Which blood vessel layer secretes paracrine factors, which participate in the regulation of blood pressure and blood vessel growth? |
Endothelium |
White blood cells are generally too large to pass through capillaries. What route must they follow to move from the arterial to the venous circulation? |
Metarterioles |
What type of tissue, present in the walls of blood vessels, allows for regulation of vessel diameter? |
Smooth Muscle |
Perfusion is |
blood flow through an organ |
The only blood vessels whose walls permit exchange between the blood and the surrounding interstitial fluids are the |
venules and capillaries |
Angiogenesis is |
the growth of new blood vessels |
Cerebral capillaries are surrounded by ________ and glial cells and have tight junctions that create the ________. |
pericytes, BBB |
Venules are similar to capillaries: they have ________ epithelium and only small amounts of ________. |
a thin exchange, connective tissue |
What maintains the driving pressure on blood while the heart is not contracting (ventricular diastole)? |
Recoil of the elastic arteries |
Which is the correct relationship between pressure, flow, and resistance? |
Pressure ~ Flow x Resistance |
Mean arterial pressure is equal to diastolic pressure plus one-third of the pulse pressure. An equivalent equation is MAP = 2/3 DBP + 1/3 SBP. Why is diastolic blood pressure a larger component of MAP than systolic blood pressure? |
The heart spends more time in diastole than systole; therefore, the equation reflects the difference in time. |
Using a sphygmomanometer, a nurse measures a patient’s blood pressure as 134/86. What is the patient’s pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure? |
PP = 48 mmHG MAP = 102 mmHG |
What compensatory mechanisms are available to help maintain blood pressure when a large volume of blood is lost, such as during a hemorrhage? |
Vasoconstriction, increased thirst, and decreased renal fluid output in the urine |
What effect would an increase in blood volume have on the resistance to blood flow? |
Nothing, they are not directly linked |
What effect would an increase in venous tone have on mean arterial pressure? |
It would increase it by shifting blood from the veins to the arteries |
Blood pressure can be measured with a sphygmomanometer. When the display indicates diastolic pressure, what is heard through the stethoscope. Why? |
Nothing is heard because blood flow is smooth through the fully open artery. |
What is the role of the kidney in blood pressure regulation? |
The kidney can eliminate water to decrease blood volume or it can conserve water to maintain blood volume. |
The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is important because |
It represents the driving pressure for blood flow |
Which of the following is occurring during systole? |
BP increases and more stress is placed on arterial walls |
The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the |
Pulse pressure |
All of the following would cause an increase in blood pressure |
decrease in arterial diameter, increase in arterial resistance, sympathetic stimulation |
What is the mechanism behind myogenic autoregulation in vascular smooth muscle? |
When cells stretch, mechanically gated cation channels open, depolarizing the cell, resulting in contraction |
Which paracrine acts as a vasoconstrictor? |
Serotonin (Kinins, Adenosine & Histamine are vasodilators) |
What causes active hyperemia? |
Increased metabolism results in a local increase in CO2 |
Which type of vessel changes most to regulate resistance to blood flow. Why? |
Arterioles b/c of the large amount of smooth muscle in their walls |
Which changes in paracrines cause vasodilation? What is the result? |
Decreased O2, increased CO2, increased H+, increased NO, result in increased blood flow. |
Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the |
level of carbon dioxide at the tissue increases. |
The vessels that are the main site of variable resistance in the circulatory system, and that contribute more than 60% of the total resistance, are the |
arterioles |
At rest, the majority of blood flows through the |
liver and digestive tract |
The matching of blood flow to the changing metabolic needs of a tissue is due to |
local control |
The bone marrow, the liver, and the spleen do NOT have traditional capillaries. Instead, they have modified vessels called ________ that are ________ than a capillary |
sinusoids, wider |
Which of the following cardiovascular control factors contribute to changes in blood pressure? |
force of cardiac contraction, heart rate, blood vessel diameter (cardiac factors!!) |
MAP ~ |
CO x Total peripheral resistance |
Which of the following neurotransmitters will play a role in the regulation of blood pressure by creating a change in cardiovascular function? |
Ephinephrine, norepinephrine, acetylcholine |
Which of the following are the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system when blood pressure is too high? |
decrease heart rate |
Why is the velocity of blood lowest in the capillaries as compared to all other types of vessels? |
The capillaries have the largest cross sectional area |
