knows that he or she has authority and responsibility for a distinct set of tasks. Employees are also aware of the company’s reporting structure as well as successive management levels all the way to the top. Rebecca’s company follows which principle? |
c. Scalar principle |
|
17. How does managerial authority flow through the organizational hierarchy? |
a. Vertically |
|
18. The people with authority and responsibility are subject to reporting and justifying task outcomes to those above them in the chain of command. This is called _____. |
d. accountability |
|
19. Which of the following characteristics distinguishes authority? |
b. Subordinates accept it. |
|
20. Gina wishes to transfer authority and responsibility to her subordinates. This process is known as: |
c. delegation. |
|
21. Which of the following typically is NOT considered a staff department? |
c. Manufacturing |
|
22. Which department performs tasks that reflect the organization’s primary goals and mission? |
a. Line |
|
23. _____ departments include all of those that provide specialized skills in support of _____ departments. |
b. Staff; line |
|
24. Carly’s Clothes, Inc. manufactures children’s clothes. Which of the following departments for Carly’s Clothes can be considered a line department? |
d. Manufacturing department |
|
25. Which of the following refers to the number of employees reporting to a supervisor? |
b. The span of management |
|
26. Traditionally, a span of management of about _____ has been recommended. |
d. seven |
|
27. Shoshanna is manager of a customer service firm where she oversees five subordinates. To help her subordinates learn more about the different roles within the company, Shoshanna regularly assigns them tasks that are not part of their normal routine. This is an example of: |
b. delegation |
|
28. Kevin’s subordinates are highly trained and all perform similar tasks. Nichole’s subordinates are spread over two locations and she has little available in the way of support systems. Which of the following statements is most correct? |
c. Kevin’s span of management can be larger than Nichole’s. |
|
29. Which of the following organizations have a flat structure compared to others? |
b. Organization B with three hierarchical levels |
|
30. Which of the following factors is NOT associated with larger span of control? |
c. Subordinates are located at various different locations. |
|
31. Relative to a flat organizational structure, a tall structure has a _____ span of management and _____ hierarchical levels. |
d. narrow; more |
|
32. _____ is the trend in recent years. |
c. Wider spans of management |
|
33. Barney and Betty work at Mountain Peak, Inc. Although they both work on the assembly line, they have the authority to make many decisions about their job. Mountain Peak can be said to have: |
a. a high degree of decentralization. |
|
34. _____ means that decision authority is located near the _____ of the organization. |
c. Centralization; top |
|
35. Change and uncertainty in the environment are usually associated with _____. |
b. decentralization |
|
36. Which of the following is the basis for grouping positions into departments and departments into the total organization? |
a. Departmentalization |
|
37. Jacob, a customer service representative for AB Retailers, has seven levels of management between himself and the company’s CEO. In contrast, his friend Rhonda, a customer service representative for YZ Retailers, has only four levels of management between her and the company CEO. Compared to YZ, Jacob’s company has what type of organizational structure? |
d. Tall |
|
38. The functional, _____, and _____ are traditional approaches that rely on the chain of command to define departmental groupings and reporting relationships along the hierarchy. |
b. divisional, matrix |
|
39. The use of teams may lead to too much: |
b. decentralization. |
|
40. In times of crisis or risk of company failure, authority should be: |
c. centralized at the top. |
|
41. When departments are grouped together on the basis of organizational outputs, the organization is using a: |
c. divisional structure. |
|
42. Self-contained unit structure is a term used for: |
a. divisional structure. |
|
43. Relative to the functional structure, the divisional structure: |
a. encourages decentralization. |
|
44. Theresa works in an organization where coordination across organizational units is poor and the units perceived themselves to be in competition with one another for organizational resources. These characteristics are consistent with which of the following structures? |
c. A divisional structure |
|
45. All functions in a specific country or region report to the same division manager in _____ divisions. |
c. geographic-based |
|
46. Global companies often use a _____ structure to achieve simultaneous coordination of products across countries. |
c. matrix |
|
47. A formal chain of command for both functional and divisional relationships is provided by the _____ approach to structure. |
a. matrix |
|
48. Kent works at the Tick Tock, Inc. He has two bosses, one a functional manager and the other a divisional manager. Tick Tock, Inc. has a _____ structure. |
d. matrix |
|
49. Disadvantages of the virtual network approach include: |
d. all of these. |
|
50. Salta Communications is a global telecommunications company that has operations on four continents. The CEO’s direct supervisors include VPs for the North American South American, European, and the Asian divisions. Salta can best be described as using what organizational structure? |
e. Geographic |
|
51. The matrix structure violates which of the following principles of management? |
b. Unity of command |
|
