The reassignment of a face that is familiar from another context to the scene of a crime is referred to as |
Unconscious Transference |
The process of having an eyewitness looking at one person or photograph at a time is referred to as _____ lineups |
Sequential |
The tendency for biased feedback to distort the memory of eyewitness accounts is also known as |
Post-identification feedback effect |
Cross-race effect has been shown to be consistent in strength |
Across the age span |
Eyewitnesses depend on _____ to identify or describe a suspect |
Memory |
In addition to issues with memory in general, other things can influence witness accuracy. Interference can take place because, during the process of identification of a suspect, witnesses are often inclined to overestimate their perception of an event or perpetrator as a result of _____ and _____ |
Biased question; lineup procedures |
Alternative suspects in the lineup or photo spread are called |
Fillers |
Eyewitness testimony is |
More fallible that one would suppose |
According to psychologists, the memory consists of a _____-part component process |
Three |
According to the text, cross-race effect is present in babies as young as |
9 months |
According to a study completed by Morgan et al. (2004), stress appears to have an effect on eyewitness identification. Based on the results found, the rate of correct identification was _____ in low-stress conditions |
Higher |
Cross-racial identifications are generally _____ accurate than/as same-race identification |
Less |
Techniques for refreshing witness memories include |
Hypnosis and cognitive interview |
Individuals often _____ time during an event. This is particularly true if the event is ______ |
Overestimate; stressful |
When doing research, social scientists often look at many factors. Factors that are outside the control of the legal system are referred to as |
Estimator variables |
Meta-analysis relies on the findings from a |
Large group of related research studies |
_______ is the part of the memory process that involves accessing and pulling out stored information at a later time |
Retrieval |
When the eyewitness is a child, it is likely that the accuracy of information they can provide is |
Less accurate |
The memory is often described as having the following component(s) |
Encoding, storage, retrieval |
According to the text, estimates of time during the course of a stressful event are _____ times the actual length of the event |
3 to 4 |
The term ______ is part of memory processing. It entails gathering information and putting it into a form that is able to be retrieved later on. |
Encoding |
When describing memory, ______ is the first component required in the process necessary for retention. |
Encoding |
According to the text, what we generally see and remember is impacted by what we expect to see. This tendency to maintain widely held beliefs about a sequence of expected behaviors is referred to as |
Scripts |
The tendency of people to be better able to recognize faces of those within their racial group than those outside their own racial group is referred to as |
The cross-race effect |
Wrongful convictions have been shown to take place as a result of eyewitness testimony ______ any other type of evidence |
More than |
The benefit of a cognitive interview is that |
It mentally reinstates the context surrounding the crime |
Bias-reducing instructions are used to assist eyewitnesses to be accurate in their identification of a suspect. An example of such instructions, as noted in the text, is telling the eyewitness that |
"The true criminal might not be in the lineup or the photo spread" |
The maintenance of information over time within the brain is referred to as |
Storage |
The _____ consists of five factors to be take into account when evaluating eyewitness identification accuracy |
Manson Criteria |
In the construction of memory, it is not uncommon to find that distortion may take place as we try to retrieve that memory. The following is true when we encode an event |
With encoding, we may select only some aspects of the event in the formation of the memory |
The second edition of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI-2) is a measure of |
Psychopathology |
If the accused is deemed nonrestorable, then criminal charges are |
Dismissed |
Preponderance of the evidence applies to the competency to stand trial just as it is in many types of court cases. However, in the case of competency to stand trial, the defense must prove |
It is more likely than not that the accused is incompetent |
Competency to stand trial (CST) refers to the psychological state of the accused |
At the time of the trial |
Which of the following are ethically bound to assure that a defendant is competent to stand trial |
The defense attorney, the judge, and the prosecuting attorney |
According to the text, ______ states allow juveniles of a certain age to be tried in adult venues when charged with serious crimes |
50 |
According to the definition of the text, malingering means that an individual is |
Intentionally faking a mental illness or disability because of an external incentive |
According to research (Grisso et al., 2003), at approximately age ____, the differences between young offenders and those aged 18-24 disappeared. |
16 |
The American Psychological Association recommends that defendants should not be executed if they demonstrate |
A severe mental disorder or disability that limits capacity |