What is the mechanism by which bulk flow occurs at the capillaries? |
Relatively higher hydrostatic pressure on the arterial end of the capillary and relatively higher colloid oncotic pressure on the venous end results in net flow out of the capillary. |
If a person’s lymph vessels suddenly vanished (an impossible scenario), what impact would this have on the circulatory system? |
Blood volume and BP would decrease |
Which set of changes correctly describes the baroreceptor reflex in response to increased blood pressure? |
Increased vessel diameter, decreased resistance, decreased cardiac output |
The lipid material of an atherosclerotic plaque accumulates _______ |
deep to the tunica intima in the arterial wall |
In the capillaries, hydrostatic pressure (HP) is exerted by __________. |
Blood pressure |
The net hydrostatic pressure (HP) is the hydrostatic pressure in the __________ minus hydrostatic pressure in the __________. |
capillary, interstitial fluid (the capillary hydrostatic pressure (HPC; caused by blood pressure) is much higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure (HPI). The interstitial fluid is forced out of the capillaries.) |
Which of the following would reflect the typical net hydrostatic pressure (HP) at the arterial end of the capillary? |
34 mmHG (HPc (35 mm Hg) – HPI (1 mm Hg) = 34 mm Hg, which is the net hydrostatic pressure at the arterial end. The hydrostatic pressure of the blood is much higher at the arterial end of the capillary, thus favoring filtration.) |
The colloid osmotic pressure in the capillary is caused by __________. |
proteins in the blood |
Which net pressure draws fluid into the capillary? |
net osmotic pressure |
Reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place at the arterial end or venous end of the capillary? |
venous |
Where are the sensors for the arterial baroreceptor reflex located? |
carotid sinus and aortic arch |
If blood pressure is increased at the arterial baroreceptors, what would happen with the activity level of the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) and sympathetic nervous system (SNS)? |
increased PNS activity and decreased SNS activity |
Which of the following would cause vasodilation of arterioles? |
decrease in the activity of the sympathetic nervous system would result in decreased activity of vasomotor fibers, resulting in vasodilation. |
Stimulation of the adrenal medulla would result in which of the following? |
epinephrine and norepinephrine are released from the adrenal medulla and act as part of the sympathetic nervous system, increasing heart rate and contractility. Epinephrine and norepinephrine have other effects that would also increase blood pressure. |
A decrease in blood pressure at the arterial baroreceptors would result in which of the following? |
increase in heart contractility (sympathetic nervous system activity would be increased because of the low blood pressure. Sympathetic fibers go to the ventricles of the heart and increase their contractility. An increase in contractility would increase stroke volume which would lead to an increase in cardiac output and blood pressure.) |
Which of these blood values are in the normal range? |
Arterial PCO2 = 38 mmHg |
What is the primary mechanism by which gases move from the alveoli into the blood and cells and back? |
simple diffusion |
Low alveolar PO2 can be caused by one of two mechanisms. One of them is that the inspired air has a low oxygen content. What is the other reason? |
hypoventilation |
If alveolar PO2 is normal but arterial PO2 is low, what is the most likely cause? |
decreased barrier permeability |
Emphysema causes a loss of septa between individual alveoli, resulting in fewer, but larger, alveoli. What component of gas diffusion would be most affected by emphysema? |
surface area |
At the same pressure, about 25 times more CO2 will dissolve in plasma as O2. Why does this occur? |
CO2 has a higher solubility than O2 |
Because this factor normally varies, the most important variable that influences the diffusion of respiratory gases is the ________. |
concentration gradient |
High carbon dioxide concentration in body fluids is called |
hypercapnia |
The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately ________ mm Hg. |
100 mmHG |
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the cells of peripheral tissues is approximately ________ mm Hg. |
45 mmHG |
Of the factors that influence diffusion of respiratory gases, the most variable and, therefore, important factor to consider is the |
concentration gradient |
The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is |
diffusion |
The lung pathology most likely to result from certain kinds of heart disease is |
pulmonary edema |
CO2 bound to hemoglobin |
23 % |
CO2 dissolved in the plasma |
7% |
CO2 transported by conversion to HCO3 + H+ |
70% |
Increase oxygen/Hb affinity |
decrease temp, increase pH, decrease pp CO2, decrease [2,3 DPG] |
If a red blood cell is 100% saturated, how many molecules of O2 are bound to it? |
1 billion molecules of O2 |
