Developmental Test 2 Chapter 6

Sensation refers to
a.
interpretation of incoming sensory messages.
b.
stimulation of sensory neurons in the sense organs.
c.
perceiving the surrounding environment.
d.
innate processes of understanding the world.

B

A wave of light proceeds through to the back of the eye where it encounters and stimulates a receptor neuron. What process has taken place?
a.
Perception
c.
Cognition
b.
Thinking
d.
Sensation

D

Nerves are stimulated during the process of _____, and the brain interprets this information in the process of _____.
a.
sensation; perception
c.
perception; sensation
b.
stimulation; selection
d.
selection; stimulation

A

Perception is best defined as the interpretation of
a.
memory.
c.
unconscious thoughts.
b.
sensory input.
d.
an abstract idea.

B

Which of the following is the best example of a perceptual process?
a.
Hearing a sound in the room
b.
Detecting that a light has been turned on in a dark room
c.
Sensing that someone has touched your arm
d.
Realizing that the odor you smell is vanilla

D

A wave of sound proceeds through the auditory canal to the inner ear where receptor neurons on the basilar membrane are stimulated. The neurons send a message to the brain. When the brain receives the message, the result is a person thinking, "That sounds like my mom calling me for dinner." What has taken place?
a.
Sensation and perception
c.
Perception but not sensation
b.
Sensation but not perception
d.
Neither sensation nor perception

A

Constructivists are likely to say that perceptions are
a.
innate.
c.
built with sensory experience.
b.
false.
d.
developed prior to sensations.

C

If an adult were cloned, a constructivist would predict that once born, the clone would
a.
have to learn to perceive the world as meaningful.
b.
awaken with a meaningful understanding of the world.
c.
not be able to function.
d.
think and perceive like an adult.

A

Who would be most likely to develop a theory hypothesizing that in order to interpret music, a person would have to hear many versions of the sound?
a.
A nativist
c.
A humanist
b.
A constructivist
d.
A Fruedian

B

Nativists believe that
a.
humans have innate perceptual abilities.
b.
all knowledge comes from experience.
c.
infants come into the world unknowing and uncaring.
d.
genes play no role in development.

A

If an adult were cloned, a nativist would predict that once born, the clone would
a.
have to perceive the world as meaningful
b.
awaken with a meaningful understanding of the world.
c.
be unable to learn because it has the brain of an adult rather than an infant.
d.
have a mind like a blank slate.

B

Peter believes that his newborn already detects a difference between when he walks away from her and when he walks toward her, and that she understands that these two actions will lead to different outcomes for her. Peter’s beliefs are most similar to those of a(n)
a.
empiricist.
c.
humanist.
b.
psychoanalyst.
d.
nativist.

D

Today, most developmental psychologists believe that sensations begin
a.
before birth and that early perceptions are coherent not chaotic.
b.
after birth and that early perceptions are coherent not chaotic.
c.
before birth and that early perceptions are chaotic not coherent.
d.
after birth and that early perceptions are chaotic not coherent.

A

Habituation is best defined as the process of "learning to be _____" with a stimulus.
a.
smart
c.
bored
b.
you
d.
free

C

Glinda jingles her keys in front of baby Elphaba’s face, and she watches and smiles. Glinda continues to bring her keys up and jingle them in front of Elphaba because she appears to enjoy this game. After a while, though, Elphaba seems to lose interest in the game and no longer focuses on the keys when Glinda jingles them. This illustrates the process of
a.
cross-modal perception.
c.
preferential looking.
b.
constancy.
d.
habituation.

D

If you turn on a floor fan, an infant will orient toward the sound. After a while, it will appear to lose interest in the spinning blades. The phenomenon underlying the loss of interest is known as
a.
habituation.
b.
discrimination.
c.
generalization.
d.
maturation.

A

Dr. Violet is interested in how young children perceive color. In her study, Dr. Violet simultaneously shows young children two blobs of different color and measures the amount of time they focus on each blob. Dr. Violet’s technique is knows a(n) _____ task.
a.
habituation
c.
evoked potentials
b.
preferential looking
d.
operant conditioning

B

On a preferential looking task, a researcher measures
a.
how fast an infant gets used to an object.
b.
the brains response to the presentation of an object.
c.
the length of time it takes for an infant to learn to choose the reinforced stimulus.
d.
how long an infant views each of the objects presented.

D

A(n) _____ task always involves attaching an electrode to a subject.
a.
habituation
c.
evoked potentials
b.
preferential looking
d.
operant conditioning

C

In an effort to study the acquisition of speech, Dr. Verball reinforces an infant every time it makes a sound. Given this description, Dr. Verball’s research method would best be described as a(n) _____ task.
a.
habituation
c.
evoked potentials
b.
preferential hearing
d.
operant conditioning

D

Within a minute after birth, a typical infant
a.
sees colors and can track slow-moving objects.
b.
sees colors but cannot track any moving objects.
c.
can visually track slow-moving objects but sees only in black/white (no color vision).
d.
cannot track any moving objects and sees only in black/white (no color vision).

A

Visual acuity is defined as the ability to perceive
a.
color.
c.
detail.
b.
movement.
d.
depth.