52. All of the following are the major disadvantages of the matrix structure EXCEPT: |
e. enlarged tasks for employees. |
|
53. Juan is a top manager at I.F.L., a matrix organization. He oversees both the product and functional chains of command, and is responsible for maintaining a power balance between the two sides of the matrix. Juan is a _____. |
e. top leader |
|
54. The _____ is the product or functional boss, who is responsible for one side of the matrix. |
a. matrix boss |
|
55. _____ teams are brought together as a formal department in the organization. |
b. Permanent |
|
56. Walt works for a large company. Recently, his organization began to contract out such functions as training, engineering, and computer service. This approach is consistent with a _____ structure. |
d. virtual network |
|
57. The _____ is an organization structure that divides the major functions of the organization into separate companies. |
c. virtual network approach |
|
58. The _____ is an organization structure that divides the major functions of the organization into separate companies and coordinates their activities from a small headquarters organization. |
c. virtual network approach |
|
59. In the _____ structure, the organization is viewed as a central hub surrounded by a network of outside specialists which are sometimes spread all over the world. |
a. virtual network |
|
60. According to MANAGER’S SHOPTALK in Chapter 10, all of the following are effective ways for a manager to delegate EXCEPT: |
c. save feedback for completion of the project. |
|
61. In the _____ approach, a manufacturing company uses outside suppliers to provide entire chunks of a product, which are then assembled into a final product by a handful of workers. |
b. modular |
|
62. The biggest advantage to a virtual network approach is _____ and _____ on a global scale. |
a. flexibility; competitiveness |
|
63. All of the following are advantages of a functional structure EXCEPT: |
b. excellent coordination between functions. |
|
64. An advantage of functional structures is the: |
a. resulting economies of scale. |
|
65. Which of the following structures is the leanest of all organization forms because little supervision is required? |
b. Virtual network approach |
|
66. Shooting Star, Inc. has slow response to external changes, centralized decision making, and poor coordination across departments. It is likely structured: |
b. along functional lines. |
|
67. Organ Rentals Corporation has been having numerous problems. Communication across departments is poor and decisions are backing up at the top of the organization. Organ Rentals uses a _____ structure. |
c. functional |
|
68. All of the following are advantages of a divisional structure EXCEPT: |
e. there is little duplication of services across divisions. |
|
69. Which is an advantage of the divisional structure? |
a. Concern for customers’ needs is high. |
|
70. Advantages of the matrix structure include: |
e. all of these. |
|
71. Which of the following is(are) an advantage of team structure? |
d. Less response time, quicker decisions |
|
72. Stephanie works in one of seven research and development departments at Tara’s Terrace, Inc. This would suggest that Tara’s Terrace has a: |
b. divisional structure. |
|
73. Which of the following is a contemporary approach to structural design in departmentalization? |
d. Teams |
|
74. The team approach to departmentalization is a response to: |
d. all of these. |
|
75. Coordination is defined as: |
b. the quality of collaboration across departments. |
|
76. Innovative Creations Corporation is designed along functional lines. New product development is very slow and the process is plagued by many problems. One of the problems is that the people in marketing never communicate with the people in production. This is an example of poor _____. |
a. coordination |
|
77. Which of the following happens as organizations grow? |
c. Managers have to find ways to tie different departments. |
|
78. When the organization is structured along _____ lines, coordination is required. |
d. all of these |
|
79. The outcome of information and cooperation is _____. |
c. coordination |
|
80. A task force is _____ committee(s) formed to solve a specific problem. |
c. a temporary |
|
81. Marissa was recently assigned to a committee whose task is to research new product opportunities. Once this group generates a list of six or seven viable options, it will be disbanded. This group is also known as a _____. |
d. task force |
|
82. Which of the following leads to strong coordination across functional areas and greater flexibility in responding to changes in the environments? |
a. Reengineering |
|
83. Boars’ Nest Distributors is continually hampered by an inability to adapt to an unstable environment. Which of the following is a plausible explanation as to why? |
c. Boars’ Nest uses a vertical structure. |
|
84. Makai’s Marketing Mix (MMM) does not use its resources wisely. The employees at MMM spend too much time in meetings and not enough time focusing on the task at hand. MMM’s management should consider changing the organizational structure from _____ to _____. |
a. horizontal, vertical |
|
85. Flash Card Inc. recently underwent a significant company-wide change that involved revision of its manufacturing and leadership processes. The result of this was a stronger emphasis on horizontal coordination. This level of change is referred to as _____. |
b. reengineering |
|
86. A(n) ____ is responsible for coordinating the activities of several departments. |
c. project manager |
|
87. Lisa is responsible for coordinating the efforts of several different departments. Which of the following titles best describes her position? |
d. Project manager |
|
