ap chapter 23-25

TOF. the depth and rate of respiration influence blood levels of hydrogen ion

true

what is not a part of the conducting portion of the respiratory system

alveoli

what is not a function of the respiratory system

sound reception

the terms "upper respiratory system" and "lower respiratory system" are __ categorization of the respiratory system

structural

what region of the pharynx is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

nasopharynx

TOF. the epithelial lining of the oropharynx and the superior larynx (vocal cords) is nonkeratinized stratified squamous

true

terminal bronchioles of the lower respiratory system are lined with

simple cuboidal epithelium

TOF. in general, respiratory zone structures are lined with a thicker mucosa than conducting zone structures

false

exposure to irritants causes mucus production to

increase

TOF. mucous secretions of the respiratory tract include antimicrobial substances such as lysozyme and defensins

true

mucin __ the viscosity of mucus, facilitating the __ of dust and dirt particles

increases trapping

several things happen to inhaled air in a process called conditioning. what is the exception

the air is cooled

the nose contains a single septal cartilage. how many alar cartilages are in the nose

four

TOF. another name for the nasal septum is the turbinate

false

TOF. olfactory receptors located in the superior region of the nasal cavity are stimulated when airborne molecules are inhaled and dissolved in the mucus covering

true

the region of the nasal cavity immediately internal to the nostrils is the __; it contains coarse guard hairs

vestibule

an air passage (valley) beneath a turbinate within the nasal cavity is referred to as a

meatus

what bone does not contain a paranasal sinus

mandible

what structures are used by both the respiratory and digestive systems

oropharynx and larynopharynx

what statement is untrue regarding the oropharynx

it houses the pharyngeal tonsil

into what region of the pharynx do auditory tubes open

nasopharynx

food is normally prevented from entering the nasopharynx by the

elevation of the soft palate

what structure is also known as the "voice box"

larynx

what connects the pharynx to the trachea

larynx

what structures prevents food and drink from entering the trachea, conducts air, and produces sounds

larynx

the larynx is supported by nine pieces of cartilage. what cartilages occur in pairs

corniculate, cuneiform, and arytenoid

the male voice tends to be in a lower range than a female’s voice because men have

longer and thicker vocal folds

pitch refers to the __ of sound waves; pitch is determined by the tension produced by __ laryngeal muscles

frequency intrinsic

at the inferior end of the trachea is an internal ridge of mucosal covered cartilage that initiates a cough reflex when it is stimulated; this structure is the __

carina

what structure connects the larynx to the primary bronchi

trachea

tracheal cartilages provide for __ on the __ aspect of the trachea

rigidity anterior

what prevents the trachea from collapsing

the c shaped cartilaginous rings

what statement is true regarding the location of the trachea

it lies anterior to the esophagus, inferior to the larynx, and superior to the primary bronchi of the lungs

how long is the average trachea

12-14 cm

what type of tissue lines the trachea

pseudo stratified ciliated columnar epithelium

foreign particles

are more likely to lodge in the right primary bronchus

what statement is true regarding secondary bronchi

the left lung has two secondary bronchi and the right lung has three secondary bronchi

another name for the tertiary bronchi is the __ bronchi

segmental

relaxation of the smooth muscle within the walls of bronchioles leads to

bronchodilation

TOF. bronchoconstriction results from relaxation of smooth muscle in the walls of airways

false

what does not belong to the respiratory zone of the respiratory system

terminal bronchioles

alveoli about each other, causing them to appear __ in cross section

polygonal

the most common cell making up the alveolar wall is the

alveolar type 1 cell

alveolar cell that secretes pulmonary surfactant is the

alveolar type 2 cell

phagocytic cells of the alveolus are the

alveolar macrophages

what is not part of the respiratory membrane

plasma membrane of type 2 cells

what is not correct about the left lung

it has an esophageal depression

each lung consists of a number of segments called

bronchopulmonary segments

the hilum of the lung

is an indented area through which the bronchi, pulmonary vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves pass

which of the two lungs is larger and wider

right

TOF. the bronchial circulation is a component of the pulmonary circulation

false

bronchial arteries carry __ blood to the tissues of the lung

oxygenated

parasympathetic innervation to the lungs is from the __ nerves

vagus AKA 10th cranial AKA CN X

activation of sympathetic nerves that innervate lung tissue results in

bronchodilation

on each side of the chest, the __ pleura lines the internal thoracic wall and the __ pleura tightly covers the lung

parietal visceral

the potential space between the serous membranes surrounding each lung is known as the pleural __

cavity

the main function of serous fluid to

lubricate and reduce friction between pleural membranes around the lung

foreign particles that are not filtered out by the respiratory epithelium are

collected by lymph nodes

the lungs remain inflated because

intrapleural pressure is less than intrapulmonary pressure

TOF. the chest wall is anatomically configured to contract inwardly, so that when the thorax is opened surgically its walls collapse