C

If you want your two-week-old child to see you as clearly as possible, you should
a.
have very bright light on your face.
b.
move back and forth quickly so the child focuses on movement.
c.
put your face within about eight inches of her eyes.
d.
wear colorful makeup.

C

Visual accommodation involves the ability of the _____ of the eye to change shape and bring objects into focus.
a.
retina
c.
iris
b.
lens
d.
fovea

B

Which of the following is true regarding newborn infants’ vision?
a.
Infants do not have color vision until around six months of age.
b.
Much of what young infants see is blurry.
c.
Pattern complexity has no impact on infants’ visual preferences.
d.
Initial visual accommodation skills allow infants to focus clearly on far objects but not near objects.

B

In a normally developing human, mature color vision is achieved
a.
near the end of the fetal stage.
c.
about two to three months after birth.
b.
within a day after birth.
d.
around a child’s first birthday.

C

Visual contour is specifically defined as the amount of _____ of a visual object.
a.
curvature
c.
size
b.
light/dark transition
d.
movement

B

Which object would have the greatest amount of visual contour?
a.
A series of black circles on a white background
b.
A gray ship on the ocean
c.
A pillow with pastel blobs of blue and yellow
d.
A clear baby-bottle filled with breast milk

A

Which of the following is LEAST likely to draw the visual attention of a young infant?
a.
A moving object
c.
A highly complex object
b.
A high contour object
d.
A face

C

Human infants prefer "top-heavy" patterns, including human faces. What makes a human face top-heavy?
a.
The large color contrast between the skin, teeth, and eyes
b.
The contrast between the size of the mouth and nose
c.
The eyes, hair, and upper part of the ear
d.
The fact that mommy’s head is significantly larger than another infant’s head

C

Martin Banks and colleagues suggest that _____ is the most important overall factor in determining what an infant will stare at the longest.
a.
the degree of contours that the object has
b.
whether the object is moving or not
c.
how complex the object is in terms of colors and patterns
d.
whether or not the infant can see it well

D

The ability of an infant to perceive a meaningful facial form tends to occur
a.
within a few minutes of birth.
c.
around two to three months after birth.
b.
about one week after birth.
d.
between one and two years of age.

C

The tendency to perceive an object as not growing when it approaches our eyes, or shrinking as it moves away, is _____ constancy.
a.
location
c.
brightness
b.
size
d.
form

B

Which child has acquired perceptual size constancy?
a.
Raven, who looks out a window on a plane and says, "Those people on the ground look like ants but they are really big people"
b.
Robin, who knows that she will get bigger when she is older
c.
Jay, who can perceive the difference in size between a 1-story building and a 10-story building
d.
Loon, who uses Lego building blocks to create a tower that is taller than he is

A

Three-month-old Jordan reacts as if he believes that the basketball he is playing with actually shrinks as it rolls away from him. This reaction would indicate that Jordan lacks
a.
object permanence.
c.
attention.
b.
cross-modal perception.
d.
size constancy.

D

Gibson and Walk’s visual cliff experiment demonstrated that infants develop _____ before their first birthday.
a.
depth perception
c.
location constancy
b.
size constancy
d.
shape constancy

A

When describing her research, Dr. Rebhuhn says, "Basically, I take young infants and place them on a supported piece of clear glass several feet off the ground. Then I measure whether the kid seems scared or not." Dr. Rebhuhn’s research sounds like it involves the use of a
a.
habituation task.
c.
longitudinal design.
b.
strange situation paradigm.
d.
visual cliff.

D

Ester is in a swimming pool. Her nine-month-old son Williams is sitting on a blanket three feet from the edge of the pool. Ester coaxes her child to crawl to her. If the depth of the water is lower than the top lip of the pool, Williams is most likely to
a.
crawl off the edge of the pool and fall into his mother’s arms.
b.
crawl to the edge of the pool and stop.
c.
crawl away from his mother because her whole body isn’t visible.
d.
not do anything because of lack of location constancy.

B

Testing infants of different ages with the visual cliff apparatus has found that
a.
six- to seven-month-old infants perceive drop-offs but do not fear them.
b.
two-month-old infants perceive drop-offs but do not fear them.
c.
six-month-old infants show no response to the deep side of the cliff.
d.
both two- and six-month-old infants will crawl across the shallow side of the cliff but will cry when enticed to crawl over the deep side of the cliff.

B

Research by Campos and colleagues indicates that in infancy the fear of drop-offs is likely related to the experience of
a.
walking.
c.
falling.
b.
being carried by moms.
d.
playing pee-a-boo.

C

Four month-old infants can best organize the world into distinct objects when the objects they are trying to make sense of are
a.
stationary.
c.
identical.
b.
moving.
d.
multicolored.

B

Four month-old infants appear to use object _____ to determine whether two side-by-side objects are separate.
a.
size
c.
shape
b.
hue
d.
shade

C

While sitting in her playpen, four-month-old Kiko watches her cat knock a lamp off a dresser. As the lamp begins to fall, Kiko seems to know that the lamp will drop straight to the floor. This knowledge appears to indicate that Kiko instinctively understands
a.
Piagetian laws of object permanence.
c.
Newtonian laws of object motion.
b.
Skinnerian laws of reinforcement.
d.
Freudian laws of ego formation.

