|
Explore the current BIOS settings to find the answers to the following questions. |
What brand of processor is installed? -Intel How much memory is installed in the computer? -4096 What is the BIOS version number? -1610 How many hard drives are installed? -3 What is the staus of the integrated NIC? -Enabled Which drive is configured as first in the boot sequence? -Diskette Drive |
|
Which of the following components is necessary to keep the real-time clock running? |
CMOS battery |
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Which of the following components is a non-volatile memory technology for saving system when the computer is powered off? |
EEPROM chips |
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Which of the following components is an example of firmware? |
BIOS/UEFI |
|
Which of the following is a general term for the program that holds system information related to the starting of a computer? |
CMOS |
|
What is the role of the CMOS in a modern computer? |
Saves information about system devices. |
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Which of the following could be detrimental while flashing the BIOS? |
Loss of power |
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Which of the following situations is most likely to require a system BIOS update? |
You are upgrading a processor |
|
When do you need to upgrade the system BIOS? |
Whenever a BIOS update provides functionally that is not currently supported but that is required by the operating system or hardware. |
|
When you boot the computer, it hangs after asking you for the current time and date. What is the most likely problem. |
The CMOS battery has failed. |
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What is the name for the routine that tests the motherboard, memory, disk controllers, video, keyboard and other system hardware? |
POST |
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What technology was designed to replace the BIOS and is a firmware solution for controlling the startup process and loading the computer operating system into memory? |
UEFI |
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Which of the following are improvements over BIOS that are provided by the UEFI? |
-Supports 64-bit firmware device drivers -Supports drives larger that 2.2 TB -Faster startup times |
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For a special project, you have been asked to recommend the lowest profile desktop computers available. You are attempting to put together the specifications for these machines. Which of the following types of cards are attached to the motherboard to allow expansion cards to plug into them instead of the motherboard. |
Riser |
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Which of the following expansion buses are most commonly used for video cards in modern computer systems? |
PCI Express |
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Which of the following expansion buses is most commonly used for devices such as sound cards, modems, and network cards? |
PCI |
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Which expansion bus is best for high-speed, high-resolution, three-dimensional graphics? |
PCIe |
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You are installing an updated driver for a hardware device on your system. A dialog box displays indicating that Microsoft has digitally signed the driver you are installing. What benefits does driver signing provide? (Select two.) |
-The driver file has not been altered -The driver has been tested by Microsoft |
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You have a legacy non-Plug-and-Play device that must be installed under Windows. What interface do you use to manage the configuration of this device after it has been installed? |
Device Manager |
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Which of the following terms describe a PC card that you can insert and remove without rebooting the computer? |
-Hot-Swappable |
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Which of the following expansion buses is most commonly used for devices suh as sound cars, modems, and network cards? |
PCI |
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Which expansion bus is best for high-speed, high-resolution, three-dimensional graphics? |
PCIe |
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A user reports that they are unable to access their Firmware drive after moving the PC from beneath the desk to the top of the desk. What is the most likely cause of this problem? |
Card is not properly seated. |
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Which of the following expansion buses are most commonly used for video cards in modern computer systems? |
PCI Express |
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You are in the process of building a new computer. You would like to configure your computer to use Crossfire to improve performance when playing your favorite game. Which of the following will be part of the configuration process? |
Purchase two identical video cards. |
|
You are in the process of building a new computer. You would like to configure your computer to use SLI to improve performance when playing your favorite game. |
-Purchase a motherboard with two (or more) PCIe x16 slots. -Connect at least one monitor to the graphics card. -Purchase two graphics cards with SLI and similar specifications. |
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You are installing a high-end PCIe x16 video card in a new computer. The video card has connectors for two displays. The card also has dual fans to cool the unit. |
connect a 6- or 8-pin power connector to the video card. |
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A customer wants to add an additional video card to her computer so she can play the latest computer games. Which of the following statements are true of a multi-GPU configuration? |
-For the best performance, both video cards should be identical. -The motherboard should support either SLI or crossfire. |
|
You want to be able to watch and record live TV on your computer. Your computer already has a video card, so you want to purchase an additional card that provides TV tuner input capabilities. |
-Connect the TV input to the tuner card using coaxial cable and F-type connectors. -Purchase a card that supports ATSC. |
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You’ve just installed a new video card in a employee’s Window workstation. When you power the system on and load the OS, everything on the screens looks enlarged and pixelated. You try to change the resolution, but the only available option is 640×480. |
Download and install the latest driver from the video card manufacture’s website. |
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You are building an HTPC (home theater PC) that will be connected to an HDTV. You want to be able to play Blu-ray on the HTPC. Which of the following features should make sure your video card and HDTV support? |
HDCP |
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Match the video card types on the left with the appropriate characteristics on the right. Each video card type is used more than once. |
-Installed in an expansion slot on the motherboard: Dedicated video cards -Have a GPU and a dedicated high-speed video memory bank: Dedicated video cards -Are more powerful and more expensive: Dedicated video cards -GPU is integrated with another hardware component such as a motherboard or CPU: Integrated video cards -Shares system memory for graphic processing: Integrated video cards: Integrated Video cards -Are much cheaper and less powerful: Integrated video cards |
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Your company has decided to hire a full-time video editor. You have been asked to find a system with the level of display quality needed by someone who will be working with video all day. |
-Refresh rate -Resolution |
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You need to connect a monitor that provides an HDMI port and a VGA port to a video adapater in a PC system that uses a DVI-D connector. |
-Use an adapter to connect the monitor HDMI port to the DVI-D connector on the PC. |
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You recently purchased a new sound card and installed it in a free PCI slot in your computer. You plug in your old speakers, but don’t get any sound. You have checked all cable connections and they secure. You have also ensured that the speaker volume is appropriately adjusted and isn’t muted. What should you do next? |
Check the vendor’s Web site for an updated driver. |
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You would like to install Windows on a computer that previously had another operating system installed on it, but you are not sure if the audio card is compatible. The installed audio card is SoundMax D1371 (PCI) card. What should you do? |
Check the manufacturer website for compatibility information. |
|
You have purchased a new plug-and-play sound card that uses a PCI slot. What should you do before installing the device in your windows system? |
-Check the HCL to make sure the device is compatible with the version of windows running on your system. -Download the latest driver from the manufacturer’s Web site. |
|
What is a DB-15 connector on a sound card typically used for? |
-MIDI port -Joystick |
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Which port on a sound card should you connect a non-amplified microphone to? |
MIc In |
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which of the the following features are typically available through TRS ports on a sound card? |
-Microphone in -Speaker out |
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You want to purchase a motherboard that has integrated sound with digital audio output. |
S/PDIF |
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You are building one of your customers a home theater PC (HTPC) to connect to an HDTV and high-definition audio system. The customer is going to be playing mostly Blu-ray movies on the system. |
-S/PDIF -Dolby Digital, DTS support, or SDDS supprt |
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Which component is responsible for converting digital audio into sound that can be played on speakers? |
DAC |
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The PCI sound card in your computer stopped working. You decided to use the motherboard’s integrated sound until you can replace the PCI sound card. After removing the PCI sound card and powering on the computer, you have no sound and the built-in sound card does not show up in Device Manager. |
Edit the CMOS settings and enable the onboard sound . |
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A customer has brought a computer in to be repaired. He said he thinks that the sound card has stopped working because no audio is produced when music, video, or DVD’s are played. |