false

organize the items into the proper sequence of events for gas exchange

O2 is drawn into the lungs during inhalation O2 is transported to cells by circulatory system cells use O2 and generate CO2 the circulatory system transports CO2 to the lungs CO2 is exhaled

what places the events in proper order for pulmonary ventilation

brainstem nuclei stimulate skeletal muscles to contract thoracic cavity volume changes dimensional changes in the thorax lead to pressure changes within the lung air flows down its pressure gradient

you may have noticed that after a large meal you have had some difficulty breathing. what explanation is most accurate with regard to this situation

a full stomach impedes contraction of the diaphragm, limiting inhalation

these muscles increase thoracic cavity dimensions by elevating the first and second ribs during forced inhalation

scalenes

these muscles extend from a superior rib inferomedially to the adjacent inferior rib. they elevate the ribs upon contraction, thereby increasing the transverse dimensions of the thoracic cavity during inhalation

external intercostals

contraction of these muscles depresses the ribs, but only during forced exhalation

internal intercostals

according to Boyle’s law, the pressure of a gas __ if the volume of its container increases

decreases

the reason air flows out of the body during expiration is that during that time

intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure

the involuntary, rhythmic activities that deliver and remove respiratory gases are regulated in the

brainstem

what is the name of the column of neurons within the medulla that initiates neural impulses for inspiration and expiration

ventral respiratory group

at rest, a normal person breathes about __ times per minute

12

also known as the pneumotaxic center, this area allows for smooth transitions between inspiration and expiration

pontine respiratory center

when central chemoreceptors detect a drop in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid

medullary respiratory centers trigger an increase in rate and depth of breathing

the carotid bodies contain __ chemoreceptors that respond to changes in __

peripheral blood concentrations oh H+ and O2

where would you find the trachealis muscle

between the esophagus and the trachea

breathing muscles such as the diaphragm are controlled by neurons of the __ nervous system

somatic

what type of receptor initiates the inhalation reflex

baroreceptors

tof. the phrenic and intercostal nerves are made up of primarily of autonomic nerves for smooth muscle control

false

following an automobile accident, a broken rib penetrates into the pleural cavity causing air to accumulate in the space between the visceral and parietal pleura. this condition is known as a

pneumothorax

__ is the amount of air that moves into and out of the lungs with each breath

airflow

airflow is __ related to the pressure gradient and __ related to resistance

directly inversely

tof. histamine release results in increased airway resistance and decreased airflow

true

tof. is all else remains equal, increase in the difference between atmosphere and alveolar pressure results in an increase in airflow

true

pulmonary fibrosis

decreases elasticity, thereby increasing resistance and decreasing airflow

during expiration, relaxation of the diaphragm and external intercostals

increases the pressure in the thoracic cavity

two individuals of the same size have a pulmonary ventilation rate of 6 L/min, but one is breathing 10 breaths/min and the other is breathing 15 breaths/min. how do their alveolar ventilation rates compare

the slower breather has a greater alveolar ventilation rate

an increase in dead space results in

a decrease in alveolar ventilation but no change in pulmonary ventilation

a buildup of fluid in the lungs caused by pneumonia leads to an increase in the

physiologic dead space

the amount of air left in the lungs even after the most forceful expiration is referred to as the __ volume

residual

the amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal inspiration is the

inspiratory reserve volume

the expiratory reserve volume plus the residual volume equals the

functional residual capacity

tof. inspiratory capacity is greater than inspiratory reserve volume

true

percentage of the vital capacity that can be exhaled during a specific time period is known as the

forced expiratory volume

maximum voluntary ventilation is the greatest amount of air that can be

inspired and then expelled in 1 minute

compared to its partial pressure at sea level, what would be the partial pressure of oxygen at an altitude with an atmospheric pressure of only 380 mm Hg

Po2 would be half as much as it would be at sea level

tof. when a partial pressure gradient exists for a gas, it will move from the area of its lower partial pressure to the area of higher partial pressure

false

compared to its partial pressure in the atmosphere, oxygen’s partial pressure in the alveoli is

lower

what has the highest partial pressure of carbon dioxide

systemic cells

because oxygen has a low solubility coefficient in water

it is not easily dissolved in water and requires a steep partial pressure gradient to enter the water

the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the air in the alveoli and blood in the lungs is called

external respiration

what statement accurately describes alveolar exchange of oxygen

oxygen diffuses from the alveolus to the blood because the alveolus has a higher partial pressure of oxygen

the anatomic features of the respiratory membrane that make alveolar gas exchange so efficient are

