Chapter 1-6 Exam

A physician authorizes you, via two-way radio, to help a patient administer prescribed nitroglycerin. What type of medical direction is this?
Select one:
A. Standing order
B. Off-line medical control
C. Online medical control
D. Indirect medical control

C. Online medical control

You arrive at the scene of a domestic dispute. You can hear yelling and the sound of breaking glass from inside the residence. You should:
Select one:
A. immediately gain access to the patient.
B. carefully enter the house and call law enforcement.
C. tell the patient to come outside so you can provide care.
D. retreat to a safe place until the scene has been secured.

D. retreat to a safe place until the scene has been secured.

Being aware and thoughtful about the needs of your patient describes the attribute of:
Select one:
A. empathy.
B. integrity.
C. sympathy.
D. patient advocacy.

A. empathy.

A self-motivated AEMT should be able to:
Select one:
A. perform or delegate multiple tasks ensuring efficiency and safety.
B. discover problems and solve them without someone else’s direction.
C. use his or her persona to project a sense of trust and professionalism.
D. perform consistently and firmly adhere to a code of honest behavior

B. discover problems and solve them without someone else’s direction.

Authorization to use an automatic transport ventilator when transporting a patient requires which minimum level of EMS provider?
Select one:
A. EMR
B. EMT
C. AEMT
D. Paramedic

B. EMT

AEMT training follows National EMS Standards, as recommended by the:
Select one:
A. National Registry of EMTs.
B. National Association of EMTs
C. State EMS office or EMS regulatory agency.
D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration

D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration

In most states, a person may be denied certification as an AEMT if he or she:
Select one:
A. has been convicted of a felony.
B. is older than 45 years of age.
C. is not a certified firefighter.
D. is certified in another state.

A. has been convicted of a felony.

In an enhanced 9-1-1 system:
Select one:
A. the dispatcher is able to provide the caller with emergency instructions.
B. there is a single person whose sole responsibility is to dispatch EMS.
C. a call made from a cellular phone can be tracked within a 10-mile area.
D. the phone number from which the call is made is displayed on a screen.

D. the phone number from which the call is made is displayed on a screen.

The function of the National Registry of EMTs is to:
Select one:
A. set training standards for each EMS provider level.
B. provide continuing education for EMS providers.
C. mandate that EMS providers recertify every year.
D. assess competence through a valid testing process.

D. assess competence through a valid testing process.

An AEMT administers the wrong medication to a patient. This is an example of:
Select one:
A. a rules-based error.
B. a skills-based error.
C. a knowledge-based error.
D. an administrative error.

C. a knowledge-based error.

To become a licensed AEMT, a candidate must:
Select one:
A. be capable of lifting and carrying at least 150 pounds.
B. successfully complete a healthcare provider CPR course.
C. have been a licensed EMT for a period of at least 3 years.
D. obtain permission from the state in which he or she will function.

B. successfully complete a healthcare provider CPR course.

An EMS system’s primary service area (PSA) is the area where:
Select one:
A. all initial and continuing EMS education must be offered.
B. the system is responsible for the provision of emergency care.
C. the medical director allows personnel to exceed their scope of practice.
D. communication via two-way radios or cellular phones operate optimally.

B. the system is responsible for the provision of emergency care.

Which of the following scenarios involves an ALS skill?
Select one:
A. Applying an AED and performing CPR.
B. Administering oxygen and infusing IV fluids.
C. Inserting an oral airway and suctioning the mouth.
D. Administering aspirin to a patient with chest pain.

B. Administering oxygen and infusing IV fluids.

When managing any patient, the AEMT should:
Select one:
A. focus exclusively on the patient’s medical needs.
B. reassure the patient that everything will be alright.
C. maintain a nonjudgmental and compassionate attitude.
D. function beyond his or her scope of practice in critical situations.

C. maintain a nonjudgmental and compassionate attitude.

An AEMT is trained and generally authorized to perform all of the following interventions EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. intravenous therapy.
B. insertion of multilumen airways.
C. pediatric intraosseous insertion.
D. interpretation of cardiac rhythms.