The legal definition of whether an individual has the capacity to perform necessary personal or legal functions is known as |
Competence |
If restoration to competence cannot be accomplished, proceedings may be held to issue a(n) |
Involuntary civil commitment |
Prior to Jackson v. Indiana (1972), defendants that were deemed to be incompetent could be held in mental institutions |
Indefinitely |
For accused individuals to be deemed to be gravely disabled, it must be proved that they are |
Unable to provide for their basic needs |
Competency to stand trial (CST) has two components to its definition. The first component refers to the accused individual’s ______. The second components refers to the accessed individuals’s ______. |
Ability to interact rationally with an attorney; understanding about how the court process works |
Competence to stand trial demands that |
The accused meets minimum standards to cooperate with their attorney |
Bona fide doubt may also be referred to as |
Reasonable doubt |
According to the text, even if the accused is deemed incompetent to stand trial he or she may receive treatment to become competent, in the legal sense. This happens for ______ of incompetent defendants. |
The vast majority |
When performing competency evaluations within an institution, collateral sources of information can be gathered regarding the defendants behavior. Some of the individuals that might able to provide this additional information include |
Prison guard, nurse, and mental health professional |
Phillip is standing trial for robbery. His overall ability to adequately take care of himself and his ability to understand whats going on trial means has come into question. Before he goes to trial, it is important to assess whether he is |
Comptent to stand trial |
Following Jackson v. Indiana (1972), it is generally accepted that an individual is limited to confinement between _______, and then reevaluated. |
4-18 months |
Courts can recommend forcible medication of defendants |
When they are a danger to self or others |
Psychological tests related specifically to the evaluation of competence to stand trial are referred to as |
Forensic assessment instruments |
When requested to perform assessment of competence, clinicians |
Generally utilize techniques familiar to them based on training and experience |
In terms of plea bargains, Grisso et al. (2003) found that the number of youths aged 11 to 13 years old were ____ likely to accept a plea than young adults |
More |
A person accused of a crime has the right to plead guilty and deny having an attorney. However, according to the Supreme Court (Johnson v. Zerbst), a guilty plea must be |
Knowing, intelligent, and voluntary |
Eric was scheduled for trial as a result of a felony offense. It was soon discovered that he was certain that the light fixtures throughout his city were purposely set there by aliens trying to learn how to "fit in". He was found incompetent to stand trial, but not because of his alien theory. He was found incompetent because |
His ability to see aliens interfered with his sense of right and wrong |
Adjudicative competence is |
A legal concept that describes defendants’ ability to understand legal proceedings and participate in those proceedings in their own defense |
What is a primary advantage of providing an evaluation of competency of a defendant within an institution? |
It provides multiple opportunities to observe the defendant’s behavior in one time frame |
According to research completed by Grisso et al. (2003), the difference between adolescents (ages 11-17) and young adults (ages 18-24) were |
Significant |
An advantage of performing competency evaluations within an institution is that |
Information can be gathered by the attorney through interviewing the defendant safely |
According to the text, those found not guilty by reason of insanity (NGRI) generally spend _____ time in secure mental hospitals than they would have served in prison had they been |
Equal to more |
Research completed by Rita Simon (1967) found that, when different sets of jurors were given different definitions of insanity based on legal terminology, there was |
No impact on their verdicts |
A highly publicized 1978 trial in California brought up the influence of heavy ingestion of junk food on mental state. The defense of the accused, Dan White, was referred to as the |
Twinkie defense |
The psychiatric illnesses most commonly associated with successful insanity pleas include |
Psychosis and intellectual disability |
There are unique problems that are presented by insanity evaluations that make developing a test to evaluate insanity extremely difficult. All of the following are valid reasons for this EXCEPT |
CST and insanity can be evaluated using similar test instruments and techniques |
Mark has been suffering from schizophrenia for many years, and his delusions and hallucinations are sometimes hard to control even with medication. If he commits a crime, he |
Will definitely be found not guilty by reason of insanity |
Legal definitions of insanity are crafted by |
Legislators and judges |
Insanity is considered a(n) |
Legal term |
The notion that the punishment for criminal activity should be proportionate to the harm that was committed is known as |
Retribution |
On several occasions, Andrea Yates tried to kill _____, and still the jury at her first trial found her ______. |
Herself; guilty |
According to the text, insanity |
Refers to the criminal’s state of mind at the time the crime was committed. |