88. Typically, project managers have authority over _____ but not over _____ assigned to it. |
b. the project; people |
|
89. Which of the following is not an approach to structural design that reflects different uses of the chain of command? |
c. Process approach |
|
90. Kara’s department is made up of people with similar skills and work activities. Her organization uses the _____ approach to departmentalization. |
d. vertical functional |
|
91. Mondavi Corporation has a finance department, a marketing department, and a production department. Mondavi: |
a. uses a functional structure. |
|
92. An organization strives for internal efficiency with a(n) _____ strategy. |
e. cost leadership |
|
93. With a(n) _____ strategy, the organization attempts to develop innovative products unique to the market. |
a. differentiation |
|
94. A pure functional structure is most appropriate for achieving: |
c. internal efficiency goals. |
|
95. Which of the following structures is most consistent with a strategy of stability? |
d. Functional structure |
|
96. The pure functional structure does not enable the organization to be: |
c. flexible. |
|
97. Which of the following structures works best in an uncertain organizational environment? |
c. A horizontal structure |
|
98. A(n) _____ works best in a stable organizational environment. |
b. vertical structure |
|
99. Which of the following is an incorrect fit in a stable organizational environment? |
d. A horizontal structure |
|
100. In _____ production, firms produce goods in batches of one or a few products designed to customer specification. |
d. small batch |
|
101. Swift Move Facilities manufacturers two different bicycle models. The company produces a high volume of products using standardized production runs. The company does very little product customization. Swift Move uses what type of technology structure? |
b. Mass production |
|
102. Organizations such as Amazon.com, Google, Facebook, and Priceline.com are examples of firms that are based on: |
a. digital technology. |
|
103. In a _____ organization, the entire work flow is mechanized in a sophisticated and complex form of production technology. |
e. continuous process production |
|
104. _____ refers to the fact that services are perishable and cannot be stored in inventory. |
c. Intangible output |
|
1. Which of the following is the arousal, direction, and persistence of behavior? |
b. Motivation |
|
2. A(n)_____ refers to a reward given by another person. |
c. extrinsic reward |
|
3. A(n)_____ is an example of an intrinsic reward. |
a. employee’s feelings of self-worth |
|
4. Katie dislikes almost everything about her job. The only reason she continues to work at Mace Autobody is the excellent benefits package she receives. Katie is motivated by: |
a. extrinsic rewards. |
|
5. Sally enjoys her job as a teacher, not because of the pay or benefits, but because she feels good about shaping the minds of tomorrow’s leaders. Sally is motivated by: |
e. intrinsic rewards. |
|
6. Which of the following theories focuses on employee learning of desired work behaviors? |
a. Reinforcement theory |
|
7. Which motivation theory proposes that needs must be satisfied in sequence? |
c. Hierarchy of needs theory |
|
8. Which of the following theories emphasize the needs that motivate people? |
c. Content |
|
9. Which of the following is a content theory that proposes that people are motivated by physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization needs? |
d. Hierarchy of needs theory |
|
10. _____ focus on employee learning of desired work behaviors. |
e. Reinforcement theories |
|
11. Which of the following is NOT a need proposed by Maslow in his hierarchy of needs theory? |
b. Compensation needs |
|
12. Nelson is motivated by a strong need for recognition and is continually seeking credit for his contributions to the organization. According to Maslow, Neil is motivated by which category of needs? |
d. Esteem |
|
13. _____ describe the most basic human physical needs, including food, water and oxygen. |
b. Physiological needs |
|
14. Which need describes the desire to be accepted by one’s peer, have friendships, be part of a group, and be loved? |
d. Belongingness needs |
|
15. According to Maslow, the highest order needs are: |
a. self-actualization needs. |
|
16. Alderfer referred to the needs for physical well being as _____ needs. |
b. existence |
|
17. Frank is primarily driven by a need to establish close social relationships with other people. Alderfer would say he is motivated by: |
c. relatedness needs. |
|
18. The frustration-regression principle is most closely related with _____. |
d. Alderfer |
|
19. According to Herzberg, _____ is an example of a hygiene factor. |
c. pay |
|
20. Highroller Casinos provides good salaries and benefits, including bonuses of up to 25 percent of annual salaries. However, the company has been criticized for not establishing an achievement or recognition program for its employees. Which of the following best describes the company in terms of the two-factor theory? |
b. Good hygiene factors and inadequate motivators |
|
21. Which of the following are high-level needs, according to Herzberg, and include achievement, recognition, responsibility, and opportunity for growth? |
c. Motivators |
|
22. _____ have the greatest impact, according to Herzberg, on job satisfaction. |
c. Motivators |
|
23. The majority of hourly workers at Formatting Unlimited are neither satisfied nor dissatisfied. What would Herzberg recommend if your goal were to increase their level of satisfaction? |
b. Increase the level of motivators |
|
24. The desire to form close personal relationships, avoid conflict, and establish warm friendships, describes: |
a. a need for affiliation. |