C

Six-month-old Barbie watches as two dolls are placed behind a screen. When the screen is removed, Barbie sees either two dolls (possible) or one doll (impossible). Which of the following reactions is the infant likely to show?
a.
Barbie will not notice any difference between the possible and impossible outcomes, as evidenced by no difference in looking times at the two outcomes.
b.
Barbie will look longer at the impossible outcome than the possible outcome.
c.
Barbie will look longer at the possible outcome because it is familiar to her.
d.
Barbie will not look at either outcome because they will have habituated to the original stimulus.

B

According to the intuitive theorist perspective, infants
a.
have innate knowledge of the world and can reason about the world like adults do.
b.
must construct their knowledge of the world from a blank slate.
c.
learn what they need to know about the world by observing people around them.
d.
may have some innate knowledge of the world, but do not yet have the capabilities to reason about the world.

A

Which of the following is the best example of the infant as an intuitive theorist?
a.
Infants look away when an object disappears from view.
b.
Infants get bored and look away when an object is repeatedly presented.
c.
Infants show surprise when a ball that is dropped behind a screen is later shown to be suspended in the air.
d.
Infants show surprise when a ball rolling down a hill is shown reaching the bottom of the hill.

C

Which statement would indicate that Tory is an intuitive theorist?
a.
Infants seem to perceive the world in a very adult-like manner.
b.
Infants are like blank pieces of paper that need to be written on in order to change.
c.
Infants have unconscious, survival-based reflexes.
d.
Infants appear to think but do not know.

A

Typically, newborns can
a.
see and hear equally well.
c.
hear better than they see.
b.
see better than they hear.
d.
neither see nor hear well.

C

The fact that newborns turn away from loud sounds indicates that they can
a.
localize sound.
c.
perceive speech.
b.
distinguish between phonemes.
d.
understand size constancy.

A

Concerning the ability of newborns to hear, research has shown that they can discriminate
a.
loudness and frequency, but not direction and duration.
b.
only frequency and loudness.
c.
frequency, loudness, duration, and direction.
d.
only between loud and soft sounds.

C

How should you react to a policy that supports the initial testing of hearing at age three years?
a.
Great idea.
b.
Great idea, but since few hearing problems occur before this age, you are unlikely to identify any children with hearing problems.
c.
Bad idea, because by that time those with significant hearing loss reach this age, they are at significant risk for life-long speech and language difficulties.
d.
Bad idea, as accurate assessment of hearing is not possible until age five.

C

When describing her son’s recent surgery, Sheri says, "They connected a microphone on the outside of his head. Then they surgically ran a wire into his inner ear." This description indicates that Sheri’s son had
a.
photo-refractive surgery.
c.
cataract surgery.
b.
a cochlear implant.
d.
a magnetic resonance imaging.

B

Cochlear implants work by providing direct stimulation to the
a.
tympanic membrane.
c.
oval window.
b.
auditory nerve.
d.
ossicles.

B

Which is a criticism of cochlear implants?
a.
Denies deaf children a chance to be part of the deaf community.
b.
The transplanted cochlea is often rejected by the body.
c.
Direct stimulation of the eardrum may cause permanent damage.
d.
There is no evidence that they improve a child’s hearing.

A

A _____ is a basic sound used in human speech.
a.
cataract
c.
phoneme
b.
dopamine
d.
surfactant

C

The fact that two-month-olds can detect the difference between the sound "pa" and the sound "ba" indicates that they
a.
can differentiate phonemes.
c.
have semantic awareness.
b.
have cross-modal perception.
d.
possess visual accommodation.

A

Three-month-old infants can discriminate between phonemes. This means that they can discriminate between
a.
basic speech sounds.
c.
various familiar odors.
b.
a doorbell and the bell on a telephone.
d.
familiar and novel tastes.

A

The advantage of being born with the ability to categorize sounds phonetically is that it
a.
prevents children from making phonetic errors in speaking.
b.
biologically prepares a child to speak all human languages.
c.
ensures that people speak the same language.
d.
allows for ease of second language acquisition in later adulthood.

B

Thirty-year-old Jiang has lived in China all his life and has only spoken in a common Chinese dialect. Jiang has an infant son named Woo. What linguistic advantage would Woo have over Jiang?
a.
Woo would have a larger vocabulary.
b.
Woo would be better able to distinguish between the "r" and "l" sounds.
c.
Woo would be producing more grammatically correct sentences than Jiang.
d.
Woo would have no linguistic advantages over his father.

B

What can we conclude regarding developmental changes in speech perception?
a.
With age, we become more sensitive to sound discriminations that are relevant in our own language and less sensitive to sound discriminations that are irrelevant.
b.
With age, we become more sensitive to all sound discriminations.
c.
There are no detectable differences in sound discriminations with age.
d.
With age, we become more sensitive to differences in consonant sounds and less sensitive to differences in vowel sounds.

