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A female patient reports to the nurse about having pelvic and abdominal pain. On reviewing the diagnostic reports, the nurse finds that the patient has a heavy, solid, fixed, and poorly defined mass on the ovary. What does the nurse infer from these findings? A) The patient has ovarian cysts. B) The patient has ovarian cancer. C) The patient has acute salpingitis. D) The patient has an ectopic pregnancy. |
B) The patient has ovarian cancer. |
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Which conditions can be prevented with the recombinant human papillomavirus quadrivalent vaccine? A) Gonorrhea B) Anal cancer C) Genital warts D) Cervical cancer E) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) |
B) Anal cancer C) Genital warts D) Cervical cancer |
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Which ethnic group has the highest prevalence of gestational diabetes mellitus? A) Asian B) Jewish C) Hispanic D) African-American |
A) Asian |
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Which is a positive Chadwick’s sign in a pregnant patient? A) There is softening of the cervix. B) Pregnancy-induced hypertension is imminent. C) The vagina and cervix have a bluish coloration. D) There is asymmetrical softening and enlarging of the uterus. |
C) The vagina and cervix have a bluish coloration. |
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The nurse is reviewing the medical history of a pregnant patient and notices the patient has gestational diabetes mellitus. Which pregnancy complications should the nurse anticipate in the patient? A) Preeclampsia B) Deep venous thrombosis C) Risk of a Caesarean delivery D) Birth of a macrosomic infant E) Birth of a low-weight neonate |
C) Risk of a Caesarean delivery D) Birth of a macrosomic infant |
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The nurse palpates the abdomen of a patient in her 24th week of pregnancy and finds the fundal height is lower than expected. What is the first nursing intervention in this case? A) Check for signs of preterm labor. B) Ask if the patient has a history of leiomyoma. C) Confirm and recalculate the date of conception. D) Consider the patient’s weight and assess for gestational diabetes |
C) Confirm and recalculate the date of conception. |
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While assessing a patient, the nurse finds that the patient has a body temperature of 102.2° F (39° C), suprapubic pain, and purulent discharge from the cervix. The nurse finds it difficult to palpate the bilateral adnexal masses, because the patient complains of having severe pain during the palpation. What should the nurse infer from these findings? A) The patient may have an ovarian cyst. B) The patient may have ovarian cancer. C) The patient may have acute salpingitis. D) The patient may have an ectopic pregnancy. |
C) The patient may have acute salpingitis. |
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Which position would the nurse consider best to examine the genitalia of a toddler? A) Standing position B) Frog-leg position C) Side-lying position D) Lithotomy position |
B) Frog-leg position |
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A patient reports to the nurse about having pain during urination with increased frequency and postcoital bleeding. The nurse also notices yellow mucopurulent discharge and a friable cervix during the pelvic assessment. Which infection does the nurse suspect in the patient? A) Chlamydia B) Gonorrhea C) Candidiasis D) Trichomoniasis |
A) Chlamydia |
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Which finding would the nurse consider normal during the examination of a pregnant patient? A) Presence of rectal polyps B) Complaints of heartburn and constipation C) Presence of solitary nodules in the thyroid gland D) Complaints of dry mouth and pale mucus membrane |
B) Complaints of heartburn and constipation |
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A patient’s obstetric history is represented as G4 T3 PT1 A0 L3. What can be inferred from this history? A) The patient had no stillbirths. B) The patient had one abortion. C) The patient had one preterm birth. D) The patient has three living children. E) The patient has been pregnant 4 times. |
C) The patient had one preterm birth. D) The patient has three living children. E) The patient has been pregnant 4 times. |
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While examining a female child, the nurse finds an enlarged clitoris and a fused labia. Which condition should the nurse document in the child’s examination report based on these findings? A) Cystocele B) Rectocele C) Endometriosis D) Ambiguous genitalia |
D) Ambiguous genitalia |
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Which developmental change should the nurse expect to find in a 9-year-old female child? A) Flat labia majora B) Thin labia minora C) Thickened mons pubis D) Tissue paper-thin hymen |
C) Thickened mons pubis |
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A patient with anemia reports having backaches, a feeling of heaviness in the abdomen, and excessive uterine bleeding. On palpation of the uterus, the nurse finds that the uterus is enlarged and painless nodules are present in the uterine wall. Which condition does the nurse expect the patient to have? A) The patient has polyps. B) The patient has myomas. C) The patient has endometriosis. D) The patient has acute salpingitis. |
B) The patient has myomas. |
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When doing a genital assessment of a patient who has a genital infection, the nurse finds small, round, solitary, and silvery papules with yellowish serous discharge. Upon palpation, the nurse notes nontender, button-like structures, and enlarged lymph nodes. Which condition should the nurse expect in the patient? A) Urethritis B) Herpes genitalis C) Syphilitic chancre D) Urethral caruncle |
C) Syphilitic chancre |
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During an assessment of a pregnant patient the nurse observes that the patient has slumped posture and a flat, expressionless face. On reviewing the medical history, the nurse finds that the patient has missed several regular checkups. Which problem is this patient at highest risk for developing? A) Preeclampsia B) Postpartum depression C) Hyperemesis gravidarum D) Carpal tunnel syndrome |