Predict which way exercise would shift the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. Would this shift in the curve increase or decrease hemoglobin saturation? |
The curve would shift to the right thus decreasing the hemoglobin saturation. |
How is the majority of CO2 transported in blood? |
converted to and transported as bicarbonate ions |
In the lungs, O2 loading facilitates CO2 unloading from hemoglobin. This is known as __________. |
the Haldane effect |
In a healthy respiratory system, if the alveolar PO2 is 85 mmHg, what will arterial PO2 be? |
85 mmHG |
What is the main difference between fetal and adult hemoglobin? |
Fetal hb has a higher affinity for O2 |
What would a rightward shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin binding curve indicate? |
a decrease in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen |
Which change would cause a leftward shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin binding curve? |
decreased temperature |
In what form is most carbon dioxide transported in the blood? |
as bicarbonate ion |
Which of the following statements most accurately describes hypoxia? |
a decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in plasma or air |
Why is hyperventilation a usual response when someone is exposed to a high altitude hypoxic situation? |
Because it increases alveolar ventilation, which increases the partial pressure of O2 in the alveolus. |
Which change would cause the greatest stimulus for an increase in ventilation? |
arterial PCO2 increasing to 46 mmHg |
Approximately what percentage of the total blood oxygen is bound to hemoglobin instead of dissolved in plasma? |
98% |
A hemoglobin molecule binds to a maximum of how many oxygen molecules? |
up to 4 |
About 23% of the carbon dioxide in blood is carried ________. |
by Hb, bound to amino groups |
Conditioning of air by the respiratory tract has three purposes: warming, filtering, and which other component? |
humidifying |
Which of the following is NOT a muscle that assists in the pressure changes associated with breathing? |
pleural sac |
Gas exchange between the lungs and the atmosphere occurs at the ________. |
alveoli |
Which is NOT considered to be a primary function of the respiratory system? |
regulation of water balance (protection against pathogens, regulation of pH balance, gas exchance, and vocalization ARE) |
The upper respiratory tract includes all of the following |
nasal cavity, trachea, mouth, larynx |
The lower respiratory tract includes |
all of the bronchial branches and the lungs |
Alveolar ventilation refers to the |
movement of air into and out of the alveoli |
The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are |
alveoli |
Place the following structures of the respiratory tree in the order in which air passes through them. |
3, 1, 2, 5, 4 |
Which factor(s) from the ideal gas equation can be ignored in the human body? |
ideal gas constant, temperature, moles of the gas |
Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between pressure and volume? |
As V increases, P decreases proportionally |
When the respiratory diaphragm contracts, it flattens. At the same time, the intercostal muscles pull the ribs up and out. The active forces of the muscle groups cause a(n) _______________ (increase/decrease) in thoracic volume. Given the relationship between pressure and volume, this would cause pressure within the lungs to __________________ (increase/decrease). |
increase, decrease |
If you have an alveolus with an initial volume of 3 ml of air with a total pressure of 810 mmHg and you decrease the volume of this alveolus to 1.7 ml, what would the new pressure be and how would this affect air flow? Assume you are at sea level. |
1429 mmHg; air flow out of the alveolus to the environment |
Which of the following statements best describes the definition of Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressures? |
The total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures of the individual gases. |
Which of the following parameters do you need to know in order to calculate the partial pressure of a gas? |
the percentage of the gas, the water vapor pressure, the total pressure in the atmosphere |
As one moves up in altitude, the atmospheric pressure decreases. In Vail, CO (altitude 8022 ft or 2445 m), the atmospheric pressure is approximately 570 mmHg. What would the partial pressure of oxygen be in Vail? |
120 mmHG |
If you were visiting Vail, CO, what would the partial pressure of oxygen be in your inspired air once it had been fully conditioned (warmed and humidified)? You may need to use the information calculated from Question 8. |
110 mmHG |
In its simplest form, what relationship between pressure and volume does the ideal gas law demonstrate? |
they are inversely proportional |
Which of the following correctly states the relationship known as Boyle’s Law? |
P1V1=P2V2 |
Is it true that respiratory air flow obeys the same laws as blood flow? |
It is mostly true; the main differences are related to the fact that gas is compressible, but liquid is not. |
Dalton’s law states that |
in a mixture of gases like air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. |