A

Within days of their baby’s birth, Ben and Jen are having an argument about their son. Jen claims that he recognizes her voice, but Ben says that this is impossible. Knowing the research in this area, you are able to tell them that
a.
Ben is correct (voice recognition does not occur until around six months of age).
b.
both could be correct, as babies can recognize only the first voice that they heard immediately following delivery (if this was Jen’s voice, then she is correct; if it was not Jen’s voice, then Ben is correct).
c.
Jen is correct (maternal voice recognition is evident a few days after birth).
d.
we do not know who is correct because infants this young cannot be accurately tested.

C

Mom Billie and dad Bob are discussing the abilities of their two-month-old son Thorton. Billie claims that Thorton can recognize both of his parent’s voices. Bob says that Thorton cannot recognize either voice. If Thorton is a typical two-month-old, then who is correct?
a.
Billie
b.
Bob
c.
Neither, as Thorton can likely recognize Billie’s voice but not Bob’s voice
d.
Neither, as Thorton can likely recognize Bob’s voice but not Billie’s voice

C

What was the key finding of the Cat in the Hat study on hearing?
a.
Voice recognition is influenced by prenatal experience.
b.
Infants prefer deeper male voices over higher-pitched female voices.
c.
Newborns prefer rhyming phrases over non-rhyming phrases.
d.
Reading to infants significantly increases their vocabulary size.

A

What is the best explanation for young infants’ ability to recognize their mother’s voices shortly after birth?
a.
An instinctive mother-baby bond
c.
Innate phonetic receptors
b.
Postnatal linguistic experiences
d.
Prenatal exposure to mom’s voice

D

The senses of _____ both rely on detection of chemical molecules.
a.
taste and smell
c.
vision and hearing
b.
smell and vision
d.
hearing and taste

A

Which is NOT one of the four basic taste perceptions?
a.
Salty
c.
Sweet
b.
Sour
d.
Fruity

D

Newborns will produce certain facial expressions depending on the taste of the liquid that they are offered. They smile when offered sugar water and frown when offered quinine. This demonstrates that newborns
a.
prefer salty tastes to sour ones.
b.
inherit their mother’s taste preferences.
c.
can discriminate between various tastes.
d.
learn to avoid substances that might contain poison.

C

Mennella and colleagues found that infants who were fed sour-tasting formula
a.
were at risk for being obese by age two.
b.
preferred the taste of sour items when they were preschoolers.
c.
were at risk for being anorexic in their teens.
d.
became very picky eaters as adults.

B

If a mother wanted to DECREASE the likelihood that her infant would grow into a picky eater later in life, she should
a.
bottle feed.
b.
give the infant a wide variety of foods.
c.
give the infant a diet exclusively consisting of fruits and vegetables.
d.
avoid eating spicy foods.

B

The sense of smell is also referred to as the sense of
a.
surfaction.
c.
adaptation.
b.
olfaction.
d.
involution.

B

71. What is the currently recommended amount of sleep by age?
a.
Two- to five-year-olds (12 hours), school-age (10 hours), teens (9 hours), adults (8 hours)
b.
Two- to five-year-olds (8 hours), school-age (9 hours), teens (10 hours), adults (12 hours)
c.
Two- to five-year-olds (9 hours), school-age (10 hours), teens (12 hours), adults (8 hours)
d.
Two- to five-year-olds (12 hours), school-age (8 hours), teens (9 hours), adults (10 hours)

A

he average age when most infants have mastered a skill or milestone is referred to as the
a.
developmental norm.
c.
modal norm.
b.
normative curve.
d.
growth period.

A

If developmentally delayed children begin to talk at 24 months, the average child begins to talk at 18 months, an above-average child talks at 12 months, and a gifted child talks at 6 months, the developmental norm for talking would be _____ months.
a.
24
c.
12
b.
18
d.
6

B

The fact that activities of a toddler’s arms are mastered before activities of their fingers illustrates the _____ principle.
a.
cephalocaudal
c.
proximodistal
b.
cephalodistal
d.
proximocaudal

C

Whole body or large muscle movements are typically classified as _____ motor skills.
a.
fine
c.
proximodistal
b.
gross
d.
cephalocaudal

B

Which is the best example of a gross motor skill?
a.
Kicking a ball
c.
Writing in cursive
b.
Picking up a tiny rock
d.
Performing brain surgery

A

Precise movements of fingers or toes are best classified as _____ skills.
a.
gross
c.
survival
b.
primitive
d.
fine

D

Which is the best example of a fine motor skill?
a.
Looking at a painting
b.
Painting the wall of a barn with a large brush
c.
Painting a large red blob on a piece of paper using your whole hand
d.
Painting a highly detailed picture of a large group of people

D

When a typical infant attempts to kick a ball, it tends to do so with its "whole body." When a typical first-grader attempts to kick a ball, he or she tends to do so only using a foot. The change best exemplifies the _____ principle.
a.
orthogenetic
c.
cephalocaudal
b.
epigenetic
d.
Babinski

A

Two-year-old Tiki has acquired the ability to spin one arm in a large circle while holding the other arm perfectly still. This exemplifies the orthogenetic principle element of
a.
a differentiated response.
c.
integration.
b.
global responding.
d.
reserve capacity.