D. interpretation of cardiac rhythms.

Which of the following is NOT a standard licensure requirement for the AEMT?
Select one:
A. Completion of an NREMT-developed AEMT course.
B. Possession of a valid and current driver’s license.
C. Successful completion of a state-approved AEMT exam.
D. Proof of immunization against communicable diseases.

A. Completion of an NREMT-developed AEMT course.

All of the following are roles and responsibilities of the AEMT, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. performing an accurate patient assessment.
B. correcting immediately life-threatening problems.
C. forming a clinical impression and initiating care.
D. providing definitive care for the patient’s condition

D. providing definitive care for the patient’s condition

Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?
Select one:
A. Educating the public regarding the use of helmets and seat belts
B. Constructing a guardrail to prevent an accident from occurring
C. Advocating childhood vaccinations following CDC guidelines
D. Placing childproof locks on cabinets that contain harmful chemicals

A. Educating the public regarding the use of helmets and seat belts

The recognition by one state of another state’s EMS licensure is called:
Select one:
A. reciprocity.
B. state compliance.
C. national registration.
D. grandfathering

A. reciprocity.

Even with an EMS certification, your ability to function as an AEMT is governed locally by the:
Select one:
A. State health department.
B. County health department.
C. EMS system’s medical director.
D. EMS system’s chief paramedic.

C. EMS system’s medical director.

When assisting with the delivery of a baby, the minimum standard precautions you should take include:
Select one:
A. gloves, mask, and gown.
B. gloves, mask, gown, and eye protection.
C. mask, gown, and thorough handwashing.
D. eye protection, gloves, and a HEPA respirator.

B. gloves, mask, gown, and eye protection.

Physical signs that indicate an emotionally disturbed patient may become violent include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. inability to sit still.
B. large physical stature.
C. bizarre speech patterns.
D. tense or rigid posture.

B. large physical stature.

Which of the following personnel are typically NOT involved in a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)?
Select one:
A. Peer counselors
B. Mental health professionals
C. Workers directly involved in the incident.
D. Supervisors of those involved in the incident.

D. Supervisors of those involved in the incident.

You are assessing a seriously ill patient when he suddenly becomes very angry and starts yelling at you. After ensuring your own safety, you should:
Select one:
A. remain tolerant and avoid becoming defensive.
B. take the patient’s anger as a personal attack.
C. immediately disengage from care of the patient.
D. ask the patient if he has any psychiatric problems.

A. remain tolerant and avoid becoming defensive.

You are dispatched for a young male who, according to witnesses, is "not acting right." The patient is found sitting on the ground outside of a grocery store, rocking back and forth. He has blood on his arm from an apparent wound to his wrist. You should:
Select one:
A. quickly make contact with him and control the bleeding from his wrist.
B. talk to him as you approach him, but be prepared for him to turn violent.
C. ask the patient to stand up so you can assess his balance and coordination.
D. recognize that his movements are purposeful and do not suggest violence.

B. talk to him as you approach him, but be prepared for him to turn violent.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the family’s reaction to the death of a loved one who had an extended or terminal illness?
Select one:
A. They often feel relieved that the illness is over.
B. They initially express guilt but then experience relief.
C. They usually seek immediate care because of severe guilt.
D. They rarely blame themselves because of the patient’s death.

A. They often feel relieved that the illness is over.

Which of the following is the MOST effective way of preventing the spread of disease?
Select one:
A. Keep your immunizations current.
B. Always wear gloves when assessing a patient.
C. Thoroughly wash your hands after every patient contact.
D. Take prophylactic antibiotics after treating of all patients

C. Thoroughly wash your hands after every patient contact.

A critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) should ideally be held within how many hours after the incident?
Select one:
A. 2-3 hours
B. 6-12 hours
C. 12-24 hours
D. 24-72 hours

D. 24-72 hours

Which of the following foods provides the safest, most reliable source for long-term energy production?
Select one:
A. Fish
B. Pasta
C. Cheese
D. Chicken

B. Pasta

Which of the following general statements regarding infectious diseases is correct?
Select one:
A. All contagious diseases are infectious.
B. All infectious diseases are contagious.
C. Pneumonia is a contagious disease process.
D. Hepatitis B is infectious, but not contagious.

A. All contagious diseases are infectious.

Common hazards associated with a structural fire include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. carbon dioxide deficiency.
B. high ambient temperatures.
C. decreased oxygen availability.
D. the risk of building collapse.

