Economics is the study of: |
choices made when scarcity exists. |
A simplified representation of a complex system dealing with economics is known as: |
an economic model. |
Economic decision-making often focuses on how a one unit change will impact the system. This type of analysis is known as: |
marginal analysis. |
Ph.D. economists have traditionally been hired by: |
universities. government agencies. Wall Street firms. |
According to the article, ___________ is hiring an economist to help its team of economists use existing data to "reveal ways to improve the company’s service for buyers and sellers." |
EBay Inc. |
The behaviors that these firms are attempting to model are the subject of: |
microeconomics. |
The economic way of thinking is best described as |
an analytical framework enabling one to reach informed conclusions. |
Suppose a government official is trying to decide whether or not to allow more immigration. Which of the following is not an aspect of the economic way of thinking that would apply in this decision-making process? |
Flipping a coin. |
To which of the following household-type(s) does the phrase "unlimited wants and limited resources" |
I, II, and III. A low-income household II. A middle-income household III. A high-income household |
One reason that economists use microeconomics as the basis of macroeconomic analysis is |
that all choices are made by individuals and firms. |
The three fundamental economic questions that a nation addresses in order to allocate society’s scarce resources include all of the following except: |
Why will the items be produced? |
Which of the following is a true statement about self-interest as used in the study of economics? |
Any action can be based on self-interest if the person has some reason for the action. |
People may appear to use rules of thumb, as suggested by the assumption of bounded rationality, even though they may really be behaving in a manner suggested by the rationality assumption if |
they face persistently predictable range of choices for a period of time. |
The ceteris paribus assumption means |
other things equal |
An economic model is developed from a set of assumptions about consumer behavior and predicts that people will buy less of a good the higher the price of the good. Empirical testing of this model would involve |
the collection of data to evaluate the usefulness of the model. |
Consider the following statement based on a positive economic analysis that assumes that all other things remain constant. Falling gasoline prices will result in additional vacation travel. Which of the following (initially assumed constant) could occur and thus offset the stated outcome? |
An increase in hotel taxes at popular resorts |
Economic goods are |
goods that are scarce. |
Farmer McDonald has 100 acres of land on which he can grow soybeans or corn. An acre of land yields 200 bushels of soybeans or 100 bushels of corn or some combination of both. The accompanying figure refers to farmer McDonald’s |
production possibilities curve. |
Steve can wash, fold, and iron a basket of laundry in two hours and prepare a meal in one hour. His roommate Mike can wash, fold, and iron a basket of laundry in three hours and prepare a meal in one hour. The absolute advantage in laundry is held by |
Steve |
The comparative advantage in meal preparation is held by |
Mike |
The division of productive activities among persons and regions so that no one individual or region is totally self-sufficient is known as |
specialization. |
Which of the following statements is true? |
Everyone can benefit when people specialize where they have a comparative advantage and then trade with each other. |
Specialization and comparative advantage |
A. lead to international trade and overall gains for the nations involved. B. lead to greater output even if you can do everything better than someone else. C.lead to greater productivity. |
The inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded is often referred to as: |
the law of demand. |
If prices fall for a particular good then consumers will: |
buy more units. demand arrow goes down |
Other things remaining equal, the law of demand says that higher prices will lead to a |
smaller quantity demanded and lower prices to a larger quantity demanded. |
All of the following pairs of goods are substitutes except |
we observe the price of bacon increases and the demand for eggs decreases. |
All of the following pairs of goods are complements except |
we observe the price of coffee decreases and the demand for tea decreases. |
Assume the cost of aluminum used by soft-drink companies increases. Which of the following correctly describes the resulting effects in the market for canned soft drinks? |
II and III. I. The demand for soft drinks decreases. II. The quantity of soft drinks demanded decreases. III. The supply of soft drinks decreases. IV. The quantity of soft drinks supplied decreases. |
Which of the following will cause an outward (rightward) shift in supply? |
A technological improvement. |
What is the economic effect of price ceilings? |