B) Postpartum depression |
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What places a patient at risk for developing candidiasis? A) Diabetes mellitus B) Vaginal douching C) Cigarette smoking D) Prolonged use of antibiotics E) Unopposed estrogen therapy |
A) Diabetes mellitus B) Vaginal douching D) Prolonged use of antibiotics |
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While examining a pregnant patient, the nurse finds enlargement of the adnexa. Which complication should the nurse assess for in the patient? A) Cystitis B) Condyloma C) Preeclampsia D) Ectopic pregnancy |
D) Ectopic pregnancy |
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In a pregnant patient, a wide separation of the rectus abdominis muscles occurs, and the abdominal contents protrude into the midline of the abdomen. What can the nurse conclude from this condition? A) It is called diastasis recti and requires no treatment. B) It is called linea nigra and is caused by retention of fluid. C) It is called placenta previa and must be surgically repaired. D) It is called striae gravidarum and may impair future pregnancies. |
A) It is called diastasis recti and requires no treatment. |
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While reviewing the medical history of a patient who is in the 12th week of gestation, the nurse learns that the patient is a carrier for cystic fibrosis. Which test should the nurse discuss with the patient to ensure the safety of the fetus? A) Amniocentesis B) Fetal ultrasound C) Papanicolaou (Pap) test D) Chorionic villi sampling (CVS) |
D) Chorionic villi sampling (CVS) |
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While collecting data on the size and consistency of the uterus of a pregnant patient, the nurse finds that the uterus is approximately the size of an avocado and measures about 8 cm across the fundus. What does the nurse expect to be the gestational age of the fetus based on this finding? A) 6 weeks B) 8 weeks C) 10 weeks D) 12 weeks |
B) 8 weeks |
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The nurse is assessing an elderly female patient who has diabetes mellitus. The patient reports to the nurse that she has night sweats, vaginal dryness, itching, and numbness. What should the nurse infer from these findings? A) The patient is at increased risk of vaginitis. B) The patient is at increased risk of cervical cancer. C) The patient is at increased risk of vascular problems. D) The patient is at an increased risk of endometrial cancer. |
A) The patient is at increased risk of vaginitis. |
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A female postmenopausal patient is obese and has had no children. She has hypertension and is undergoing estrogen replacement. What is the highest risk in this patient? A) Cervical cancer B) Ovarian cancer C) Uterine prolapse D) Endometrial cancer |
D) Endometrial cancer |
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The nurse is reviewing the ultrasound of a patient at 36 weeks gestation. Which fetal presentation is ideal at this stage of the pregnancy? A) Vertex B) Transverse lie C) Brow presentation D) Compound presentation |
A) Vertex |
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After examining a patient who has missed a menstrual period, the nurse documents that the patient has a positive Chadwick sign. Which assessment findings led the nurse to reach such a conclusion? A) Softened cervix B) Soft uterine isthmus C) Bluish vaginal mucosa D) Globular shaped uterus E) Cyanotic appearance of the cervix |
C) Bluish vaginal mucosa E) Cyanotic appearance of the cervix |
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Which assessment finding indicates Hegar’s sign in a pregnant patient? A) Cyanosis of the cervix B) Discoloration of the cervix C) Bending of the uterus from the cervix D) Softening of the uterus at the junction of the cervix |
C) Bending of the uterus from the cervix |
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The nurse performs a bimanual examination of a pregnant patient and notices Hegar’s sign. Which finding enabled the nurse to make such a conclusion? A) The uterus rises from out of the pelvis. B) The uterus turns towards the right side. C) The uterus bends forward on the isthmus. D) The uterus walls become soft and enlarged. |
C) The uterus bends forward on the isthmus. |
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During a routine examination a patient in the 28th week of pregnancy reports frequent nosebleeds. What does the nurse tell the patient? A) This is a normal finding B) This could be a sign of anemia C) This could be a sign of vitamin D deficiency D) This could be a sign of maternal malnutrition E) Further testing will be needed to determine the cause |
A) This is a normal finding |
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Which is an abnormal finding in a patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension? A) Presence of preeclampsia B) Edema of the legs and hands C) Decreased deep tendon reflexes D) Excessive increase of body weight |
C) Decreased deep tendon reflexes |
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The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient during the third trimester of pregnancy. Which nursing intervention prevents compression of the descending aorta and inferior vena cava? A) Helping the patient to stay in a sitting position B) Elevating the patient’s back at a 45° degree angle C) Elevating the patient’s back at a 90° degree angle D) Helping the patient to get in a lithotomy position |
B) Elevating the patient’s back at a 45° degree angle |
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Which technique is used to detect ovarian cancer at an early stage? A) Serum CA 125 test B) Papanicolaou (Pap) smear test C) Nucleic acid amplification test (NAT) D) Annual transvaginal ultrasonography |
D) Annual transvaginal ultrasonography |
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Which is an abnormal finding during the assessment of a pregnant patient at 22 weeks of gestation? A) Increased heart rate B) Splitting of S 1 and S 2 C) Hypertrophy of the gums D) Presence of facial edema |
D) Presence of facial edema |
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Which findings indicate that the patient is in the first trimester of pregnancy? A) Expression of colostrum from the nipples B) Quickening or noticing fetal movements C) Striae gravidarum on the breast and abdomen D) Tingling sensation and tenderness in the breast E) Presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the urine |