-Verify that the volume isn’t muted. -Verify that the speakers are plugged into the correct jack and are powered on. |
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Which of the following processor features is used to dynamically reduce power consumption based on current operating conditions? |
Throttling |
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Where should the thermal paste go when installing a processor? |
Between the heat sink and CPU |
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Which of the following actions is not recommended for keeping your computer cool? |
Remove unused expansion card slot covers. |
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You have a system that has been overheating. Which of the following actions will not help to keep the system cool? |
Remove the case side panal |
|
What is the correct order for installing a processor for proper cooling? |
CPU, thermal paste, heat sink, fan |
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Which of the following accurately describes case fans? |
-Create a pressurized system inside the case. -Pull cool air from the front and blow hot air out the back. |
|
Which of the following will ensure optimal system cooling? |
-Keep the ambient temperature below 80F -Bundle cables together and secure unused cables to the case. -Leave space between the case and any walls or obstructions. |
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Which of the following characteristics accurately describe passive heat sinks? |
More reliable than active heat sinks. |
|
Which of the following thermal solutions might you find on memory modules? |
Passive heat sink. |
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Match the cooling system types on the left with the appropriate characteristics and uses on the right. |
-Used for cooling high-end video cards: Active heat sink -Used for cooling high-end gaming computers: Liquid cooling -Has a fan attached to the heat sink: Active heat sink -Used for cooling CPU’s: Active heat sink -Exhausts hot air out of the back of the case: Power supply -Used for cooling memory modules: Passive heat sink. -USed for cooling high-performance systems: liquid cooling -Has no fan attached to the heat sink: Passive Heat sink |
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To which of the following objects should thermal paste be applied? |
CPU |
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You have just finished upgrading the CPU in your desktop system. After running the system for about 10 minutes, the system locks up and automatically restarts. |
-Check the CPU fan power -Make sure the heat sink is properly mounted has thermal. |
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You have a system that has been overheating and shutting off. |
Removing the side panel from case. |
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Which of the following would most likely cause random system lockups? |
Overheated processor |
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Which windows component can be used to display information such as weather forecasts, time, and news headlines on the desktop. |
Gadgets |
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Which component of windows prompts the user for credentials or permission to minimize the dangers of unintended software installations? |
User account control (UAC) |
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Which of the following items are likely to be displayed in the notification Area of a computer running the windows operating system? |
Volume control The current time |
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Which windows tools would you use to browse the file system on drive |
Windows explorer computer file explorer |
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Which operating system(s) include the following features? |
Windows 10 |
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What is the name of the set of features that improves the visual appearance of Windows? these features include, but are not limited to, the following: |
Aero |
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Which of the following is the term used for a set of programs that acts as an interference between the applications that are running on a computer and the computer’s hardware? |
Operating system |
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Which of the following is the name of the core of the operating system that is loaded into memory when the system boots up? This part of the operating system is responsible for |
Kernal |
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You need to find a file that you saved on your computer. You will have to search for it because you don’t remember which directory it was saved in. Which windows feature improves the speed of file searches on your computer? |
Indexing service |
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What would you enter at the command prompt to start a new Bourne-again shell (bash) session? |
Bash |
|
What would you enter at the command prompt on a linux system to display the working directory? |
pwd |
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What would you enter at the command prompt on a linux system to display the IP addresses and the subnet masks assigned to each network interface on a linux system? |
ifconfig |
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What would you enter at the command prompt on a linux system to display a list of files and sub directories that exist within the present working directory? |
ls |
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You are logged in as a user with limited system privileges. You are the Linux system administrator and you have the password to the root user account. Wehn you need to switch to root user to perform administrative tasks, what command would enter at the command prompt? |
su – |
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You want to know more about usage, command syntax, and the options available with Linux ifconfig command. what would you enter at the command prompt to display this information about ifconfig? |
man ifconfig |
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You’re working on a Mac computer that has an issue with a non-responsive application. You need to stop the application using the Force Quit feature. Which of the following keyboard shortcuts can be used to access the force quit feature? |
Command+option+escape |
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Which of the follwoing Mac features is used to launch apps, switch between running apps, access the Trash, and also to access specific folders. |
Dock |
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What is the name of the Mac feature that makes these finger motions available? |
Gestures |
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Mission control is a desktop and windows management utility that is used to access several Mac OS features. Which of the following are Mac features accessed through mission control |
Multiple desktops all windows dashboard |
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While answering Help Desk Calls, a field customer calls and complains that he cannot print to a workgroup laser printer. |
Have You ever rebooted the chose safe mode |
|
Good documentation will: |
Save you time and money in troubleshooting problems. |
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A user sends a print job to a network printer and it prints page after page of random characters. He calls the Help Desk and a Technician discovers that somehow the wrong printer driver had been loaded on the user’s workstation. The technician loads the correct driver, verifies that the system works correctly, and documents the resolution. |
Educate the user as to how the problem was resolved and verify that they are satisfied with the results. |
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You have just installed a new USB card reader in your windows computer. Every time you perform a certain action using the card reader, you get an error message that you’ve never seen before. |
Check the manufacturer’s website for the information about the error. |
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You are responsible for managing client workstations for your company. A frantic user calls you one morning exclaiming that "nothing is working" |
Identify the problem |
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A user reports that her monitor has stopped working. While troubleshooting the issue, you discover a bad video card in the system. You replace the card and connect the monitor cable to the card. |
Test the solution |
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A user reports that he cannot access several network files. After some investigation, you determine that the problem is with a network server. |
Determine if escalation is needed. |
|
A user reports that she can’t turn her computer on. After some investigation, you find the power supply is malfunctioning. |
Create an action plan. |
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A user reports that he is unable to access data on an external hard drive. You investigate the problem and determine that the USB cable connection to the hard drive is damaged. You replace the cable. |
test the solution |
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A user reports that he can’t send print jobs to a specific printer. You go to the user’s computer and reproduce the problem. |
Determine if anything has changed. |
|
A user reports that her system is running slow when saving files. You determine that you will need to upgrade her hard disk. You identify the components that are required and decide to schedule the repair for later that afternoon. |
Perform a backup |
|
Which of the following features should you look for when selecting a vacuum cleaner for your cleaning kit? |
-A vaccum cleaner that blows as well as vacuums -Non-static generating |
|
Which of the following statements about cleaning monitors and display devices is true? |
You should clean the monitor while it is powered off with a lint-free cloth. |
|
Which of the following is most helpful in keeping a computer cool? |
-Vacuum dust from the system regularly -Verify that cooling fans are not circulating air in the wrong directions. |
|
Which of the following are common tools used to physically clean the inside of a computer? |
-compressed air -natural bristle brush |
|
You are trying to help a co-worker order a UPS for each PC in her remote office location. What rating is used to specify the size of a UPS? |
VA |
|
Which of the following devices help protect against temporary, above-normal voltages? |
Surge protector |
|
Besides protecting a computer from under-voltages, a typical UPS also performs which other actions? |
-Conditions the power signal -Protects from over-voltages |