An effective price ceiling will lead to a shortage. |
According to the text, firms encounter rising costs when they attempt to produce more in the same time period. As a consequence, they must be offered a higher price to be willing to incur these higher costs. The resulting relationship between price and quantity supplied is |
direct (or positive) and is called the law of supply. |
Inflation is more harmful to people: |
living on fixed incomes. |
Inflation that is higher than 50% per month is known as: |
hyperinflation |
High levels of inflation can lead to: |
political unrest. |
India will sell ___________ of rice from the government stockpiles. |
5 million tons |
Which of the following measures will lower the natural rate of unemployment? |
More high school graduates enter college without looking for employment right away. |
Full employment means |
there is a level of unemployment consistent with "normal" frictions in the labor market. |
According to the circular flow of income and output, which of the following is not true? |
Goods, services and money all flow in one direction since money pays for the goods and services. |
The expenditure approach to tabulating GDP |
adds up the total amount spent on newly produced domestic goods and services during the year. |
Using the expenditures approach to national income accounting, which of the following would be counted as investment spending? |
A person in California buys a new house. |
Which of the following is a true statement about comparing world incomes? |
Adjusting world incomes for purchasing power gives a more accurate view than using market foreign exchange rates. |
Using the expenditures approach to national income accounting, which of the following would be counted as consumption? |
Residents of New York City buy food every week. |
Which of the following statements is false? |
A society that wants more in the future should consume more of its capital today. |
Brazil has a population of about 200 million, with about 145 million over the age of 15. Of these, an estimated 25 percent, or 35 million people, are functionally illiterate. The typical literate individual reads only about two nonacademic books per year, which is less than half the number read by the typical literate U.S. or European resident. Answer the following questions solely from the perspective of new growth theory: a. Which of the following best explains the implications of Brazil’s literacy and reading rates for its growth prospects in light of the key tenets of new growth theory. |
Since the development of human capital is an important determinant of economic growth, Brazil’s literacy and reading rates suggests its potential economic growth rate is lower. |
b. What types of policies might Brazil implement to improve its growth prospects? |
It should implement programs narrowly focused on promoting a higher literacy rate and broadly focused on a greater average educational attainment by its residents. |
Mexico has a more open economy (lower tariff barriers) than Nigeria Thus it would be expected that the average annual per capita growth rate of real GDP would be higher in Free trade encourages economic growth by |
encouraging the more rapid spread of technology. |
In the absence of well-defined property rights, we would likely find |
people with fewer incentives to take risks. |
Which of the following is not a true statement about the impact of immigration on economic growth? |
Economists agree that population growth through immigration is a drain on the economy because it lowers per capita GDP. |
To encourage economic development a country should do all of the following except |
limit the amount of imports allowed in to the country. |
Typically, modern developed countries have gone through three stages Initially countries have most of the population involved in Secondly, much of the population moves to Finally, there is a shift toward |
agriculture Industry services |
Which of the following factors could cause the economy to experience supply-side inflation? |
Government laws which say that the average work week must be reduced by one hour every year. |
In the long run, persistent deflation in a growing economy can occur if |
increases in the LRAS are proportionately larger than the increases in AD. |
An increase in the LRAS curve that is larger proportionately than an increase in the AD curve will lead to |
a decrease in the price level and an increase in output. |
Which of the following will generate an increase in aggregate demand? |
Government spending for the onset of a war. |
According to the real-balance effect, an increase in the price level |
reduces an individual’s expenditures due to a decrease in the real value of cash balances. |
Which of the following will generate an increase in aggregate demand? |
Government spending for the onset of a war. |
An economy’s rate of economic growth equals |
rate of growth of capital plus rate of growth of labor plus rate of growth in the productivity of capital and labor. |
Which of the following will increase labor productivity? |
Labor has more physical capital to work with. |
The rate of growth in the productivity of capital is 1 percent, the rate of growth of capital is 2 percent, the rate of growth of labor is 1 percent, and the rate of growth in the productivity of labor is 3 percent. From this we know that |
the rate of economic growth is 7 percent. |
Labor productivity is normally measured by |
dividing total real domestic output by the number of workers or by the number of labor hours. |
A country that saves a larger percentage of GDP than another country will, ceteris paribus |
experience higher rates of economic growth since there will be more investment. |
For economic growth to take place, a country must save. But, for saving to actually generate economic growth, |
saving must be channeled into investment. |
One of the most important factors for economic growth to take place is that a society must |
consume less than they produce. |
Which of the following statements is false? |
A society that wants more in the future should consume more of its capital today. |
Total capital is the sum of |
physical capital and human capital. |
On a national basis, higher saving rates eventually mean higher living standards in the long run, all other things held constant. |
True |
Improvements in ______ productivity, all other things being equal, lead to _________ economic growth and higher living standards. One fundamental determinant of the rate of growth is the rate of _________ . To have more consumption in the future, we have to __________ rather than consume. In general, countries that have had higher rates of _______ have had higher rates of growth in per capita real GDP. |
labor; greater; saving; save; saving |
What is economic growth? |
Economic growth is increases in per capita real GDP measured by its rate of change per year. |
Why are politicians and economists concerned about the economic growth rate in the U.S.? |
Small differences in the rate of economic growth can make large differences in the standard of living over time. |
Economic growth as it is currently measured |
A. does not consider spiritual, cultural or social difficulties that may arise from growth. B. understates actual economic growth since it does not adjust for changes in leisure. C. does not account for how increased per capita income is distributed across income groups. |
Real standards of living can only go up with positive economic growth. |
False |
All of the following are benefits of economic growth except |
urban congestion |
If the average annual rate of economic growth is 4 percent, approximately how long will it take for the nation’s per capita real GDP to double? |
17.5 years |
Economic growth can be defined as the increase in _____ real GDP, measured by its rate of change per year. Small percentage-point differences in growth rates lead to ______ differences in per capita real GDP over time. |
per capita; benefits; costs; large |
According to the new growth theory |
knowledge about how to produce goods and services is an important source of economic growth. |
New growth theory differs from traditional growth theory in that |
traditional theory did not explain what causes improvements in technology, but new growth theory does. |
The new growth theory argues that |
technology must be considered a separate factor of production that is sensitive to economic incentives. |
Economic growth is positively related to all of the following except |
import tariffs |
There are predictions that computers may become as powerful as the human brain by 2030. |
True |
According to new growth theory, more technological advances will occur when the rewards are greater. |
True |
In the United States, a patent gives the inventor of a product the exclusive right to make, use, or sell the product for 50 years. |
False |
For every 1 percent increase in the stock of research and development in the United States, productivity in the rest of the world |
increases by about 0.25 percent. |
Nations with high tariff barriers have tended to have higher average annual rates of real GDP per capita growth since 1965. |
False |
An innovation is the same thing as an invention. |
False |
According to economist Paul Romer, ideas are what drive economic growth. |
True |
The knowledge and skills that people in the workforce acquire through education, on-the-job training, and self-teaching is referred to as |
human capital. |
New growth |
… |
Population growth generally |
encourages technological progress that increases economic growth. |
Limiting the immigration of highly educated professionals hurts U.S. economic growth because |
it restricts the supply of high human capital workers and the new ideas they could potentially generate. it restricts the knowledge base of the workforce. |
According to new growth theorists, increased population growth rates can lead to faster economic growth because |
the larger the market the more incentive there is to innovate. |
According to Julian Simon, |
legal and illegal immigrants have a positive effect on the welfare of American citizens. |
Government enforced property rights are crucial to economic growth because they |
provide incentives for capital accumulation and entrepreneurial activity. B. encourage people to save knowing their wealth will not be arbitrarily confiscated. C. make the returns to risk-taking relatively more certain. |
Which of the following statements is not true? |
Property rights encourage people to take fewer risks, making the economy more secure. |
Entrepreneurship functions better when |
a system of private property rights permits entrepreneurs to capture the rewards from their entrepreneurial activities. |
In the absence of well-defined property rights, we would likely find |
people with fewer incentives to take risks. |
Population growth can have both a positive and a negative impact on economic growth. |
True |
In general, the more securely private property rights are assigned, the more capital accumulation there will be. |
True |
The economic development of a country is dependent on all of the following except |
promoting protectionist barriers. |
The development of modern rich nations can be characterized by three stages: |
agricultural stage, followed by manufacturing stage, and lastly the tertiary stage. |
To encourage economic development a country should do all of the following except |
limit the amount of imports allowed in to the country. |
Developing countries should |
focus on production based on comparative advantage. |
For modern, rich nations, the three stages of development (in order of occurrence) are |
agriculture, manufacturing, and services. |
Which of the following factors are highly related to the pace of economic development? |
limiting protectionism B. developing an educated population C. establishing a system of property rights |
Total expenditures for domestically produced goods and services consist of |
consumer spending, business spending, government spending, and net foreign spending. |
Which one of the following is not a component of total expenditures? |
Merchandise inventories. |
What determines the total value of annual U.S. GDP? |
The spending and production decisions of consumers, firms, governments, and foreigners. |
The total of all planned real expenditures in the economy is |
aggregate demand |
The aggregate demand curve |
shows planned purchase rates of goods and services at various price levels. |
The aggregate demand curve slopes downward because of the |
real-balance, interest rate and open economy effects. |
According to the real-balance effect, an increase in the price level |
reduces an individual’s expenditures due to a decrease in the real value of cash balances. |
According to the interest rate effect, an increase in the price level |
increases nominal interest rates. B. reduces borrowing and spending. C. reduces the aggregate quantity of goods and services demanded. |
Which of the following will generate an increase in aggregate demand? |
Government spending for the onset of a war. |
The U.S. aggregate demand curve would shift to the left if |
the Federal Reserve Board caused the real interest rate to increase. |
The aggregate demand curve would shift to the right as a result of |
a drop in the foreign exchange value of the dollar. |
All of the following would cause the aggregate demand curve to shift except |
price level changes. |
In an open economy, the total value of GDP is based on the spending decisions of individuals, firms, governments, and foreign residents. |
True |
As more economic development occurs, |
he population growth rate decreases. |
The model of long-run equilibrium |
is the same as the Classical Model. |
One of the main conclusions of Say’s Law was that |
if people supply goods in order to then demand goods, there can be no overproduction in a market economy and full employment will be the normal state of affairs. |
Which of the following best exemplifies Say’s Law? |
The production of a $4000 plasma TV set creates demand for other goods and services valued at $4000. |
Say’s Law fits best in the ______since this philosophy placed great importance on _______to determine the _________. |
Classical Theory;aggregate supply; level of output. |
Suppose that aggregate demand were to increase due to a weaker dollar. Which of the following would be the result? |
inflation only |
Say’s law asserts that |
supply created its own demand |
Which of the following is not one of the four major assumptions of the classical model? |
People suffer from money illusion. |
The classical economists believed that the leakage of saving would be matched by the injection of business investment. |
True |
The lower the rate of interest, the ________ profitable it is to invest and the ______ the level of desired investment. |
more; higher |
The level of employment in an economy determines its real GDP. |
True |
If an excess quantity of labor is supplied at a particular wage level, the wage level |
must be above equilibrium |
According to the classical model, if the economy starts at full employment an increase in aggregate demand will cause all of the following to occur except |
a decrease in wage rates. |
The extent to which real GDP responds to changes in the price level along the short-run aggregate supply curve is largely determined by |
A. the speed with which input prices adjust and people become more fully informed. B. the ability of firms to hire additional inputs, particularly workers. C. the ability of firms to use existing workers and capital more intensively. |
Which of the following might also yield the outcome shown by your diagram? |
A and B only. Increase in productivity. A decrease in raw materials prices.raw materials prices. |
In considering the forces which may increase an economy’s real GDP in the long run, which of the following will NOT play a role? |
Lower wages for labor. |
The Modern Keynesian short-run aggregate supply curve is best described by which of the following statements? |
It is very flat at low levels of real GDP; increases slightly as real GDP grows; and becomes very steep as real GDP surpasses full employment. |
The modern Keynesian Model assumes that |
that prices respond to changes in aggregate demand but not fully. |
Since the modern Keynesian Model allows for some price response, the aggregate supply curve |
is upward sloping. |
Suppose that the wage rate of labor increased temporarily. The result of this would be best described by |
a decrease in the short-run aggregate supply curve only. |
Suppose that there is a temporary, but significant increase in oil prices in an economy with an upward-sloping SRAS curve. As a policy response to this short-lived but sudden increase in oil prices, a central bank |
cannot stabilize both the price level and the real GDP simultaneously. |
Suppose that an economy is currently in a long run equilibrium where SRAS = LRAS = AD. |
Aggregate demand decreases. |
Suppose that an economy is currently in a long run equilibrium where SRAS = LRAS = AD. Given that there is a decrease in the money supply, the new short run position of the economy finds itself in is termed |
a recessionary gap. |
Suppose that the value of the US dollar ($) yesterday was $1 = 4 yen. Today the exchange rate changed such that $1 = 5 yen. |
shift to the left. |
Given that the US $ has appreciated, the short-run aggregate supply in the United States should |
shift to the right |
Suppose that the value of the US $ yesterday was $1 = 4 pesos. Today the exchange rate changed such that $1 = 8 pesos. One can say the |
US $ appreciated. |
An appreciation of the US $ should result in |
a lower price level but the impact on the level of real GDP depends on the magnitude of the shifts in the aggregate demand and short-run aggregate supply curves. |
In the Keynesian model, if disposable income were to increase households would |
increase both their consumption and saving. |
The relationship between the MPC and the MPS indicates that the entire increase in household disposable income |
is distributed between consumption and saving. |
In the Keynesian model equilibrium national income |
equals planned consumption, investment, government, and net export expenditures. |
If real GDP falls below total planned expenditures the economy will see |
production and employment increases. |
Which of the following statements is true when considering an economy with an upward-sloping short-run aggregate supply curve? |
The multiplier has more impact when the economy is experiencing a recessionary gap compared to an inflationary gap. |
The multiplier is weakened in inflationary gaps because of |
rapid price level increases. |
Suppose that aggregate demand were to decrease due to a stronger dollar. Which of the following would be the result? |
Deflation only |
Suppose that Congress enacts a significant tax cut with the expectation that this action will stimulate aggregate demand and push up real GDP in the short run. In fact, however, neither real GDP nor the price level changes significantly as a result of the tax cut. This outcome can be explained by all of the following, except one. Which one of the following is the exception? |
Automatic stabilizers. |
The Congressional meetings, discussions, arguments, debates over fiscal policy and the subsequent signing or vetoing by the President of a bill are part of the |
action time lag. |
Which of the following statements is true when considering time lags? |
Time lags in fiscal policy can be extremely long and may take several years before any impact is felt. |
During normal times, fiscal policy probably achieves most of its impact through |
the workings of automatic stabilizers. |
In early 2008, it appeared that the U.S. economy was either in a recession or growing very slowly. President Bush announced a program of tax rebates. This program can be described as ___________ and was intended to ______________. |
discretionary fiscal policy; increase consumer spending |
Which of the following is not a source of funding available to governments? |
Stock sales. |
The federal government has its best opportunity to lower its national debt when it has |
a budget surplus. |
a. Previously, the government operated with a balanced budget, but recently there has been a sudden increase in federal tax collections. The net public debt |
decreases |