The concept that a person who commits a crime, receives punishment for it through the workings of our legal system, and afterwards makes a decision to never commit a crime |
Deterrence |
The Insanity Defense Reform Act (IDRA) of 1984 eliminated the _____ from the definition of insanity |
Volitional capacity |
The Insanity Defense Reform Act (IDRA) of 1984 required that ______ prove ______ the insanity of the defendant at the time of the crime |
The defense; by clear and convincing evidence |
When applying diminished capacity, the ______ must prove mens era |
Prosecution |
According to the text, the ______ is when the impulse is so overwhelming that the criminal would have committed the act even if a police officer stood beside the criminal at the time of the crime. |
The policeman at the elbow test |
Malingering refers to the ______ of psychological symptoms that might lead to the accused being termed incompetent to stand trial or insane. |
Faking or exaggeration |
Mens rea refers to ______, whereas actus reus refers to _______ |
A guilty mind; a criminal act |
When determining insanity, the courts rely on |
Clinical psychologists |
Regarding the insanity defense, one reason that jurors often disregard the instructions from judges about legal definitions is that jurors use their _______, whereas the various definitions are often ______. |
Commonsense notions of insanity; narrowly bound |
The guilty but mentally ill (GBMI) verdict assumes that people who are found guilty of a criminal act should receive ______ but most offenders go ______. |
Mental health treatment; to prison rather than mental institution |
The Durham standard took into consideration |
Mental disease or mental defect in a person |
Volitional capacity refers to the defendant’s |
Being unable to control his or her behavior |
_______ is the concept that the punishment of criminals teaches others that criminal activities lead to penalties. |
General deterrence |
The idea of the insanity defense is based on the principle that |
People should not be punished if they are not responsible for their behavior |
According to the text, postpartum psychosis that Andrea Yates suffered from includes all of the following EXCEPT: |
Acute headaches |
Development of the insanity defense can be traced back |
Several centuries |
The M’Naghten rule lists three components to be used as a defense in criminal cases. One of the components is that at the moment of the crime, the accused must have |
Been laboring under a defect of reason |
Today, there is a general agreement that committing a criminal act without a guilty mind is |
Not enough to commit |
The concept that individuals with issues relating to impaired cognitive understanding should not be held culpable was used as early as the Roman Empire. Roman law classified those individuals to be non compos mantis, or |
Without mastery of mind |
Judicial nullification instruction can best be described as an instruction that lets jurors know that they can _____ a strict interpretation of the law if that legal interpretation would result in an unjust verdict. |
Disregard |
Men are _____ women to seriously injure/kill their intimate partners |
More likely than |
The term rape trauma syndrome (RTS) can best be described as a: |
Cluster of symptoms identified in a sample of rape victims |
Betty endured abuse throughout most of her 30+ years of marriage. During that time, she became less resistive to the attacks and more submissive. A term Lenore Walker used to describe this state is |
Learned helplessness |
Hypervigilance can best be described as |
Heightened attentiveness to the abuser’s subtle behaviors |
Judges often refuse to allow experts present information about RTS to the jury. All of the following would be typical reasons for such a decision on the part of a judge EXCEPT |
RTS may improperly bias the jury against the victim |
The tension phase of the cycle of violence is often represented by _____, whereas the contrition phase is often represented by ______. |
Arguing; denial |
Which of the following statements correctly describes the current state of BWS validity? |
BWS is accepted by many practitioners and criticized by many researchers |
Victims of rape trauma syndrome (RTS) and battered woman syndrome (BWS) may also meet the criteria for ______, which is an established medical diagnosis. |
Post-traumatic stress disorder |
Self-defense can be used in a court of law, when a defendant is facing charges as a rest of killing her batterer. However, specific circumstances need to be introduced. Which of the following does NOT meet the requirement of self-defense? |
The abuse was relentless, and the victim was scared even when the abuser was asleep |
Statistics noted in the text indicate that serious violence perpetrated by intimate partners is ______ to happen against women. |
More likely |
The DSM-5 contains _____ among its classification of mental disorders |
It contains none of these |
The text indicates that one possible useful application of batterer typology is to |
Develop targeted interventions |
According to Burgess and Holmstorm (1979), who coined the term RTS, about ______ of rape victims report that they still have not recovered 5 years after the incident |
One quarter |
Marissa has been beaten by her husband on multiple occasions. She has learned to anticipate her husband’s impending violence by carefully observing minute signs of his moods and behaviors. Which of the following terms is used to describe this type of heightened attentiveness in battered woman? |
Hypervigilance |