A

The ability to coordinate separate body movements into a functional whole best describes the concept of
a.
a differentiated response.
c.
an integrated response.
b.
global responding.
d.
reserve capacity.

C

_____ is best defined as movement from one place to another.
a.
Locomotion
c.
Lateralization
b.
Differentiation
d.
Involution

A

Concerning infant movement,
a.
initial modes of movement vary greatly, but by about 10 months most infants are crawling on their hands and knees
b.
initial modes of movement vary greatly, but by about 10 months most infants are walking
c.
the initial mode of movement almost always involves rolling, but by about 10 months most infants are crawling on their hands and knees
d.
the initial mode of movement almost always involves rolling, but by about 10 months most infants are walking

A

84. The "Back to Sleep" campaign aimed at reducing sudden infant death syndrome has resulted in a reduction in infant’s
a.
REM sleep.
c.
hearing loss.
b.
eating.
d.
crawling.

D

In order to walk, newborns
a.
only require a more mature nervous system.
b.
require only a more mature nervous system and more muscle.
c.
require only a more mature nervous system, more muscle, and becoming less top-heavy.
d.
require a more mature nervous system, more muscle, becoming less top-heavy, and near adult-like vision.

C

After reviewing an enormous number of observations of infants’ movement, Adolph and colleagues (2008) concluded that
a.
consistent performance of a motor skill develops in a single instance .
b.
it takes about 13 starts and stops over a period of time to develop consistent performance of a motor skill.
c.
it takes about 130 starts and stops over a period of time to develop consistent performance of a motor skill.
d.
it takes about 1,300 starts and stops over a period of time to develop consistent performance of a motor skill.

B

Research has found that the average 14-month-old takes about 2,000 steps an hour, traveling the equivalent of seven
a.
times around an average size merry-go-round.
b.
miles.
c.
football fields.
d.
yards.

C

The ulnar grasp involves only the use of one’s
a.
thumb and little finger.
c.
little finger and pointer finger.
b.
palm and other palm.
d.
palm and outer fingers.

D

When reaching for a piece of candy that has fallen, Tony attempts to pick up the item by grabbing it between his palm and all fingers (except the thumb). Tony’s terrific attempt best exemplifies
a.
a gross motor skill.
c.
lateralization.
b.
the pincer grasp.
d.
the ulnar

D

The pincer grasp involves only the use of one’s
a.
thumb and forefinger.
c.
little finger and palm.
b.
forefinger and little finger.
d.
palm and thumb.

A

Ten-month-old Dora delights in her newly found ability to turn the TV on and off by grabbing the TV’s on/off button with her thumb and forefinger and pushing. This developmental change involves Dora’s use of a
a.
gross motor skill.
c.
lateralization.
b.
pincer grasp.
d.
ulnar grasp.

B

The defining element of a rhythmic stereotype is
a.
integration.
c.
repetition.
b.
lateralization.
d.
involuntary nature.

C

While lying in her crib, 18-month-old Rosie loves to rock back and forth. She also spends a lot of time swinging her arms in large circles. Rosie’s behavior best exemplify the concept of
a.
reserve capacity.
c.
fine motor movement.
b.
plasticity.
d.
rhythmic stereotypies.

D

According to the dynamic systems approach of motor development, infants
a.
learn motor skills by watching others.
b.
develop motor skills in a universal, invariant sequence.
c.
modify their movements in response to sensory feedback regarding their attempted movements.
d.
must be taught how and when to perform various motor skills.

C

Ten-month-old Mattel wants to get across the room to reach a favorite toy. He figures out that rolling over doesn’t really get him where he wants to go, but pulling himself along on his belly does. Mattel’s behavior can best be explained in terms of
a.
dynamic systems perspective.
c.
the proximodistal principle.
b.
lateralization.
d.
developmental norms.

A

When toddlers had to walk up a slope wearing a vest with "saddlebags," they were able to compensate for the change and successfully negotiate the slope. This adaptation best exemplifies the
a.
dynamic systems approach.
c.
neural plasticity.
b.
proximodistal principle.
d.
cephalocaudal principle

A

How do falls affect walking proficiency in toddlerhood?
a.
They significantly delay the normal pattern of walking acquisition.
b.
They have little impact because they are actually quite rare.
c.
They provide key feedback concerning which surfaces are safe to traverse.
d.
They tend to make toddlers walk straighter when they get up.

C

The best description of the dynamic systems approach to motor development is that thought and action are
a.
independent.
c.
integrated.
b.
innate.
d.
innocuous.

C

Congenital malformations are always
a.
genetic.
c.
fatal.
b.
present at birth.
d.
adaptive.

B

What do Down syndrome, spina bifida, and cleft palates have in common?
a.
They are all caused by tetragons.
b.
They are all congenital malformations.
c.
They are all the result of recessive genes.
d.
They are all preventable through proper diet.

B

In recent years, the incidence of polio, measles, and diphtheria in the United States have declined dramatically as the result of
a.
a reduction in chemical teratogens.
c.
the administration of vaccinations.
b.
better maternal prenatal nutrition.
d.
genetic engineering.

C

The pattern of grow in childhood is best characterized as
a.
slow and steady.
c.
fast and steady.
b.
slow and disjointed.
d.
fast and disjointed.