|
Which device type should typically not be plugged into a protected outlet on a UPS unit? |
Laser Printer |
|
A new laptop was delivered to your home and left on the porch while you were at work. It is very cold outside, and you don’t know how long it has been there. You unpack the computer and would like to know if it is working properly. |
Let the computer warm up to room temperature before turning it on. |
|
You need to attach an RJ-45 connector to the end of a Cat 6 UTP cable. Which tool should you use? |
Crimper |
|
You need to trace the route that a Cat 6 UTP cable takes through the ceiling and walls of your building. Which tool should you use? |
Tone Probe |
|
You need to connect the end of a Cat 6 UTP cable to a 110 punch down block. Which tool should you use? |
Punchdown tool |
|
What are looback plugs used for? |
Testing ports by returning output signals as input. |
|
Which tool would you use to grab and lift small objects? |
3 prong holder |
|
Which tool would you use to measure electrical properties such as voltage, amps. and resistance? |
Multimeter |
|
A printer is behaving erratically and you suspect a faulty parallel port. Which tool can you use to test the parallel port? |
Loopback plug |
|
You suspect that the power supply in your desktop PC is failing. You want to use a multimeter to test the power supply. Which multimeter setting should you use? |
DC volts |
|
Which of the following tools is specifically designed to test the DC voltage on a hard disk drive power connector? |
Power supply tester |
|
Which tool would be the best choice to remove and replace the motherboard BIOS chip? |
IC extractor |
|
You are removing screws within a computer, but several have fallen into places you can’t reach. Which tool would help retrieve the small screws? |
Extension magnet |
|
A user called the Help Desk because he’s having trouble downloading new messages from the company’s email server. |
No, the technician used jargon that the user probably didn’t understand. |
|
You are the PC technician for a company. You received the following email from an employee: |
Set up a time where you can sit down with the employee and show him how to complete common tasks. |
|
A user asks you to perform a task that you do not know how to do and is not in the scope of your job duties. |
Explain to the user that his is not a task you can perform, but you will do your best to contact someone who can perform the task. |
|
While on a service call at a customer site, you are discussing the problem with the customer when your cell phone rings. You check the caller ID, and you see the call is related to parts you ordered for another customer. |
Ask the customer if they mind if you take the call, and then step into the hallway to briefly talk on the phone. |
|
As a PC technician, what are the best actions to take if you are late to an appointment? |
-Give a realistic time frame for your arrival -Contact the customer and apologize |
|
You have responded to a call from a customer who is having problems with his computer. After troubleshooting the problem , you discover the switch on the power strip was off. After switching it on, all of the components and their functionality return to normal. |
"I found this power strip in the off position. Now that it’s on, it looks like everything is working. It appears as though that was the problem. Can you confirm that the problem has been resolved?" |
|
You are the PC technician for a company. An employee has gone to a meeting while you fix the computer in her office. she accidentally left a report open next to her computer which states that a friend of yours in accounting will be submitted for review if their poor work performance continues. |
Ignore the paper and tell no one of its contents |
|
You are a PC technician for a company. An employee needs you to install some software on his computer over his lunch break. When you log onto the computer, you notice the employee’s desktop has so many shortcuts and files that you can even see the desktop background. |
install the software and leave the employee’s computer exactly how you found it. |
|
An employee demands that she needs more RAM for her computer in order to complete her work tasks, but you know that her department isn’t budgeted for new equipment. Your supervisor is the only one that has the authority to allocate department funds. How should you respond? |
Tell the employee that she isn’t currently budgeted for equipment upgrades, but that you will let your supervisor know about the request so it can be properly determined if new RAM can be acquired. |
|
A user called her organization’s Help Desk to request help with connecting to a network server. The help desk technician came to her desk to resolved the issue. Once there, the technician used the user’s telephone to call his girlfriend. The call lasted the entire time the technician was at the user’s desk. |
No, the technician should not have used to user’s telephone for a personal call. |
|
As you troubleshoot a problem during a customer appointment, you discover the problem is directly related to the customer’s actions. How should you best address the situation? |
Tactfully explain the problem without accusing or judging the customer. |
|
You work at the IT Help Desk in your company. An employee calls to report a problem with her workstation and a service ticket is assigned to you. You respond to the service ticket immediately and arrive at the employee’s workstation within minutes; however, when you being speaking to her, you can’t understand what she is saying because she is speaking Spanish, and you do not understand Spanish. |
Find an interpreter |
|
To prevent ESD when replacing internal computer components, you attach an anti-static wrist strap you your wrist. Where should the other end be fastened? |
-Anti-Static mat -Metal area on the computer case |
|
Which of the following devices are most susceptible to problems associated with ESD? |
-Processor -Memory |
|
of the following choices, which action could be most physically harmful to you? |
Looking into the end of a fiber optic cable |
|
What is your top priority when responding to emergencies and hazardous situations? |
Ensure the safety of people in the area. |
|
Which of the following are safety benefits associated with encasing cables that run across the floor? |
-reduces tripping accidents -Prevents wear |
|
Which of the following protects a computer system from electrostatic discharge? |
Anti-static wrist wrap |
|
Which of the following components requires special disposal procedures to comply with environmental guidelines? |
Notebook battery |
|
What is the purpose of an MSDS |
It documents how to safely handle and dispose of hazardous materials. |
|
Which of the following should be handled with caution due to high operating temperatures? |
-Printing head in a dot matrix printer -components within a laser printer |
|
What does occasional beeping from the UPS mean? |
The computer is running on the UPS batter power. |
|
You have a desktop computer that you want to upgrade. You add several internal components and external components. You realize that you need to ensure that your power supply can support all of the new devices. |
Watt Training |
|
You need to replace the power supply in your home desktop computer. As you choose the replacement power supply, which of the following specifications are the most likely to affect your choices? |
-Form Factor -Output Wattage -Processor Connector |
|
You are building a new computer from both new and used parts. The video card is a PCIe Video card that requires an 8-pin power connector. However, your power supply doesn’t have an 8-pin PCIe power connector. Which solution would be the least expensive option for your system? |
Use and adapter cable to connect two 4-pin molex connectors to the 8-pin PCIe connector. |
|
Which of the following components convert AC to DC |
Power supply |
|
Which of the following voltages are provided by an ATX power supply |
-3.3 -12 -5 |
|
Your company relocated you to their United Kingdom office in London. You brought your personal computer with you and are in the process of setting it up. Your computer was previously configured to receive 110 V AC, but the electricity in London uses 230 V AC. |
Toggle the Voltage switch on the power supply to the different voltage. |
|
You have a motherboard that uses a 24-pin ATX connector. |
-A power supply with a 20-pin ATX and a +4 pin connector -A power supply with a 24-pin ATX connector only. |
|
Which of the following functions does an ATX power supply perform? |
-Converts AC to DC -Aids in Thermal Management |
|
Which of the following devices use the 4-pin peripheral (Molex) connector? |
-Pata CD-ROM -Case fan |
|
You need to replace the power supply in your home desktop computer. |
-Output Wattage -Type and number of connectors -Form Factor |
|
You are testing the power supply in a PC system by measuring the Voltage available on the 4-Pin Molex connector. The voltage on the red wire is a +5.1 volts. |
Nothing, the power supply is working normally. |
|
You have a desktop computer that uses a 250 watt power supply. You recently added a 4-disk RAID 10 array to the system and now it spontaneously shuts down. What should you do? |
Upgrade to a power supply that provides more watts. |
|
Which power supply feature helps prevent circuit overloads by balancing the current flow? |
Dual rail |
|
You are servicing a client’s computer that has been randomly restarting. You decide to test the power supply using a multi meter. You connect the positive lead to the yellow wire on one of the Molex connectors. |
The power supply is failing and should be replaced. |
|
An employee submitted a support ticket stating that her computer will not turn on. |
-Make sure the surge protector is turned on. -Make sure the power cord is plugged into the wall. |
|
Which of the following motherboard connectors typically connect directly to the motherboard? |
-24-pin motherboard power -4-pin CPU power |
|
Which expansion slot is best for high-end dedicated video cards? |
PCIe x16 |
|
Match each of the motherboard components on the left with the appropriate description on the right. |
1.Maintains an accurate system time and date, even when the power is off.-CMOS battery 2. Allows additional features and capalities to be added to the motherboard.-Expansion slots 3.Houses the PCI bus controllers and communicates with the super I/O controller.-Southbridge 4. Contains firmware that is used to configure motherboard settings and initialize devices. -Flash memory 5. Controllers communication between the CPU, memory, and high-speed graphics bus. |
|
You are in the process of installing a motherboard in a system case. |
Standoffs |
|
Which of the following connectors are part of the system case and connect to header pins on the motherboard? |
-HDD LED activity -Power switch |
|
You have a computer system with a dual-core processor. You would like to upgrade to a quad-core processor, but you don’t want to replace the motherboard. Which of the following should you do first? |