A. carbon dioxide deficiency.

You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement "He has a gun!" At this point, you should:
Select one:
A. call for law enforcement and carefully enter the apartment.
B. carefully enter the apartment to assess for injured patients.
C. stay where you are and ask the person to drop the weapon.
D. retreat immediately and call for law enforcement assistance

D. retreat immediately and call for law enforcement assistance

Patients who have developed partial immunity to a particular disease:
Select one:
A. are protected against new infections, but not from germs that remain in the body from the initial illness.
B. are highly susceptible to new infections, but are immune to the germs that caused the initial illness.
C. are not protected against new infections or from the germs that remain in the body from the initial illness.
D. are carriers of the disease, but cannot transmit it to another person unless their immune system is weak

A. are protected against new infections, but not from germs that remain in the body from the initial illness.

Which of the following is NOT a typical warning sign of stress?
Select one:
A. Isolation
B. Increased appetite
C. Inability to concentrate
D. Irritability toward coworkers

B. Increased appetite

Which of the following scenarios is an example of exposure via indirect contact?
Select one:
A. HIV is transmitted to from one person to another through sexual contact.
B. A patient coughs up droplets of blood into the AEMT’s eyes and mouth.
C. An AEMT is stuck with a needle that she used to start an IV on a patient.
D. An injured patient bleeds into an uncovered cut on the AEMT’s forearm.

C. An AEMT is stuck with a needle that she used to start an IV on a patient.

Which of the following physiologic responses is common during an acute stress reaction?
Select one:
A. Decreased respirations
B. Pupillary constriction
C. Bradycardia and hypotension
D. Increased blood glucose levels

D. Increased blood glucose levels

Which of the following statements regarding rescue breathing and disease transmission is correct?
Select one:
A. The pocket face mask with one-way valve provides better rescuer protection than the bag-mask device
B. Although disease transmission is unlikely, mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing is rarely necessary in the field
C. The risk of disease transmission to the rescuer is higher when performing rescue breathing on older patients
D. There are numerous documented cases of disease transmission following mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing

B. Although disease transmission is unlikely, mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing is rarely necessary in the field

Warning signs of stress include which of the following?
Select one:
A. Indecisiveness
B. Increased appetite
C. Increased sexual drive
D. Willingness to work extra shifts

A. Indecisiveness

What is the difference between cover and concealment?
Select one:
A. Cover provides protection by hiding behind bushes.
B. Cover will not adequately protect you from hostile fire.
C. Cover involves the use of an impenetrable barrier.
D. Cover is the least preferred method of personal protection.

C. Cover involves the use of an impenetrable barrier.

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken, and power lines are lying across the car. The driver of the car is responsive, but reporting neck pain. You should:
Select one:
A. don rubber gloves and rapidly extricate the driver.
B. remove the wires from the car and continue the extrication.
C. mark off a danger zone around the car and downed lines.
D. ask the driver to carefully get out of the car and walk to the ambulance.

C. mark off a danger zone around the car and downed lines.

In which of the following situations would the AEMT have a legal duty to act?
Select one:
A. At all times, whether you are on duty or off duty.
B. Arriving at a motor-vehicle crash outside your jurisdiction.
C. You initiate CPR on a young child outside of your jurisdiction.
D. Encountering a man in cardiac arrest while you are off duty.

C. You initiate CPR on a young child outside of your jurisdiction.

You respond to the home of a 75-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest. The family states that the patient is terminally ill and has an advance directive; however, they are unable to locate it. How should you manage this situation?
Select one:
A. Begin CPR and contact medical control.
B. Honor the family’s wishes and call the coroner.
C. Initiate full resuscitative measures and transport promptly.
D. Allow the family to locate the document and then decide on further action.

A. Begin CPR and contact medical control.

Which of the following scenarios is MOST consistent with abandonment?
Select one:
A. You give a verbal report to the charge nurse in the emergency department.
B. A report is given to a hospital clerk because you must respond to another call.
C. A paramedic assumes care of a critical cardiac patient from an AEMT.
D. Emergency medical responders provide an AEMT with a patient’s vital signs.