A

How is a toddler likely to compare to a 10-year-old child in terms of physical behavior?
a.
The toddler can control movements as long as the world around her is stationary, while the 10-year-old can control movements even when the environment around her is changing.
b.
The toddler will have superior eye/hand coordination to the 10-year-old.
c.
The toddler has developed fine motor skills that are as coordinated as the older child, but is just beginning to use gross motor skills.
d.
The toddler is able to move more quickly than the older child, but is less coordinated in her movements.

A

Which behavior is most difficult for a child to perform?
a.
Walking in a straight line
c.
Skipping
b.
Hopping on one foot
d.
Tapping a pen

C

Differences between throwing and kicking abilities of male and female children are best explained as being the result of
a.
size differences.
c.
differential levels of practice.
b.
hormonal factors.
d.
genetics.

C

Which statement concerning reaction time differences between toddlers and older children is true?
a.
Toddlers tend to have faster reaction times.
b.
Toddlers tend to have slower reaction times.
c.
Toddlers and older children tend to have identical reaction times.
d.
There is no systematic relationship between age and reaction times.

B

_____ is the leading cause of death in childhood.
a.
Cancer
c.
Influenza
b.
Physical abuse
d.
Unintentional injury

D

If you wanted to prevent the most common cause of death of a child, you should always
a.
avoid fast-food restaurants.
b.
fasten the child’s car seat/seat belt.
c.
make sure to sleep your child on his or her back.
d.
have your child inoculated.

B

If you want your child to eat healthy, you should purchase food items high in
a.
sugar.
c.
nutritional value.
b.
fat.
d.
carbohydrates.

C

Concerning eating habits in childhood,
a.
children tend to eat less "comfort food" when they are under stress.
b.
consumption of sugary soda between meals makes children twice as likely to become overweight.
c.
parents have little impact on what children eat.
d.
children who eat breakfast at school are at risk for becoming overweight.

B

The BMI is a very good indicator of
a.
intelligence.
c.
processing speed.
b.
depression.
d.
body fat.

D

In order to fight obesity, school are being asked to increase
a.
the number of vending machines.
c.
levels of sodium in food.
b.
physical activity opportunities.
d.
soda consumption.

B

Who has just reached the point at which they would be classified as "obese"?
a.
Donald, who is now 10 percent above the ideal weight for his height, weight, and sex
b.
Hughie, who is now 20 percent above the ideal weight for his height, weight, and sex
c.
Dewey, who is now 30 percent above the ideal weight for his height, weight, and sex
d.
Louie, who is now 40 percent above the ideal weight for his height, weight, and sex

B

Puberty is best defined as a
a.
social process resulting in adult-like thinking.
b.
biological process resulting in adult-like thinking.
c.
social process resulting in the ability to produce a child.
d.
biological process resulting in the ability to produce a child.

D

As a typical adolescent growing up in the United States, Maxwell (a male) would most likely achieve his peak growth spurt in height around _____ years of age.
a.
10.5
c.
13.5
b.
12
d.
15

C

Which of the following typical adolescent females growing up in the United States would have most recently achieved her adult height?
a.
14-year-old Meg
c.
18-year-old Beth
b.
16-year-old Jo
d.
20-year-old Amy

B

Adrenarche
a.
involves the release of hormones from the pituitary gland.
b.
determines a child’s external genitalia.
c.
contributes to the development of secondary sex characteristics.
d.
is found exclusively in males.

C

If Sissy has just experienced menarche, she has
a.
ovulated for the first time.
b.
had her first menstruation.
c.
shown her first secondary sex characteristic (most likely pubic hair).
d.
produced her first seminal fluid.

B

Statistically, _____ girls tend to experience breast development at the earliest age.
a.
African-American
c.
European-American
b.
Asian-American
d.
Mexican-American

A

The defining behavior that marks the onset of semenarche is
a.
initial production of sperm.
c.
initial production of testosterone.
b.
first ejaculation.
d.
first sign of pubic hair.

B

Nick has just experienced semenarche. Jessica has just experienced menarche. Which statement is most likely true?
a.
Nick and Jessica are now fully capable of producing a child.
b.
Nick is currently capable of producing a child, but Jessica is not.
c.
Jessica is currently capable of producing a child, but Nick is not.
d.
Neither Nick nor Jessica is fully capable of producing a child.

D

he mark of sexual maturation for a boy that is most comparable to menarche for a girl is
a.
deepening of the voice.
c.
the appearance of pubic hair.
b.
first ejaculation of seminal fluid.
d.
the release of androgens from the testes.

B

Over the past 100 years or so, people in industrialized societies have been maturing earlier, as well as growing heavier and taller than in the past. This phenomenon is referred to as the
a.
dynamic systems approach.
c.
cephalocaudal principle.
b.
rhythmic stereotype.
d.
secular trend.

D

Which of the following best explains the secular trend?
a.
Better nutrition and medical advances
c.
Neural plasticity
b.
Genetic variation
d.
Reserve capacit

A

Anorexia nervosa has been linked to _____ in females.
a.
the production of defective eggs
c.
excessive ovulation
b.
excessive levels of estrogen
d.
a lack of menstruation

D

How is family stress, like conflict with a stepfather, most likely to impact the timing of puberty-related issues for a girl?
a.
It will result in excessive menstruation.
b.
It will lead to earlier sexual maturity.
c.
It will delay puberty.
d.
It will have no effect on any puberty-related behaviors.