Air moves into the lungs because |
the gas pressure in the lungs is less than outside pressure. |
Air moves out of the lungs because |
the volume of the lungs decreases with expiration |
What are the two conditions that most people with COPD have? |
emphysema or chronic bronchitis |
What happens to the resistance in the bronchioles of patients with chronic bronchitis and how does this affect air movement into and out of their lungs? |
increases; decreases |
The ability for the lung to passively recoil and push air out is attributed to what type of tissue? What is this property called? |
elastic tissue, elastance |
Which capacity is the sum of inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve volume, and tidal volume? |
vital capacity |
What is the main driving force that directly causes air to flow in and out of the respiratory system? Hint: It is the same force that creates blood flow. |
As the volume of the thoracic cavity changes, it creates a pressure gradient that allows air to flow. |
What causes the greatest change in thoracic volume during quiet inspiration? |
contraction of the diaphragm |
What happens to intrapleural pressure during a pneumothorax? |
it becomes equal to atmospheric pressure |
Just like the cardiovascular system, what is the primary determinant of resistance to flow in the respiratory system? |
tube radius |
Which is the best definition of anatomical dead space? |
the volume of the conducting system |
Why is the regulation of extracellular fluid osmolarity so important? |
It strongly influences cell volume. |
Where is the location for one of the primary structures responsible for monitoring blood volume? |
atria |
Why is maintaining osmolarity so important to the body? |
The membranes of most cell types are freely permeable to water. |
The primary route for water loss from the body is the ________ system. |
urinary |
The primary route for ion loss from the body is the ________ system. |
urinary |
Cell volume (and therefore cell function) in most cells is dependent upon careful regulation of |
ECF osmolarity |
The two organ systems that work together to regulate most aspects of the body’s water balance are |
urinary and cardiovascular. |
Kidneys respond relatively ________ to changes in blood volume. |
slowly |
Most body water is located |
inside cells |
What process causes insensible water loss? |
respiration |
What is the primary mechanism through which the kidneys can preserve water volume? |
decreasing GFR |
Why is a high medullary interstitial osmolarity important to renal function? |
It allows selective reabsorption of water. |
What is the mechanism of action of vasopressin? |
insertion of AQP-2 into the apical membrane of collecting duct epithelium |
What would cause osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus to shrink and what effect would that have? |
high plasma osmolarity, release of vasopressin |
Where does the reabsorption of ions occur in the nephron to produce a hyposmotic solution in the tubules? |
ascending limb of the loop of Henle |
Which is NOT an important route of water loss from the body? |
metabolic breakdown of water molecules |
Osmoreceptors are located in the _____. |
hypothalamus |
Dehydration triggers a/an _____ in osmolarity and secretion of _____. |
increase, ADH |
Hyponatremia _____ the secretion of ADH/vasopressin and _____ the secretion of aldosterone. |
decreases, increases |
What two mechanisms cause an increase in extracellular fluid volume with salt ingestion? |
vasopressin secretion and thirst |
What is the site and mechanism of the early response phase of aldosterone action? |
increased Na+/K+-ATPase activity in P cells of the distal tubule |
When aldosterone causes sodium reabsorption, why doesn’t water automatically follow? |
The distal nephron epithelium is impermeable to water. |
How does angiotensin II (ANGII) directly affect the kidneys? |
it increases sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule |
Which hormone increases sodium excretion? |
atrial natriuretic peptide |
What is the primary stimulus for natriuretic peptide release? |
myocardial cell stretch |
Aldosterone secretion increases in response to ________ and causes ________. |
increased angiotensin II; sodium reabsorption |
Juxtaglomerular cells in the nephron secrete |
renin |
ACE converts |
angI to angII |
Stimuli for the activation of the RAAS pathway include |
low blood pressure in arterioles in the nephron and a decrease in fluid flow through the distal tubule. |
Angiotensin II |
stimulates thirst, causes widespread vasoconstriction throughout the body, and causes the synthesis and release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. |
Drugs that treat hypertension by preventing Angiotensin I from becoming Angiotensin II are called |
ACE inhibitors |
The ion imbalance known as ________ initially leads to ________ in excitable cells. |
hyperkalemia, depolarization |
An increase in plasma potassium levels is properly called |
hyperkalemia |
A decrease in fluid osmolarity may result from ingesting too much water. What mechanism exists to counteract the drinking of too much water? |