Read the motherboard documentation to identify which processors are supported. |
|
Which of the following objects is installed between the system case and the motherboard’s back I/O ports? |
Face plate |
|
You have just replaced the motherboard in your computer. Your computer starts, but the hard disk light does not come on while the system is booting? |
Connect the hard disk LED to the motherboard. |
|
What should you do (if possible) before updating the UEFI firmware? |
-Connect the computer to a UPS -Backup existing UEFI settings. |
|
When you try to boot your computer, it hangs after POST. When you access the UEFI setup program, yo see that the date is several years behind and the time is set to 12:01 am. |
The motherboard battery has failed. |
|
After arriving at work, you turn on your computer to begin your day. Instantly, you see smoke and smell a strange odor coming from the computer. |
Shit off the system immediately |
|
A user has called to complain that her computer won’t boot. It stops on the system startup screen right after the memory has been tested and displays a 301 keyboard error. |
Verify that no keys are being pressed down during POST |
|
You have been using the same computer for several years. To extend its service life, you decide to upgrade the processor. You check the motherboard documentation and purchase the fastest processor supported by the motherboard. However, When you start the computer, it beeps regularly and nothing is displayed on the screen and it doesn’t start. |
Update the UEFI firmware. |
|
Your motherboard has two memory slots and supports a maximum of 8 GB or RAM. After installing two 4 GB modules and booting your system, you find that windows only recognizes 3.5 GB of Ram. What should you do? |
upgrade to a 64-bit version of Windows. |
|
A user calls to complain that her computer is behaving erratically. Some days it functions correctly, other days it crashes frequently. Sometimes, the system won’t boot at all. |
Replace the motherboard. |
|
You have been using the same computer for several years. To improve performance, you decide to upgrade the processor. You check the motherboard documentation and purchase the fastest processor supported by the motherboard. However, when you try to start the computer it beeps regularly and nothing is displayed on the screen. |
-reinstall the old processor in the new motherboard. -flash the UEFI firmware. |
|
You want to build a computer that can stand upright on a desk and takes up the least amount of space possible. |
Micro-ATX slim tower |
|
Which of the following form factors does not have expansion slots on the motherboard, but instead uses a riser card for expansion cards? |
-NLX |
|
You decide to upgrade your PC with a faster processor. To do this, you ordered a new motherboard over the Internet that supports the processor you want to use. |
Use the Mini-ATX motherboard in the ATX case. |
|
You need to purchase a case that meets the following criteria: |
ATX mid-tower |
|
Which motherboard form factor allows for low-consumption power supplies? |
Mini-ITX |
|
You have three computers in your office. You would like to reduce the time it takes to move from one computer to the next, and you would like to use only one keyboard, one monitor, and one mouse for all three computers. Which device will allow this type of setup? |
KVM |
|
Which of the following devices would you add to a computer if you need to take inventory at all retail store by scanning the UPC symbols on products? |
Bar code reader |
|
Which of the following is considered an input devices? |
Touchscreen |
|
What type of peripheral device is typically found on a notebook computer and allows the user to control the cursor with a finger? |
Touch pad |
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Match the peripheral devices on the left with the descriptions or examples on the right. Each peripheral device may be used once, more than once, or not at all. |
Used to scan hardware which contains an embedded microchip for authentication:: Smart card reader Used to capture some type pf analog signal and convert it into digital data: Digitize Can be stand-alone devices or integrated with other peripherals, such as keyboard: smart card reader Used to scan users’ unique physical features and use them to verify their identity.: Biometric Scanner Graphics tablets mostly used by graphic artists to capture hand-drawn images: Digitizer Fingerprint Scanner: Biometric Scanner Most Commonly used in retail environments at checkout stands.: bar code reader |
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You plug a USB 2.0 external storage device into a USB 3.0 port on your computer. |
The device will work, but will only transfer at USB 2.0 speeds. |
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Which of the following devices typically use a microUSB connector? |
-Digital cameras -Smartphones |
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You need to connect a new USB scanner to the USB port on your computer. What should you do? |
Install the scanner drivers, then connect a scanner drivers, then connect the scanner to the USB port and complete the Add a Device wizard when it pops up. |
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Which is the most common interface for peripheral devices? |
USB |
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Which of the following standards provides for data transfer rates up to 480 Mbps with a maximum cable length of 5 meters? |
USB 2.0 |
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What is the maximum data transfer speed for USB 3.0 devices? |
5 Gbps |
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What type of USB 3.0 connector is shown here? |
Type-A |
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What type of USB 2.0 connector is shown here. |
MicroUSB |
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Match the USB connector types on the left with the image labels on the right. |
1. USB 3.0 Type-A 2. USB 3.0 MIcro-B 3. USB 3.0 Type-B 4. USB 2.0 Type-A |
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Match the USB connector types on the left with the image labels on the right. |
1. USB 2.0 Type-B 2.. microUSB 3. Mini USB 4. USB 3.0 Micro B |
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The IEEE 1394 (Firewire) standard is often compared to USB. Each standard has unique features |
Capable of isochronous data transmissions: IEEE 1394 Provides up to 9 W of power via a 5 V wire: USB Provides up to 60 W of power via a 12 V wire: IEEE 1394 Capable of asynchronous data transmissions: USB Supports peer-to=peer transfers: IEEE 1394 |
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Which of the following standards provides for data transfer rates up to 800 mbps with a maximum cable length of 100 meters? |
IEEE 1394b |
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How many devices does a single IEEE 1394 bus support? |
63 |
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What is the maximum cable length for the IEEE 1394 standard? |
4.5 meters |
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What is the maximum data transfer rate of an IEEE 1394a device? |
400 mbps |
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Which IEEE version supports peer-to-peer transmission of data? |
1394.3 |
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Match each IEEE 1394 connector type on the left with the appropriate description on the right. |
Used with FireWire 400 devices and provides power via a 12 V wire: 6-pin connector Used with fireware 400 devices that must be self-powered: 4-pin connector Used with FireWire 800 devices that are most commonly found on apple computers: 9-pin connector |
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Which of the following statements is true regarding single- and double- sided memory? |
Single sided memory uses half of the memory modules as double- sided memory of the same capacity. |
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Which of the following are true regarding a dual-channel memory bandwidth configuration? |
-The memory controller must support dual-channels. -Bandwidth is increased by 5-15%. |
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You have a computer with a pentium 4 CPU and two PC-2400 DDR modules. The motherboard has room for two additional memory modules, and you’d like to install two PC-4000 modules. Which of the following statements is true? |
All memory will operate at 300 MHz. |
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You have a computer that has four DDR2 memory slots. Currently there are two 512 MB memory modules installed. You check the motherboard documentation and find that the system has a 4GB memory limitation. You want to add as much memory as possible without replacing the existing modules. |
3 GB |
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You have an existing system that has a single DDR3 memory module installed. You would like to add more memory to three remaining empty memory slots. What should you do to make sure you get the right memory for the system? |
-Check the motherboard documentation to find which modules are supported. -Purchase additional modules that are the same as what is currently installed. |
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You want to upgrade all memory in your system with the fastest memory available. Which of the following should you choose? |
Choose the type of memory that is supported by your motherboard. |
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You want to build a new system that supports 6GB of memory. Which of the following will be the most important consideration when building the computer? |
64-bit processor |
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Which of the following is the most common method for removing RAM from a motherboard. |
move the tabs holding the ram out of the way; pull straight up to remove the RAM. |
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What type of RAM might slow system performance because it holds memory addresses or data to improve stability on systems with more than 1 GB of RAM before it is transferred to the memory controller/ |
Buffered |
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With a memory module read request, there is a delay between the time of the data request and the time the data is available for output from the memory module. |
CAS Latency |
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After installing two memory modules, you power on the system to check for errors. You find that the BIOS program recognizes only on of the memory modules. What should you do first? |
Make sure that both modules are seated properly in their slots. |