B

Overall, what can we conclude about boys’ and girls’ body images during adolescence?
a.
Girls’ body images are influenced by other people’s reactions to them but not to actual physical changes, while boys show the opposite pattern.
b.
Both boys and girls experience puberty as an equally positive event.
c.
Girls show benefits from going through puberty but not from the changes associated with their growth spurt, while boys show the opposite pattern.
d.
Boys hold more positive personal body images than girls.

D

Being at or below the fifth percentile on a growth chart in the teen years characterizes the concept of
a.
constitutional growth delay.
c.
reserve capacity.
b.
the secular trend.
d.
rhythmic stereotypes.

A

A knowledgeable psychologist would be able to identify a teen exhibiting a constitutional growth delay by noting that they are one of the _____ kids in their class.
a.
smartest
c.
tallest
b.
heaviest
d.
smallest

D

Parent-child relationships tend to _____once puberty is completed.
a.
become confrontational
c.
fade away
b.
warm
d.
ebb-and-flow

B

Which groups of adolescents would likely have the greatest difficulties adjusting to the changes of puberty?
a.
Late-maturing boys and early-maturing girls
b.
Late-maturing boys and late-maturing girls
c.
Early-maturing boys and late-maturing girls
d.
Early-maturing boys and early-maturing girls

A

The greatest long-term negative impact of being an early-maturing female involves an increased risk of
a.
poorer academic performance.
b.
engaging in "risky behaviors" (e.g., sex and alcohol consumption).
c.
athletic injury.
d.
being unpopular with peers.

B

During adolescence, the physical activity levels of males continue to increase, while those of females tend to level off, or even decline. This is most likely due to
a.
degeneration of muscle tissue in females.
b.
traditional gender-role socialization of females in our culture that discourages physical activity (especially in athletics).
c.
hormone changes across the period of adolescence.
d.
the secular trend.

B

Concerning physical health,
a.
the rate of obesity among teens has steadily declined in the past two decades.
b.
modern teens lead a more sedentary lifestyle and consume more empty calories than in decades past.
c.
high blood pressure and diabetes remain virtually unheard of in teenage populations.
d.
genetic factors appear to play little role in the levels of obesity found in teens.

B

If asked to list the top three causes of death in teens, you should AVOID saying
a.
car accidents.
c.
suicide.
b.
murder.
d.
infections.

D

Research has shown that when teens are under the influence of alcohol, they are LESS likely to
a.
get into a physical fight.
c.
avoid engaging in risky sexual behavior.
b.
smoke cigarettes.
d.
get into a car accident.

C

As a typical 70-year-old, Heston should expect to begin to
a.
lose muscle mass and gain fat.
c.
lose muscle mass and lose fat.
b.
gain muscle mass and gain fat.
d.
gain muscle mass and lose fat

C

Most physical systems peak sometime between
a.
infancy and childhood.
c.
early adulthood and middle adulthood.
b.
childhood and early adulthood.
d.
middle adulthood and older adulthood.

B

Reserve capacity tends to be most important in _____ situations.
a.
resting
c.
social
b.
cognitively demanding
d.
emergency

D

Despite being in top condition, 65-year-old Lane notices that his maximum heart rate during an aerobic exercise has declined significantly from when he was in his 20s. This change is best explained in terms of diminished
a.
reserve capacity.
c.
neural plasticity.
b.
dopamine level.
d.
estrogen level.

A

Although she is 85 years old and in great physical and mental health, Gerta strongly believes that "old people" are stupid and frail. This belief provides a good example of
a.
plasticity.
c.
the secular trend.
b.
ageism.
d.
a delusional state of mind.

B

Many elderly people do not consider themselves as "old." This is particularly the case for individuals who
a.
still own their home.
c.
are socially and physically active.
b.
have grandchildren.
d.
are over age 90.

C

Three of the most common premenstrual symptoms reported by women are
a.
acne, bloating, and hallucinations.
b.
hallucinations, breast tenderness, and bloating.
c.
bloating, moodiness, headaches, and breast tenderness.
d.
headaches, breast tenderness, and acne.

C

Which best describes the Englander-Golden et al. (1986) finding on PMS?
a.
Most PMS is caused by a defect on the 21st chromosome.
b.
Males experience PMS about half as often as females.
c.
Severe PMS appears to be totally psychosomatic (mental not physiologically-based).
d.
Expectations, not hormones, play a bigger role in many cases of PMS.

D

For most women, menopause
a.
is no big deal.
b.
results in long-term psychological problems.
c.
results in long-term physical problems.
d.
has more grave consequences if a woman has others with which she is sharing her experiences.

A

After going through menopause, a woman
a.
does not ovulate and no longer menstruates.
b.
does ovulate but no longer menstruates.
c.
does not ovulate but still menstruates.
d.
both ovulates and menstruates.