salt appetite |
A hormone that helps to regulate the sodium ion concentration of the blood is |
aldosterone |
During severe dehydration, the adrenal cortex receives two competing stimuli: high plasma osmolarity and decreased volume. In response to this, aldosterone is not released. Why is this beneficial? |
Aldosterone would increase sodium retention, leading to shrinkage of cells throughout the body. |
Starvation would cause which of the following acid-base conditions? Also, determine what type of compensation (metabolic or respiratory) there would be. |
metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation |
A patient is admitted to the hospital with the following plasma values: pH = 7.2, pCO2 = 55 mmHg, and HCO3¯ = 30 mEq/L. What is the acid base imbalance? |
respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation. Since pCO2 is above the normal range, it is the cause of the acidosis. HCO3 is increased to compensate, which is a metabolic compensation. |
A patient is admitted to the hospital with the following plasma values: pH = 7.5, pCO2 = 45 mmHg, and HCO3¯ = 30 mEq/L. What is the acid-base imbalance? |
metabolic alkalosis with no compensation |
A patient is admitted to the hospital with the following plasma values: pH = 7.2, pCO2 = 25 mmHg, and HCO3¯ = 18 mEq/L. What is the acid base imbalance? |
metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation |
Diarrhea can lead to which acid/base disturbance? Assuming compensation, would it be a metabolic or respiratory compensation? |
metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation |
Emphysema can lead to which acid/base disturbance? What would be the compensation? |
respiratory acidosis; kidneys will retain more HCO3 and excrete H+ |
Of the three buffering mechanisms in the body, which is the strongest? |
Yes, although slow, the renal system is the strongest buffering system in the body. By altering the reabsorption and excretion of hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions, the kidneys control the pH of body fluids. |
The bicarbonate buffer system is one of the chemical buffer systems of the body. How would the bicarbonate buffer system work if sodium hydroxide were added to a solution? |
A hydrogen on carbonic acid would dissociate and join the hydroxyl group on the base to form water and sodium bicarbonate. |
The respiratory system is one of the three systems that regulate acid-base balance in the body. How does it work to decrease an acidosis? |
Carbonic acid is broken down into water and CO2; the CO2 is then exhaled. |
In a respiratory acidosis the kidney would do which of the following? |
The kidney would reabsorb bicarbonate and secrete hydrogen ions. |
Ingesting too much antacid would cause which of the following acid-base disturbances? |
metabolic alkalosis |
Vomiting will cause which type of acid-base disturbance? |
metabolic alkalosis |
Severe anxiety would cause which type of acid-base disturbance? What would be the compensation? |
respiratory alkalosis; kidneys would excrete HCO3 |
What is the most important function of the kidneys (in the sense that loss of this function results in serious medical problems before loss of other functions become problems)? |
regulation of water and ion content of the blood |
The kidneys function to produce hormones, excrete wastes, regulate blood pressure, and maintain ion balance. Which of the following is another function of the kidneys? |
regulate osmolarity |
Functions of the kidneys include all of the following |
maintenance of ion balance in body fluids homeostatic regulation of blood pH regulation of blood osmolarity regulation of extracellular fluid volume |
Ions directly regulated by the kidney include all EXCEPT which of the following? |
OH- |
The characteristic yellow color of urine is attributed to the presence of |
urobilinogen |
Put the following in order from where urine is produced to where it exits the body: |
3421 |
Blood leaves the glomerulus via which vessel? |
efferent arteriole |
Blood flow through the kidney includes a feature seen in only a few organs. What is it? |
portal system |
The three filtration barriers that substances must pass through when leaving the blood and entering the tubule lumen are the glomerular capillary endothelium, the epithelium of Bowman’s capsule, and which other structure? |
basal lamina |
What unique epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule allow for the final stage of filtration? |
podocytes |
Which of the following kidney processes is always active and always requires energy to occur? |
secretion |
A glomerulus is |
a "knot" of capillaries that lies within the Bowman’s capsule. |
Glomerular filtration rate is determined by the net filtration pressure and the filtration coefficient. What two factors determine the filtration coefficient? |
glomerular surface area and the permeability of the filtration barrier |
Which of these would cause the greatest increase in glomerular filtration rate? |
increased resistance in the efferent arteriole |
Which change would cause an increase in afferent arteriolar resistance due to paracrine signaling from the macula densa? |