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You are in the process of configuring a new computer. The motherboard has four memory slots and supports dual-channel memory. You install two memory modules. When you boot the computer, the BIOS recognizes both modules, but the memory is not configured to run in dual-channel mode. What should you do? |
Move the modules to the correct motherboard slots. |
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You are in the process of configuring a new computer. The motherboard has six memory slots and supports triple-channel memory. You install two memory modules. when you boot the computer, the BIOS recognizes both modules, but the memory only runs in dual-channel mode. What should you do? |
-Move the modules to the correct motherboard slots. -Install a third, identical memory module. |
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You have installed a new computer with a quad-core 64-bit processor, 6 GB of memory, and a PCIe video card with 512 MB of memory. After installing the operating system, you see less than 4 GB of memory showing as available in windows, what should you do? |
Install a 64-bit version of the operating system. |
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Which of the following is an error detection technique that can detect errors with only one bit? |
Parity |
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which of the following is an error detection technique that can also correct the error? |
ECC |
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You have just a built new system from scratch. You turn the computer on but the system boot fails and sounds a beep code. |
Memory not installed or not detected. |
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What type of software-generated problems can indicate that a software bug is causing a memory error? |
-Page fault -General-protection fault -Exception error |
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You just replaced the motherboard in your computer. Now your computer will not start. You press the power button on the system case, but nothing happens; there are no sounds or lights. |
Connect the power button to the motherboard. |
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There are critical times when memory problems often manifest themselves. |
-This can require more money and can cause problems if there is not enough memory at this time: Software installation -Memory is not properly seated, missing, or the motherboard is defective: First boot of a new computer. -Incompletely or improperly doing this can cause errors that appear to be memory related: Hardware installation or removal. -the memory is not compatible and was not installed and configured properly: Memory upgrade. |
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Which of the following describes the most likely cause of this error? |
Either no memory is installed or the memory was not detected. |
|
Which of the following will most likely contain SODIMM memory? |
Notebook computers |
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Which of the following are terms used to identify memory modules? |
DIMM |
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What is the approximate bus speed of DDR2 memory rated at PC2-5300? |
333 MHz |
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Which of the following memory ratings identifies the fastest memory? |
DDR3-1600 |
|
Which memory rating identifies the fastest memory? |
DDR3-2000 |
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Assuming the same operating frequency, what are the advantages of DDR3 over DDR2? |
-DDR3 doubles the data transfer rate of DDR2 -DDR3 uses less power than DDR2 |
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Your motherboard has sockets for 184-pin DIMM RAM. Which type of RAM should you install? |
DDR |
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A customer needs to use several application. Currently, the computer cannot keep all the necessary application open at the same time. Which of the following components should you consider upgrading? |
Memory |
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Assuming the same operating frequency, what are the advantages of DDR4 over DDR3? |
-DDR4 doubles the data transfer rate of DDR3. -DDR4 uses less power than DDR3. |
|
What is the theoretical capacity of a DDR4 standard system memory module? |
512 GB |
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Which of the following is an upgrade of the SODIMM standard? |
UniDIMM |
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Since it has no moving parts, a CPU will usually work properly for several years. Which of the following is a common factor that might cause a CPU to fail prematurely? |
Electrostatic discharge (ESD) |
|
To improve system performance, you have configured a motherboard to run with a higher multiplier than what the CPU is specified to use. |
overclocking |
|
To improve system performance, you have configured a motherboard to run with a higher multiplier that what the CPU is specified to use. Since doing this, the system has become unstable and crashes frequently. |
Back off on the overclocking settings until the system runs in a stable manner. |
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You have just upgraded the CPU on your computer. You consulted the motherboard documentation to make sure the CPU is compatible with the motherboard. You turned the system on and it locks up shortly after startup. |
-Make sure the CPU is seated and oriented properly, and locked into the socket. -Look for something that could be causing the new CPU to overheat. |
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After working without problems for a couple of years, your computer has begun to lock up. You suspect that it is a thermal issue but you can’t find any component that is not functioning correctly. You have not replaced the CPU or installed any new devices. The CPU cooling fan and the power supply fan are working properly. The lock-ups are happening with increasing frequency. |
An accumulation of dust has gradually built up. |
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Your system crashes at various times, sometimes on startup, sometimes when running a software application, sometime when a certain group of applications is running. You suspect a malfunctioning CPU but none of the common issues seem to be present. You have not configured overclocking. There is no overheating. The CPU is seated correctly and locked into its socket. |
Replace the suspect CPU with a known good CPU of the same make and model. |
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Lately your computer is spontaneously shutting down after only a few minutes of use. What is most likely cause? |
-Overheated CPU. -Cooling fans clogged with dust. |
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You have just finished upgrading the CPU in your desktop system. After running the system for about 15 minutes, the system spontaneously shuts down. What should you do first to troubleshoot the problem? |
-Check the CPU fan power. -Check the thermal shutdown threshold in the BIOS. |
|
Lately your computer is spontaneously rebooting and freezing. What is the most likely cause? |
Overheated CPU. |
|
What are two major disadvantages to overclocking the CPU? |
-Voided warranty -Increased heat output |
|
What is a ZIF socket? |
A special socket for inserting and securing a processor |
|
What is the purpose of cache memory? |
Allows a processor to access data more quickly. |
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You have an AMD processor and an Intel processor, both of which have the same speed rating. Which of the following statements is true about the relative performance of both processors? |
performance will depend on other factors such as cache and other features. |
|
What is the biggest advantage of 64-bit processors over 32-bit processors? |
the ability to use over 4 GB of memory. |
|
Which of the following statements are true? |
-32-bit processors use only IA-32 instruction set (also reffered to as x86) -64-bit processors use the x86-64 instruction set (also reffered to as x64) |
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You have a computer system with an Intel Core i3 processor that operates at 3.7 GHz. You would like to upgrade to a faster processor, but you don’t want to replace the motherboard. Which of the following should you do first? |
Read the motherboard documentation to identify which processors are supported. |
|
You want to add a second processor to your dual-processor system. Which of the following should you do? |
Match the speed of the new processor with the speed of the existing processor. |
|
Your computer has one single core processor installed. The motherboard supports processors with up to four cores. You want to upgrade your computer to a quad-core system. Which of the following will be part of your configuration? |
Replace the existing processor. |
|
You have a computer with a dual core 64-bit processor that uses the x86-x64 instruction set. You want to install the 32-bit application on the computer. What should you do? |
Install the application normally. |
|
You test installing a second CPU. You remove the terminating resistor from the second CPU slot, insert the CPU and perform your testing. Upon conclusion of the test you remove the second CPU and find that your system no longer boots up properly. How can you correct this situation? |
Replace the terminating resistor in the slot that was occupied by the second CPU. |
|
Match each CPU socket on the left with appropriate CPU it is designed to support on the right. Each socket can be matched up with more than one CPU. |
Intel Core 2 duo: 775 AMD Athlon 64 X2: AM2+ Intel Core i7: 1366 AMD A-series APU: FM1 Intel Pentium D: 775 Athlon 64 FX: 940 intel Xeon 1366 AMD Phenom: AM2+ |
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You need to perform a reverse lookup of the 10.0.0.1 IP address. Which command can you use to accomplish this? (Select two. Each response is a complete solution.) A. nbtstat -a 10.0.0.3 B. ipconfig /dnslookup 10.0.0.3 C. dig -x 10.0.0.3 D. nslookup 10.0.0.3 E. arp 10.0.0.3 |
dig -x 10.0.0.3 nslookup 10.0.0.3 |
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Mary calls to tell you that she can’t connect to an intranet server called WebSrvl. From her computer, you ping the server’s IP address. The ping test is successful. Which tool would you use on her workstation next to troubleshoot the problem? A. tracert B. nslookup C. nbtstat D. netstat E. arp |
nslookup |
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You are troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a Unix system. You are able to connect to remote systems by using their IP address, but unable to connect using the hostname. You check the TCP/IP configuration, and note that a DNS server IP address is configured. You decide to run some manual resolution queries to ensure that the communication between the Unix system and the DNS server are working correctly. Which utilities can you use to do this? (Choose two .) A. traceroute B. tracert C. dig D. nslookup |