D) Tingling sensation and tenderness in the breast E) Presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the urine |
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Which statement best describes the clitoris? A) It has a visible length of 5 cm. B) It is composed of erectile tissue. C) It is a thin circular fold covering the vaginal opening. D) It is composed of glandular tissue that secretes vaginal moisture. |
B) It is composed of erectile tissue. |
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A pregnant patient comes in for an exam after learning she is pregnant. This is her first pregnancy, and she confirms that she has started feeling fetal movements. In what gestational week would this place the patient? A) 8th week B) 10th week C) 14th week D) 18th week |
D) 18th week |
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Which finding may indicate hyperemesis gravidarum in a patient? A) Facial edema after 20 weeks of gestation B) Poor grooming or slumped posture in mother C) No fluctuation in weight during the first trimester D) Weight loss of 5% or more during the first trimester |
D) Weight loss of 5% or more during the first trimester |
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Which foods may lead to dangerous levels of mercury in a pregnant patient’s blood? A) Raw fish B) Fried fish C) Raw eggs D) Soft cheeses E) Sliced deli meats |
A) Raw fish B) Fried fish |
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When would the nurse first observe the softening of the uterus in a pregnant patient who has missed her first menstrual period? A) 4 to 6 weeks B) 6 to 8 weeks C) 8 to 12 weeks D) 10 to 12 weeks |
B) 6 to 8 weeks |
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While reviewing the results of the speculum examination of a pregnant patient, the nurse notices the description of vaginal discharge as "thick, white, and clumpy." Which condition should the nurse suspect in this patient? A) Gonorrhea B) Candidiasis C) Trichomoniasis D) Bacterial vaginosis |
B) Candidiasis |
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Which condition presented here can be sexually transmitted? A) Urethral caruncle B) Abscess of the Bartholin gland C) Human papillomavirus (HPV) genital warts D) Cystocele |
C) Human papillomavirus (HPV) genital warts |
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The nurse is doing a vaginal examination in a patient with menorrhagia. In which position should the patient be placed to best assess the vagina? A) Sitting position B) Standing position C) Side-lying position D) Lithotomy position |
D) Lithotomy position |
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What does the nurse use to lubricate the speculum to obtain a Pap smear? A) Mineral oil B) Warm water C) Liquid paraffin D) Petroleum gel |
B) Warm water |
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Which measures should the nurse include while examining the external genitalia of a female adolescent patient? A) Do the examination of the patient without the mother in the room. B) Determine the patient’s growth rate as well as the menstrual history. C) Lubricate the hands and instruments adequately before examination. D) Use the sexual maturity charts to teach about developmental changes. E) Instruct the patient to report whether the vaginal secretions are increased. |
A) Do the examination of the patient without the mother in the room. B) Determine the patient’s growth rate as well as the menstrual history. D) Use the sexual maturity charts to teach about developmental changes. |
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Which clinical parameters present in a patient who is 24 weeks pregnant would indicate preeclampsia? A) BP 140/80 mm Hg; uric acid 3.0 mg/dL; nausea and fatigue B) BP 140/90 mm Hg; platelets 150/10 9/L; increased appetite C) BP 150/90 mm Hg; creatinine 2.2mg/Dl; headache and blurring of vision D) BP 130/90 mm Hg; alanine aminotransferase 40U/L; constipation and nausea |
C) BP 150/90 mm Hg; creatinine 2.2mg/Dl; headache and blurring of vision |
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The nurse teaches a student nurse about obtaining a female patient’s reproductive health history. Which statement, if made by the student nurse, indicates effective learning? A) "It should be obtained during the pelvic examination." B) "It should include the pattern of menstruation and sexual satisfaction." C) "It should focus on physical complaints such as discharge, pain, or rash." D) "It should be obtained every 3 to 5 years in a patient without complaints." |
B) "It should include the pattern of menstruation and sexual satisfaction." |
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Which instructions should the nurse provide to a patient regarding a pelvic examination? A) "Do not douche or have intercourse 24 hours before the examination." B) "You can hold your breath during the examination if you feel uncomfortable." C) "It is best if you do not view the procedure because you may find it disturbing." D) "You will have to remove all clothing including shoes and socks before the examination." |
A) "Do not douche or have intercourse 24 hours before the examination." |
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Which is an abnormal assessment finding in a female patient? A) The cervix is pink. B) Bartholin glands are not palpable. C) Ovaries are smooth, firm, and nontender on palpation. D) The cervix and uterus are fixed and tender on internal palpation. |
D) The cervix and uterus are fixed and tender on internal palpation. |
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While doing an assessment of the external genitalia, the nurse finds that the patient has a posteriorly swollen labia, tenderness, and a palpable mass on the labia. Which condition should the nurse expect to find in the patient? A) Leiomyomas B) Genital warts C) Atrophic vaginitis D) Abscess on the Bartholin gland |
D) Abscess on the Bartholin gland |
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While assessing a female adolescent patient, the nurse finds that the patient’s hymen is bluish in color and bulging. The patient reports to the nurse that she has not started her menses. For which condition should the nurse screen in this patient? A) Dyspareunia B) Delayed puberty C) Imperforate hymen D) Physiologic leucorrhea |