greater sodium concentration in the distal tubule |
Of the following, which is the most likely reason that GFR would fall below normal? |
hypotension |
What is the primary driving force for glucose transport into proximal tubule cells? |
Sodium concentration gradient allows secondary active transport of glucose. |
Once glucose has entered the epithelial cells lining the proximal tubule, how does it cross the basolateral membrane? |
facilitated diffusion via GLUT proteins |
If all glucose is normally reabsorbed in the proximal tubule of the nephron, why do people with diabetes have glucose in their urine? |
The amount of glucose filtered is greater than the renal threshold |
Why is inulin administration an effective way of measuring renal clearance rates? |
Inulin is neither secreted nor reabsorbed |
Secretion into the nephron is a/an ________ process because the direction is ________ the concentration gradient. |
active, against |
Which of the following would help a clinician understand how the kidney was able to handle a substance? |
clearance of the substance |
Which of the following statements best describes clearance? |
the rate at which a solute disappears from the body by either excretion or metabolism |
Which of the following parameters must be known in order to calculate the clearance of a substance? |
concentration of the solute in the plasma, excretion rate of the substance |
Which equation correctly describes the relationship between excretion, filtration, reabsorption, and secretion? |
excretion = filtration – reabsorption + secretion |
During the micturition reflex, what does activation of parasympathetic efferent neurons cause the bladder to do? |
contract |
Leptin release is triggered from |
adipocytes |
Where is neuropeptide Y released and what is its effect on appetite? |
in the brain, increases appetite |
Which peptide, secreted by the stomach, increases hunger in humans? |
ghrelin |
Adipocytes secrete the hormone |
leptin |
Most obese humans are deficient in leptin. |
false |
The first law of thermodynamics states that |
energy can be neither created nor destroyed and thus must be accounted for. |
Several things, including food ingestion, amount of lean muscle mass and gender can affect metabolic rate. What other factor can affect metabolic rate? |
age |
Energy input equals energy output. This statement is known as the |
1st law of thermodynamics |
One kilocalorie (kcal) is the amount of energy needed to raise one ________ of water by 1 degree Celsius. |
liter |
The most practical way to estimate a person’s basal metabolic rate is to measure it when the person is |
resting after a 12-hour fast |
The nutrients that yield the most energy per gram when metabolized are |
fats |
Diet-induced thermogenesis is highest after ingestion of |
proteins |
Which of the following factors increases basal metabolic rate? |
thyroid hormones and epinephrine |
Where is the primary site of nutrient pools that are available for immediate use in the body? |
plasma |
Metabolism is a term that describes |
all chemical reactions that take place within an organism. |
anabolism describes |
reactions that require a net input of energy and reactions that result in the synthesis of large biomolecules. |
gluconeogenesis |
creating glucose from glycerol, amino acids, or lactate. |
Which path is the opposite of lipogenesis? |
B-oxidation |
Insulin is produced by pancreatic |
B cells |
During the absorptive state, |
the liver forms glycogen |
In the fasted state, which hormone combination would occur? |
high glucagon, low insulin |
The alpha cells of the pancreas produce |
glucagon |
The beta cells of the pancreas produce |
insulin |
WHen blood glucose levels fall |
only glucagon is released |
When blood glucose levels rise, as in the "fed" state, |
only insulin is released |
Homeothermic refers to |
regulating body temperature within a narrow range. |
Haploid cell includes |
an egg cell |
From which embryonic structure does ovarian tissue develop? |
bipotential gonad cortex |
Whether an embryo will develop into a male or female is determined by the presence or absence of what? |
SRY gene |
Which embryonic structure gives rise to the seminal vesicles and vas deferens during fetal differentiation into a male? |
Wolffian duct |
Which statement most accurately describes how the gender of a human embryo is determined? |
Embryos with the SRY gene become male; those lacking the gene become female. |
The fertilized egg is properly referred to as a(n) ________. |
zygote |
The male gamete is called a |
sperm |
The female gonad is called a(n) |
ovary |
While still undifferentiated, gametes are called ________ cells |
germ |
identify the false statement |
Estrogens control the development of the reproductive organs in the female fetus. TRUE:Meiosis is never completed in most oocytes. Androgens control the development of reproductive organs in the male fetus. Females have one less active chromosome than males. Gametogenesis begins in the female fetus. |
What is the main regulatory hormone responsible for regulation of gonad function? |
GnRH |