|
25. A high need for _____ is associated with successful attainment of top levels in the organizational hierarchy, according to McClelland. |
a. power |
|
26. Denise has a desire to influence others, be responsible for them, and have authority over them. It can be described as her: |
a. need for power. |
|
27. Alden is a recent college graduate. He is unsure about his future. A counselor in his university’s career resources office recently told Alden that he had a high need for achievement. Based on this, what type of career should Alden pursue? |
b. He should think about starting his own business. |
|
28. Which term, in goal-setting theory, refers to the need to make goals highly ambitious but achievable? |
b. Goal difficulty |
|
29. In goal-setting theory, _____ refers to the idea that employees have to "buy into" the goals. |
c. goal acceptance |
|
30. In goal-setting theory, which term refers to the need to get information to people about how well they are doing in progressing toward goal achievement? |
d. Feedback |
|
31. Which of the following is an example of a process theory of motivation? |
b. Equity theory |
|
32. _____ theory deals with employee’s perception of fairness. |
d. Equity |
|
33. Kara and Simon are both middle managers at Gotcha International. Kara is dissatisfied because she knows that Simon makes more in salary even though, in Kara’s opinion, she works longer hours than he does. If Kara wishes to reduce this perceived inequity, what should she do? |
d. All of these. |
|
34. Which of the following is NOT a common method for reducing a perceived inequity? |
e. Change equity |
|
35. Which of the following is based on the relationships between effort, performance, and outcomes? |
b. Expectancy theory |
|
36. Samuel, a sales associate at an electronics store, learns that his base pay is higher than any other sales associate in the store. He justifies his higher salary to the idea that he must be a top sales associate, generating more revenue than anyone else. This example demonstrates which method for reducing perceived inequity? |
d. Changing perceptions |
|
37. Yolanda recently learned that Sue, who works in the same position as she and has been with the company for the same amount of time, earns about ten percent more than she does. As a result, Yolanda feels that she should not work as hard, so she starts coming in late and taking more days off. This is an example of which method for reducing perceived equity? |
c. Changing work effort |
|
38. A recent study from the U.S. Department of Labor shows that the top reason that people leave their jobs is because they: |
b. don’t feel appreciated. |
|
39. The _____ involves whether putting effort into a task will lead to high performance. |
b. E -> P expectancy |
|
40. Tim is a manager at Chuck’s Construction. He sees little opportunity for advancement at Chuck’s Construction, regardless of how well he performs. Which of the following expectancies is low for Tim? |
c. P -> O expectancy |
|
41. Abbi works at Railroad Ties. Her bosses continually indicate that her motivational level is low. Abbi agrees, but is unwilling to work harder until the company changes the types of reward it offers its employees. Which of the following is low for Abbi? |
c. Valence |
|
42. Which of the following describes the value or attraction an individual has for an outcome? |
b. Valence |
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43. Which of the following theories concern the thought processes that influence behavior? |
a. Process |
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44. Theories that explain how employees select the behaviors that allow them to meet their needs are known as: |
c. process theories. |
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45. In goal-setting theory, _____ refers to the degree to which goals are concrete and unambiguous. |
a. goal specificity |
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46. Which of the following theories places an emphasis on behavior and its consequences? |
c. Reinforcement theory |
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47. Which of the following is the administration of a pleasant and rewarding consequence following a desired behavior? |
c. Positive reinforcement |
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48. Bruce publicly praises his employees when they have achieved their goals. Bruce hopes this will increase the likelihood of goal achievement in the future. This is an example of: |
d. positive reinforcement. |
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49. The removal of an unpleasant consequence following a desired behavior is referred to as: |
a. avoidance learning. |
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50. Which of these is sometimes called negative reinforcement? |
a. Avoidance learning |
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51. _____ is the imposition of unpleasant outcomes on an employee. |
b. Punishment |
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52. Which of the following techniques reduces the likelihood that behavior will be repeated? |
c. Extinction |
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53. One of your fellow students is continually late to class. The professor has tried numerous verbal warnings and recently took points away from the student’s grade. Based on the above, the professor’s actions are consistent with which of the following reinforcement techniques? |
b. Punishment |
|
54. Jeff and Rob have a difficult time getting along at work. Most days, Jeff spends a lot of time cracking jokes and goofing off, while Rob constantly nags him and tells him to act like a grownup. On days when Jeff is more reserved, Rob does not nag him, hoping that this will result in improved behavior down the road. This is an example of which form of behavior modification? |