B. A report is given to a hospital clerk because you must respond to another call.

In most states, a minor can be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to emergency care and transport if he or she is:
Select one:
A. in the armed forces.
B. at least 16 years old.
C. living with his or her parents.
D. in possession of a valid driver’s license.

A. in the armed forces.

Which of the following circumstances would require a written release of confidential information from the patient?
Select one:
A. Communication with medical control about patient care issues.
B. Legally mandated reporting of incidents such as abuse and rape.
C. Family members wanting information about an adult patient.
D. Information required so that an insurance company can process a claim.

C. Family members wanting information about an adult patient.

Which of the following information is NOT considered confidential?
Select one:
A. Patient history
B. Treatment provided
C. Assessment findings
D. The time of dispatch

D. The time of dispatch

You respond to a call for a 56-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea. He asks you to take him to a local community hospital. What type of consent has this patient given to you?
Select one:
A. Expressed consent
B. Implied consent
C. Informed consent
D. Passive consent

A. Expressed consent

Which of the following patients has the legal right to refuse treatment?
Select one:
A. Confused 17-year-old male with hypoglycemia
B. Disoriented 60-year-old male with a possible stroke
C. Responsive and alert 45-year-old male with chest pressure
D. Responsive and alert 15-year-old male with abdominal pain

C. Responsive and alert 45-year-old male with chest pressure

The absence of a pulse and breath sounds are NOT adequate in declaring death in patients who:
Select one:
A. also have rigor mortis.
B. have terminal cancer.
C. were acutely poisoned.
D. have massive trauma

C. were acutely poisoned.

You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene involving a critically injured patient. The scene is safe. Your FIRST priority is to:
Select one:
A. preserve potential evidence.
B. wait for a crime scene investigation team.
C. contact medical control for guidance.
D. provide emergency care to the patient.

D. provide emergency care to the patient.

In most states, the AEMT has a legal obligation to report:
Select one:
A. injury to a minor during a high school sporting event.
B. an older patient who fell in a nursing home bathroom.
C. a man who was shot during an attempt to rob a bank.
D. inadvertent overdose by a patient with bipolar disorder.

C. a man who was shot during an attempt to rob a bank.

During transport of a patient with a possible fractured arm, you come upon a major car accident involving multiple patients. Your patient is responsive, alert, and has stable vital signs. What should you do?
Select one:
A. Quickly triage the patients and wait for other ambulances to arrive at the scene.
B. Radio the dispatcher to send ambulances to the scene and continue transport
C. Ask a bystander to stay with your patient as you and your partner begin triage.
D. Notify the dispatcher of the major accident once you have arrived at the hosp

B. Radio the dispatcher to send ambulances to the scene and continue transport

You and your team attempted to resuscitate a young male who hung himself in his garage. Despite your best efforts, the patient did not survive. When the medical examiner arrives at the scene, you should:
Select one:
A. advise the medical examiner that he or she cannot examine the body without your medical director’s permission.
B. provide information to the medical examiner, such as the position in which the patient was found upon your arrival.
C. allow the patient’s family to spend some time with the body before the medical examiner begins his or her duties.
D. remove any airway adjuncts from the patient before the medical examiner begins his or her examination of the patient.

B. provide information to the medical examiner, such as the position in which the patient was found upon your arrival.

A male patient is reporting crushing chest pain. Prior to performing an invasive procedure on him, you must:
Select one:
A. ensure that he is responsive and alert.
B. ask him if he has ever had such a procedure.
C. carefully explain the procedure to the patient’s family.
D. explain the risks and benefits of the procedure to the patient.

D. explain the risks and benefits of the procedure to the patient.

When writing your patient care form involving an acutely intoxicated patient, you document that the patient was "drunk." What does this statement constitute?
Select one:
A. Libel
B. Slander
C. Negligence
D. Breach of confidentiality

A. Libel

En route to the hospital, a diabetic patient regains partial consciousness. He tells you that he feels fine and that he does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should:
Select one:
A. cease further treatment and have the patient sign a release.
B. assess whether the patient’s mental condition is impaired.
C. tell that patient that once care is started it cannot be stopped.
D. request that the police place the patient under protective custody.