Studies have found that women who used violence against their abusers were likely to be found ____ in a jury trial, and expert testimony on BWS was likely to ___ |
Guilty; not make a difference |
One of the most criticized components of the battered woman syndrome (BWS) is ____. |
Learned helplessness |
Rape shield laws were put in place to prevent lawyers from delving into the sexual histories of _____ during the trial |
The alleged victim |
The main reason why PTSD is advocated as a replacement for BWS or RTS in a trial is that |
PTSD has less prejudicial impact on jurors |
According to the text, jurors appear to be _____ inclined toward women who kill their partners ______. |
Negatively; despite the evidence of abuse |
Because BWS and RTS are often difficult for the prosecution to integrate into a trial, many have advocated for testimony about post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) instead. One reason why the use of this diagnosis proves to be more helpful in cases in which the victim kills the batterer is that |
PTSD is better established as a mental disorder |
Until the second half of the twentieth century, wife battering was treated ____ most other forms of violence |
Much less seriously than |
Psychologists also use the term symptom to describe a particular _____ to a specific event |
Psychological and emotional reaction |
Symptoms of someone suffering from battered woman syndrome (BWS) may include all of the following EXCEPT |
High self-efficacy |
According to the text, the typical rape is committed by acquaintances, with approximately ____ of rapes being committed by strangers |
15% |
Chris is extremely jealous and has a fear of abandonment that often spills into impulsive violent altercations with his girlfriend, especially if she spends any time with her male friends. On the other hand, he appears totally normal and nonviolent to his co-workers and friends. This type of batterer may be classified as meeting the criteria for |
Borderline personality disorder |
Several factors need to be considered in legal settings to understand how the dynamic of violence works and why battered women stay with their abusers. Which of the following is NOT one of them? |
How charming and charismatic was the abuse? |
PTSD was originally formulated to describe psychological symptoms experienced by _____ returning from _____ |
Combat veterans; the war in Vietnam |
A common term used to describe a group of associated symptoms that lead to a significant dysfunction in the performance of normal activities is |
Syndrome |
According to the text, men in intimate relationships are ______ the victims of physical assault. |
Sometimes |
In some cases, so-called memories of past abuse have surf by _____ of the alleged victim while under hypnosis or guided imagery |
The suggestibility |
According to research noted in the text, jurors that heard both adult hearsay witnesses and child testimony deemed the hearsay testimony |
More credible |
A non-suggestive prompt to continue with an ongoing response, such as "Ok" is which type of prompt? |
Facilitator |
The NICHD protocol provides guidelines for four different types of prompts. The types of prompts include |
Facilitator, invitation, cured invitations, and directive |
When reviewing testimony by children at trial, it appears that jurors are _______ to believe young children than adolescents |
More likely |
The repression hypothesis posits that traumatic memories can be maintained in the ______ for years. |
Unconscious |
Research has shown that children _____ sometimes have difficulty distinguishing between imagined and real events |
Under 5 |
Children suffering from CSAAS often delay disclosure of the abuse. The text notes three reasons why this may occur. Which of the following is NOT discussed in the text as a part of this behavior pattern? |
Confusion |
Requesting children who may have been abused to refocus their attention to details that have already been mentioned and then to use those details as cues for further investigation, is referred to as |
Cued invitation |
Suggestive questions can best be described as |
Including questions not volunteered by the child |
Testifying about what someone else said outside of court is called |
Hearsay testimony |
When interviewing a child in an abuse case, it is often necessary to focus attention to information previously mentioned in order to extract more specific details. This outcome is often accomplished through using words such as "where", "when", "what", etc, This type of interviewer prompt is a(n) _______ prompt |
Directive |
Children who have been sexually abused may also display which of the following behaviors, according to research noted in the text? |
Denial of abuse and recantation of allegations |
Research has demonstrated that other techniques used in interviewing children in abuse cases have proven to be helpful. These techniques include all EXCEPT |
Asking the same question more than once |
The concept of repression was developed by |
Freud |
Much research has demonstrated that victims of traumatic events ______ the episode |
Have vivid memories of |
According to the text, children who recant previous allegations of sexual abuse have been abused by a |
Parental figure |
Memories of abuse that are recalled by adults many years or decades after the alleged abuse are referred to as |
Recovered Memories |
In a subsequent experiment, Hyman created other unusual false events. The results of this study resulted in ______ of the participants developing false recollections. |
27% |
It is important to avoid bias when interviewing a possible victim or witness. This is particularly true with children. One technique suggested in the text that may be used to avoid bias when interviewing is the NICHD Investigative Interview Protocol. The NICHD Protocol aims to accomplish all of the following EXCEPT |
Utilize closed-ended questions |
Elizabeth Loftus is well-known for her research on false memories. In one experiment, she created a memory in participants of being lose within a mall. Of the participants in the experiment, _____ remembered most or all of the implanted event |
25% |
Another way that children are able to testify in a case is through the use of a closed-circuit television (CCTV), Its use allows the judge and jury to see the child without exposing the alleged victim to the emotional trauma that may present itself while in the presence of the defendant. In the case of Maryland v Craig, the court decided that the _____ child _____ the defendant’s right to confront his or her accuser |
Need to protect; outweighs |
Only _____ states do not allow an exception to the hearsay rule when a child is the alleged victim |
9 |
When a child is abused by a parental figure, a reason that the child may recant allegations of abuse may be because of lack of support from |
The non-abusing parent |
Forgetting that occurs with the passage of time is referred to as |
Transience memory |
"Tell me everything that happened" is an example of an open-ended request, which is considered a _____ type of prompt. |
Invitation |
According to the text, children who suffer from child sexual abuse accommodation syndrome (CSAAS) are likely to show _____ behavioral symptoms |
Three |
Hearsay testimony is sometimes admissible in trials where a child is an alleged victim because |
The idea that children, the victims, can deal with the individual who may have abused them face to face is unrealistic |
According to the text, the use of an anatomically detailed doll with children less than 5 years of age _____ the number of false allegations of sexual abuse |
Increased |
One reason why adult hearsay witness testimony may be perceived differently from that of a child, is that |
Adults are more confident in their testimony |
Research that follows subjects and collects data over a longer period of time is referred to as |
Longitudinal |
In the case of divorce under English common law, children were considered to be |
Property of the father |
When there is a history of spousal abuse, the abuser may use the mediation process to have access to the victim. In this case, mediation |
May not be the best approach |
Psychologists become involved in cases that include child custody arrangements because psychological evaluation of one or both of the parents is either required or recommended. In contrast to forensic evaluations, in which individuals may feign psychological disturbance, known as _______, in parental evaluations, individuals are more likely to hide psychological problems, which is known as ______ |
Malingering; faking good |
Kathryn’s parents recently divorced. During the hearing for custody, it was determined that her mother would have legal and physical custody. This type of custody is known as |
Sole custody |
Matthew’s parents divorced after a tumultuous marriage. It was difficult for him to understand what happened because he had become somewhat accustomed to all of the fighting. In addition, the divorce resulted in a difficult financial situation, and he had to change schools. Despite these circumstances, Matthew made great strides, finished high school with high grades, and completed college in three years. He possesses personality traits that help him overcome difficult situations. This group of personality traits is referred to as |
Resilience |
The goal of the approximation rule is to |
Maintain as much stability for the child as possible |
The syndrome coined by Richard Gardner that describes one parent attempting to induce fear of the other parent in their children is called |
Parental alienation syndrome |
More often than not, children define family in terms of |
Emotional ties |
Shared legal custody is also known as |
Joint legal custody |
The rights and responsibilities of parents in determination of custody are called |
Legal custody |
Research has demonstrated that sexism or gender bias is more likely to influence decision making in custody cases when the guidelines for custody are |
Vague |
A neutral third party that is used in courts to approach the parents tougher in a non-adversial manner is also called |
Mediator |
The purpose of mandatory mediation laws is to |
Reduce emotional trauma for the family |
According to the text, custody arrangements reveal that sole physical custody is granted for the mother approximately ____ of the time |
75% |
Jennifer’s parents are contemplating divorce and have not been able to agree on custody issues. The fight for custody has already impacted Jennifer, as her dropping grades demonstrate. Unfortunately, the state where the family lives does not have |
Mandatory mediation laws |
Children may be also screened by psychologists in custody cases. Generally, three categories of tests are administered |
Intelligence, personality, and projective evaluations |
One problem with the BICS is that it can |
Escalate conflicts between parents |
In custody desicions, the approximation rules states that |
The child should remain in placement that is true to the care taking relationship that existed prior to the divorce |
Considering the child first and foremost in a custody decision has been reinforced by the establishment of the |
Best interest of the child standard (BICS) |
Sole physical custody granted to the father is the _____ custody arrangement(s) |
Second most common |
One criticism of the majority of currently used projective tests is that they |
Have low validity |
The primary caretaker rule takes into account several factors when determining the appropriate custody arrangement. Which of the following factors is NOT generally considered? |
Who earns the money paid for the child’s preschool |
Shared legal custody means that |
The parent who is with the child makes everyday desicions and both parents make serious desicions together |
A projective test measures an individual’s response to |
Ambiguous stimuli |
One criticism of projective tests, particularly the Rorschach Inkblot Test, is that |
The responses are often interpreted differently from clinician to clinician |
The tender years doctrine once prevailed as the standard for deciding child custody. This rule dictated that |
Young children and all female children were placed with the mother |
In recent decades, the instances of joint legal custody have been |
Increasing |
Which of the following statements reflects the current state of knowledge about Parental Alienation Syndrome (PAS) |
It has not been confirmed scientifically because there is not enough research data about Parental Alienation Syndrome (PAS) |
Child custody issues may require the expertise of a psychologist to assist the court in deciding the fate of a child in the case of a divorce. ______ refers to how much time a child spends with each of the parents |
Physical custody |
When told to not think about something, we often do the exact opposite and cannot get that through out of our heads. This mental behavior is referred to as |
Ironic processes |
The lack of clear evidence often results in jurors considering other factors such as pretrial publicity and prior beliefs. This phenomenon is known as the ______ |
Liberation |
_________ occurs when group pressure results in holdout juror changing their votes |
Normative influence |
Numbers of the jury that appear to have a great deal of influence on the deliberation process are referred to as _______ jurors |
Strong |
Research has demonstrated that once jurors are instructed to disregard pretrial publicity, they often |
Demonstrate no remedial effects of instructions |
Pre-instructions given to a jury before the beginning of a trial appear to provide a(n) _____ that proves to be helpful to jurors in organizing information presented in trials |
Schema |
Information that might be deemed prejudicial would more than likely to be considered as |
Inadmissible evidence |
When jurors change their minds through the compelling arguments of other jurors, this phenomenon is also referred to as |
Informational influence |
Evidence that is meant to damage the credibility of a witness or defendants statements is also referred to as |
Impeachment evidence |
According to the text, jurors that heard negative pretrial publicity are more likely to judge the defendant as |
Guilty |
Information released through pretrial publicity is often _____ at trial |
Inadmissible |
According to the text, two models are utilized when describing the decision making process of jury members. These two models are known as ______ and _____ |
Story models; mathematical models |
Interestingly, the author notes that approximately _____ of deliberation is devoted to evidence, whereas ______ is dedicated to the law and judges instructions |
70-75%; 20% |
Differences in opinion among members often occur. At this point, various coalitions may develop among jury members. This may even lead to attacks against each other. A common term for tis phenomenon is |
Open conflict |
In a post verdict survey, it was discovered that ______ of jurors stated that they had adequate opportunity to express their views |
98% |
According to the text, jurors are actively constructing stories _____ the evidence at trial |
During hearing |
When a judge dictates that certain evidence is to be ignored, jurors often feel that their freedom to choose to consider all evidence is threatened. This belief often motivates them to consider inadmissible evidence to a(n) ______ degree as admissible |
Greater |
Individuals that present testimony based on their specialized training or knowledge are also known as a(n) |
Expert Witness |
The author posits that the best predicator of what the will be is the ______ of relevant evidence |
Strength |
According to the text, approximately _____ of jury trials in the United States result in a hung jury |
6.2% |
During the deliberation process, two distinct styles are evident. These two styles are ______ and ______ |
Verdict-driven style; evidence-driven style |
When jurors employ a mental meter to assess an individuals guilt or innocence, they are assumed to be using a |
Mathematical model |
According to the text, _____ states require unanimity in misdemeanor verdicts. However, ______ states require it in criminal felony trials |
26; 44 |
Evidence has shown that judges are often susceptible to the same interferences with impartiality as are jurors. According to the text, researchers discovered that judges accepted the recommendation of the parole officer ______ of the time |
84% |
According to the text, in civil trials, corporations are held to a different standard then individuals. This difference may be as a result of the notion that corporations ______ whereas individuals ______ |
Are held to a higher standard of care; may have a lapse in judgement |
Jurors that create a casual chain of events are said to be utilizing the ______ of decision making |
Story model |
Certain characteristics of the defendant are often considered by jurors. For example, Phillip is a known thug and gang member. He was on trial for the death of a priest that he ran over while evading police. In this case, it likely Phillip will receive a verdict that would be _______ if he killed a fellow gang member. |
More harsh than |
Pretrial publicity sometimes is misremembered by jurors as having been presented |
At the trial |
The foreperson of a jury is regarding as it’s leader. However, a foreperson may or may not exert disproportionate influence on a verdict. In fact he or she may become more focused on the ______ and on acting as a(n) ______ |
Procedural Issues; moderator |
Unanimity is required by ______ states in capital murder trials |
50 |
In Kansas vs. Hendricks (1997), the Supreme Court rules that sexually violent predator civil commitment laws did NOT violate double jeopardy. Double jeopardy means that |
An individual was punished two times for the same crime |
Because clinicians are not aware of how often offenders reoffend, which is called the ______, clinicians predictions would ______ the likelihood of violent behavior |
Base rate of reoffense; overestimate |
At its high point (in the 1950s), the number of people housed in mental asylums reached almost ____ individuals |
550, 000 |
Static markers of future violent behaviors are also called |
Historical markers |
Cathy is incarcerated because she has a history of physical and mental abuse of her stepchildren. She has been held in custody for an extended period because she the possibility of becoming violent, which is also known as |
Preventative detention |
Researchers have determined three broad categories of predicators of risk for future violent behavior |
Historical, dynamic, and risk management markers |
An individual who has a "recurrent, intense sexual urge or behavior involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child or children" is classified as a |
Pedophile |
According to the text, rates of antisocial personality disorder in the general population are _____, whereas the incidence of antisocial personality disorder in prison inmates is _____ |
0.3-3.3%; up to 70% |
According to a reported completed by Gookin (2007), nearly ____ sex offenders have been incarcerated as a result of the SVP laws since 1990. Of that number, _____ have been released as of 2007 |
4500; 494 |
The following three states have been responsible for over half of the total executions in the United States since 1976 |
Texas, Oklahoma, Virginia |
The predictive ability of more scientific approaches to risk-assesment has been found to be _____ compared with unstructured clinical judgement |
More accurate |
Predictions made by psychological experts regarding future violence are uniformly _____ by the courts |
Upheld |
The movement to deinstitutionalize mentally ill patients was brought about by the following factors EXCEPT |
Overcrowding of mental institutions |
The length of civil confinement is |
Not specified |
Many psychological experts suggest that they are ____ at predicting future violence |
Not very good |
According to the text, research studies find that the rate of sexual reoffense is _____ than that of other crimes |
Lower |
The _____ is the probability that the defendant would commit an act of violence, representing a continuous threat to society |
Future dangerousness standard |
Civil confinements are NOT considered to be |
Punishment |
Community notification requiring states to make personal and private information about known sex offenders available to the public is a result of the enactment of |
Megan’s Law |
To hospitalize someone against his or her will, most states now require that certain conditions be met. Which of the following is NOT one of these conditions? |
A documented history of recent dangerous behaviors |
Scholars argue that it may be more productive to focus on ______ rather than on predicting ______ |
Prevention, and management of violence; violent behavior |
There are two aspects of the sexually violent predator civil commitment laws (SVP laws) One is the state’s authority to protect the citizenry, also referred to as _____. The second component is the state’s duty to protect those who cannot protect themselves, sometimes is referred to as ______ |
Police power; parens patriae power |
Involuntary civil commitment is based on what |
A person might do in the future |
The strategy whereby psychologists predict future violence that does not entail specific rules of how to collect information is called |
Unstructured clinical judgement |
_______ is a method of prediction that requires that relevant risk factors be statistically evaluated to calculate the probability of future violence |
Actuarial prediction |
According to the text, as of 2013, _____ states and the federal government adopted sexually violent predator civil commitment laws (SVP laws) |
20 |
Predictive markers that change over time are referred to as |
Dynamic markers |
Placing someone in a psychiatric facility against his or her will is known as |
Involuntary civil commitment |
______ was the first person to be subjected to the sexually violent predator civil commitment laws (SVP laws) |
Leroy Hendricks |
The burden of proof for civil commitment is |
Clear and convincing evidence |
Legal Psych Final Review Guide
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