d. Avoidance learning |
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55. Which of these refers to the withdrawal of a positive reward, meaning that behavior is no longer reinforced and hence is less likely to occur in the future? |
d. Extinction |
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56. One of your fellow team members at work is continually disrupting the team’s work with jokes and general horseplay. You hope that by ignoring him he will stop this senseless behavior. You are attempting to use which reinforcement tool? |
a. Extinction |
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57. Which theory proposes that an individual’s motivation can result not just from direct experience of rewards and punishments but also from the person’s thoughts and beliefs and his or her observations of other people’s behavior? |
e. Social learning theory |
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58. _____ occurs when an individual sees others perform certain behaviors and get rewarded for them. |
a. Vicarious learning |
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59. At Rightway Industries, new hires spend a significant portion of their first week of training just walking around the factory, observing other workers and watching them get rewarded for doing their jobs well. This is an example of: |
a. vicarious learning. |
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60. Which of the following is the application of motivational theories to the structure of work for improving productivity and satisfaction? |
a. Job design |
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61. While job ____ can lead to greater task efficiencies, it has failed as a motivational technique. |
c. simplification |
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62. Larry is looking for ways to increase the number of different tasks that an employee performs without increasing task complexity. He should try: |
c. job rotation. |
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63. _____ systematically moves employees from one job to another, thereby increasing the number of different tasks an employee performs without increasing the complexity of any one job. |
b. Job rotation |
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64. Which of these combines a number of tasks horizontally into one, new broader job? |
e. None of these |
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65. Which of the following combines a series of tasks into one new, broader job? |
b. Job enlargement |
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66. A job design that incorporates achievement, recognition, and other high-level motivators into the work is referred to as: |
d. job enrichment. |
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67. Karen is a first line supervisor at Wolfs, Inc. She wishes to increase her employee’s opportunities for growth and learning. Which of the following techniques should she use? |
b. Job enrichment |
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68. _____ is an important part of the job characteristics model. |
a. Critical psychological states |
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69. The core dimension of Hackman and Oldham’s model of job characteristics that is based on the number of diverse activities that make up a job is known as: |
c. skill variety. |
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70. Which of the following refers to the degree to which an employee performs a total job with a recognizable beginning and ending? |
b. Task identity |
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71. The degree to which the job is perceived as important and having impact on the company or customers is referred to as: |
c. task significance. |
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72. _____ influences the critical psychological state of experienced meaningfulness of work. |
d. All of these |
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73. _____ is an individual’s belief about his or her abilities to successfully accomplish a specific task or outcome. |
b. Self-efficacy |
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74. Daisy tried to apply the job characteristics model to her workforce, but it only worked for some of her employees. Which of the following may be a reason why it did not work for everyone? |
b. Some of her employees are low in growth-need strength |
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75. _____ is the extent to which doing the job provides information back to the employee about his or her performance. |
a. Feedback |
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76. The job characteristic of feedback provides the worker with: |
d. knowledge of actual results. |
|
77. The delegation of power and authority to subordinates is referred to as: |
c. empowerment. |
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78. Empowering employees means giving employees _____. |
e. all of these |
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79. Ricky is a manager at InfoServices, where she rewards the top sales employee every month by giving him or her a high-definition TV or PC. This is an example of what employee motivation program? |
b. Lifestyle award |
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80. On the continuum of empowerment, what is the highest level of empowerment that requires the most complex skills? |
a. Self-management |
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81. _____ is power sharing, or the delegation of power or authority to subordinates in an organization. |