C) Imperforate hymen |
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Which question should the nurse ask the patient while collecting data on the current pregnancy? A) "Have you ever had the chickenpox?" B) "Do you have any medication allergies?" C) "How often do you participate in exercise?" D) "Do you ever have irregular vaginal bleeding?" |
D) "Do you ever have irregular vaginal bleeding?" |
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What initiates the physiologic changes of pregnancy? A) Fetus B) Placenta C) Ovaries D) Pituitary gland |
B) Placenta |
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A patient reports to the nurse about having pain and a burning sensation during urination. On assessment, the nurse finds a small amount of cloudy vaginal discharge. What should the nurse infer from this finding? A) The patient has dysuria. B) The patient has oliguria. C) The patient has hematuria. D) The patient has stress incontinence. |
A) The patient has dysuria. |
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While assessing a patient who is in the third week of pregnancy, the nurse uses the patient’s prepregnancy weight to calculate the patient’s body mass index (BMI) as 28. What should the nurse document in the patient’s medical record based on this finding? A) The patient is obese. B) The patient is overweight. C) The patient is underweight. D) The patient is of normal weight. |
B) The patient is overweight. |
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While reviewing the laboratory results of a patient who is in the first trimester of pregnancy, the nurse notices increased levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) hormone. What other assessment findings does the nurse expect to find in this patient? A) Decreased iodine levels B) Increased estrogen levels C) Decreased blood sugar levels D) Increased progesterone levels E) Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone levels |
A) Decreased iodine levels E) Decreased thyroid-stimulating hormone levels |
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Which findings obtained during the assessment of a newborn female require further evaluation? A) Thick hymen B) Large clitoris C) Engorged labia D) Fusion of the labia E) Palpable mass in the fused labia |
B) Large clitoris D) Fusion of the labia E) Palpable mass in the fused labia |
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How does the nurse assume an obstetric position for the vaginal examination of a patient? A) Index, middle, and fourth fingers extended and the thumb adducted B) The four fingers extended together and the thumb folded down on the palm C) The index finger extended opposed by the thumb so that tissues can be palpated between them D) Index and middle fingers extended, thumb abducted, and fourth and little fingers folded down onto the palm |
D) Index and middle fingers extended, thumb abducted, and fourth and little fingers folded down onto the palm |
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Which assessment finding indicates a normal cervix? A) Velvety and soft B) 2 to 3 cm in diameter C) Projecting into the vagina 4 cm D) Covered with "strawberry spots" |
B) 2 to 3 cm in diameter |
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What is the shape of the uterus of a patient who is 24 weeks pregnant? A) Pear B) Oval C) Round D) Globular |
B) Oval |
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A patient complains of vaginal pruritus and burning. The nurse notes a fishy smell and watery gray drainage. What does this finding indicate? A) Candidiasis B) Trichomoniasis C) Bacterial vaginosis D) Atrophic vaginitis |
C) Bacterial vaginosis |
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While examining the external genitalia of a patient, the nurse notices pink-colored, soft, pointed papules around the anus and vulva. Which abnormality would the nurse document in the patient’s examination report? A) Genital warts B) Herpes genitalis C) Syphilitic chancre D) Contact dermatitis |
A) Genital warts |
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Which conditions can be prevented by using the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine? A) Chlamydia B) Gonorrhea C) Anal cancer D) Genital warts E) Cervical cancer |
C) Anal cancer D) Genital warts E) Cervical cancer |
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What are the presumptive signs of pregnancy? A) Amenorrhea B) Fetal heart tones C) Breast tenderness D) Uterus enlargement E) Increased urination |
A) Amenorrhea C) Breast tenderness E) Increased urination |
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While examining the external genitalia of a patient, the nurse observes urethral inflammation and purulent discharge from the urethral meatus. The nurse also finds erythema and tenderness of the anterior vaginal wall. The patient reports to the nurse about having a burning sensation during urination. What do the patient’s findings suggest? A) Urethritis B) Herpes genitalis C) Syphilitic chancre D) Urethral caruncle |
A) Urethritis |
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Which assessment findings does the nurse consider as abnormal when reviewing a patient’s medical results? A) Vaginal pH of 4.0 B) Dark and cloudy urine C) Clots in menstrual flow D) Cloudy vaginal discharge E) Yellow-green vaginal discharge |
B) Dark and cloudy urine C) Clots in menstrual flow E) Yellow-green vaginal discharge |
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The nurse is examining a patient who is in labor. Which finding documented by the nurse is normal? A) Total weight gain of 50 lbs. B) The length of cervix is 3 cm. C) The fetal heart rate is 100 bpm. D) The fundal height lag is 2.5 cm. |
B) The length of cervix is 3 cm. |
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Which structure is highly sensitive to tactile stimulation? A) Hymen B) Vagina C) Clitoris D) Vestibule |
C) Clitoris |
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While reviewing the blood test reports of a pregnant patient, the nurse finds that the patient has a decreased platelet count and an increased serum creatinine level. The patient’s blood pressure is 150/100 mm Hg. Which other finding would the nurse expect? A) Increased urinary output B) Decreased urinary ketone levels C) Increased urinary protein levels D) Decreased sugar levels in the urine |
C) Increased urinary protein levels |
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While assessing a pregnant patient, the nurse observes that the patient is short of breath. Upon further examination, the nurse auscultates the lungs and hears wheezing. What should the nurse infer from these findings? A) The patient is healthy. B) The patient may have asthma. C) The patient may have preeclampsia. D) The patient may have a lung infection. |
B) The patient may have asthma. |
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The student nurse is learning about the size and consistency of the uterus during gestation. Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective learning? A) "The uterus will fill the pelvis in the 10th week of gestation." B) "An avocado-sized uterus is seen in the 7th week of gestation." C) "A grapefruit-sized uterus is seen in the 8th week of gestation." D) "The uterus is enlarged and softened in the 6th week of gestation." |
D) "The uterus is enlarged and softened in the 6th week of gestation." |
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What are the risk factors for endometrial cancer? A) Obesity B) Body sprays C) Oral contraceptives D) Decreased vaginal pH E) Long-term estrogen therapy |
A) Obesity E) Long-term estrogen therapy |
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The nurse performs the second Leopold’s maneuver on a pregnant patient in the third trimester of pregnancy. What is the nurse assessing? A) Fetal parts at the fundus B) The back and limbs of the fetus C) Presenting part position and mobility D) Fetal engagement and presentation |
B) The back and limbs of the fetus |
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While assessing a pregnant patient, the nurse notes the patient’s obstetric history as G3-T2-P1-A1-L3. What does this signify about the patient? A) The patient has 3 children with 1 miscarriage, 1 preterm birth, and 3 living children B) The patient has 3 children with 2 miscarriages, 1 preterm birth, and 3 living children C) The patient has 3 children with 1 miscarriage, 2 preterm birth, and 3 living children D) The patient has 3 children with no miscarriages, 2 preterm birth, and 3 living children |
A) The patient has 3 children with 1 miscarriage, 1 preterm birth, and 3 living children |
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A patient reports vaginal itching to the nurse. During a pelvic exam, the nurse notices a thin, white, milky vaginal discharge with a fishy odor. What does the nurse infer from this finding? A) The patient has gonorrhea. B) The patient has candidiasis. C) The patient has trichomoniasis. D) The patient has bacterial vaginosis. |
D) The patient has bacterial vaginosis. |
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While assessing a pregnant patient at 24 weeks of gestation, the nurse finds that the fundal height is 30 cm. Which findings does the nurse expect in the ultrasound reports of the patient? A) Multiple fetuses B) Polyhydramnios C) Uterine myoma D) Oligohydramnios E) Uterine insufficiency |
A) Multiple fetuses B) Polyhydramnios C) Uterine myoma |
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The nurse is performing a pelvic examination of a pregnant patient who is in her second trimester. In which position should the nurse place the patient for this assessment? A) Ask the patient to lay supine in the lithotomy position for the examination B) Ask the patient to stand in the upright position for the examination C) Assist the patient into the side-lying position during the examination D) Elevate the back of the patient at a 45° angle during the examination |
D) Elevate the back of the patient at a 45° angle during the examination |
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Which change may occur during sexual maturation in females? A) Enlarged uterus and ovaries B) A slight rounding of the labia minora C) Decreased elasticity of vaginal tissues D) Spread of pubic hair onto inner aspects of upper thighs |
D) Spread of pubic hair onto inner aspects of upper thighs |
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The nurse is teaching a student nurse the proper technique for palpating the abdomen and measuring fundal height in a pregnant patient. Which techniques would the nurse teach? A) Palpate centrally, using the side of one hand, moving downward. B) Palpate centrally, using the palm of one hand, moving upward from the belly button. C) Palpate the curve of the uterus in the lower quadrants, using both palms, stepping inward D) Palpate centrally, using both palms, stepping outward toward the lower left and right quadrants |
A) Palpate centrally, using the side of one hand, moving downward. |
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The nurse is assisting with a neurologic examination in a pregnant patient and sees that the deep tendon reflex is greater than 2+. The patient also presents with an elevated blood pressure and headaches. What does this finding indicate? A) The patient has condyloma. B) The patient has preeclampsia. C) The patient has valvular disease. D) The patient has deep vein thrombosis. |
B) The patient has preeclampsia. |
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Which changes would the nurse observe in an elderly female patient during a genital examination? A) Shrinkage of the uterus B) Thinning of the pubic hair C) Increase in the vaginal pH D) Increased size of the clitoris E) Enlargement of the mons pubis |
A) Shrinkage of the uterus B) Thinning of the pubic hair C) Increase in the vaginal pH |
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A pregnant patient asks the nurse about a butterfly-shaped pigmentation that has recently appeared on her face. What term does the nurse use to describe this condition? A) Chloasma B) Linea nigra C) Striae gravidarum D) Pruritic urticarial papules |
A) Chloasma |
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The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient who has varicose veins and determines that the patient has a risk of developing thrombophlebitis. Which findings support the nurse’s conclusion? A) The patient consumes a diet high in iron. B) The patient wears compression stockings. C) The patient has continuous weight gain. D) The patient dresses in tight-fitting clothes. E) The patient stays in bed for a lengthy time. |
C) The patient has continuous weight gain. D) The patient dresses in tight-fitting clothes. E) The patient stays in bed for a lengthy time. |
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The parent of a 12-year-old child asks why the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is given to a child who is not sexually active. What is the nurse’s best response? A) "This gives time for immunity to develop before a child becomes sexually active." B) "This is how the insurance company requires the vaccination to be administered." C) "This vaccination is designed to prevent the onset of pelvic inflammatory disease." D) "The vaccination includes three injections to be given one year apart for effectiveness." |
A) "This gives time for immunity to develop before a child becomes sexually active." |
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Which assessment finding in a patient would indicate a third-degree uterine prolapse? A) The bladder prolapses into the vagina. B) A bulge emerges from the posterior fornix. C) The whole uterus is outside the introitus. D) The cervix is visible at the introitus when the client strains. |
C) The whole uterus is outside the introitus. |
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The nurse instructs a pregnant patient to maintain good oral hygiene. What complications is the nurse trying to prevent? A) Anemia B) Preterm delivery C) Gestational diabetes D) Deep vein thrombosis E) Low birth weight infant |
B) Preterm delivery E) Low birth weight infant |
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Where is the urethral meatus located? A) Anterior to the clitoris B) Posterior to the clitoris C) Lateral to the vaginal orifice D) On the posterior wall of the vaginal opening |
B) Posterior to the clitoris |
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What is the purpose of elevating the head of the examination table during a pelvic examination? A) To prevent pressure on the bladder B) To prevent pain during the examination C) To relax the patient’s abdominal muscles D) To maintain the patient’s eye contact with the examiner E) To allow the patient to breathe more easily |
C) To relax the patient’s abdominal muscles D) To maintain the patient’s eye contact with the examiner E) To allow the patient to breathe more easily |
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A pregnant patient complains of numbness, pain, and burning on the sides of the hands and fingers. Which condition does the nurse suspect in the patient? A) Progressive lordosis B) Dropping of the fetus C) Widening of the rib cage D) Compression of the median nerves |
D) Compression of the median nerves |
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While auscultating the fetal heart tones of a patient in the first trimester of pregnancy, the nurse finds 10 heartbeats in 5 seconds. What would be the fetal heart rate? |
120 beats/minute The nurse counts the fetal heart tones for 5 seconds and then multiplies the result by 12 to obtain the fetal heart rate per minute. Because the number of fetal heart tones heard in 5 seconds is 10, the fetal heart rate would be 10 X 12 = 120 beats per minute. |
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While examining a patient who has stress incontinence, the nurse observes that the patient’s bladder is prolapsed into the vagina. Which condition does this finding suggest? A) Rectocele B) Cystocele C) Atrophic vaginitis D) Uterine prolapse |
B) Cystocele |
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A patient reports to the nurse about having intense vaginal itching along with a white and clumpy vaginal discharge even when using oral contraceptives. The laboratory results show branched hyphae on microscopic examination. Which condition should the nurse suspect that the patient has? A) The patient has moniliasis. B) The patient has trichomoniasis. C) The patient has atrophic vaginitis. D) The patient has Haemophilus vaginalis infection. |
A) The patient has moniliasis. |
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Which finding indicates the presence of linea nigra in a pregnant patient? A) Bleeding and tender gums B) Darkened abdominal midline C) Colostrum expression from the nipples D) An inward curvature of the lumbar spine |
B) Darkened abdominal midline |
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When listening for fetal heart tones, the nurse also hears a soft, blowing sound synchronous to the maternal pulse. What does this finding indicate? A) Fetal distress B) Hypertension C) Uterine souffle D) Umbilical artery bruit |
C) Uterine souffle |
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Which is an abnormal finding in pregnancy? A) The breasts have darker areolae. B) The blood volume increases rapidly. C) The cervix is deep red and firmer than usual. D) The patient’s urine test indicates proteinuria. |
D) The patient’s urine test indicates proteinuria. |
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Which sign does the nurse consider as a positive sign of pregnancy? A) Amenorrhea B) Fetal heart tones C) Breast tenderness D) Uterine enlargement |
B) Fetal heart tones |
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After performing a genital assessment of a patient, the nurse concludes that the patient has atrophic vaginitis. Which assessment findings led the nurse to this conclusion? A) Vaginal itching, dryness with a mucoid vaginal discharge B) Shortened, narrowed vaginal opening and decreased rugae C) Thick, white, curdlike discharge from erythematous vagina D) Thin, creamy, gray-white malodorous discharge from vagina E) Red, granular papules and frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge |
A) Vaginal itching, dryness with a mucoid vaginal discharge B) Shortened, narrowed vaginal opening and decreased rugae |
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Which disease is best detected using a Pap smear? A) Polyp B) Ovarian cancer C) Cervical cancer D) Endometrial cancer |
C) Cervical cancer |
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While assessing the heart of a pregnant patient, the nurse finds that the patient has a functional systolic murmur. What should the nurse infer from this finding? A) The patient is exhibiting a normal finding. B) The patient is at risk for preterm delivery. C) The patient has an underlying cardiac disorder. D) The patient requires an immediate electrocardiogram. |
A) The patient is exhibiting a normal finding. |
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In which position does the nurse ask the female patient to lie for a pelvic examination? A) Sims B) Supine C) Lithotomy D) Trendelenburg |
C) Lithotomy |
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While assessing a female patient with a genital infection, the nurse determines that the patient has diethylstilbestrol (DES) syndrome. Which assessment findings made the nurse reach this conclusion? A) Bulging of the anterior cervical lip with round grooves B) Chronic ulcerations and indurations noted on the cervix C) Reddened cervical lip with a reddened granular surface D) Red, granular patches of columnar epithelium on cervix E) Red, soft, pedunculated growth on the cervical opening |
A) Bulging of the anterior cervical lip with round grooves B) Chronic ulcerations and indurations noted on the cervix D) Red, granular patches of columnar epithelium on cervix |
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A patient tells the nurse, "I am experiencing severe pain in the lower abdomen for the past 3 months during menses." Which test should the nurse advise the patient to undergo? A) Serum CA 125 test B) Papanicolaou (Pap) test C) Nucleic acid amplification tests D) Transvaginal ultrasound imaging |
D) Transvaginal ultrasound imaging |
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A pregnant patient reports pain and swelling in the left leg. In addition to this, the nurse finds that the patient was asked to undergo Doppler tests. What condition should the nurse suspect in the patient? A) Spina bifida B) Gestational diabetes C) Deep vein thrombosis D) Carpel tunnel syndrome |
C) Deep vein thrombosis |
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When is the uterus palpable just above the symphysis pubis? A) At 9 weeks B) At 12 weeks C) At 18 weeks D) At 20 weeks |
B) At 12 weeks |
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While reviewing the gynecological history of a pregnant patient, the nurse suspects that the patient may be at risk for an ectopic pregnancy. Which findings support the nurse’s suspicion? A) The patient has a history of smoking. B) The patient reported mild abdominal pain. C) The patient has undergone a cervical biopsy. D) The patient has a history of having gonorrhea. E) The patient has undergone a colposcopy before. |
A) The patient has a history of smoking. B) The patient reported mild abdominal pain. |
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What does the nurse instruct the patient to do during the speculum examination? A) "Place your hips midway down the examining table." B) "Bear down so that the perineal muscles can relax." C) "Squeeze your perineal muscles so that I can assess the pelvic floor strength." D) "Tell me if there is any discomfort, so that the speculum will be removed." |
B) "Bear down so that the perineal muscles can relax." |
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A female patient reports to the nurse of having pain during her menstrual period and a feeling of being bloated. On further assessment, the nurse also finds that the patient has breast tenderness. What should the nurse conclude from these findings? A) The patient has menorrhagia. B) The patient has amenorrhea. C) The patient has dysmenorrhea. D) The patient has vaginal pooling. |
C) The patient has dysmenorrhea. |
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While examining a patient who has a genital infection, the nurse finds that the patient has a fever and clusters of small, shallow erythematous vesicles on the genital areas. The patient reports local pain and a burning sensation during urination. What should the nurse suspect from these findings? A) The patient has herpes genitalis. B) The patient has syphilitic chancre. C) The patient has urethral caruncle. D) The patient has Haemophilus vaginosis infection. |
A) The patient has herpes genitalis. |
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The nurse assesses that a patient has an enlarged uterus and small, firm, nodular masses on the posterior part of the fundus. The patient reports chronic pelvic pain and irregular uterine bleeding to the nurse. Which complication should the nurse expect to find in the patient? A) Polyp B) Myomas C) Endometriosis D) Pelvic inflammatory disease |
C) Endometriosis |
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When does the nurse perform a Pap smear? A) If a patient complains of abdominal pain or vaginal bleeding B) When there are symptoms of Chlamydia infection in the patient C) When a patient reaches 21 years of age D) When a patient is between 35 to 55 years of age, when most cervical cancers occur |
C) When a patient reaches 21 years of age |
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A female patient complains of watery, bubbly, malodorous, yellowish green discharge. Which condition does the nurse suspect in the patient? A) Pubic lice B) Candidiasis C) Trichomoniasis D) Gardnerella vaginalis |
C) Trichomoniasis |
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The nurse performs the fourth Leopold’s maneuver in a pregnant patient who is in the third trimester of pregnancy and concludes that the vertex is engaged into the pelvis. What observation supports this conclusion? A) The fingers meet at the pelvic inlet when pressed firmly on the abdomen. B) The fingers diverge at the pelvic rim and meet at the hard prominence on one side. C) The fingers diverge at the pelvic rim and meet the hard prominences on both sides. D) The fingers become diverged at the pelvic brim and meet no palpable prominences. |
D) The fingers become diverged at the pelvic brim and meet no palpable prominences. |
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Which are examples of external genital abnormalities? A) Cystocele B) Urethritis C) Uterine prolapse D) Urethral caruncle E) Syphilitic chancre |
B) Urethritis D) Urethral caruncle E) Syphilitic chancre |
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Which finding does the nurse consider abnormal when inspecting the patient’s cervix and its opening? A) Lateral position of the cervix B) Diameter of cervix as 2.5 cm C) Pink-colored cervical mucosa D) Small, round cervical opening |
A) Lateral position of the cervix |
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While reviewing the medical reports of a pregnant patient, the nurse finds that the health care provider has ordered a purified protein derivative (PPD) test. What is the rationale for this prescription? A) To assess for cystitis B) To assess for vaginal infections C) To assess for ectopic pregnancy D) To assess for tuberculosis exposure |
D) To assess for tuberculosis exposure |
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To what does "version" refer in the female genitourinary system? A) The position of the uterus in a female body B) The classification system of cervical neoplasia C) The placement of the ovaries in relation to the uterus D) When the long axis of the uterus is not straight but is bent on itself |
A) The position of the uterus in a female body |
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While doing a genital examination, the nurse finds that a part of the rectum is covered by the vaginal mucosa and is prolapsed into the vagina. What should the nurse infer from this finding? A) The patient has a rectocele. B) The patient has a cystocele. C) The patient has cervical cancer. D) The patient has a uterine prolapse. |
A) The patient has a rectocele. |
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The nurse is discussing the changes that occur in the uterus during pregnancy with a group of pregnant women. Which point would the nurse include in the discussion? A) The uterus functions as an endocrine gland B) The uterus is palpable abdominally after 12 weeks C) The uterus reaches the umbilicus at 32 weeks of gestation D) The uterus contracts painlessly throughout the pregnancy |
B) The uterus is palpable abdominally after 12 weeks |
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On reviewing a patient’s laboratory results, the nurse finds that the patient has chlamydia. What potential complication should the nurse explain to the patient to ensure treatment compliance? A) Trauma B) Infection C) Dyspareunia D) Pelvic inflammatory disease |
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease |
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While examining a patient at 35 weeks of gestation, the nurse observes widening of the abdomen and diminished fundal height, and concludes that the fetus is in the transverse lie position. Which Leopold’s maneuver did the nurse use to obtain this finding? A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth |
A) First |
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The nurse wants to assess effacement in a pregnant patient. Which characteristic should the nurse assess? A) Degree of cervical thinning B) Presenting part of the fetus C) Passage of the mucous plug D) Diameter of the vaginal opening |
A) Degree of cervical thinning |
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Which symptoms should the nurse expect to find in a menopausal patient? A) Hot flashes B) Night sweats C) Mood swings D) Fluid retention E) Vaginal bleeding |
A) Hot flashes B) Night sweats C) Mood swings |
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What are the positive signs of pregnancy? A) Enlarged uterus B) Breast tenderness C) Increased urinary frequency D) Fetal heart sounds on auscultation E) Fetal cardiac activity on ultrasound |
D) Fetal heart sounds on auscultation E) Fetal cardiac activity on ultrasound |
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A patient who is in the 20th week of pregnancy reports a severe headache and blurred vision. The nurse obtains the patient’s blood pressure and records it as 160/100 mm Hg. The nurse also reviews the laboratory results and finds an increased serum creatinine level and decreased platelet count. Which complication does the nurse expect in this patient? A) Preeclampsia B) Lymphadenopathy C) Thrombocytopenia D) Deep venous thrombosis |
A) Preeclampsia |
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A newborn’s weight is measured at 9 lbs 4 ounces. What risk factor could affect this neonate? A) Obesity B) Down syndrome C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Neural tube defects E) Brachial plexus nerve damage |
A) Obesity E) Brachial plexus nerve damage |
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While performing the Leopold’s fourth maneuver in a pregnant patient who is in the third trimester, the nurse finds that the presenting part of the fetus is the face. Which should the nurse document in the medical record? A) Breech presentation of the fetus B) Shoulder presentation of the fetus C) Flexed vertex position of the fetus D) Military vertex position of the fetus |
C) Flexed vertex position of the fetus |
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The nurse is examining the genitourinary system of a female patient. Which procedures should the nurse include when doing a vaginal examination? A) Situate the patient in the lithotomy position. B) Have the patient raise her arms over her head. C) Put an examination glove on each of the stirrups. D) Elevate the end of the exam table near the head. E) Teach the patient to keep quiet during the exam. |
A) Situate the patient in the lithotomy position. C) Put an examination glove on each of the stirrups. D) Elevate the end of the exam table near the head. |
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While interacting with a pregnant patient, the nurse finds that the patient has cravings for raw eggs, soft cheeses, and unpasteurized dairy foods. Which infections does the nurse anticipate if these foods are consumed? . A) Listeria B) Chlamydia C) Gonorrhea D) Salmonella E) Toxoplasmosis |
A) Listeria D) Salmonella E) Toxoplasmosis |
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The nurse is doing a detailed assessment of a pregnant patient. Which data obtained from the patient should the nurse document under the obstetric history? A) The patient has had three pregnancies. B) The patient has used oral contraceptives. C) The patient underwent a uterine surgery. D) The patient is at risk for gestational diabetes mellitus. E) The patient has experienced a past caesarian section. |
A) The patient has had three pregnancies. D) The patient is at risk for gestational diabetes mellitus. E) The patient has experienced a past caesarian section. |
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The nurse is calculating the expected delivery date of a patient whose last menstrual period (LMP) was on April 1 (04/01). What should the nurse document as the expected due date according to Nägele’s rule? A) December 8th B) January 1st C) January 8th D) February 1st |
C) January 8th |
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