The federal government had been operating with a very small annual budget deficit until three successive hurricanes hit the Atlantic Coast, and now government spending has risen substantially. The net public debt |
increases |
c. The General National Mortgage Association, a federal government agency that purchases certain types of home mortgages, buys U.S. Treasury bonds from another government agency. The net public debt |
remains unchanged |
What is the relationship between the gross public debt and the net public debt? |
The net public debt only included government debt held by the public. |
If federal budget deficits increase, then a part of that deficit |
will be financed by foreign dollar holders, who will buy fewer U.S. exports, thus increasing the U.S. trade deficit. |
During the late 1970s, prices quoted in terms of the Israeli currency, the shekel, rose so fast that grocery stores listed their prices in terms of the U.S. dollar and provided customers with dollar-shekel conversion tables that they updated daily. Although people continued to buy goods and services and make loans using shekels, many Israeli citizens converted shekels to dollars to avoid a reduction in their wealth due to inflation. Thus, the U.S. dollar functioned as money in Israel during this period |
as a store of value |
During the 1945-1946 Hungarian hyperinflation, when the rate of inflation reached 41.9 quadrillion percent per month, the Hungarian government discovered that the real value of its tax receipts was falling dramatically. To keep real tax revenues more stable, it created a good called a "tax pengö", in which all bank deposits were denominated for purposes of taxation. |
as a standard of deferred payment |
A $1,000 balance in a transactions deposit at a mutual savings bank. |
both M1 and M2 |
A $100,000 certificate of deposit issued by a New York bank. |
neither M1 or M2 |
A $10,000 time deposit an elderly widow holds at her credit union. |
M2 only |
A $50 traveler’s check. |
both M1 and M2 |
A $50,000 money market deposit account balance. |
M2 only |
Jennifer has $1,000 in her checking account. |
M1 and M2 |
A manager of a savings and loan association responds to reports of a likely increase in federal deposit insurance coverage. She directs loan officers to extend mortgage loans to less creditworthy borrowers. This situation poses |
a moral hazard problem |
A loan applicant does not mention that a legal judgment in his divorce case will require him to make alimony payments to his ex-wife. This situation poses |
an adverse selection problem |
An individual who was recently approved for a loan to start a new business decides to use some of the funds to take a Hawaiian vacation. This situation poses |
a moral hazard problem |
Which of the following statements is true when considering central banks? |
The number of central banks in the world grew enormously after the Great Depression. |
Which of the following is a function of the Federal Reserve System? |
Acting as a lender of last resort to commercial banks. |
The Federal Reserve purchases $12 million in U.S. Treasury bonds from a bond dealer, and the dealer’s bank credits the dealer’s account. The required reserve ratio is 11 percent, and the bank typically lends any excess reserves immediately. |
10.68 million Total Reserves−Required Reserves=Excess Reserves=Loans to its Customers |
A bank has $269 million in total reserves, of which $10 million are excess reserves. The bank currently has $3.5883 billion in loans, $0.975 billion in securities, and $138 million in other assets. The required reserve ratio for transactions deposits is 9 percent. |
… |
Calculate the sum of this bank’s total amount of liabilities and net worth |
4.97 billion Total assets=Total reserves+Loans+Securities+Other assets |
Calculate the additional amount of loans this bank can make to households and firms. |
10 billion Total Reserve−Required Reserve=Excess Reserve |
Calculate the current quantity of transactions deposits at this bank. |
2.88 billion Transaction deposits: required reserve/required reserve ratio |
Stockbrokers monitor the companies after investing funds in them, in order to |
limit moral hazard |
Commercial banks screen their borrowers before a loan can be approved, in order to |
limit adverse selection |
Money market mutual funds combine the savings of many individuals, in order to |
lower management costs |
Using the line drawing tool, draw a money demand curve on the graph indicating the relationship between the interest rate and the opportunity cost of holding money. |
supply curve but actually demand |
If the Fed increases the discount rate, relative to the federal funds rate, then this |
would increase the cost of funds for institutions borrowing from the Fed. |
a. As a result of the dollar appreciation, U.S. net export expenditures will |
decrease |
b. The aggregate demand curve that could represent the aggregate demand effect of the U.S. dollar’s appreciation is |
AD2 |
The real GDP _________ and the price level will |
will decrease; decrease |
c. Federal Reserve may take a certain policy action to prevent the dollar’s appreciation from affecting equilibrium real GDP in the short run. Which one of the following is not a likely policy action that the Fed will take? |
Increasing government spending |
Which of the following is a true statement? |
Both the direct and the indirect effects of an expansionary monetary policy are to increase aggregate demand. |
The indirect effect of an increase in the money supply works through |
a decrease in the interest rate increasing investment and consumption. |
The graph to the right shows the supply and demand for bonds. As a result of this open market operation, the interest rate will |
fall |
Suppose that initially the money supply is $2 trillion, the price level equals 44, the real GDP is $6 trillion in base-year dollars, and income velocity of money is 12. Then the money supply increases by $200 billion, while real GDP and income velocity of money remain unchanged. a. According to the quantity theory of money and prices, calculate the new price level after the increase in money supply: |
Ms×V=P×Y |
b. Calculate the percentage increase in money supply: |
10% New value of Ms-initial value of Ms/initial value of Ms *100 |
Calculate the percentage change in the price level: |
10% New price level-Initial price level/initial price level *100 |
d. The percentage changes in the money supply is ________ percentage changes in the price level. |
equal to the |
To implement a credit policy intended to expand liquidity of the banking system, the Fed desires to increase its assets by lending to a substantial number of banks. How might the Fed adjust the interest rate that it pays banks on reserves in order to induce them to hold the reserves required for funding this credit policy action? The Fed should _______ the interest rate. |
increase |
What will happen to the Fed’s liabilities if it implements the policy action to induce banks to hold the reserves required for funding its credit policy? The Fed’s liabilities will |
increase |
Suppose that the Fed pursues an expansionary monetary policy. |
The decrease in interest rates will cause capital outflow, lowering the value of the dollar and increasing net exports. |
In an open economy, the net export effect |
may offset an expansionary fiscal policy but enhance an expansionary monetary policy. |
The Fed acts like a private banking institution when it |
provides payment- clearing services to depository institutions |
The Fed acts like a government agency when it |
supervises depository institutions |
Which of the following is not a duty of the a central bank? |
Guarantee the savings of its citizens. |
Due to the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999 |
the US government allowed commercial banks to own stock and sell insurance policies. |
Which of the following statements is true when considering national banking structures around the world? |
U.S. businesses only obtain approximately 30% of their funds from bank loans compared to 65% for European firms. |
Which of the following statements is true when considering central banks? |
The number of central banks in the world grew enormously after the Great Depression. |
What is the basic structure of the Federal Reserve Bank? |
There are 12 district banks, a Board of Governors and a Federal Open Market Committee. |
Which of the following events caused Congress to begin seriously looking at setting up the Federal Reserve system? |
Some severe banking crises at the end of the 19th century and early 20th century. |
Which of the functions of the Federal Reserve is appropriately matched with its correct institution? |
Holds reserve balances for depository institutions; The Federal Reserve Bank. |
If you live in Atlanta, Georgia, and you purchase a computer in Los Angeles, California, while there on vacation, which of the following paths would your check take before it finally clears? |
The check goes from the computer store’s bank to the Federal Reserve bank in San Francisco, then to the Federal Reserve bank in Atlanta, and then to your bank |
Which of the following does not describe some of the functions of the Federal Reserve Bank? |
Acts as a medium of exchange, a unit of accounting, a store of value and a standard of deferred payment. |
When the Fed acts as the lender of the "last resort" it means that |
the Fed lends to depository institutions it deems should not fail. |
Which of the following statements is incorrect? |
There are a total of 25 Federal Reserve district banks. |
When a temporarily illiquid bank which is otherwise in good financial condition borrows money from the Fed in an attempt to prevent a loss of confidence in the bank or in other banks, this is an example of the Fed |
acting as the lender of last resort. |
What are the features of federal deposit insurance? |
Depository institutions’ premiums are based on the value of their deposits with the funds being held for use in the case of a failed bank so that depositors can be reimbursed. |
The type of policy making that is not in response to actual or potential changes in overall economic activity is called |
passive policy making. |
The natural rate of unemployment depends on factors that affect the behavior of both workers and firms. All the following are likely to influence the natural rate of unemployment, except |
the burden of government debt on the general public. |
The natural rate of unemployment in the U.S. |
is the rate of unemployment that exists in the long run after everyone in the economy has fully adjusted to changes that have occurred. |
The actual rate of unemployment is |
greater than the natural rate of unemployment when cyclical unemployment is positive. |
Suppose that economists were able to use U.S. economic data to demonstrate that the rational expectations hypothesis is true. In light of that, the policy irrelevance proposition will |
not be valid, since wages and prices of non-labor factors of production may adjust sluggishly. |
The real-business-cycle approach attributes even short-run increases in real GDP largely to aggregate supply shocks. Rightward shifts in aggregate supply tend to push down the equilibrium price level. The United States has experienced low but persistent inflation in recent years. This happened because |
the increase in aggregate demand was more than the increase in aggregate supply, thereby increasing the price level. |
The policy irrelevance proposition states that |
only unanticipated monetary policy changes can affect real GDP or the unemployment rate. |
If prices are sticky in the short run, a decrease in aggregate demand will lead to |
the largest possible decrease in real GDP. |
Because of the effect of sticky prices on real GDP in the short run, new Keynesian economists advocate _______ policymaking |
active |
Which of the following is an argument in favor of passive policymaking? |
Aggregate demand shocks have little effect in the short run and no effect on real GDP in the long run. |
Monetary policy undertaken by the Fed |
can be either passive or active policy depending on the reason it is undertaking its action. |
Suppose that people who previously had held jobs become structurally unemployed due to establishment of new government regulations during a period in which the inflation rate remains unchanged. Would the result be a movement along or a shift of the short-run Phillips curve? |
A rightward shift of the short-run Phillips curve. |
Consider a situation in which a future president has appointed Federal Reserve leaders who conduct monetary policy much more erratically than in past years. The consequence is that the quantity of money in circulation varies in a much more unsystematic and, hence, hard-to-predict manner. |
More likely, since much of the changes in the money supply will be unanticipated. |
People called "Fed watchers" earn their living by trying to forecast what policies the Federal Reserve will implement within the next few weeks and months. Suppose that Fed watchers discover that the current group of Fed officials is following very systematic and predictable policies intended to reduce the unemployment rate. The Fed watchers then sell this information to firms, unions, and others in the private sector. If pure competition prevails, prices and wages are flexible, and people form rational expectations, then the Fed’s policies |
are likely to have no effect on the unemployment rate. |
What is the rational expectations hypothesis? |
People form their expectations on the values of economic variables based on all available past and current information and their understanding of how the economy functions. |
The combination of rational expectations and perfectly competitive markets is best reflected in which of the following models? |
New Classical. |
Which of the following statements about the policy irrelevance proposition is not true? |
The policy irrelevance proposition implies that the there is a short run change in real GDP, but no long run change in real GDP. |
According to the rational expectations hypothesis, a policy cannot have a long-run effect on real GDP or the unemployment rate because |
A.people do not persistently make the same mistakes in forecasting the future. B. in the long run, people’s expectations will correctly anticipate the effects of any policy action and the public will react in such a way as to nullify the impact of policy. C. the policy will not contain unsystematic qualities in the long run and thus the public will be able to accurately forecast the actions and consequences of policy makers |
Suppose that more unemployed people who are classified as part of frictional unemployment decide to stop looking for work and start their own businesses instead. What is likely to happen to each of the following, other things being equal? |
The natural unemployment rate: decreases The economy’s Phillips curve: shifts left |
In new Keynesian models of aggregate economic activity, "sticky" prices and wages are explained by |
the small menu-cost and efficiency wage theories, respectively. |
According to the rational expectations hypothesis, an individual’s assessment of future economic performance |
considers both past performance and current monetary and fiscal policy. |
Macroeconomics
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