B. assess whether the patient’s mental condition is impaired.

While treating a patient with severe hypoxia and inadequate breathing, an AEMT applies low-flow oxygen with a nasal cannula. Upon arrival at the hospital, the patient develops respiratory arrest. What is this situation an example of?
Select one:
A. Abandonment
B. Gross negligence
C. Exceeding the scope of practice
D. Following the current standard of care

B. Gross negligence

While treating a responsive and alert patient with a serious illness, your partner starts an IV, but does not explain the procedure to the patient. Your partner’s inaction MOST accurately constitutes:
Select one:
A. assault.
B. battery.
C. an unethical act.
D. gross negligence.

B. battery.

You arrive at the scene of a 34-year-old woman with abdominal pain. As you begin talking to the patient, she extends her arm to allow your partner to take her blood pressure. What type of consent is this patient’s action consistent with?
Select one:
A. Implied consent
B. Informed consent
C. Passive consent
D. Expressed consent

D. Expressed consent

While treating a man with severe chest pain and difficulty breathing, you are presented with a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order by the patient’s wife. She tells you that her husband does not want any "heroics." How should you manage this situation?
Select one:
A. Provide supportive care and transport the patient
B. Obtain a signed refusal from the wife and return to service
C. Provide no treatment and transport the patient to the hospital
D. Be prepared to start CPR if the patient develops cardiac arrest

A. Provide supportive care and transport the patient

In addition to serving as legal documentation, which of the following is the MOST critical function of the patient care report (PCR)?
Select one:
A. It serves as an educational tool.
B. It ensures continuity of patient care.
C. It is used to gather statistical data.
D. It is used for insurance purposes.

B. It ensures continuity of patient care.

General guidelines for effectively communicating information over the radio include:
Select one:
A. ensuring that other radios on the same frequency are turned up.
B. holding the microphone no more than 1" away from your mouth.
C. avoiding providing a preliminary diagnosis of the patient’s condition.
D. using words such as "yes" or "no," instead of "affirmative" or "negative."

C. avoiding providing a preliminary diagnosis of the patient’s condition.

Radios that operate at 800 MHz allow for trunking, which is the:
Select one:
A. ability of multiple agencies to share frequencies.
B. ability to use multiple radios when transmitting.
C. operation of a dedicated line for emergency use.
D. only method of communication approved by the FCC.

A. ability of multiple agencies to share frequencies.

When you talk with a patient, you should try to position yourself:
Select one:
A. at the patient’s feet.
B. at the patient’s head.
C. standing above the patient.
D. at a level lower than the patient’s

D. at a level lower than the patient’s

You are caring for a patient with a possible myocardial infarction. When communicating with medical control, you are able to speak to the physician and send an ECG tracing at the same time. What type of radio system is required to do this?
Select one:
A. Uniplex system
B. Trunking system
C. Simplex system
D. Full duplex mode

D. Full duplex mode

A concise and well-organized radio report to the hospital is MOST beneficial because it:
Select one:
A. facilitates the dispatcher’s documentation of the event.
B. allows the hospital to allocate the appropriate resources.
C. prevents you from being accused of improper patient care.
D. prevents an unnecessarily lengthy exchange of information.

B. allows the hospital to allocate the appropriate resources.

Ethnocentrism is defined as:
Select one:
A. consciously forcing your cultural values onto another person because you believe your values are better.
B. embracing the cultural values and beliefs of another person, even if they go against what you were taught.
C. intentionally providing substandard medical care to a person whose cultural values are different from yours.
D. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.

D. considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.

Any radio hardware that contains a transmitter and receiver and is located in a fixed location is called a:
Select one:
A. repeater.
B. base station.
C. dedicated line.
D. UHF receiver.

B. base station.

A 79-year-old female is complaining of shortness of breath. When you ask her when this episode began, she does not answer you. You should:
Select one:
A. speak clearly and repeat the question.
B. immediately ask a family member.
C. move closer and speak loudly in her ear.
D. ask a different question about her problem.

A. speak clearly and repeat the question.

Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?
Select one:
A. "Does anything make your shortness of breath better or worse?"
B. "Does your shortness of breath get worse when you lie down?"
C. "Have you been seen by a physician for your abdominal pain?"
D. "Do you have a history of heart problems, diabetes, or stroke?"

