Chapter 19- Blood

A

What is not a component of the cardiovascular system? A) Blood B) Heart C) Muscles D) Veins

E

Which of the following is a function of the blood? A) transport of nutrients and wastes B) transport of body heat C) transport of gases D) defense against toxins and pathogens E) All of the answers are correct.

D

What are the two major categories that blood is broken down into? A) serum and lymph. B) whole blood and extracellular fluid C) plasma and whole blood D) plasma and formed elements

C

The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are A) globulins. B) transport proteins. C) albumins. D) lipoproteins. E) fibrinogens.

C

The most abundant component of plasma is A) ions. B) proteins. C) water. D) gases. E) nutrients.

D

The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of A) water. B) electrolytes. C) nitrogen wastes. D) proteins. E) glucose.

C

Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? A) metalloprotein B) steroid-binding C) hormone-binding D) apolipoprotein E) transport albumin

D

What are the major plasma proteins? A) Albumin and -Alpha-1 globulin B) Albumin -Alpha-2 globulin C) Beta globulin -Gamma globulin D) Albumin and Globulin

D

Formed elements make up about what percentage of blood? A) 55 percent B) 30 percent C) 60 percent D) 45 percent E) 20 percent

C

The combination of plasma and formed elements is called A) serum. B) lymph. C) whole blood. D) extracellular fluid. E) packed blood.

C

Which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood? A) RBCs B) platelets C) antibodies D) lymphocytes E) basophils

B

Approximately 45 percent of blood volume is composed of the A) clotting factors. B) formed elements. C) leukocytes. D) plasma. E) antibodies.

B

Production of formed elements of the blood in the red bone marrow is A) Leukospoiesis B) Hemopoiesis C) Forming blood D) Fibrinogenisis

B

_____________ develop into erythrocytes, granulocytes, and monocytes (all WBC and some RBC). A) lymphoid stem cells B) myeloid stems cells C) White blood cells D) Red blood cells

A

______________ divide to produce the various classes of lymphocytes via the process of lymphopoiesis. A) lymphoid stem cells B) myeloid stems cells C) White blood cells D) Red blood cells

D

The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the A) viscosity. B) specific gravity. C) packed volume. D) hematocrit. E) differential cell count.

C

A hematocrit provides information on A) blood type. B) clotting factors. C) formed elements abundance. D) plasma composition. E) sedimentation rate.

A

The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are A) neutrophils. B) basophils. C) lymphocytes. D) monocytes. E) leukocytes.

A

The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of each of the various types of white blood cells. A) differential count B) hematocrit C) sedimentation rate D) WBC count E) complete cell count (CBC)

C

More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is A) albumin. B) porphyrin. C) hemoglobin. D) immunoglobulin. E) fibrinogen.

A

The function of hemoglobin is to A) carry dissolved blood gases. B) carry bicarbonate ion. C) aid in the process of blood clotting. D) produce antibodies. E) stimulate erythropoiesis.

C

Which of the following does not influence hemoglobin saturation? A) temperature B) DPG C) nitric oxide D) carbon dioxide

B

Select the correct statement about oxygen transport in blood: A)During conditions of acidosis, hemoglobin is able to carry oxygen more efficiently. B)A 50% oxygen saturation level of blood returning to the lungs might indicate an activity level higher than normal. C) During normal activity, a molecule of hemoglobin returning to the lungs carries one molecule of Ó. D) Increased BPG levels in the red blood cells enhance oxygen-carrying capacity.

D

The condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is reduced, owing to a low blood hemoglobin concentration, is called A) thrombocytopenia. B) leukopenia. C) polycythemia. D) anemia. E) leukocytosis.

E

Three Important Effects of RBC Shape on Function are A)High surface-to-volume ratio (Quickly absorbs and releases oxygen) C)Discs form stacks called rouleaux (Smooth the flow through narrow blood vessels) D) Discs bend and flex entering small capillaries (7.8-µm RBC passes through 4-µm capillary) E) All of the above

C

Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false? A) Red cells are biconcave discs. B) Red cells lack mitochondria. C) Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter. D) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen. E) Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux.