A

Xavier (who is going through menopause) sometimes experiences a sensation of warmth that is unexpected and often centers on her face. This experience is technically referred to as
a.
hot flashes.
c.
facism.
b.
hot points.
d.
facial lateralization.

A

The two hormones typically used in hormone replacement therapy related to menopause are
a.
progestine and testosterone.
c.
androgen and estrogen.
b.
testosterone and androgen.
d.
estrogen and progestine.

D

HRT appears to help relieve the physical symptoms of menopause, including
a.
mood swings and breast tenderness.
c.
hot flashes and vaginal dryness.
b.
irritability and hot flashes.
d.
mood swings and irritability.

C

The underlying physiological reason why older adults are slower on many tasks than younger adults is
a.
the loss of androgens.
b.
slowing of the nervous system.
c.
a change from an impulsive style to a reflective style.
d.
an increase in visual acuity.

B

Which statement concerning aging and health is true?
a.
Alcohol abuse has significant short-term impact, but does little long-term damage.
b.
Most older individuals are in excellent health (i.e., have no chronic illness).
c.
Even healthy older adults show significant losses in functioning.
d.
Aging in the absence of disease has little impact on physical or psychological functioning.

D

Masters and Johnson proposed the maxim "_____" when describing sexual function in adulthood.
a.
What is gone, is gone
c.
Use it or lose it
b.
You can’t teach an old dog, new tricks
d.
Never had it, never will

C

Osteoporosis occurs when
a.
the cushioning between joints wears out and the joints become stiff.
b.
maximal heart rates decrease so that any sort of workout requires more effort.
c.
lost minerals result in less bone mass.
d.
vitamin deficiencies lower the efficiency of the major organs.

C

hich is NOT known to help prevent or slow osteoporosis?
a.
Calcium supplements
c.
Hormone replacement therapy
b.
Weight-bearing exercise
d.
MAO inhibitors

D

Eighty-year-old Sylvester has begun to complain about his knees. To him, his knees now often feel, "Stiff as a board!" Given this description, Sylvester would appear to have
a.
Turner syndrome.
c.
Klinefelter syndrome.
b.
osteoarthritis.
d.
osteoporosis.

B

One of the more interesting findings from the "Nun Study" was that _____ levels affected both longevity and health.
a.
sex
c.
education
b.
religiosity
d.
wine consumption

C

Celiac disease involves an allergy to peanuts.

F

Endocrine glands secrete chemicals called neurotransmitters.

F

The fatty substance that covers the axon of a neuron is called synapse.

F

The "plasticity" of the brain means that it is impervious to harm.

F

In most people, the processes of language tend to take place in the left

T

Neurogenesis involves the generation of new neurons.

T

Cephalocaudal means head-to-tail.

T

Primitive reflexes have clear adaptive value.

F

Newborns spend half of their sleep in REM sleep.

T

Fine motor skills tend to be more difficult to perform than gross motor skills.

T

The ulnar grasp occurs when the palm is pressed to the outer fingers

T

Rocking and swaying are examples of rhythmic stereotypies.

T

Accidents are the leading cause of death in childhood

T

Puberty is a biological process that results in the ability to produce a child

T

The first male ejaculation is called andropause.

F

Constitutional growth delays result in an individual being in the top fifth percentile for size for their peer group.

F

Boys who mature early are at a distinct social advantage as compared to those who mature late.

T

American teens are more fit today than at any time in history.

F

Menopause is a cause of major psychological crisis for most women

F

Osteoarthritis is a disease that results in a loss of minerals that leaves bones

F

The _____ gland is referred to as the "master gland" of the body.

pituitary

Male hormones like testosterone are called _____.

androgens

The asymmetrical development of the two hemispheres of the brain is referred to as _____.

lateralization

The fact that the ability to control one’s head develops before the ability to control one’s legs illustrates the _____ principle.

cephalocaudal

The _____ principle refers to the fact that, with development, humans tend to become more differentiated and show greater hierarchical integration.

orthogenetic

Eye-blinking and sucking are examples of _____ reflexes.

survival

The average age at which children show mastery of some ability is called the _____ norm.

developmental

The ability to pick up a piece of rice with a set of chopsticks would indicate superb _____ muscle control of the fingers.

fine

Infants often spend a great deal of time repetitively rocking or swaying. Such behaviors are called _____ stereotypes.

rhythmic

The _____ systems approach to motor development argues that development involves "self-organization" in conjunction with sensory feedback.

dynamic

_____ malformations are defects that are present at birth.

Congenital

_____ is the technical term for the first menstruation.

Menarche

A boy’s first ejaculation is technically referred to as _____.

semenarche

The fact that today’s teenagers are significantly taller than teens living 100 years ago illustrates the _____ trend.

secular

_____-maturing teenage males tend to show the most positive adjustment to puberty.

Early

Stereotypes or prejudice against the elderly are referred to as _____.

ageism

The ending of a woman’s menstrual cycle is called _____.

menopause

During _____ replacement therapy, estrogen and progestine are given to reduce the symptoms of menopause.

hormone

Some men experience symptoms similar to menopause in a process referred to as _____.

andropause

_____ is an age-related disorder that leaves bones fragile and easily fractured.

Osteoporosis