A. "Does anything make your shortness of breath better or worse?"

While en route back to your station after delivering a patient to the hospital, you realize that you made an error on the front page of the patient care report. You should:
Select one:
A. completely mark through the error and write the correct information beside it.
B. place an "X" across the error and write an addendum to include the correction.
C. mark through the error with a black marker to ensure it is completely covered.
D. draw a straight line through it with different colored ink and date and initial it.

D. draw a straight line through it with different colored ink and date and initial it.

Which of the following functions would an emergency medical dispatcher (EMD) perform?
Select one:
A. Translating for a non-English speaking caller
B. Instructing a caller how to perform CPR
C. Providing medical direction to the EMT-I
D. Encouraging a caller to proceed to the hospital

B. Instructing a caller how to perform CPR

Which of the following statements regarding patient refusals is correct?
Select one:
A. A court of law must approve all patient refusals for care.
B. Only a law enforcement officer can witness a signed refusal.
C. You cannot legally mandate that a patient sign a refusal form.
D. At least three witnesses are needed when a patient refuses care.

C. You cannot legally mandate that a patient sign a refusal form.

During your assessment of a patient, you ask, "Can you tell me more about your problem? I am listening." Which communication tool is this an example of?
Select one:
A. Reflection.
B. Confrontation.
C. Clarification.
D. Facilitation.

D. Facilitation.

An 82-year-old male with a possible hip fracture becomes extremely irritable and confused during your assessment. You should:
Select one:
A. ask the family if he has Alzheimer’s disease.
B. assume that he is experiencing cerebral hypoxia.
C. attribute his behavior to age-related dementia.
D. tell the patient that his behavior is unacceptable.

B. assume that he is experiencing cerebral hypoxia.

Which of the following is the MOST significant consequence of inappropriate documentation?
Select one:
A. Subsequent patient care that is inappropriate
B. Revocation of your EMS certification or license
C. Punitive action by your supervisor or medical director
D. Litigation due to negligence or slanderous comments

A. Subsequent patient care that is inappropriate

How does an enhanced 9-1-1 system function?
Select one:
A. It is a universal number that can be accessed from any phone.
B. It provides the caller with initial emergency care for the patient.
C. It displays the caller’s information on the dispatcher’s computer.
D. It prevents the dispatcher and the caller from being disconnected.

C. It displays the caller’s information on the dispatcher’s computer.

When communicating with medical control via radio, you should:
Select one:
A. request confirmation for any orders given.
B. use codes or signals to ensure patient privacy.
C. carry out all verbal orders without question.
D. avoid the use of complicated medical terminology.

A. request confirmation for any orders given.

When documenting your assessment of a patient with a headache, you should include pertinent negatives, which are:
Select one:
A. signs that are not consistent with the condition.
B. symptoms the patient had with previous episodes.
C. findings associated with other disease processes.
D. expected signs or symptoms that are not present.

D. expected signs or symptoms that are not present.

When assessing an anxious 55-year-old male with chest pain, you should:
Select one:
A. avoid eye contact to minimize anxiety.
B. use medical terms to ensure he understands.
C. avoid unpleasant answers to his questions.
D. ask him how he prefers to be addressed.

D. ask him how he prefers to be addressed.

Which of the following substances are vital in the function of the sympathetic nervous system?
Select one:
A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
B. Aldosterone and dopamine
C. Cortisol and epinephrine
D. Aldosterone and cortisol

A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine

The __________ layer is located at the base of the epidermis, and continuously produces new cells that gradually rise to the surface.
Select one:
A. germinal
B. subcutaneous
C. stratum corneal
D. mucous membrane

A. germinal

The total body water of an average adult is approximately:
Select one:
A. 45%
B. 60%
C. 75%
D. 80%

B. 60%

After the aorta arises from the left ventricle, it first:
Select one:
A. ascends and branches into the thoracic aorta.
B. descends and branches into the abdominal aorta.
C. descends and branches into the iliac arteries.
D. ascends and branches into the coronary arteries.

D. ascends and branches into the coronary arteries.

When asking a patient to supinate his or her hand, you would expect him or her to:
Select one:
A. turn the hand on its side.
B. bend the hand at the wrist.
C. place the hand palm down.
D. place the hand palm up.

D. place the hand palm up.

Compared to the frontal region of the skull, the occiput is:
Select one:
A. anterior.
B. exterior.
C. inferior.
D. posterior.