A

When plasma oxygen levels are low, hemoglobin releases oxygen, making the carbon dioxide levels elevated. The process of the alpha and beta chains of hemoglobin binding then binding the carbon dioxide is called______________, which is carried to the lungs to be expelled. A) carbaminohemoglobin B) oxyhemoglobin C) deoxyhemoglobin D) hemoglobinuria

C

A hemoglobin molecule whose iron is not bound to oxygen is called _________________. Disassociates easily with oxygen. A) carbaminohemoglobin B) oxyhemoglobin C) deoxyhemoglobin D) hemoglobinuria

B

Each heme unit holds an iron ion in such a way that the iron can interact with an oxygen molecule, forming ______________. Associates easily w/ oxygen A) carbaminohemoglobin B) oxyhemoglobin C) deoxyhemoglobin D) hemoglobinuria

C

Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of A) magnesium. B) calcium. C) iron. D) sodium. E) copper.

D

Consider these results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal? RBCs—5.2 million/µl B) platelets—280,000/µl C) leukocytes—8600/µl D) hemoglobin—10.7 g/100 ml E) hematocrit—44 percent

D

Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is A) excreted by the kidneys. B) excreted by the liver. C) excreted by the intestines. D) recycled to the red bone marrow. E) stored in yellow bone marrow.

E

The yellow color that is visible in the eyes and skin in jaundice results from A) excessive amounts of bilirubin in the plasma. B) extensive breakdown of RBCs. C) destruction of hemoglobin. D) the recycling of hemoglobin. E) All of the answers are correct.

D

Macrophages of the ___________ play a role in recycling red blood cell components. These also detect and remove Hb molecules from ruptured RBC. A) spleen B) liver C) red bone marrow D) all of the above

B

A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because A) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the injury and hemoglobin has a green color. B) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin. C) bilirubin from iron recycling has built-up in the bruise. D) red blood cells are green when they leave circulation. E) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of injury.

B

Each hem unit is stripped of its iron and converted to A) albumin B) biliverdin C) stercobiln D) ferritin

C

Biliverdin is converted to ____________, and released into the bloodstream A) Transferrin B) Ferritin C) Bilirubin D) Hemosiderin

A

If bile ducts are blocked, A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma. B) bilirubin appears in the saliva. C) more hemolysis takes place. D) more red blood cells are produced. E) more white blood cells are produced.

C

Bilirubin binds to ___________ and is transported to the liver for excretion in bile. A) Transferrin B) Ferritin C) Albumin D) Hemosiderin

C

The average life span of a red blood cell is A) 24 hours. B) 1 month. C) 4 months. D) about 1 year. E) many years.

D

What is the key component of the heme molecule that must be recycled and the names of the transport compounds? A) bilirubin B) myeloid tissue C) Transferrin D) Iron

C

___________________ constitutes 99% of formed elements. A) Platelets B) White Blood Cells C) Red Blood cells D) Water

A

Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? A) metalloprotein B) steroid-binding protein C) hormone-binding protein D) apolipoprotein E) transport albumin

E

Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron? A) hemoglobin B) ferritin C) hemosiderin D) transferrin E) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin

E

Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as A) transferrin. B) hemosiderin. C) ferritin. D) hemoglobin. E) hemosiderin and ferritin.

A

Erythropoiesis is stimulated by a kidney-derived hormone called A) erythropoietin. B) bilirubin. C) thrombopoietin. D) colony-stimulating factors. E) plasmin.

C

An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would ultimately result in A) pernicious anemia. B) renal anemia. C) increased erythropoiesis. D) decreased erythropoiesis. E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K.

D

The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except A) anemia. B) high altitude. C) as a consequence of hemorrhage. D) periods of fasting. E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.

C

In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in A) the liver. B) yellow bone marrow. C) red bone marrow. D) the spleen. E) lymphoid tissue.

A

________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation. A) Erythroblasts B) Normoblasts C) Myeloblasts D) Band cells E) Reticulocytes

C

Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood? A) fibrocytes B) platelets C) reticulocytes D) lymphocytes E) neutrophils

B

The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as A) hemocytoblasts. B) reticulocytes. C) band forms. D) myeloid cells. E) proerythrocytes.

C

Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone A) thymosin. B) angiotensin. C) erythropoietin. D) M-CSF. E) renin.

C

______________ is low oxygen level in tissues, which stimulates erythopoiesis. A) hyperchromic. B) normochromic. C) hypoxia. D) normocytic. E) macrocytic.

D

Bill wants to determine his blood type, so he takes a few drops of blood from a puncture wound in his finger and mixes it with various antisera. His blood cells agglutinate when mixed with the anti-A sera but not with the anti-B or anti-D sera. What does this mean? A) Bill could receive type B-negative blood in a transfusion. B) Bill could donate blood to an individual with type O blood. C) Bill is Rh positive. D) Bill’s plasma contains B antibodies. E) Bill’s red blood cells contain the O surface antigen.