dig nslookup |
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Examine the following output : Server : helicuplar.xct.takro.net Address : 209.53.4.130 Name : westsim.com Address : 64.78.193.84 Which of the following utilities produced this output? A. nslookup B. tracert C. ipconfig D. netstat |
nslookup |
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Consider the following output from a dig command run on a Linux system. ; <<>> DiG 8 .2 <<>> westsimlll.com ;;res options :init recurs defnam dnsrch ;;got answer : ;;->>HEADER<< -opcode :QUERY , status : NOERROR , id :4 ;;flags : qr rd ra ; QUERY :l , ANSWER :l , AUTHORITY :2, ADDITIONAL :0 ;;QUERY SECTION : ;; westsimlll.com , type= A , class= IN ;;ANSWER SECTION : westsimlll .com . 7h33m IN A 76 .141 .43 .129 ;;AUTHORITY SECTION : westsimlll .com . 7h33m INNS dnsl .deriatctlll .com. westsimlll.com. 7h33m INNS dns2.de riatct222.com . ;;Total query time : 78 msec ;;FROM: localhost .localdomain to SERVER :default — 202 .64 .49 .150 ;;WHEN: Tue Feb 16 23 :21 :24 2005 ;;MSG SIZE sent : 30 rcvd :l03 which of the following utilities produced this output? |
Dig |
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Consider the following output from a dig command run on a Linux system. ; <<>> DiG 8 .2 <<>> westsimlll.com ;;res options :init recurs defnam dnsrch ;;got answer : ;;->>HEADER<< -opcode :QUERY , status : NOERROR , id :4 ;;flags : qr rd ra ; QUERY :l , ANSWER :l , AUTHORITY :2, ADDITIONAL :0 ;;QUERY SECTION : ;; westsimlll.com , type= A , class= IN ;;ANSWER SECTION : westsimlll .com . 7h33m IN A 76 .141 .43 .129 ;;AUTHORITY SECTION : westsimlll .com . 7h33m INNS dnsl .deriatctlll .com. westsimlll.com. 7h33m INNS dns2.de riatct222.com . ;;Total query time : 78 msec ;;FROM: localhost .localdomain to SERVER :default — 202 .64 .49 .150 ;;WHEN: Tue Feb 16 23 :21 :24 2005 ;;MSG SIZE sent : 30 rcvd :l03 What is the IP address of the DNS server that performed this name resolution? A. 202.64.49.150 B. 76.141.43.129 C. 192.168.1.100 D. 16.23.21.24 |
202.64.49.150 |
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A user reports that he can’t browse to a specific Web site on the Internet. From his computer, you find that a ping test to the Web server succeeds. A trace route test shows that 17 hops to the destination Web server. What is the most likely cause of the problem? |
incorrect DNS server address |
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You work in an office that uses NetWare servers and Windows NT 4.0 servers.The network uses both the TCP/IP and IPX/SPX protocols. You are sitting at a workstation that uses Windows 95 OSR2.An application you are using is unable to contact Windows NT server named FileSrv2. Which command can you use to determine whether your computer can still contact the server? |
Ping |
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Your computer is sharing information with remote computer using the TCP/IP protocol. Suddenly, the connection stops working and appears to hang. Which command can you use to check the connection? |
netstat checks the status of a TCP connection |
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You administer a NetBIOS-based network that uses the TCP/IP protocol.You are trying to troubleshoot a computer that is unable t ocontact a server by its Net BIOS name.Which command can you use to check the connection? |
Nbstat |
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Which command displays network activity statistics for TCP,UDP, and IP? |
Netstat -s |
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You have been called in to troubleshoot a connectivity problem on a newly installed Windows Server 2003 system.The system is operating satisfactorily and is able to communicate with other systems on the local network.However it is unable to access any systems on other segments of the corporate network. You suspect that the default gateway parameter for the system has not been configured,or may be configured incorrectly.Which of the following utilities are you most likely to use to view the default gateway information for the system? |
Ipconfig |
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While working on a Linux server, you are unable to connect to Windows Server 2003 system across the Internet.You are able to ping the default gateway on your own network, so you suspect that the problem lies outside of the local network. Which utility would you use to track the route a packet takes as it crosses the network? |
Traceroute |
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Which TCP/IP utility gives you the following output? |
tracert |
|
Which TCP/IP utility gives you the following output? Local Area Connection: Node IpAddress: |
Nbstat -c |
|
Which TCP/IP utility gives you the following output? Route Table Interface List |
Netstat -r |
|
Which TCP/IP utility gives you the following output? Reply from 192.168.1.168 |
Ping |
|
Which TCP/IP utility gives you the following output? Active Connections |
Netstat -a |
|
Which TCP/IP utility gives you the following output? Interface:192.168.1.111 |
Arp -a |
|
Which TCP/IP utility gives you the following output? Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: |
Ipconfig |
|
Examine the following output: Active Connections Which of the following utilities produced this output? |
Netstat |
|
Which of the following tools would you use to vieq the MAC addresses associated with IP addresses that the local workstation has contacted recently? |
Arp |
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On a Windows 10 workstation, you want to use the Storage Spaces feature to create a logical drive. Which of the following components are used to configure Storage Spaces? |
Storage devices, which are physical drives such as SATA drives or external drives. Pools of storage, which are logically created from free space on storage devices. Storage spaces, which are logically defined units created from a pool of storage. Explanation Storage spaces are composed of three components: Devices are the hard disks or other types of storage from which storage pools are created. You can use a variety of devices such as SATA drives and external drives to create storage pools. Pools of storage are created from the available disk space. A pool is a logical concept composed of the free space available on the specified storage devices. Storage spaces define logical units of space created from a pool. One or more storage spaces can be created from the pool. To the Windows system and the user, storage spaces appear as disks with typical drive letters (e.g., E: drive, F: drive). Parity, thin provisioning, and data resiliency are benefits of Storage Spaces. |
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On a Windows 10, using Storage Spaces eliminates the need for which of the following tasks? |
Repartitioning drives. Resizing volumes. Explanation Storage spaces eliminates the need for such tasks as: Repartitioning drives. Resizing volumes. Backing up data in order to repartition. |
|
List the steps the user needs to follow to add more disk space to a Storage Space in Windows 10. |
1. Install a new storage device to the system. 2. Add free space on that device to a storage pool. 3. Allocate space to an existing storage space. |
|
Requires that you have at least three storage devices. |
Parity |
|
Requires at least five storage devices |
Three-way mirror |
|
Does not provide redundancy |
Simple |
|
Protects you from a single storage device failure |
Two-way mirror |
|
Requires at least two storage devices. |
Two-way mirror |
|
Allows you to reconstruct data if one of the storage devices fails. |
Parity |
|
Protects your data if two storage devices fail at one time. |
Three-way mirror |
|
Explanation |
Storage spaces can include data resiliency. Choosing an option that provides resiliency requires you to allocate space for redundant information. The options for storage spaces data resiliency include: Simple which does not provide redundancy. This option simply adds space from the storage pool to the storage space. When you select the Simple option, all of the data in the storage space is lost if one of the drives fails. Two-way mirror requires at least two storage devices. The data is written to two devices. Two-way mirror requires twice as much device space as the amount of storage allocated to the storage space. This option protects you from a single storage device failure. Three-way mirror requires at least five storage devices. The data is written to three storage devices. This option provides redundancy for the data if two storage devices fail at one time. Parity requires that you have at least three storage devices. This option uses parity information to reconstruct data if one of the storage devices fails. Parity uses less space for redundancy than the mirror options, but performance is not as good as the mirror options if a device failure occurs. Parity require only 50 percent more redundancy space than storage space. |
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Windows 10 features a storage solution called Storage Spaces. What is the name of the Storage Spaces feature that allows to allocate space for redundant information using options that include two-way mirroring, three-way mirroring, and parity? |
Data resiliency Explanation Storage spaces can include data resiliency. Choosing an option that provides resiliency requires you to allocate space for redundant information. The options for storage spaces data resiliency include: Simple, which does not provide redundancy. This option simply adds space from the storage pool to the storage space. When you select the Simple option, all of the data in the storage space is lost if one of the drives fails. Two-way mirror requires at least two storage devices. The data is written to two devices. Two-way mirror requires twice as such device space as the amount of storage allocated to the storage space. This option protects you from a single storage device failure. Three-way mirror requires at least five storage devices. The data is written to three storage devices. This option provides redundancy for the data if two storage devices fail at one time. Parity requires that you have at least three storage devices. This option uses parity information to reconstruct data if one of the storage devices fails. Parity uses less space for redundancy that the mirror options, but performance is not as good as the mirror options if a device failure occurs. Parity requires only 50 percent more redundancy space than storage space. |
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Your system volume is running out of disk space. You need to extend the system volume to give it more space. Which of the following conditions must be met to extend the system volume? |