D. posterior.

The term perfusion is defined as:
Select one:
A. the production of waste products from metabolism.
B. effective exchange of O2 and CO2 in the lungs.
C. adequate circulation of blood to the body’s cells.
D. sufficient removal of waste products from the body.

C. adequate circulation of blood to the body’s cells.

What is the function of a baroreceptor?
Select one:
A. Monitoring changes in arterial pressure.
B. Sensing changes in arterial oxygen levels.
C. Monitoring the pH of cerebrospinal fluid.
D. Sensing the arterial level of carbon dioxide.

A. Monitoring changes in arterial pressure.

The femoral artery gives rise to all of the following arteries, EXCEPT the:
Select one:
A. iliac arteries.
B. popliteal arteries.
C. dorsalis pedis arteries.
D. posterior tibial arteries.

A. iliac arteries.

To prevent the tissues from becoming edematous, the __________ system must absorb excess fluid and return it to the central venous circulation.
Select one:
A. lymphatic
B. endocrine
C. hematologic
D. cardiovascular

A. lymphatic

The movement of a substance against a concentration or gradient, such as the cell membrane, is called:
Select one:
A. osmosis.
B. crenation.
C. active transport.
D. facilitated diffusion.

C. active transport.

During your assessment of a trauma patient, you note the presence of bilateral femur fractures. This means that:
Select one:
A. one femur is broken.
B. both femurs are broken.
C. one femur is broken in two places.
D. the lateral aspect of one femur is broken.

B. both femurs are broken.

In the pregnant patient, the secretion of oxytocin causes:
Select one:
A. uterine smooth muscle contraction.
B. uterine smooth muscle relaxation.
C. decreased milk production in the breasts.
D. thickening of the uterine wall for implantation.

A. uterine smooth muscle contraction.

Topographically, the term distal means:
Select one:
A. near the trunk.
B. near a point of reference.
C. away from the trunk.
D. toward the body’s midline.

C. away from the trunk.

What is the cribriform plate?
Select one:
A. Superior surface of the cranial vault that protects the cerebrum.
B. Saddle-shaped depression in the middle of the sphenoid bone.
C. Opening through which the brainstem passes from the cerebrum.
D. Horizontal bone through which the olfactory nerve filaments pass.

D. Horizontal bone through which the olfactory nerve filaments pass.

Which of the following statements regarding type O blood is correct?
Select one:
A. It contains no surface antigens.
B. It contains type A surface antigens.
C. It contains type B surface antigens.
D. It contains both type A and B surface antigens.

A. It contains no surface antigens.

During your assessment of a patient, you note that he is bradycardic, hypotensive, and salivating. These clinical findings suggest:
Select one:
A. sympathetic nervous system stimulation.
B. parasympathetic nervous system stimulation.
C. sympathetic nervous system depression.
D. parasympathetic nervous system depression.

B. parasympathetic nervous system stimulation.

The brachiocephalic artery is relatively short and rapidly divides into the:
Select one:
A. internal and external carotid arteries.
B. brachial artery and the posterior vertebral arteries.
C. right common carotid artery and right subclavian artery.
D. internal carotid arteries and posterior vertebral arteries.

C. right common carotid artery and right subclavian artery.

The germinal layer contains cells that produce pigment granules, which help to produce:
Select one:
A. sweat.
B. sebum.
C. skin color.
D. fatty tissue.

C. skin color.

The __________ nerve innervates the muscles that cause motion of the eyeballs and upper lid.
Select one:
A. optic
B. trochlear
C. oculomotor
D. abducens

C. oculomotor

When communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. deafness and blindness are a normal part of the aging process.
B. most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells.
C. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.
D. the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing.

C. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.

In preconventional reasoning, children:
Select one:
A. make decisions based on their conscience.
B. look for approval from their peers and society.
C. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.
D. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children.

C. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.

The systolic blood pressure of a 65-year-old male or female:
Select one:
A. is typically above 120 mm Hg.
B. is generally regulated with medication.
C. depends on his or her general health.
D. decreases because of the aging process.

C. depends on his or her general health.

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. a loss of respiratory muscle mass.
B. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage.
C. decreased residual volume.
D. increased surface area available for air exchange.