its large surface area and minimal thickness

an increase in the partial pressure of CO2 causes bronchioles to

dilate

an increase in the partial pressure of oxygen causes pulmonary arterioles to __ thereby altering __ to make gas exchange more efficient

dilate perfusion

as blood travels through a systemic capillary and exchanges gases with systemic cells

partial pressure of oxygen in blood decreases as it goes from arterioles to venules

tof. from moment to moment, the oxygen partial pressure gradient between systemic capillary blood and systemic cells switches: one moment it favors diffusion toward the blood and the next moment it favors diffusion toward the cells

false

what statement accurately describes alveolar and systemic gas exchanges

in alveolar gas exchange oxygen diffuses into the blood, but in systemic gas exchange it diffuses out of the blood

hemoglobin is crucial for oxygen transport in the blood because water has a __ solubility coefficient in water

low

approximately what percent of the oxygen in blood is transported by the hemoglobin of erythrocytes

98%

about 23% of the carbon dioxide in the blood is attached to the __ portion of hemoglobin

globin

tof. most carbon dioxide is transported through the blood as bicarbonate dissolved in plasma

true

what reaction involving CO2 predominates within erythrocytes in the pulmonary capillaries of the lung

HCO-3 combines with H+ to form H2CO3, which dissociates into CO2 and H20

about 70% of the CO2 that diffuses into systemic capillaries

combines with water to form carbonic acid, which then dissociates to bicarbonate and hydrogen ions

in addition to oxygen, hemoglobin also transports

carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions

if someone at sea level is given pure oxygen to breathe, it would cause the oxygen saturation of their hemoglobin

to increase by only a tiny amount

when blood passes through systemic capillaries, the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin changes..

from about 98% to about 75% saturated

an actively contracting muscle will cause local temperature to rise and will produce acidic molecules. warmth and lower pH cause the oxygen hemoglobin saturation curve to shift __ reflecting that hemoglobin releases __ oxygen

right more

tof. hyperventilation leads to hypercapnea

false

what changes in the blood levels of respiratory gases result from hyperventilation

oxygen levels do not change but carbon dioxide levels fall

airway obstruction can lead to hypoventilation, which can cause..

hypoxia and respiratory acidosis

when someone begins to hyperventilate the increased movements of their respiratory muscles __ venous return of blood to the heart

increase

when someone exercises vigorously, their breathing is described as demonstrating..

hypernea, involving deeper but not faster breathing

tof. the main stimulus that drives increased breathing during exercise is a drop in blood levels of oxygen

false

tof. the left primary bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertically oriented than the right primary bronchus

false

tof. depression of the ribs increases the lateral dimensions of the thoracic cavity

false

tof. by following boyle’s law, air flows from a region of lower pressure into a region of higher pressure within the lungs

false

tof. the pulmonary plexus is weblike network of nerve fibers that surrounds the primary bronchi and enters the lungs at the hilum. it consists of both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers

true

tof. prematurely born infants sometimes experience respiratory distress due to inadequate production of surfactant

true

the __ transfer urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder

ureters

what is the correct sequence of organs for the formation of elimination of urine

kidney ureter bladder urethra

what is not a function of the kidneys

regulation of lymphocyte production

the kidneys make the final enzyme for synthesis of the hormone __, that causes increased calcium absorption in the small intestine

calcitriol

tof. during prolonged fasting, the kidneys produce glucose from noncarbohydrate sources

true

in response to low blood __, the kidneys secrete __

oxygen erythropoietin

the average adult kidney weighs about 100 grams and measures about..

12 cm long, 6.5 cm wide, and 2.5 cm thick

in order to accommodate the large liver..

the right kidney is about 2 centimeters inferior to the left kidney

the kidneys are located __ the peritoneum

posterior to

the concave medial border of the kidney is called the __

hilum

from innermost to outermost, the protective layers on the kidney are the

fibrous capsule perinephric fat renal fascia paranephric fat

the fibrous capsule of the kidney is composed of

dense irregular connective tissue

TOF. the paranephric fat is deep to the fibrous capsule of the kidney

false

an adult human kidney typically contains __ renal pyramid

8-15

where are the renal pyramids located within the kidney

renal medulla

list the structures in order that urine flows through them

minor calyx major calyx renal pelvis

the first structure in the kidney to collect newly formed urine is the

minor calyx

extensions of the renal cortex that project into the medulla are known as the renal __

columns

autonomic innervation of the kidney includes..