The system volume must be formatted with NTFS. The disk must have contiguous free space on the same disk. Explanation The system volume can only be extended using contiguous free space on the same disk. This is the same for both basic and dynamic disks. Any volume can only be extended if it is unformatted or formatted with NTFS. The system volume can be on either a basic or dynamic disk. The system volume cannot be extended or spanned to non-contiguous space or to space on another disk. |
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You want to combine storage space from two different hard disks into a single logical storage unit on your Windows computer. What should you do? |
Use dynamic disks and a spanned volume. Explanation To use multiple disks in a single logical storage unit, upgrade all disks to dynamic disks. Create a spanned volume. A simple volume contains storage space from a single disk. Use basic disks to create primary and extended partitions. Partitions cannot include storage space from multiple disks. |
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Which of the following is a characteristic of extended partitions? |
They are subdivided into logical drives. Explanation An extended partition is subdivided into logical drives. You cannot format an extended partition, you can only format the logical drives within the partition. You can have only a single extended partition per disk. The extended partition cannot be set as active, and therefore cannot be used to boot the computer. Use a primary partition to set the partition as active, boot the computer, or to create multiple partitions per disk. |
|
Which disk types does Windows support? |
Dynamic Basic Explanation Windows supports basic and dynamic disks. When you install Windows, your hard disks are automatically initialized as basic. You can convert them to dynamic disks after Windows is installed. You can use both basic and dynamic disks on the same computer system, but a volume consisting of multiple disks, such as a mirrored volume, must use only one type of disk. Primary and extended are terms that describe partition types on basic disks. |
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Where is Disk Management located within Windows 7? |
Computer Management Explanation Within Windows 7, Disk Management is found under Storage in Computer Management. Within Windows 10, Disk Management is found in the list of utilities that appear when you right-click the Start Menu. |
|
Which tool would you use to create and delete partitions on hard drives? |
Disk Management Explanation Use Disk Management to view, modify, and create partitions. Use Device Manager to update drivers and manage device-specific settings. Use the Services console to start and stop processes that run in the background. Use Explorer to view the contents of a volume, or to format a drive. |
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You have a computer with a single hard disk configured as a basic disk with a single partition formatted with NTFS. The computer runs Windows 7 Enterprise. The disk has run out of space. You need to add space to the disk. You install a new hard drive and start Disk Management. Which of the following is a required task to add space to the existing volume? |
On the new hard disk, create a new partition without a drive letter. Explanation Because this is the system volume, the only way to add space to the volume using space on the new disk is to create a mount point. A mount point is an empty folder on the existing volume that points to another partition. Data saved to the folder is physically saved on the referenced partition. To create a mount point: Create an empty folder on the existing volume. Create a partition on the new disk without a drive letter. Mount the partition to the empty folder on the existing volume. You cannot extend the volume to another disk because the volume is the system volume. You cannot extend the system volume even if it is on a dynamic disk. You can create mount points on basic or dynamic volumes. |
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Your computer has a single hard disk with a single volume used by the C: / drive. You have previously upgraded to disk to a dynamic disk. The disk has run out of disk space. You need to add more space to the C: / volume. You add a new hard disk to the computer. What should you do to add space to the C:/ drive? |
Create a mount point using space on the second disk. Explanation A mount point is an empty folder on the existing volume that points to another partition. Data saved to the folder is physically saved on the referenced partition. Extending a volume adds space to the volume. Extending a volume using space on a different disk creates a spanned volume. You cannot extend the system volume using space on a second disk. A striped volume uses two equal portions on two disks. You can create a new striped volume, but you cannot stripe an existing volume. |
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You have just finished installing Windows on a system that contains four physical hard disk. The installation process has created system volume and a C: volume on the first disk (Disk 0). The installation process also initialized the second disk (Disk 1) and the third disk (Disk 2) but did not create any volumes on these disks. Which of the following would you expect to see as the status of Disk 1 and Disk 2? |
Unallocated Explanation A disk that has been initialized will show as Unallocated if no volumes have been created. The Healthy or Online status indicates that the disk is turned on and can be accessed. The volume on the disk is valid and has no errors. The Formatting status is shown for volumes during the formatting process. After formatting, the status for the volume changes to Healthy. The Initializing process shows while a disk is being converted from a basic disk to a dynamic disk. After the conversion, the status for the volume changes to Healthy. The Unavailable status indicates that errors have occurred on physical or dynamic disks. The Unreadable status indicates a hardware failure, I/O errors, or other corruption but might also be caused by a delay in reading the disk in Disk Management. |
|
Shows while a disk is being converted from a basic disk to a dynamic disk. |
Initializing |
|
Indicates that the disk is turned on and can be accessed and the volume on the disk is valid and has no errors. |
Healthy |
|
Indicates that errors have occurred on physical or dynamic disks. |
Unavailable |
|
Shows when a dynamic disk has been removed or turned off. |
Offline |
|
Explanation |
The Healthy or Online status indicates that the disk is turned on and can be accessed. The volume on the disk is valid and has no errors. The Initializing process shows while a disk is being converted from a basic disk to a dynamic disk. After the conversion, the status for the volume changes to Healthy. The Unavailable status indicates that errors have occurred on physical or dynamic disks. The Missing status shows when a dynamic disk has been removed or turned off. |
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You have a DVD-ROM disc with no label and you want to know if it has any important files on it. You insert the DVD-ROM into your optical media drive, then you double-click the drive letter for the optical drive to see the contents of the disc. If the DVD-ROM is not a valid disc, which error message will you see? |
No Media Explanation The No Media status shows for an optical or removable media drive that does not contain a valid disc. A Foreign disk is a dynamic disk that was created in one system and moved to another system. The Unreadable status indicates a hardware failure, I/O errors, or other corruption but might also be caused by a delay in reading the disk in Disk Management. The Missing status shows when a dynamic disk has failed. |
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You have four volumes on a basic hard disk. Which of the following do you expect to see as the status of the fourth volume if it is valid and has no errors? |
Healthy (Logical Drive) A basic hard disk can only 4 primary partitions. To get around this limitation on basic disks, the fourth partition is automatically configured as an extended partition that can hold logical drives. So, the fourth partition would show a status of Healthy (Logical Drive). The first three partitions would show a status of Healthy (Primary Partition). If the disk had been a dynamic disk the status would just be Healthy. If the disk gets converted from basic to dynamic, the status would be changed to show just Healthy. |
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You have four volumes on a basic hard disk. You convert the disk to dynamic. After the conversion, which of the following do you expect to see as the status of the fourth volume if it is valid and has no errors? |
Healthy Explanation If a basic disk gets converted to dynamic, the status of all partitions on that disk would be changed to show just Healthy. There are no Primary or Logical partitions on a dynamic disk. A basic hard disk can only have 4 primary partitions. To get around this limitation on basic disks, the fourth partition is automatically configured as an extended partition that can hold logical drives. So, the fourth partition would show a status of Healthy (Logical Drive). |
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You have a disk in your system that is displayed in the Disk Management utility as shown in the image below. The disk icon includes a red arrow that is pointing down. Which of the following would you expect to see in the space where the red outline is, as the status of this disk? |
Not Initialized Explanation When Disk Management shows a disk icon that includes a red arrow that is pointing down, it indicates that the disk is Not Initialized. The disk status would say Initializing if the disk is being converted from a basic disk to a dynamic disk. A Foreign disk is a dynamic disk that was created in one system and moved to another system. The Unreadable status indicates a hardware failure, I/O errors, or other corruption but might also be caused by a delay in reading the disk in Disk Management. |
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What is required to control access to the file system using file and folder permissions on a Windows-based computer? |
NTFS-formatted partition Explanation File permissions are only available under Windows for files on a partition formatted with NTFS, not FAT32. The Encrypting File Service (EFS) with Windows encrypts individual files. The Ext4 file system is used on Linux systems. |
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If you want to boot from a hard drive, what must it have? |
Active partition Explanation The active partition contains the boot sector, which is required to load an operating system. An extended partition is a partition type on a basic disk. An extended partition can exist, but is not required to boot. |