Choose the TRUE statement. |
Human females are thought to be born with all the primary gametes they will ever have. |
During meiosis, the chromosome number is halved |
during the first meiotic division |
Mitotic divisions in germ cells |
the answer depends on gender |
Meiosis of one cell results in production of |
four gametes if male, one if female. |
The structure(s) in testes that produces testosterone is/are the ________. |
Leydig/interstitial cells |
The mucus present in semen comes primarily from the ________. |
bulbourethral glands |
Sperm production occurs in the |
seminiferous tubules |
What is the third phase of the ovarian cycle called and what occurs during this time? |
luteal phase, transformation of a ruptured follicle into a corpus luteum |
Which hormone is important for male development in utero and for regulation of the ovarian cycle? |
AMH |
Which hormone is the most important regulator of endometrium proliferation during the follicular phase? |
estrogen |
What causes the LH surge that occurs during the late follicular phase |
Progesterone and high estrogen output stimulate GnRH release from the hypothalamus. |
The first phase of the ovarian cycle is the ________ phase. |
follicular |
The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is |
progesterone |
What efferent signaling occurs to cause the erection reflex? |
parasympathetic nervous stimulation |
Birth control pills containing hormones estrogen and progesterone work by directly preventing ________. |
ovulation |
Besides sterilization, the only sure way to avoid pregnancy is |
abstinence |
Fertilization of the human egg normally occurs in the ________. |
fallopian tube |
The corpus luteum in a nonpregnant woman usually lasts about |
12 days |
Sperm cannot fertilize an egg until they |
undergo capacitation |
The hormone that is the basis for a pregnancy test is |
hCG human chorionic gonadotropin |
Which disease is fought by the immune system as part of its function to recognize and remove abnormal "self" cells? |
cancer |
Autoimmune diseases are an example of a(n) ________ response by the immune system. |
incorrect |
Which of the following acts as the earliest form of defense against exogenous pathogens in the list? |
skin |
Antibiotics are drugs that destroy or inhibit the growth of |
bacteria |
Viruses |
must reproduce inside cells of the host and are considered to be parasitic. |
A decrease in which population of lymphocytes would impair all aspects of an immune response? |
helper T cells |
Milly has just received a kidney transplant and is taking cyclosporin A, a drug that suppresses cytotoxic T cells. What does this medication do? |
prevents rejection |
What are the two primary lymphoid tissues? |
thymus and bone marrow |
What is the function of secondary lymphoid tissues? |
to allow mature immune cells to interact with pathogens |
What makes up the white pulp of the spleen and most of the interior of lymph nodes? |
lymphocytes |
Which cell type functions to both ingest invaders and present antigens? |
macrophages |
The majority of leukocytes in the blood are the ________ . |
neutrophils |
How do glands in the airway contribute to the defense of the body? |
They secrete mucus to trap pathogens. |
By which mechanism do natural killer cells destroy virally infected cells? |
induction of apoptosis through secretion of interferons |
Which class of molecules attracts phagocytes to the site of an infection? |
chemotaxins |
Which compound causes pain and acts as a vasodilator? |
bradykinin |
What is the ultimate outcome when the complement cascade is activated? |
Pores are formed in a pathogen membrane, causing it to lyse. |
Phagocytic leukocytes ingest pathogens and foreign particles into ________. |
phagosomes |
When the immune system creates a response that is overblown in relation to the threat it has been exposed to, the response is called an |
allergic reaction |
Swelling and soreness of the lymph nodes indicate that |
immune cells are fighting infection |
All of the following are characteristics of acquired immunity EXCEPT |
nonspecific immunity INCLUDES: cell mediated, humoral, and adaptive immunity |
Opsonins function by |
marking or tagging pathogens so phagocytes can find and ingest them. |
Which type of antibody makes up the majority of immunoglobulins secreted during a secondary immune response? |
IgG |
Antigens expressed by plasma cells are secreted from the cell. What is the function of these free antibodies? |
They can cause clumping of pathogens, enhancing phagocytosis. |
Example of passive immunity |
acquisition of maternal antibodies by a fetus |
Stem cells that will form B lymphocytes are found in the |
bone marrow |
Lymphocytes that attack foreign cells or body cells infected with viruses are |
Cytotoxic T Cells |
Stem cells that will form T lymphocytes are modified in the |
thymus |
When an antigen complex is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a |
Cytotoxic T cell |
Class II MHCs are found |
only on lymphocytes and macrophages. |
Human Physiology
Share This
Unfinished tasks keep piling up?
Let us complete them for you. Quickly and professionally.
Check Price