D

A person’s blood type is determined by the A) size of the RBCs. B) volume of the RBCs. C) chemical character of the hemoglobin. D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane. E) shape of the RBCs.

B

People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins. C) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins. D) they usually have very strong immune systems. E) they are usually Rh negative.

D

Blood type is identified primarily by A) the Kahn blood group. B) the HB blood system. C) the Rh blood group. D) both the ABO and Rh blood groups. E) the ABO blood group.

C

Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics? A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies. B) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies. D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies. E) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti-B antibody.

B

Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of A) all individuals with type AB blood. B) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. C) all Rh positive individuals. D) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. E) all Rh negative individuals.

C

Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn? A) mother Rh positive, baby Rh negative B) mother Rh negative, baby Rh negative C) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive D) mother type A+, baby type O+ E) None of the answers is correct.

E

Which of the following statements is true regarding the ABO blood types and the Rh blood types? A) Rh disease in the newborn occurs when the mother is Rh+ and the baby is Rh-. B) Rh disease is worse in male offspring because it is a hereditary disease. C) A person with O- blood type has blood cells with O antigens, but no Rh antigens. D) Those with AB blood type can receive blood from other AB people only, no other blood type can be given. E) An Rh- person has to be exposed to Rh+ blood in order to produce anti-Rh.

C

Type A blood has ________ antibodies in the blood plasma. A) anti-A B) anti-D C) anti-B D) anti-Rh E) anti-O

B

Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma are also called ________. A) agglutinins; agglutinogens B) agglutinogens; agglutinins C) T-cells; B-cells D) erythrogens; antibiotics E) serum; plasma

B

Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ A) agglutinins B) agglutinogens C) T-cells D) erythrogens E) serum

C

Antibodies in the blood plasma are also called ________ A) agglutinogens B) B-cells C) agglutinins D) antibiotics E) plasma

A

Opposing antibodies attach to surface antigens, which causes _______________, and then hemolysis. A) agglutination B) agglutinogination C) cellular breakdown D) erythrogenosis E) serumulois

B

Your body ignores surface antigens called _______________. A) agglutinins B) agglutinogens C) T-cells D) erythrogens E) serum

A

When antibodies attack, foreign cells _________________, or clump together. A) agglutinate B) agglutinoginate C) cellular breakdown D) erythrogenis E) serumulois

C

The RBCs of an individual with _____ blood have neither A or B surface antigens. A) A B) B C) O D) Rh+ E) Rh-

D

Type _____blood has both A and B surfice antigens and does not contain anti-A or anti-B antibodies. A) A B) B C) O D) AB E) Rh-

E

The process of the destruction of RBCs so that hemoglobin is liberated. A) Polycythemia B) Leukemia C) Anemia D) Leukopenia E) hemolysis

A

What type of blood can be tranfused into a person with type O blood? A) A or B B) B C) O D) AB E) Rh-

D

All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are A) granular leukocytes. B) phagocytic. C) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes. D) important in coagulation. E) active in fighting bacterial infections.

C

White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes.

E

________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes

B

White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) platelets. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes.

B

A genetically engineered hormone that stimulates the production of neutrophils is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF (Neupogen). C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin.

A

Which of the following is not true of neutrophils? A) less abundant than lymphocytes B) can make hydrogen peroxide C) can exit capillaries D) can destroy bacteria E) attracted to complement-coated bacteria

E

An infected wound contains typically contains A) dead neutrophils. B) cellular debris. C) tissue fluids. D) pus. E) All of the answers are correct.

A

During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) reticulocytes. E) thrombocytes.

E

The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the A) neutrophils. B) monocytes. C) basophils. D) erythrocytes. E) lymphocytes.

B

Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of which blood cells? A) basophils and eosinophils B) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes C) lymphocytes and monocytes D) platelets E) lymphocytes

A

A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) monocytes

E

Fifty to seventy percent of circulating white blood cells are A) monocytes. B) lymphocytes. C) eosinophils. D) basophils. E) neutrophils.

A

Eosinophils function in A) destroying antibody-labeled antigens. B) blood coagulation. C) production of surface antigens for red blood cells. D) antibody production. E) production of heparin.

E

Which of the following is true of eosinophils? A) Granules stain with eosin dyes. B) Allergic patients have many. C) They have bilobed nucleus. D) They constitute about 2 to 4 percent of WBCs. E) All of the answers are correct.

E

Which of the following is true of basophils? A) constitute about 1 percent of WBCs B) granules contain heparin C) granules contain histamine D) attract other defense cells E) All of the answers are correct.

A

Which of the following is not true of monocytes? A) about same size as basophils B) enter tissues and wander C) become macrophages D) are long-lived E) can phagocytize bacteria

C

A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin.

C

Which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood? A) RBCs B) platelets C) antibodies D) lymphocytes E) basophils

C

Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) develop into plasma cells D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals

B

Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) are involved in cell mediated immunity C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals

E

_________________________, or large granular lymphocytes, carry out immune surveillance, the detection and subsequent destruction of abnormal cells, are important in preventing cancer. A) T lymphocytes. B) free and fixed macrophages. C) B lymphocytes. D) neutrophils. E) Natural Killer cells.

E

Identify this cell A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte

B

Identify this cell A) erythrocyte B) neutrophil C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte

C

Identify this cell A) erythrocyte B) neutrophil C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte

B

Identify this cell A) erythrocyte B) lymphocyte C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte

D

Identify this cell A) erythrocyte B) neutrophil C) eosinophil D) basophil E) monocyte

C

Which of the following descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor? A) adheres to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) hormone that regulates white blood cell formation D) kills bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals

D

Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations. A) erythropoietin B) bilirubin C) thrombopoietin D) colony-stimulating factors E) plasmin

C

A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin.

A

A hormone that stimulates production of monocytes is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin.

B

A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin.

D

A hormone that stimulates the production of granulocytes, monocytes, platelets, and red blood cells) A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin.

D

A person whose platelet count is 40,000/µl is suffering from A) thrombocytosis. B) leukocytosis. C) hemocytosis. D) thrombocytopenia. E) leukopenia.

E

Platelets are nucleated cells called _________________. A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) reticulocytes. E) thrombocytes.

A

A person whose platelet count is 1,200,000/µl is suffering from A) thrombocytosis. B) leukocytosis. C) hemocytosis. D) thrombocytopenia. E) leukopenia.

B

The production of platelets, or ___________________, takes place in the red bone marrow. A) thrombocytosis. B) thombocytopoiesis C) hemocytosis. D) thrombocytopenia. E) leukopenia.

C

Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called A) erythroblasts. B) normoblasts. C) megakaryocytes. D) myeloblasts. E) lymphoblasts.

B

One function of platelets is to assist in the A) destruction of bacteria. B) process called hemostasis. C) removal of worn out red blood cells. D) immune response during an infection. E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.

B

One function of platelets is to assist in the A) destruction of bacteria. B) release of chemicals for clotting process C) removal of worn out red blood cells. D) immune response during an infection. E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.

C

One function of platelets is to assist in the A) destruction of bacteria. B) removal of worn out red blood cells. C) reducing the size of a break in the vessel wall D) immune response during an infection. E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.

D

One function of platelets is to assist in the A) destruction of bacteria. B) removal of worn out red blood cells. C) immune response during an infection. D) forming a temporary path in the walls of damaged blood vessels E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.

A

Which of the following descriptions best matches the function of platelets? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals

C

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

B

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to each other. B) activation of Factor XII by platelet factors. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

D

The common pathway of coagulation begins with the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. D) activation of Factor X, production of prothrombin activator. E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

B

Endothelial cells release ________ that stimulate smooth muscle contraction and accelerate the repair process. A) platelets B) endothelins C) histamines D) CSFs E) heparins

B

A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is A) albumin alpha. B) fibrinogen. C) immunoglobulin A. D) metalloprotein D. E) lipoprotein C.

D

________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. A) Vascular spasm B) The platelet phase C) Retraction D) Coagulation E) Fibrinolysis

C

The process of fibrinolysis A) activates fibrinogen. B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together. C) dissolves clots. D) forms emboli. E) forms thrombi.

B

The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is A) thrombin. B) plasmin. C) heparin. D) fibrinase. E) phosphokinase.

A

Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic

B

Plasma thromboplastin is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic

D

The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombinase.

E

Activated Factor x activates a complex called _________ activator which converts the proenzyme ____________ into the enzyme thombrin. A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombin

D

The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombinase.

A

Plasminogen is converted to its active form by an enzyme called A) tissue plasminogen activator. B) papain. C) fibrinolysin. D) prothrombin. E) polymerase.

C

As repairs are processed, the clot gradually disolves in a process called A) Leukospoiesis B) Hemopoiesis C) Fibrinolysis D) Fibrinogenisis