D. increased surface area available for air exchange.

Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age?
Select one:
A. decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels
B. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production
C. increased physical activity, increased food intake, and increased insulin production
D. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels

B. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production

A body temperature of 99.4°F in a 2-year-old child:
Select one:
A. is a low-grade fever.
B. suggests an infection.
C. often causes a seizure.
D. is normal for his or her age

D. is normal for his or her age

Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults?
Select one:
A. The ribcage of an infant is less flexible than an adult’s.
B. An infant’s tongue is proportionately larger than an adult’s.
C. The trachea of an infant is proportionately longer than an adult’s.
D. An infant’s head accounts for less body weight than an adult’s.

B. An infant’s tongue is proportionately larger than an adult’s.

The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately:
Select one:
A. 60 to 100 beats/min.
B. 70 to 120 beats/min.
C. 90 to 140 beats/min.
D. 100 to 150 beats/mi

B. 70 to 120 beats/min.

You suspect that a 75-year-old man has internal injuries after he fell and struck his ribs and abdomen on the corner of a table. When assessing and treating him, it is important to recall that:
Select one:
A. his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury may be impaired by an inability to increase cardiac output.
B. it is not uncommon to observe heart rates in excess of 150 beats/min in elderly patients with internal injuries.
C. blood pressure is usually adequately maintained because the blood vessels of older people can constrict easily.
D. functional blood volume in patients of this age steadily increases due to increased production of red blood cells.

A. his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury may be impaired by an inability to increase cardiac output.

The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of:
Select one:
A. 3 and 4 months.
B. 6 and 8 months.
C. 7 and 14 months.
D. 9 and 18 months.

D. 9 and 18 months.

You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will MOST likely find that she:
Select one:
A. is unable to track your movements with her eyes.
B. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence.
C. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother.
D. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration.

B. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence.

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to:
Select one:
A. blood vessel dilation.
B. a decrease in neurons.
C. meningeal deterioration.
D. shrinkage of the brain

D. shrinkage of the brain

Which of the following describes the Moro reflex?
Select one:
A. When something touches a neonate’s cheek, he or she instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch.
B. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled.
C. An infant’s heart rate decreases secondary to hypoxia because he or she depends heavily on the heart rate to perfuse the body.
D. When the sole of the foot is stroked with a blunt object, the big toe lifts upward and the other toes fan outward.

B. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled.

Within the first 30 minutes after birth, a neonate’s:
Select one:
A. pulse rate decreases to approximately 120 beats/min.
B. respiratory rate increases to around 60 breaths/min.
C. pulse rate increases to between 160 and 180 beats/min.
D. pulse and respiratory rates increase significantly.

A. pulse rate decreases to approximately 120 beats/min.

Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?
Select one:
A. The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min.
B. Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue.
C. Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity.
D. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.

D. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.

Which of the following statements regarding an infant’s vital signs is correct?
Select one:
A. An infant’s heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min.
B. An infant’s normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler’s.
C. By 6 months of age, an infant’s normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg.
D. An infant’s normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month.

B. An infant’s normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler’s.

When considering spinal immobilization of an infant who fell, it is important for the AEMT to remember that:
Select one:
A. in most cases, the infant is able to stretch out his or her arms in time to cushion or slow their fall.
B. infants and small children often land head first because their head accounts for 25% of their body weight.
C. the anterior fontanelles typically does not fuse until the child has reached the age of 18 to 24 months.
D. It is common for infants to land feet first when they fall, resulting in compression fractures of the spine.

B. infants and small children often land head first because their head accounts for 25% of their body weight.

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to care for this child, you must remember that:
Select one:
A. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.
B. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs.
C. the infant’s proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction.
D. an infant’s head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction.

A. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the early adolescent age group?
Select one:
A. Secondary sexual development begins.
B. Muscle and bone growth both decrease.
C. The normal pulse rate steadily increases.
D. The systolic blood pressure decreases.

A. Secondary sexual development begins.

Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct?
Select one:
A. Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer.
B. Women in the middle adult age group typically experience menopause in their late 50s or early 60s.
C. Significant impairments in hearing and vision begin to occur in persons between the ages of 41 and 44 years.

A. Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer.