MGMT 3000 – Exceptional Idea

B

A system of shared assumptions, values, and beliefs that shows employees what is appropriate and inappropriate behavior is: A strategy. B culture. C mission. D goals.

A

Which of the following statements regarding organizational culture and its impact on the firm is INCORRECT? A Having a culture that fits with the company leads to good company performance, but having a culture that does not fit has no impact. B Employees become more aware of their organization’s culture when they have an opportunity to compare it to that of another firm. C Organizational cultures that are hard to imitate can create a competitive advantage for a firm. D Organizational culture is an effective control mechanism for dictating employee behavior.

B

Organizational culture consists of three levels: A beliefs, values, and artifacts. B assumptions, artifacts and values. C artifacts, assumptions, and beliefs. D assumptions, orientations, and beliefs.

C

Cultural assumptions: A are a set of values unique to a limited cross-section of the organization. B are the visible and tangible elements of culture. C lie below the awareness level and reflect beliefs about human nature and reality. D are shared principles, standards and goals.

C

Shared principles, standards and goals are: A artifacts. B beliefs. C values. D assumptions.

C

Security, safety and social equality are all examples of: A cultural artifacts. B cultural orientations. C cultural values. D cultural assumptions.

A

The visible and tangible elements of culture are: A artifacts. B values. C assumptions. D beliefs.

C

Firms that are flexible, adaptable and experiment with new ideas are _________ firms. A stable B outcome-oriented C innovative D aggressive

D

Which of the following statements regarding culture dimensions is INCORRECT? A Employees tend to stay longer in people-oriented cultures. B Proactive behavior tends to emerge often in service companies. C In team-oriented cultures, managers have more positive relationships with their subordinates than in other cultures. D Outcome-oriented cultures hold managers accountable for success, but not other employees.

C

A company with a stable culture is: A achievement-oriented, results-oriented and action-oriented. B fair, supportive and respects individual rights. C predictable, rule-oriented and bureaucratic. D flexible, adaptable, and experiments with new ideas.

A

People-oriented cultures: A value fairness, supportiveness and respecting individual rights. B are flexible, adaptable, and experiment with new ideas. C value competitiveness and outperforming competitors. D emphasize precision and paying attention to details.

D

Companies that are collaborative and emphasize cooperation among employees have a(n) __________ _________ culture. A people-oriented B outcome-oriented C detail-oriented D team-oriented

B

A culture that emphasizes precision and paying attention to details is: A an aggressive culture. B a detail-oriented culture. C an outcome-oriented culture. D a service culture.

B

Strong cultures: A are no more difficult to change than weak cultures. B are evidenced by consensus among employees on the values of the company. C outperform weak cultures regardless of the volatility of the environment. D facilitate the changes that must occur in firms during mergers and acquisitions.

A

A defined set of values unique to a limited cross-section of the organization is: A a subculture. B a counterculture. C a service culture. D a strong culture.

B

Shared values and beliefs that are in direct opposition to the values of the broader organizational culture represent a: A subculture. B counterculture. C weak culture. D strong culture.

C

Which of the following statements regarding culture in organizations is INCORRECT? A Employee perceptions on subcultures are related to employee commitment to the organization. B Subcultures arise in a firm due to personal characteristics of managers and employees and the different conditions under which work is performed. C Countercultures are never tolerated by an organization once they are identified. D Multiple subcultures can exist in a single organization.

A

Which if the following statements regarding the impact of reward systems on culture shaping is correct? A A firm that rewards purely on the basis of goal achievement is likely to have an outcome-oriented culture. B A firm that uses a forced choice method of evaluation where a percentage of employees are ranked as excellent, average and failures, and the failures are threatened with turnover, is likely to have a team-oriented culture. C In outcome oriented cultures, supportive, cooperative behaviors are rewarded. D Firms that reward based on how an employee meets a goal and not just whether the goal is met are likely to have highly aggressive cultures.

D

Which of the following statements regarding culture creation is correct? A New organization members are rarely taught the "way of business" in the firm; they simply acquire that knowledge through daily activities. B Studies show the only factor consistently found to determine culture creation in a firm is the founder’s values. C An organization’s culture is shaped only by internal environmental factors. D When the organization’s way of doing business provides a successful adaptation to environmental challenges, those beliefs and values are retained.

B

Which of the following statements regarding founder’s values is INCORRECT? A The difficulty in changing firm culture can be, at least, partially attributed to the shaping provided by founder values. B Founder values lay the cornerstone of the firm’s culture, but values have a rapidly decreasing impact as the firm grows and ages. C Founder values continue to be reflected in a firm only to the extent they continue to aid the firm’s success. D Founder values can provide a competitive advantage for a firm.

A

If an industry is highly regulated, firms competing within it likely have: A bureaucratic structures. B dynamic, innovative cultures. C businesses processes characterized by agility and quick action. D low concern for rules and authority.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) process is INCORRECT? A Person-organization misfit is an important reason for employee turnover. B Due to economic circumstances, companies today hire people for fit with the job only and are much less concerned about fit with the culture. C Individuals self-select the companies for which they choose to work. D The ASA process aids organizations in maintaining the relative homogeneity of employee personalities and values.

B

The process through which new employees learn the attitudes, knowledge, skills, and behaviors required to function effectively within an organization is: A attraction-selection-attrition. B organizational socialization. C mentoring. D assessment.

B

If onboarding activities are successful: A employees experience greater job satisfaction but are no more likely to remain with the firm than those who do not take part in onboarding. B employees are more confident about their ability to perform in the organization and are likely to remain longer with the firm. C employees feel comfortable in the organization but have no greater belief that their abilities are sufficient for work in the firm than those employees who did not take part in the onboarding activities. D employees feel accepted by their peers but do not necessarily share the values and norms of the larger organization.

D

Research on the employee role in onboarding activities indicates all of the following to be true EXCEPT: A feedback-seeking enhances employee adjustment. B failure to network often causes employees to turnover in a job. C active relationship building is particularly important to avoid turnover in those firms lacking systematic onboarding activities. D reactive individuals are more successful than proactive individuals.

A

During onboarding activities, employees must do all of the following to be successful EXCEPT: A be reactive. B seek feedback. C network. D be proactive.

C

Which of the following statements regarding the organization’s role in onboarding and orientation activities is INCORRECT? A Adjustment to a new company is facilitated by information provided by peers and leaders. B The speed with which new employees learn the company’s culture is strongly influenced by the support of supervisors and managers. C How companies do onboarding doesn’t really matter much. D The mere existence of mentoring programs does not guarantee their success.

D

Which of the following statements regarding the creation and maintenance of culture is INCORRECT? A One reason for the difficulty encountered in trying to change a firm’s culture is the early shaping of culture based on the founder’s vision. B If a leader motivates by rewarding for performance, an outcome-oriented culture can develop. C The attraction-selection-attrition process is a self-protective mechanism by which a firm maintains a level of homogeneity regarding the values of organization members. D Computer-based orientation programs are more cost efficient and are more effective at conveying corporate culture than classroom-based programs.

C

A trusted individual who provides the employee with advice and support regarding career-related matters is a: A manager. B coworker. C mentor. D counselor.

C

Research on mentoring suggests: A mentor characteristics are less important in their selection to the program than willingness to participate. B mentor and protégé input to the program has little impact on satisfaction with the program. C mentor training enhances program outcomes. D the mere existence of the program ensures its success.

D

_____________ is (are) part of the culture maintenance phase. A Preferences B Industry demands C Founder values D Leadership

D

Studies indicate that the most influential factor in creating an ethical culture is: A the reward system. B the attraction-selection-attrition process. C the training program. D leadership.

A

Best practices for onboarding programs in firms suggest all of the following EXCEPT: A Keep the program as an informal plan. Formalization of the plan will prevent its adaptation to new types of employees. B Be clear on goals of the program and those who are actively participating. C Establish milestones for the program and monitor them. Try to build a rhythm for the program. D Make interaction key to the program. Get participation from all organization members to the greatest extent possible.

B

Which of the following statements about the effectiveness of a mission statement is INCORRECT? A Effective mission statements are well known by employees. B The mere act of publishing the mission statement makes it effective as it clarifies to all employees the purpose of the organization. C Effective mission statements influence employee behaviors. D The mission statement must be provided to the employees when they first enter the firm to be effective.

A

Which of the following statements regarding visual elements of culture is INCORRECT? A While physical layouts impact motivational levels in employees, they do little to convey the firm’s culture to those employees. B Repetitive activities in an organization, like weekly meetings opened with calisthenics, have symbolic meaning to employees. C Employee handbooks are developed to convey rules which determine acceptable and unacceptable behavior in an organization. D Stories highlight critical events faced or heroic efforts put forth by individual employees to instill cultural values in employees.

A

Leaders impact organization culture in all of the following ways or practices EXCEPT: A industry characteristics. B reaction to employee actions. C role modeling. D leader style.

C

Firms with clearly communicated, widely understood and collectively shared mission and vision have been shown: A Employ a smarter workforce B To create and advance technology C Perform better than those without them D Embrace diversity

C

What is the final step in a successful cultural change process? A training B role modeling C creating new stories and symbols D changing the reward system

A

A statement of purpose describing who a company is and what it does is: A a mission statement. B a rule. C a ritual. D a policy.

A

Mission A A statement that communicates the organization’s reason for being, and how it aims to serve its key stockholders B A future-oriented declaration of the organization’s purpose and aspirations C The belief of an individual or group, and in this case the organization, in which they are emotionally invested.

B

Vision A A statement that communicates the organization’s, reason for being, and how it aims to serve its key stockholders B A future-oriented declaration of the organization’s purpose and aspirations C The belief of an individual or group, and in this case the organization, in which they are emotionally invested.

C

Values A A statement that communicates the organization’, reason for being, and how it aims to serve its key stockholders B A future-oriented declaration of the organization’s purpose and aspirations C The belief of an individual or group, and in this case the organization, in which they are emotionally invested.

C

Mission and vision statements play all of the following important roles EXCEPT: A Develop the measurable goals and objectives by which to gauge the success of the organization’s strategy B Inform strategy development C Give the impression that management is working without actually doing anything D Communicate an organization’s purpose and values to all key stakeholders

C

An organization’s _____ describes the reasons for an organization’s existence. A vision B goal C mission D scope E dimension

False

A vision captures the key elements of the organization’s past and present. True False

True

A well-formulated vision that is embraced by employees can give an organization an edge over its rivals. True False

C

An organization’s _____ describes the narrower aims that organizations pursue in an effort to serve their visions and missions. A vision B dimension C goal D mission E scope

D

An organization’s _____ describes what the organization hopes to become in the future. A scope B mission C value statement D vision E dimension

A

All of the following are good tips for developing mission and vision statements EXCEPT: A Do your best to get it done quickly, any mission statement is better than none. B Create messages that inspire action: It’s not what you say, but how you say it. C Let the business drive the mission and vision. D Identify key milestones: While traveling to your destination, acknowledge the milestones along the way. E Revise and reiterate; you’ll likely go through multiple iterations before you’re satisfied. F Phase it in: Reach for the sky—in stages. G Factor in your style: A mission and vision must reflect the leader’s style. You can’t sustain action that goes against it.

E

All of the following are effective tips for developing mission and vision statements EXCEPT: A Use it: Beyond printing it, posting it, and preaching it, you also need to practice what is laid out in the mission and vision…"walk the talk" B Monitor your progress: A strategic audit, combined with key metrics, can be used to measure progress against goals and objectives. C Involve all stakeholders in its development; otherwise, they won’t consider it theirs. D Start from where you are to get to where you want to go. E Avoid using concrete words and descriptions, the broader the statement the better F Make it actionable: If it’s too abstract, no one knows what to do next. G Make it visual: A picture is worth a thousand words.

B

All of the following are effective tips for developing mission and vision statements EXCEPT: A Live it: Management must lead by example B Be sure to include everything, the longer the statement the better. C Make it simple to understand: Complex language and disconnected statements have little impact—people can’t implement what they don’t understand. D Assign responsibility so that it’s clear how each person, including each stakeholder, can contribute. E Build in the values of the organization: Every organization has a soul. Tap into yours, and adjust as needed. Mission and vision built on your values will not just hold promise but also deliver on it. F Use external audit team: An external team brings objectivity, plus a fresh perspective. G Communicate often: Internal communications are the key to success. People need to see the mission and vision, identify with them, and know that leadership is serious about it.

B

All of the following statements regarding mission and vision statements are true EXCEPT: A Where possible, let those people responsible for executing the mission and vision drive their development. B It is best to invite as many people as possible to "word smith" your mission statement. C Start your vision statement by looking at your mission statement. D Your written goals should be dreams, but they should be achievable dreams. E Involve as many key stakeholders as possible in its development.

D

The O’Hallarons find that the best mission statements have attention to all of the following areas EXCEPT: A What "want-satisfying" service or commodity do we produce and work constantly to improve? B How do we provide opportunities for the productive employment of people? C How do we live up to the obligation to provide fair and just wages? D What elite population can be supported with opportunities at the expense of a needy population. E How are we creating a high-quality and meaningful work experience for employees? F How do we increase the wealth or quality of life or society?

B

All the following statements regarding communicating mission and vision statements are true EXCEPT: A Internal communications are the key to success. B It is often best to only include those at the top of the power structure in developing and communicating mission and vision statements. C Starting on the communication process early is the best way to identify and surmount obstacles. D People need to see the vision, identify with it, and know that leadership is serious about it. E A mission and vision will probably require cooperation from other units of the firm (across) and from key external stakeholders

A

Mission and vision development are analogous to which step in the principles of management framework: A Planning B Controlling C Organizing D Leading

B

The communication step of the mission and vision statements development process is analogous to which step in the principles of management framework: A Organizing B Leading C Controlling D Planning

C

The content of the mission and vision statements process is analogous to which step in the principles of management framework: A Planning B Controlling C Organizing D Leading

A

The monitoring step of the mission and vision statements development process is analogous to which step of the principles of management framework? A Controlling B Planning C Leading D Organizing

D

Which of the following factors has the most influence on worker motivation? A recognition B pay C growth opportunities D job design

A

Scientific management’s primary focus is: A efficiency. B motivation. C goal setting. D flexibility.

C

Which of the following is an advantage to job specialization? A Training costs are higher, but because of the specialized nature of tasks, they are learned more fully. B The nature of the jobs is especially effective in rapidly changing environments. C Staffing costs are lower because the repetitive nature of tasks makes skill requirements lower. D The nature of the jobs leads to lower absenteeism.

C

Frederick Taylor’s work led to a fundamental change in management philosophy. The change: A was understanding that managers could not influence the output levels of employees. B was understanding that repetitive activities are the direct result of job generalization. C paved the way for today’s automation and standardization. D was increasing the complexity of jobs in the workplace for greater productivity.

C

Job specialization can: A increase the number of employees needed to complete the job. B be very effective in rapidly changing environments. C minimize training costs. D lead to greater motivation among employees.

D

Job specialization: A involves moving employees from job to job at regular intervals. B allows workers more control over how they perform their own tasks. C refers to expanding the tasks performed by employees to add more variety. D is breaking down jobs into their simplest components and assigning them to employees so that each person will perform a few tasks in a repetitive manner.

C

Which of the following is NOT an outcome in the Hackman and Oldham job characteristics model? A turnover B satisfaction C organizational citizenship D performance

D

Which of the following describes the elements of the Hackman and Oldham job characteristics model? A Three psychological states lead to five outcomes which are analyzed for five core job characteristics. B Five core job characteristics lead to five outcomes which produce three psychological states. C Three psychological states lead to five core job characteristics which lead to five outcomes. D Five core job characteristics lead to three psychological states which lead to five outcomes.

A

Skill variety is: A the extent to which the job requires a person to utilize multiple high-level skills. B whether a person’s job substantially affects other people’s health, work or well-being. C the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform his tasks. D the degree to which a person is in charge of completing an identifiable piece of work from start to finish.

C

Task significance is: A the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform his tasks. B the extent to which the job requires a person to utilize multiple high level skills. C whether a person’s job substantially affects other people’s health, work or well-being. D the degree to which a person is in charge of completing an identifiable piece of work from start to finish.

A

Autonomy is: A the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform his tasks. B the extent to which the job requires a person to utilize multiple high level skills. C whether a person’s job substantially affects other people’s health, work or well-being. D the degree to which a person is in charge of completing an identifiable piece of work from start to finish.

D

Employee autonomy has all of the following positive benefits but: A it increases employee creativity. B it increases motivation at work. C it increases employee effectiveness. D it makes the employees more reactive in doing their jobs.

B

Task identity is: A the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform his tasks. B the degree to which a person is in charge of completing an identifiable piece of work from start to finish. C the extent to which the job requires a person to utilize multiple high level skills. D whether a person’s job substantially affects other people’s health, work or well-being.

C

Which of the following psychological states is the most important for employee attitudes and behaviors? A knowledge of results B motivation C meaningfulness D responsibility

B

Which of the following is NOT a core job characteristic in the Hackman and Oldham job characteristics model? A skill variety B pay C task significance D feedback

C

Which of the following statements is INACCURATE about job rotation? A Rotation is the regular movement of employees through firm jobs. B Rotation leads to increased likelihood that turnover will be reduced in the firm. C Rotation leads to slightly elevated blood pressure measured in employees using the process due to their movement between jobs. D Rotation is an opportunity for employees to acquire new skills.

A

Which of the following statements about job enlargement is NOT true? A Job enlargement involving giving employees more tasks requiring them to be knowledgeable in different areas has fewer positive effects than job enlargement adding tasks that are very simple in nature. B Job enlargement is beneficial because it is positively related to higher quality customer service. C The intent behind job enlargement is to increase the variety of tasks to be performed so that boredom is reduced and human resources are used effectively. D When jobs are enlarged, employees view themselves as more capable.

B

Which of the following is true regarding the motivating potential of a job? A An employee whose expectation for his job is to pay the bills will have high growth strength. B Even though a job is designed with the express purpose of motivating individuals, some employees may not find the job motivational. C Employees with high growth need strength will respond less favorably to jobs with high motivating potential. D Career stage does not influence the importance of the five core characteristics.

B

One of the dimensions of structural empowerment is: A confidence that you can perform the job. B access to information. C meaningful work. D feeling that one has autonomy at work.

B

All of the following are advantages of job rotation EXCEPT: A employees experience less boredom in a job rotation system. B employees become less marketable after rotating because their skill sets become very company-specific. C employees become cross-trained due to their movement between jobs. D managers have greater scheduling flexibility in a job rotation system.

D

Which of the following statements is true about job design approaches? A Job rotation takes place only with lower level jobs in an organization. B Job enlargement leads employees to feel less capable of performing job tasks. C Job specialization is effective in rapidly changing work environments. D Job enrichment may lead to employee frustration or dissatisfaction with pay.

B

All of the following statements about job enrichment are true EXCEPT: A job enrichment may be associated with increased productivity and reduced absenteeism. B job enrichment is a suitable technique to be used with any employee. C the technique allows employees to take on more responsibility. D job enrichment may lead to dissatisfaction with one’s pay.

A

Job enlargement: A refers to expanding the tasks performed by employees to add more variety. B allows workers more control over how they perform their own tasks. C involves moving employees from job to job at regular intervals. D is breaking down jobs into their simplest components and assigning them to employees so that each person will perform few tasks in a repetitive manner.

C

Job enrichment: A involves moving employees from job to job at regular intervals. B refers to expanding the tasks performed by employees to add more variety. C allows workers more control over how they perform their own tasks. D is breaking down jobs into their simplest components and assigning them to employees so that each person will perform few tasks in a repetitive manner.

B

Job rotation: A refers to expanding the tasks performed by employees to add more variety. B involves moving employees from job to job at regular intervals. C is breaking down jobs into their simplest components and assigning them to employees so that each person will perform a few tasks in a repetitive manner. D allows workers more control over how they perform their own tasks.

B

___________ is an example of felt empowerment. A Leadership style B Meaningful work C Organizational climate D Organizational structure

B

Structural empowerment: A refers to making a person powerless. B refers to the aspects of the work environment that give employees discretion, autonomy and the ability to do jobs effectively. C is the degree to which a person has the freedom to decide how to perform his tasks. D is the degree to which a person has higher order needs such as esteem and self-actualization.

B

To empower your employees, A retain information on the job until it is absolutely needed. B change the company structure so employees have more power on the job. C take away employee power so your manager accountability is not compromised. D make sure managers continue to manage in such a manner that they are stepping in with routine responses to issues.

C

Which of the following factors do not determine empowerment? A access to information B structure C pay D leadership style

D

Which of the following statements is true about empowerment? A The notion of empowerment is appropriate for all employees. B Empowerment is a relatively easy concept to implement in the workplace. C Empowerment is not related to job performance. D Employees who are nervous about empowerment may also worry about the increased responsibility.

B

_____ show the lines of responsibility through which a supervisor delegates authority to subordinates, oversees their activities, evaluates their performance, and guides them toward improvement when necessary. A Horizontal linkages B Vertical linkages C Lateral divisions D Informal linkages E Lateral linkages

C

Which of the following is the solution to the challenge created by division of labor- figuring out how to coordinate different tasks and the people who perform them? A Decentralization B Blue ocean strategy C Organizational structure D Disintermediation E Concentration strategy

E

Which of the following is a basic building block of an organizational structure? A Lateral linkage B Informal linkage C Lateral division D Horizontal division E Vertical linkage

E

Which of the following best describes vertical linkages? A They refer to unofficial relationships such as personal friendships, rivalries, and politics. B They refer to the relationships between equals in an organization. C They do not appear in organizational charts, but can have a significant influence on how firms operate. D They are often called committees, task forces, or teams. E They tie supervisors and subordinates together.

B

Which of the following is used by executives when mapping out the vertical linkages in an organizational structure? A Portfolio planning B The unity of command principle C A gang plank D The attractiveness-strength matrix E The BCG matrix

D

Which of the following is true about horizontal linkages? A They do not appear in organizational charts, but can have a significant influence on how firms operate. B They refer to unofficial relationships such as personal friendships, rivalries, and politics. C They show the lines of responsibility through which a supervisor delegates authority to subordinates. D They are of great importance when close coordination is needed across different segments of an organization. E They tie supervisors and subordinates together.

D

Which of the following best describes informal linkages? A They tie supervisors and subordinates together. B They show the lines of responsibility through which a supervisor delegates authority to subordinates. C They are relationships between equals in an organization. D They refer to unofficial relationships such as personal friendships, rivalries, and politics. E They are often called committees, task forces, or teams.

True

Creating a structure that effectively coordinates a firm’s activities increases the firm’s likelihood of being successful. True False

True

Division of labor can improve efficiency. True False

False

Division of labor can improve coordination between different tasks and the people who perform them. False True

False

Horizontal linkages tie supervisors and subordinates together. True False

True

Horizontal linkages are relationships between equals in an organization. False True

False

Horizontal linkages refer to unofficial relationships such as personal friendships, rivalries, and politics. True False

True

Informal linkages do not appear in organizational charts. True False

False

Vertical linkages are often called committees, task forces, or teams. True False

False

Vertical linkages are of great importance when close coordination is needed across different segments of an organization. False True

D

A _____ structure can help develop new managers by putting a person without managerial experience in charge of a relatively small project as a test to see if the person has a talent for leading others. A functional B mosaic C connected D matrix E multidivisional

B

A big advantage of a _____ structure is that it allows a firm to act quickly. A boundaryless B multidivisional C bureaucratic D functional E mosaic

B

A functional structure differs from a simple structure in that a functional structure: A tends to use an informal process of evaluating and rewarding employees’ performance. B relies on a formal system of division of labor. C promotes informal distribution of tasks amongst employees. D does not require an organizational chart. E tends to have very few rules and regulations.

D

Because _____ structures are slow to execute change, they tend to work best for organizations that offer narrow and stable product lines. A boundaryless B mosaic C simple D functional E multidivisional

C

Conflicts within departments are relatively rare in organizations that follow a _____ structure because all the people in a particular department share the same background, training, and as such, they tend to get along with each other. A mosaic B multidivisional C functional D simple E matrix

B

If a firm consisting of more than one person is following a _____ organizational structure, tasks tend to be distributed among them in an informal manner rather than each person developing a narrow area of specialization. A bureaucratic B simple C matrix D multidivisional E functional

C

In which of the following organizational structures, an organizational chart is usually not needed? A A multidivisional structure B A matrix structure C A simple structure D A bureaucratic structure E A functional structure

D

_____ organizational structures do not rely on formal systems of division of labor. A Bureaucratic B Multidivisional C Functional D Simple E Matrix

A

Strategic decision making in a _____ organizational structure tends to be highly centralized, with the owner often making all the important decisions. A simple B matrix C boundaryless D multidivisional E functional

E

Which of the following statements about functional structures is accurate? A They do not rely on formal systems of division of labor. B They tend to increase costs and reduce efficiency. C They lead to increased conflicts within departments. D They allow a firm to implement strategic moves quickly. E They tend to create highly-skilled specialists.

A

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a functional structure? A Slow execution of strategic changes B Increased costs C Informal distribution of tasks D Reduced specialization E Increased inefficiency

E

Which of the following organizational structures relies heavily on horizontal relationships? A A multidivisional structure B A connected structure C A functional structure D A mosaic structure E A matrix structure

C

Which of the following statements about matrix structures is accurate? A They tend to rely heavily on vertical linkages. B They do not rely on formal systems of division of labor. C They violate the unity of command principle. D They work best for organizations that offer narrow and stable product lines. E They divide employees into departments based on product areas and/or geographic regions.

True

A functional structure tends to create highly-skilled specialists. False True

True

A functional structure keeps costs low and creates efficiency. True False

False

A functional structure works best for organizations that offer wide variety of products lines. True False

True

Matrix structures rely heavily on horizontal relationships. True False

True

Multidivisional structures tend to be more costly to operate than functional structures. True False

False

Multidivisional structures create cross-functional teams that each work on a different project. True False

False

Simple organizational structures rely on formal systems of division of labor. True False

True

Strategic decision making in a simple structure tends to be highly centralized. False True

False

Using a multidivisional structure violates the unity of command principle. False True

B

Goals and objectives serve to accomplish all of the following EXCEPT: A Gauge and report performance B Align goals with objectives C Improve performance D Align effort

B

Goals are outcome statements that define what an organization is trying to accomplish: A Internal B Both programmatically and organizationally C Organizationally D Programmatically

True

Functional areas, like accounting and marketing, will need to have goals and objectives that help show how those functions are contributing to the organization’s goals and objectives. False True

True

Goals and objectives provide a form of control since they create a feedback opportunity regarding how well or how poorly the organization is executing its strategy. True False

False

Historic financial goals and objectives are typically good predictors of where you are going. False True

False

The role of goals and objectives are achieved only in the planning stage. False True

True

The way that the firm is organized can affect goals and objectives in a number of ways. False True

False

Goals and objectives are a not a basis for reward systems. True False

A

Characteristics of the approach to setting and managing goals and objectives include which of the following EXCEPT?: A More is better. B Without measurement, you cannot tell where you have been. C Measures should be based around the needs of customers, shareholders and other key stakeholders D Goals should be linked to the capabilities of each employee.

True

One of the key litmus tests for the setting of goals, objectives, and measures is whether or not they are linked in some way to the key factors driving an organization’s success or competitive advantage. True False

True

While goals may sometimes be general, the objectives and the metrics that gauge them should be specific. False True

True

The most effective goals are those that are specific, measurable, aggressive, realistic, and time-bound. False True

E

Which of the following statements holds true for the "specific" aspect of a goal? A The goal is achieved through the creation of deadlines. B The goal that is achieved is quantifiable. C The goal presents a significant challenge to the organization. D The achievement of the goal is feasible. E The goal is explicit rather than vague.

D

Which of the following statements holds true for the "measurable" aspect of a goal? A The goal is achieved through the creation of deadlines. B The goal presents a significant challenge to the organization. C The achievement of the goal is feasible. D The goal that is achieved is quantifiable. E The goal is explicit rather than vague.

E

Which of the following statements holds true for the "aggressive" aspect of a goal? A The goal is explicit rather than vague. B The achievement of the goal is feasible. C The goal is achieved through the creation of deadlines. D The goal that is achieved is quantifiable. E The goal presents a significant challenge to the organization.

True

Setting organizational goals that are easy to reach encourages employees to work just hard enough to reach the goals. False True

C

Which of the following statements holds true for the "realistic" aspect of a goal? A The goal that is achieved is quantifiable. B The goal is explicit rather than vague. C The achievement of the goal is feasible. D The goal presents a significant challenge to the organization. E The goal is achieved through the creation of deadlines.

B

A firm’s strategy includes which of the following: A Identifies the supply lines and vendors necessary for effective production. B Captures how vision and mission will be achieved C Sets specific operating procedures to be followed by front line managers. D Communicates to stakeholders the hierarchical corporate structure.

True

The best strategies, corporate and business, are based on a thorough SWOT analysis. False True

B

Three different types of planning used in the function of management are: A job design, job enrichment, and teamwork B strategic, tactical, and operational C strategic, organizational design, and operational D strategic, organizational design, and job design

B

Tactical planning is designed to develop: A specific action steps that support the strategic plan B specific action steps to implement the strategic plan C the organization’s mission and objectives for the strategic plan D specific action steps to develop the strategic plan

D

Operational planning assumes the existence of: A a tactical plan and specifies ways to achieve the goals. B a mission statement of the organization and specifies ways to develop the goals and objectives for the strategies. C a strategic plan D goals and objectives and specifies ways to achieve them.

B

The act of influencing others toward a goal: A charisma B leadership C motivation D power

C

Controlling consists of the following steps EXCEPT: A compare actual performance against standards B take corrective action C write a mission and vision statement D establish performance standards

D

Effective controlling requires the existence of plans, A since understanding the mission of the organization requires strategic plan B since managers must show compliance with company policies C since control techniques are budget and performance audits D since planning provides the necessary performance standards or objectives.

D

Job enrichment: A is breaking down jobs into their simplest components and assigning them to employees so that each person will perform few tasks in a repetitive manner. B refers to expanding the tasks performed by employees to add more variety. B involves moving employees from job to job at regular intervals. D allows workers more control over how they perform their own tasks.

False

Division of labor can improve coordination between different tasks and the people who perform them. True False

True

Multidivisional structures tend to be more costly to operate than functional structures. True False