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A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the:
A. proximal femur.
B. pubic symphysis.
C. femoral shaft.
D. pelvic girdle.
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A
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A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should:
A. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation.
B. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint.
C. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position.
D. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints.
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D
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A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious.
You should:
A. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations.
B. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment.
C. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs.
D. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.
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D
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A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot.
You should:
A. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions.
B. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
C. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury.
D. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates.
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B
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A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n):
A. abnormality in the structure of a bone.
B. break in the continuity of the bone.
C. total loss of function in a bone.
D. disruption in the midshaft of a bone.
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B
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A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the:
A. olecranon process.
B. proximal radius.
C. radial head.
D. distal humerus.
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D
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An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which:
A. the overlying skin is no longer intact.
B. bone ends protrude through the skin.
C. a large laceration overlies the fracture.
D. a bullet shatters the underlying bone.
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A
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Crepitus and false motion are:
A. positive indicators of a fracture.
B. most common with dislocations.
C. indicators of a severe sprain.
D. only seen with open fractures.
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A
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During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes.
You should:
A. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.
B. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow.
C. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately.
D. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints.
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A
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During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient’s blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment,
you should:
A. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis.
B. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once.
C. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center.
D. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.
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D
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In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless:
A. the patient is in severe pain.
B. transport time is less than 15 minutes.
C. the patient is clinically unstable.
D. deformity and swelling are present.
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C
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In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity?
A. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes
B. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain
C. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity
D. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent
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B
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Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called:
A. tendons.
B. cartilage.
C. ligaments.
D. fascia
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A
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The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is:
A. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain.
B. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site.
C. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature.
D. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.
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D
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The musculoskeletal system refers to the:
A. involuntary muscles of the nervous system.
B. bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
C. nervous system’s control over the muscles.
D. connective tissue that supports the skeleton.
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B
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When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should:
A. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening.
B. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.
C. assume that minimal force was applied to the back.
D. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back.
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B
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Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity?
A. Severe strain
B. Displaced fracture
C. Moderate sprain
D. Hairline fracture
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B
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Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient’s life?
A. An amputated extremity
B. Bilateral femur fractures
C. Nondisplaced long bone fractures
D. Pelvic fracture with hypotension
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D
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Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct?
A. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis.
B. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury.
C. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.
D. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity.
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C
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With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the:
A. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted.
B. part of the body that sustained secondary injury.
C. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact.
D. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.
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D
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