d. Empowerment |
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82. On the continuum of empowerment, employees who are self-managed: |
c. are responsible for decision process and strategy. |
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83. _____ is a situation in which employees enjoy their work, contribute enthusiastically to meeting goals, and feel a sense of belonging and commitment to the organization. |
b. Engagement |
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84. Carla’s subordinates view her as a great manager. Not only does she get the job done, but she organizes the workplace in such a way that employees experience a sense of meaningfulness, connection, and growth. This is an example of employee: |
e. engagement. |
|
1. Which of the following is the systematic process through which managers regulate organizational activities? |
b. Organizational control |
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2. Ophelia, the new CEO at Odyssey Inc., plans to implement a highly effective systematic process of regulating organizational activities to make them consistent with the expectations that are established by managers within the company. This is referred to as _____ control. |
a. organizational |
|
3. For control, this type of measure is an important part of achieving higher performance. |
a. Statistical |
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4. According to MANAGER’S SHOPTALK in Chapter 19, the interest in self-awareness is part of a growing discipline called _____. |
e. auto-analytics |
|
5. Zachary, a manager at ExecuComp, receives quarterly reports, which track his department’s production statistics. However, these reports lack key information regarding reject rates. Which of the following components of the control model need improvement? |
a. Measuring actual performance |
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6. Which of the following is a control system that measures performance in terms of after-tax profits minus the cost of capital invested in tangible assets? |
b. Economic value-added system |
|
7. All of the following are key steps of setting up feedback control systems EXCEPT: |
c. getting employee opinions. |
|
8. Which of the following is a comprehensive management control system that balances traditional financial measures with operational measures relating to a company’s critical success factors? |
d. Balanced scorecard |
|
9. _____ indicators focus on production and operating statistics. |
b. Business process |
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10. All of the following are major perspectives of the Balanced Scorecard EXCEPT _____. |
a. competitors |
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11. Mistletoe Corporation has a detailed set of organizational goals and management information system that delivers timely and accurate information. Mistletoe still has control problems, however, because its managers refuse to act on the information they receive. Mistletoe’s control process has flaws in which of the following areas? |
c. Its ability to take corrective action when necessary |
|
12. Your department has absenteeism standards, a way to measure absenteeism, and, based on your investigation, you have concluded that your department has an excessive absenteeism rate. What should your next step be? |
d. All of these would be good examples of taking corrective action. |
|
13. Kyle’s work group consistently exceeds the goals the members set for themselves some months ago. In an attempt to better motivate the group, Kyle thought it would be a good idea to set new goals. This is an example of Kyle exercising control by: |
c. taking corrective action. |
|
14. In the process of implementing the balanced scorecard approach at his company, operations manager Seth Howard wonders whether internal activities and processes add value for customers and shareholders. This involves which dimension of the balanced scorecard? |
e. Internal business processes |
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15. Focusing on how well resources and human capital are being managed for the company’s future by showing an improvement trend over periods of time refers to which component of the balanced scorecard? |
b. Learning and growth |
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16. Use of the balanced scorecard can hinder or decrease organizational performance if it is implemented using which type of orientation? |
b. Performance measurement orientation |
|
17. All well-designed control systems involve the use of _____ to determine whether performance meets established standards. |
e. feedback |
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18. What is the first step in the feedback control system? |
b. Establishing standards of performance |
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19. CyberChasers Corporation sends a post-purchase questionnaire to all consumers who buy their products. They are interested in gathering data on product quality, customer service orientation, and customer satisfaction. This is an example of a: |
b. feedback control. |
|
20. Kendra is a manager at George’s Goodies. On a regular basis Kendra and her subordinates set individual and organizational goals. This process is similar to which component of the control model? |
c. Establishing performance standards |
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21. According to the control model, after establishing standards of performance the manager should: |
c. measure actual performance. |
|
22. Tiffany recently discovered that the reject rate for her department has exceeded the standard for performance in this area. What should Tiffany do to exercise effective control? |
d. She should investigate and discover the cause of the problem. |
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23. _____ is any organizational department or unit under the supervision of a single person who is responsible for its activity. |
b. Responsibility center |
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24. _____ control is the process of setting targets for an organizations expenditures. |
c. Budgetary |
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25. Which of the following includes anticipated and actual expenses for a responsibility center? |
d. Expense budget |
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26. Which of these is a financial budget that estimates cash flows on a daily basis or weekly basis to ensure that the company can meet its obligations? |
c. Cash budget |
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27. Madison has been assigned to work on the development of a budget that plans future investments in major assets such as buildings and heavy machinery. Madison is working on a(n) _____ budget. |
b. capital |
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28. The _____ plans future investments in major assets to be depreciated over several years. |
a. capital budget |
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29. Ron meets with his company’s accountant to discuss the budget of anticipated and actual expenses for each segment of the organization. This involves review of which type of budget? |
a. Expense budget |
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30. Stella, a systems manager for a large technology company, would like to get an understanding of her company’s financial position with respect to assets and liabilities at the end of the fiscal year. Which financial statement should she refer to? |
d. Balance sheet |
|
31. Which financial control system measures the stock market’s estimate of the value of a company’s past and projected capital investment projects? |
a. Market value-added |
|
32. Brad is a department manager at Home Theater, Inc. His sole role in the budget process is to implement the budget that is developed for him. This is an example of: |
c. top-down budgeting. |
|
33. Pauline is an area manager at Ironman Gym. She anticipates her area’s needs and formulates a proposed budget every quarter. She then sends this proposal to her manager. This is an example of: |
d. bottom-up budgeting. |
|
34. An advantage of the bottom-up budgeting process is: |
b. lower managers are more involved. |
|
35. The firm’s financial position with respect to assets and liabilities at a specific point in time is shown by its: |
e. balance sheet. |
|
36. _____ provide the basic information used for financial control of an organization. |
b. Income statements |
|
37. _____ refer(s) to the difference between assets and liabilities and is the company’s net worth in stock and retained earnings. |
d. Owners’ equity |
|
38. The _____ ratio refers to the ability of the organization to meet its current debt obligation. |
b. liquidity |
|
39. The conversion ratio is considered to be a(n) _____ ratio. |
a. activity |
|
40. Which of the following is a ratio that measures the firm’s internal performance with respect to key activities defined by management? |
b. An activity ratio |
|
41. The _____ is purchase orders divided by customer inquiries. |
c. conversion ratio |
|
42. Tammy is a production manager at Eagle’s Nest, Inc.. She is concerned that too much money is being wasted on inventory that is sitting in the warehouse too long. She should calculate a(n): |
b. inventory turnover ratio. |
|
43. Net income divided by sales is the correct formula for calculating: |
d. profit margin on sales. |
|
44. Which of the following refers to funding activities with borrowed money? |
b. Leverage |
|
45. _____ is a control system that identifies the various activities needed to produce a product and determines the cost of those activities. |
c. Activity-based costing |
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46. Which of the following is considered a leverage ratio? |
a. Debt ratio |
|
47. The basic philosophy of control at Nutrients-For-You, Inc. is based on the policies found in the employee handbook, as well as a strict hierarchy of authority. This philosophy is consistent with: |
c. hierarchical control. |
|
48. At LBK Industries, responsibility for quality control rests with a team of quality control inspectors and supervisors rather than with employees. LBK uses what type of organizational control? |
b. Hierarchical control |
|
49. Decentralized control is usually implemented in all of the following areas EXCEPT: |
e. the quality control department. |
|
50. At RWI Distilleries, rules and procedures are used only when necessary. Instead, shared goals and values guide employee behavior. RWI uses what type of organizational control? |
c. Decentralized control |
|
51. Which of the following allows employees to see for themselves the financial condition of the company? |
a. Open-book management |
|
52. The control "system" at FreshFood Corporation is based on the culture of the organization and norms that develop in the individual work teams. This is an example of: |
b. decentralized control. |
|
53. The goal of _____ is to get every employee thinking and acting like a business owner. |
d. open-book management |
|
54. Silver n’ Gold Inc. recently introduced a new control philosophy where all employees have access to the same information that owners have, such as what money is coming in and where it is going. This is an example of which control philosophy? |
e. Open-book management |
|
55. Total quality management: |
c. gives all employees the responsibility for achieving quality goals. |
|
56. Which of the following is a philosophy of organization-wide commitment to continuous improvement, focusing on teamwork, customer satisfaction, and lowering costs? |
b. Total quality management |
|
57. Charlie, a manager at a textile company, is bothered by a lack in quality of products manufactured by his company. Charlie hopes to infuse quality into the company through continuous improvement by involving everyone who works there. This describes which control philosophy? |
d. Total quality management |
|
58. A quality circle is a group of _____ volunteer employees. |
b. 6 to 12 |
|
59. A group of 6 to 12 volunteer employees who meet regularly to discuss and solve problems affecting their common work activities is a _____. |
c. quality circle |
|
60. Heather belongs to an informal group at work that meets twice a month to discuss common issues and problems in the workplace. Recently, this group has been focusing on ways to improve safety in the workplace. This group is an example of: |
b. a quality circle. |
|
61. Quality circles are based on the assumption(s) that: |
a. the people who do the job know it better than anyone else. |
|
62. What is the key to successful benchmarking? |
c. Analysis |
|
63. Which of the following is the process of measuring your organizational process against the best in the industry? |
d. Benchmarking |
|
64. Which of the following is a quality control approach that emphasizes a relentless pursuit of higher quality and lower costs? |
d. Six Sigma |
|
65. Which quality control technique uses a five-step methodology to define, measure, analyze, improve, and control processes, otherwise referred to as DMAIC? |
b. Six Sigma |
|
66. To reduce the organization’s cycle time is to reduce the number of: |
c. steps in an organizational process. |
|
67. _____ refers to the steps taken to complete a company process. |
b. Cycle time |
|
68. It seems that once a year the managers of Stone Construction, Inc. attempt a major organization intervention, such as management-by-objectives. They never seem to be satisfied with the performance of Stone Construction and, sure enough, 12 months later, along comes another major intervention. By implementing organizational change in this way, Stone Construction’s management may well be violating the principle of: |
b. continuous improvement. |
|
69. _____ is(are) most beneficial when employees have challenging jobs. |
d. Quality circles |
|
70. Contingency factors that can influence the success of a TQM program in a positive way include all of the following EXCEPT: |
e. managers wait for big, dramatic innovations. |
|
71. _____ standards represent an international standard for quality management. |
a. ISO 9000 |
|
72. A contingency factor that can influence the success of a TQM program in a negative way is that: |
e. union leaders are left out of QC discussions. |
|
73. Contingency factors that can influence the success of a TQM program in a negative way include all of the following EXCEPT: |
a. tasks make high skill demands on employees. |
|
74. Which of these is based on a set of international standards for quality? |
c. ISO certification |
|
75. Which of the following refers to the system of governing an organization so that the interests of corporate owners are protected? |
b. Corporate governance |
|
Q1. Which of the following statements are incorrect: |
d. Starbucks company removed the word "Coffee" from its logo because it plans to get out of the coffee business. It is planning to diversify into other products and services because there is too much competition in the coffee business.* |
|
Q2. Which of the following statements are incorrect: |
e. Southwest Airlines can be said to adopt a differentiation strategy because of its aggressive pricing.* |
|
Q3. Potential for new entrants is connected with: |
c. Barriers to entry into market* |
|
Q4. Which of the following strategies employed by companies when going global are incorrect? |
b. The "think-global, act local" strategy is a phrase often used to describe the Multi-domestic strategy.* |
|
Q5. Which of the following statements concerning the BCG matrix are incorrect? |
b. Differentiation and Cost Leadership strategies are evaluated.* |
|
Q6. which of the following statements concerning the 5-forces affecting Industry Competition are incorrect? |
b. Stars and Question Marks require considerable funding to make them into Cash Cows.* |
|
Q7. Which of the following statements concerning Porter’s Competitive Strategies are incorrect? |
b. Wal-Mart Stores adopts a cost leadership strategy whereas Sam’s Club adopts a differentiation strategy.* |
|
Q1. Salta Communications is a global telecommunications company that has operations on four continents. The CEO’s direct supervisors include VPs for the North American South American, European, and the Asian divisions. Salta can best be described as using what organizational structure? |
d. Divisional* |
|
Q2. Which of the following statements are incorrect: |
… |
|
Q1. Which of the following statements are incorrect: |
… |
|
Q2. Sally enjoys her job as a teacher, not because of the pay or benefits, but because she feels good and is passionate about shaping the minds of tomorrow’s leaders. Which of the following about Sally are incorrect statements: |
e. She is motivated more by extrinsic rewards* |
|
Q1. Which of the following statements are incorrect? |
b. The activity ratio of inventory turnover measures total sales divided by average inventory. Therefore companies should aim for a lower inventory turnover every quarter.* |
|
Q2. Which of the following statements are incorrect? |
… |
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