cranial nerve X and sympathetic nerves from t10-t12

what is not correct regarding the innervation of the kidney

parasympathetic stimulation decreases the rate of filtrate formation

pain from the kidneys is usually referred by the way of the

sympathetic pathways to the t10-t12 dermatomes

tof. sympathetic axons innervate the afferent and efferent arterioles of the kidneys

true

the renal corpuscle is located within the

renal cortex

the thick tangle of capillary loops found within a corpuscle is known as the

glomerulus

tof. the tubular pole of the renal corpuscle is where afferent and efferent arterioles attach to the glomerulus

false

tof. the glomerulus is part of the renal tubule

false

the proximal convoluted tubule is lined with a

simple columnar epithelium with a large surface area

the nephron look makes a hairpin turn within the __ and its __ limb ends at the distal convoluted tubule

medulla ascending

tof. both the proximal convoluted tubule and the distal convoluted tubule reside in the cortex of the kidney

true

what class of nephron is crucially important in establishing a salt concentration gradient in the kidney so that urine concentration can be regulated

juxtamedullary nephrons

cortical nephrons have their corpuscles near the __ edge of the cortex and are the __ common type of nephron

peripheral more

what is not correct regarding nephrons

the renal corpuscle may be located in the renal cortex or renal medulla

how are nephrons, collecting ducts, and collecting tubules related to each other

one nephron drains into one collecting tubule, and several collecting tubules empty into a collecting duct

tof. collecting ducts are larger than collecting tubules

true

tof. type A and type b cells of kidney tubules are types of principal cells

false

what type of distal cell within kidney tubules and collecting ducts are responsive to aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone

principal cells

the juxtaglomerular apparatus is located

near the vascular pole of the renal corpuscle

the main parts of the juxtaglomerular apparatus are the

granular cells and macula densa

stimulation of granular cells by the sympathetic nervous system causes them to

contract

granular cells synthesize and release the enzyme

renin

macula dense cells monitor the concentration of

sodium chloride in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule

tof. macula dense cells signal granular cells to release renin through paracrine stimulation

true

tof. peritubular capillaries are associated with the convoluted tubules, while vasa recta are associated with the nephron loop

true

what is the correct sequence of arteries that a drop of blood would flow through as it entered the kidney and moved toward a glomerulus

renal artery segmental artery interlobar artery arcuate artery interlobular artery

the capillaries of the glomerulus differ from most other capillary networks in the body because they..

drain into an arteriole instead of a venule

an obstruction in the glomerulus would affect the flow of blood into the

efferent arteriole

tof. the pattern of venous drainage in the kidney differs from the arterial supply in that there are no arcuate or segmental veins

false

immediately before blood enters arterioles of the kidney, it travels through small arteries that project peripherally into the renal cortex. these arteries are the

interlobular arteries

as it is leaving the kidney, blood passes directly from the arcuate vein to the

interlobar vein

fluid contained within the lumen of a nephron loop would be considered to be

tubular fluid

in the process of urine formation, first..

filtrate is formed, then tubular fluid, then urine

tof. fluid contained within a minor calyx is called urine

true

place the regions of the nephron in the correct order for the process of urine formation

capsular space of glomerulus proximal convoluted tubule nephron loop distal convoluted tubule collecting duct

urine passes from a papillary duct into a

minor calyx, then to a major calyx, then to the renal pelvis

tof. upon leaving the renal pelvis, urine passes directly into a ureter

true

what steps in the process of urine formation occur in the renal tubule

secretion and reabsorption only

how are the processes of reabsorption and secretion related

materials move in opposite directions: reabsorption moves materials into the blood, whereas secretion removes them from the blood

passive movement of water and solutes from the plasma to the capsular space of kidney corpuscles is a process known as __

filtration

the active transport of solutes out of the blood and into the tubular fluid is called

tubular secretion

the endothelium of the glomerulus is made up of __ capillaries

fenestrated

the basement membrane of the glomerulus is composed of glycoproteins and __ and it restricts the passage of __

proteoglycans plasma proteins

podocytes are cells with foot like processes called pedicels. podocytes are found in the

visceral layer of the glomerular capsule

tof. large proteins and red blood cells normally pass freely through the filtration membrane

false

tof. water and glucose are freely filtered through the filtration membrane of a renal corpuscle

true

generally, negatively charged plasma proteins are

repelled by the negative charge of the filtration memebrane

mesangial cells help keep the basement membrane clean by

engulfing macromolecules caught in its basement membrane

blood pressure in the glomerulus is __ than in other capillaries due to the relatively large diameter of __ arterioles

higher afferent

glomerular hydrostatic pressure is the pressure of

blood in the glomerular capillaries

tof. blood colloid osmotic pressure opposes glomerular hydrostatic pressure

true

the presence of proteins in the plasma tends to

draw fluid back into the glomerulus

the capsular hydrostatic pressure is generally __ than the glomerular hydrostatic pressure; increases in capsular hydrostatic pressure __ the formation of additional filtrate

smaller impede

net filtration pressure is equal to the

glomerular hydrostatic pressure minus the sum of the blood colloid osmotic pressure and capsular hydrostatic pressure

the units for measurement of glomerular filtration rate are

liters per minute

tof. increases in NFP result in increases in GFR

true

if the filtration membrane were made more porous, how would you expect the glomerular filtration rate to change

increase

tof. increases in capsular hydrostatic pressure result in increases in net filtration pressure

false

tof. increases in the levels of plasma proteins result in increases in net filtration pressure

false

sympathetic nervous system influences on glomerular filtration rate are considered

extrinsic

the myogenic mechanism of auto regulation that occurs within afferent arterioles of the kidney is an __ control of GFR

intrinsic

the tubuloglomerular feedback and myogenic mechanisms are both components of renal autoregulation

true

if there is an increase in systemic blood pressure, the resulting stretch of afferent arterioles results in reflexive

vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles to keep GFR normal

the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism responds to an increase in

NaCl concentration in tubular fluid by signaling for afferent arteriole constriction with local chemical messengers

if someone is bleeding severely, the body’s adaptive response is to

increase sympathetic stimulation of the kidney and therefore decrease GFR

sympathetic stimulation causes

granular cells to release renin, which ultimately leads to mesangial cell contraction

sympathetic stimulation of the kidney results in

constriction of afferent arterioles and a decrease in the surface area of the glomerulus

tof. the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide causes an increase in GFR

true

ANP is a hormone that causes

dilation of the afferent arterioles and inhibition of renin release

the hormone ANP is released from the heart and causes the urinary system to

increase urine volume and decrease blood volume

most tubular reabsorption occurs in the

proximal convoluted tubule, where cells have many microvilli

tof. substances that move through epithelial cells for reabsorption are said to undergo transcellular transport

true

substances that are reabsorbed by passing between epithelial cells of the tubular walls undergo __ transport

paracellular

peritubular capillaries tend to exhibit

low hydrostatic pressure and high colloid pressure

the largest possible amount of a substance that can be reabsorbed or secreted across a kidney tubule wall in a given duration of time is known as the

transport maximum

tof. the higher the concentration of a substance in the blood, the greater its transport maximum is

false

tof. generally, the higher a substances transport maximum is, the lower its renal threshold will be

false

the renal threshold of a substance refers to

the plasma concentration of the substance below which it does not appear in the urine

for glucose to be reabsorbed from the tubule lumen, it is transported into the tubule cell by means of a

Na+/ glucose symporter

nutrients such as glucose and amino acids within the tubular fluid

are completely reabsorbed

tof. peptides such as angiotensin are reabsorbed by means of phagocytosis by tubule wall cells. the peptide is then transported back to the blood as a functional molecules

false

proteins that are recaptured from tubular fluid are transported into the luminal membrane by way of

pinocytosis

tof. the reabsorption of both sodium and potassium is carefully regulated

true

generally, a very __ percent of Na+ in the tubular fluid is reabsorbed, and the reabsorption takes place __

high along the entire tubule

aldosterone is a steroid hormone that __ synthesis of Na+/K+ pumps and Na+ channels in principal cells of kidney tubules

stimulates

parathyroid hormone (PTH):

stimulates reabsorption of calcium but inhibits phosphate reabsorption

the primary mechanism of water reabsorption in the kidney is

osmosis through aquaporins

generally, most water reabsorption in a nephron occurs at the

proximal convoluted tubule and is called obligatory water reabsorption

dehydration results in

increased ADH secretion and increased water reabsorption

tof. usually the urine of someone with a high protein diet does not contain any bicarbonate ions, as all of it that is filtered is reclaimed from the tubules

true

someone with a diet that is high in vegetables but low in animal protein is likely to have very active

type B cells, that secrete HCO3- and reabsorb H+

what is a nitrogenous waste product produced from nucleic acid breakdown in the liver

uric acid

what processes does urea undergo within the kidney

it is filtered and can be reabsorbed and secreted

what accurately describes the handling of urea by the kidney

about half of the urea that is filtered is excreted in the urine

tof. both aspirin and morphine are eliminated in the urine

true

pregnancy tests often involve checking the urine for the presence of

human chorionic gonadotropin

the countercurrent multiplier is a system by which the

nephron loop multiplies the concentration of salts in the interstitial fluid of the kidney medulla

the word "countercurrent" within "countercurrent multiplier" refers to the opposite direction of flow of

tubular fluid within the ascending and descending limb of the nephron loop

tof. the countercurrent multiplier is a negative feedback mechanism

false

as blood flows through the vasa recta alongside the ascending limb of the nephron loop, the blood is flowing

deep into the medulla

tof. after the hairpin turn in the vasa recta, the blood within it starts to lose salt and gain water

true

tof. the diffusion of urea out of the distal convoluted tubule is an important part of maintaining the concentration gradient of the renal medulla

false

to test someone’s glomerular filtration rate, the individual is injected with the polysaccharide __

inulin

to measure GFR, an individual’s urine is examined for the concentration of a test substance that they received by injection. how is that test substance treated by the kidney

it is filtered but neither reabsorbed nor secreted

to calculate GFR, the concentration of a marker molecule is measured in both the blood and the urine, and the total volume of urine produced is also measured. which of the following sets of results indicated he highest GFR

high concentration of the marker in the urine, high volume of urine, low concentration of the marker in the blood

tof. the GFR measurement will be directly related to the concentration of inulin in the plasma and inversely related to the concentration of inulin in the urine

false

substances that are both filtered and reabsorbed have a renal plasma clearance that is __ the GFR

lower than

careful measurements of GFR are made by injection of __, but approximations of GFR can be made more simply by measuring renal plasma clearance of __

inulin creatinine

renal plasma clearance..

is the volume of plasma that can be entirely cleared of a substance in one minute

tof. generally, the higher the renal plasma clearance of a given drug, the more frequently the drug must be given in order to be effective

true

tof. glucose and protein are common solutes within urine

false

the normal pH for urine..

ranges between 4.5 and 8.0

normal urine has a specific gravity that is __ than the specific gravity of pure water; dehydration leads to a __ in the specific gravity of urine

higher decrease

tof. the specific gravity of urine is its density compared to that of water, and the more solutes urine has, the higher its specific gravity

true

urine flow from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder is produced by

peristalsis of the ureters

what layer is not found in the wall of the ureter

submucosa

what is the value of transitional epithelium in the urinary system

it allows distension

where in the urinary tract is transitional epithelium found

ureters, urinary bladder, and prostatic urethra

what layer is not found in the wall of the urinary bladder

no exceptions; all layers are found in the wall

what is not correct regarding the urinary bladder

inferior portion of the bladder is called the apex

the muscularis layer of the urinary bladder is commonly called the __ muscle

detrusor

within the urinary system, the storage reflex involves

relaxation of the detrusor muscle and contraction of the internal urethral sphincter

tof. individuals can voluntarily empty their bladder by contracting their abdominal muscles as part of the Valsalva maneuver

true

micturition..

is another name for urination is a reflex triggered by stretch receptors in the urinary bladder requires the opening of two sphincters requires contraction of the muscularis layer of the urinary bladder ALL CHOICES CORRECT

put the portions of the male urethra in the correct order, from the urinary bladder to the exterior

prostatic part membranous part spongy part urethral orifice

tof. sympathetic fibers inhibit micturition

true

tof. internal urethral sphincter is formed by skeletal muscle fibers of the urogenital diaphragm

false

each kidney contains more than a million "functional units" called

nephrons

the ball of capillaries in the renal corpuscle is called the

glomerulus

the juxtaglomerular cells release the enzyme __ when the macula dense cells detect low blood volume or solute concentration

renin

the triangular area within the urinary bladder that is delimited by the openings of the ureters and the urethra is called the

trigone

urination is triggered by a complex sequence of events called the __ reflex

micturition

at which stage of life is the percentage of fluid in the human body highest

infancy

tof. in elderly individuals. 75% of body weight is made up of fluid

false

tof. when comparing two individuals of the same body weight, the one with more muscle and less fat will have a higher percentage of fluid in their body

true

when comparing a lean adult female to a lean adult male, which will most likely have a higher percentage of body fluid

male

fluid imbalances are more common in individuals with a __ percentage of body fluid

low

elderly individuals generally have a __ percentage of body fluid and are therefore __ prone to fluid imbalances

low more

a comparison of the two major body fluid compartments reveals that

two thirds of the total fluid is within our cells and one third is outside our cells

tof. most of the fluid in our body is contained within our cells

true

the plasma of our blood constitutes __ than half of the fluid in our body; plasma is part of the __ fluid

less extracellular

interstitial fluid composes about __ of the body’s extracellular fluid

two thirds

cerebrospinal fluid of the central nervous system and synovial fluid of joint capsules are both examples of

extracellular fluid

when compared to extracellular fluid, intracellular fluid contains

more potassium and more negatively charged proteins

interstitial fluid has a relatively __ concentration of sodium and chloride; the concentrations of ions within the interstitial fluid and blood plasma are very __

high different

what statement accurately describes the permeability to water of the cell membrane and the capillary wall

both the plasma membrane and the capillary wall are permeable to water

drinking a liter of water will cause the osmolarity of blood plasma to

decrease

if someone runs a marathon through a desert while eating pretzels and not drinking water, their plasma osmolarity..

rises and becomes hypertonic to the interstitial and intracellular fluid compartments

tof. as an individual becomes dehydrated, the net movement of fluid in their body is from cells toward plasma

true

when fluid intake equals fluid output, and there is a normal distribution of solvent and solutes in the body’s fluid compartments, fluid __ exists

balance

tof. in order for a state of fluid balance to be achieved, obligatory water loss must equal facultative water loss

false

what type of intake accounts for most of our daily fluid intake

preformed water

aerobic cellular respiration and dehydration synthesis reactions result in

metabolic water intake

ingestion of food results in water..

intake, as food contains some water

water lost through feces is considered __ water loss

sensible, obligatory

facultative water loss is loss that

is controlled by hormone effects on the kidney

tof. insensible water loss is an example of facultative water loss

false

in the condition of volume excess, fluid gain involves

no change in the osmolarity of body fluid

if someone in an accident suffered severe burns as well as hemorrhage, they would be at high risk for

volume depletion

renal failure would likely lead to

volume excess

diabetes mellitus, profuse sweating, and hypo secretion of ADH can each lead to:

dehydration

if a runner drinks too much water before a marathon, they run a risk of water intoxication, also known as

hypotonic hydration

tof. in dehydration, blood plasma becomes hypotonic relative to the body’s cells

false

tof. extreme hypotonic hydration can cause brain cells to swell

true

edema is an example of

fluid sequestration

an accumulation of fluid in one area of the body, such that the fluid is not available for use elsewhere, is known as fluid __

sequestration

blockage of lymphatic vessels or surgical removal of lymphatic vessels increases the likelihood of..

edema, which is an example of fluid sequestration

feelings of thirstiness are brought on by

decreases in salivary secretions and increases in blood osmolarity

decreases in blood pressure turn __ the thirst center of the brain

on

tof. fluid intake causes blood volume to increase

true

the thirst center of the brain is located in the

hypothalamus

researchers have inflated balloons inside the stomachs of experimental subjects and have found that distention of the stomach causes thirst to

decrease

which of the following does not turn off the thirst center of the brain

decreased salivary secretions

tof. changes in blood osmolarity that turn off the thirst center also increase the release of ADH from the pituitary gland

false

when compared with the effects of blood pressure and osmolarity on fluid intake, the effects of saliva and stomach distention are

more immediate but less accurate

tof. angiotensin II, aldosterone, and ADH can help decrease urine output

true

the hormone ANP..

increases urine output and decreases blood volume

tof. a substance that dissociates in water to form cations and anions is called a nonelectrolyte

false

tof. most non electrolytes are covalently bonded organic molecules

true

the molecule HCl is an example of an

electrolyte

to account for their effects on osmotic pressure, the concentration of electrolytes is often expressed in

milliequivalents per liter

when NaCl is added to body fluids it results in the addition of

two solute particles per NaCl molecule and exerts twice the osmotic pressure of the same number of non electrolyte molecules

the most abundant cation within cells is

potassium

the most abundant anion in the extracellular fluid is

chloride

which ion is the principal solute of the ECF and is crucial for neuromuscular and renal function

sodium

how are sodium levels and blood pressure related

increased plasma sodium levels increase water retention, blood volume, and blood pressure

most potassium loss from the body occurs through

urine

when the pH of the ECF decreases, K+ starts to move from the

ICF to the ECF

insulin causes blood plasma levels of potassium to __ by __ activity of the Na+/K+ pumps

decrease stimulating

increases in secretion of the hormone ADH cause sodium concentration in the blood plasma to

decrease

an elevated level of potassium in the blood is referred to as

hyperkalemia

how does the hormone aldosterone influence potassium levels

it increases potassium secretion by the kidneys and decreases potassium blood concentration

calcium hardens bone and teeth, but it levels are carefully controlled throughout the body. low levels of calcium within cells are maintained by

pumps that move calcium out of cells or into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

renin is released from the JG apparatus in response to

low blood pressure or decreased NaCl in the fluid within the distal convoluted tubule

tof. activation of the parasympathetic nervous system triggers renin release from the JG apparatus of the kidneys

false

angiotensin II triggers

vasoconstriction and decreased urine output from the kidneys

angiotensin II causes a

stimulation of the thirst center and increased release of ADH

tof. angiotensin II stimulates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone

true

antidiuretic hormone is synthesized in the __ and released from the __

hypothalamus posterior pituitary

the stimuli that trigger the release of ADH are

low blood pressure, low blood volume, and high blood osmolarity

tof. decreased stretch of baroreceptors within the aorta and carotid arteries results in stimulation of the hypothalamus, this stimulation increases ADH secretion

true

changes in blood osmolarity within capillaries of the hypothalamus are a signal for ADH release. the neurons that are sensitive to these changes in osmolarity are __

chemoreceptors

high levels of ADH cause

vasoconstriction and therefore increases in blood pressure

in the brain ADH __ the thirst center, and in the kidneys ADH causes an increase in water __

stimulates reabsorption

the adrenal gland releases aldosterone in response to

angiotensin II and decreased blood plasma sodium levels

tof. the release of aldosterone is triggered by a decrease in blood plasma potassium levels

false

aldosterone exerts on principal cells of the kidney by causing

increased numbers of Na+/K+ pumps

aldosterone causes kidney tubules to

reabsorb more sodium and water, and secrete more potassium

the stimulus that directly triggers release of ANP is

increased stretch of the heart atria

the hormone ANP causes systemic blood vessels to

dilate, which lowers blood pressure

atrial natriuretic peptide causes __ of afferent arterioles and __ of mesangial cells

dilation relaxation

tof. ANP causes an increase in the loss of sodium and water through urine

true

tof. atrial natriuretic peptide inhibits the release of aldosterone, ADH, and renin

true

tof. fixed acid is also called volatile acid

false

carbonic acid is referred to as __ acid since it is produced from a gas that evaporates quickly

volatile

fixed acids are generally regulated by physiological buffering provided by the

kidneys

tof. metabolic waste lactic acid is considered a volatile acid

false

most of the fixed acid in our body comes from

acid absorbed from the GI tract

a diet richer in animal proteins leads to blood with more

fixed acid

tof. severe diarrhea leads to a decrease in the pH of the blood

true

when blood starts to become too acidic, the kidneys respond by

synthesizing and reabsorbing bicarbonate ions while secreting H+

when blood starts to become more alkaline than normal the renal tubules begin to

secrete bicarbonate while reabsorbing H+ in exchange through type B cells

the process by which the kidneys eliminate excess acid or base is relatively

slow (takes hours to days) but powerful

if someone begins to hyperventilate due to anxiety, the CO2 concentration in their blood decreases; this causes __ in blood pH

an increase

in an individual’s respiratory rate decreases, then blood CO2 levels..

rise, blood H+ levels rise, and blood pH falls

tof. collectively, the renal and respiratory systems comprise the chemical buffering system of the body

false

the amine groups contained within amino acids of proteins can act as weak:

bases

tof. both intracellular proteins and extracellular proteins can act as chemical buffers

true

if a strong acid were to add H+ to the intracellular fluid, the effect would most likely be buffered, as

HPO4 2- would act as a weak base and accept an H+ to become H2PO4-

tof. to buffer the body’s extracellular fluid compartment, dihydrogen phosphate acts as a strong base and prevents acidosis of the plasma

false

tof. the bicarbonate buffering system is the most important buffering system in the extracellular fluid

true

when bicarbonate acts as a weak base and accepts a proton, the molecule __ acid is formed

carbonic

the bicarbonate system is composed of H2CO3 and HCO3-. which statement accurately describes these molecules

H2CO3 is a weak acid, and HCO3- is a weak base

when physiological systems cannot compensate for an acid base disturbance, and the deviation from normal pH becomes more persistent it is referred to as an acid base __

imbalance

if a physiological condition resulted in blood pH reaching 7.2, but then physiological buffering systems brought the pH to 7.4, that increase in pH would be called

compensation

the most common type of acid base imbalance is

respiratory acidosis

respiratory acidosis occurs when the partial pressure of

carbon dioxide rises

emphysema causes a decrease in the surface area of the respiratory membrane and thereby leads to respiratory

acidosis

compared to adults, infants are __ susceptible to respiratory acidosis due to lower __

more residual volume

tof. hyperventilation leads to respiratory alkalosis

true

climbing at high altitude where oxygen levels are insufficient can lead to

respiratory alkalosis

medicines that overstimulate respiratory centers in the brain lead to

respiratory alkalosis

when bicarbonate levels fall due to an accumulation of fixed acids in the body, the result is

metabolic acidosis

tof. excessive intake of alcohol leads to respiratory alkalosis

false

severe diarrhea results in the increased elimination of

bicarbonate ions and therefore causes acidosis

the high metabolic rate of infants puts them at increased risk of metabolic:

acidosis

elevated HCO3- levels brought about by vomiting is classified as

metabolic alkalosis

an individual who consumes many antacids for stomach upset and many diuretics for high blood pressure will be at risk for metabolic:

alkalosis

renal compensation for acidosis results in

urine with a low pH and an elevation of blood bicarbonate levels

renal compensation to a decrease in blood H+ levels is to increase the activity of type

B cells to excrete more bicarbonate

tof. impaired renal function within the elderly elevates their risk for acid base imbalance

true

tof. to compensate for metabolic acidosis the respiratory system increases breathing rate, which lowers the partial pressure of carbon dioxide below normal levels

true

the development of hypoxia can limit the effectiveness of respiratory compensation for metabolic:

alkalosis