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Which partition type identifies the partition as one that holds the boot loader program used to start the operating system? |
Active Explanation The active partition identifies which partition holds the boot loader code. When the system starts, it looks in the volume boot record (VBR) of the active partition to identify the location of the boot loader code. The system partition is the partition that holds the operating system files. This might be the same as the active partition, but can be different. A primary partition is a partition type on a basic disk. An active partition must be a primary partition, but there can be additional non-active primary partitions on a disk. An extended partition is a partition type that is subdivided into logical drives. The extended partition cannot be the active partition. |
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Which of the following is true about primary partitions? |
The active partition must be a primary partition. Explanation A primary partition is a partition type used on basic disks. The active partition must be a primary partition. Each physical disk can have up to four primary partitions, or three primary partitions and one extended partition. Logical drives are defined within an extended partition. |
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You have added two new hard disks to a Windows computer. The disks are configured as basic disks. Which of the following could be configured on these disks? |
Primary partitions Extended partitions with logical drives. Explanation Basic disks use primary and extended partitions. Each physical disk can have up to four primary partitions, or three primary partitions and one extended partition. Logical drives are defined within an extended partition. The extended partition can be divided into multiple logical drives. Dynamic disks support volumes that use discontiguous disk space. Simple volumes contain disk space from a single hard disk (both contiguous or discontiguous space). Spanned volumes contain disk space from multiple hard disks, grouped together into a single logical volume. Striped volumes use equal partition sizes on two disks to create a volume. Data is divided and saved to each disk. |
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You have an extra disk on your system that has three primary partitions and an extended partition with two logical drives. You want to convert the partitions to simple volumes, preferably without losing any data. What should you do? |
Upgrade the disk to a dynamic disk. Explanation When you upgrade a basic disk to a dynamic disk, existing partitions are converted to simple volumes. You can convert the disk without deleting partitions or losing any data. Use the convert command to change the file system from FAT32 to NTFS. The partition table type (either MBR or GPT) does not affect the partition or volume type. |
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Which of the following is a command line utility that can be used to create, format, and manage partitions and volumes? |
DiskPart Explanation DiskPart is the command line utility you can use to create, format, and manage partitions, and volumes. Disk Management is the graphical utlity you would use to do the same partition and volume creation, formatting, and management tasks you can do with DiskPart. DiskMan does not exist. Format is a command line utility used for formatting disks for use with Windows. CHDSK is used to find and fix errors on disks, volumes, and files. |
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You want to set up a Windows system to also be able to boot to Linux. To be able to dual boot, the system needs a partition on which to install Linux. You don’t have an extra hard disk that can be used for the Linux partition. The existing disk has no unpartitioned space available, but it has about 300 GB of free space. Which disk management operation can you perform on the disk to use some of the free space for the Linux partition? |
Shrink the primary partition Explanation You can decrease the space used by primary partitions and logical drives by shrinking them into adjacent, contiguous space on the same disk. For example, if you discover that you need an additional partition but do not have additional disk, you shrink the existing partition from the end of the volume to create new unallocated space that can then be used for a new partition. |
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Support up to 128 volumes. |
Dynamic Disks |
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Use primary and extended. |
Basic Disks |
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Supported by all operating systems. |
Basic Disks |
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Support volumes that use discontiguous disk space. |
Dynamic Disks |
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Store partitioning information in a hidden database on all such disks in the system. |
Dynamic Disks. |
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Only support volumes made up of contiguous disk space. |
Basic Disks |
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Explanation |
Basic disks include the following characteristics: Use primary and extended partitions. Supported by all operating systems. Only support volumes made up of contiguous disk space. Dynamic disks include the following characteristics: Support up to 128 volumes. Support volumes that use discontiguous disk space. Store partitioning information in a hidden database on all such disks in the system. |
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Which of the following conditions would prevent you from using GUID Partition Table (GPT) when setting up a disk drive? |
You’re updating the drive to boot Windows 7 on a computer that uses traditional BIOS. Explanation If you need the drive to boot Windows and the computer uses traditional BIOS (not UEFI), you need to set up the drive with MBR. A GPT drive can: Be basic or dynamic. Set up to boot 64-bit Windows 7 on a UEFI-based computer. Be used to create up to 128 partitions. |
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What is an advantage of RAID 5 over RAID 1? |
RAID 5 improves performance over RAID 1. Explanation RAID provides both fault tolerance and improved performance RAID (mirroring) provides only fault tolerance with no performance benefit. Both RAID 5 and RAID 1 can only sustain a loss of one disk in the set. Use multiple disk controllers to provide redundancy for the disk controller. |
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You have been asked to implement a RAID 5 solution for an engineer’s desktop workstation. What is the minimum number of hard disks can be used to configure RAID 5? |
3 Explanation A RAID 5 array stripes data and parity information across multiple hard disks. To complete a RAID 5 array, a minimum of three hard disks is required. A RAID 0 and RAID 1 can both be implemented with a minimum of two hard disks. |
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Which of the following drive configurations uses striping without fault tolerance? |
RAID 0 Explanation RAID 0 uses disk striping and offers no fault tolerance. Disk striping breaks data into units and stores the units across a series of disks by reading and writing to all disks simultaneously. A failure of one disk in the set means all data is lost. This is the fastest of all RAID types. RAID 5 also uses disk striping, but provides fault tolerance for a single disk failure. RAID 1 provides fault tolerance but does not use striping. An expanded volume set is a volume that spans more than one hard drive. An expanded volume set also offers no fault tolerance, yet does not use striping. |
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You have a computer with three hard disks. A RAID 0 volume uses space on Disk 1 and Disk 2. A RAID 1 volume uses space on Disk 2 and Disk 3. Disk 2 fails. Which of the following is true? |
Data on the RAID 1 volume is accessible; data on the RAID 0 volume is not. Explanation In this scenario, Disk 2 is shared between both volumes. If Disk 2 fails, the RAID 1 is still accessible because RAID 1 (mirrored) volumes can sustain a loss of a single disk. The data on the RAID 0 volume is not accessible. RAID 0 uses striping, which distributes the data evenly between multiple disks. If a single disk fails, the entire volume is lost. |
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Which RAID configuration level provides increased using only two disks? |
RAID 0 Explanation RAID 0 (striping) uses two or more disks and provides an increase in performance but not fault tolerance. RAID 1 (mirroring) uses two disks to provide fault tolerance but not an increase in performance. RAID 5 uses a minimum of three disks and provides both fault tolerance and an increase in read performance. |
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You are configuring a new system and want to use a RAID 0 array for the operating system using SATA disks and the RAID functionality built into the motherboard. Which of the following actions will you take as part of the configuration? |
Load the RAID drivers during operating system installation. Explanation If using an onboard RAID controller with SATA drives, edit the CMOS settings and identify the drive type as RAID. This tells the system to load the onboard BIOS for accessing the connected drive. If you want to install the operating system on a RAID array, you will need to manually load the controller driver so that Windows can see the RAID array. |
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Your computer currently runs Windows 7 Enterprise edition. You want to create a RAID 5 array using three newly-installed SATA disks. When you go to Disk Management, the option to create the RAID 5 array is not available. What should you do? |
Install an add-on RAID controller Explanation Windows 7 desktop operating systems support creating RAID 0 and RAID 1 arrays in Disk Management, bu do not support configuring RAID 5. To use RAID 5 on a client computer, you will need to use a RAID controller installed in an expansion slot or integrated in the motherboard. |
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You have an existing computer running Windows 7 Enterprise. You want to configure a RAID 1 array in the computer. You install two new SATA drives, then use the RAID controller integrated in the motherboard to define a RAID 1 array using them. When you boot the computer, Windows does not show the logical RAID drive. What should you do? |
Install the drivers for the RAID controller. Explanation You must install the RAID driver so that Windows recognizes arrays created by the motherboard RAID utility. Without the driver, Windows will not be able to see the logical drive defined by the array. When you define the array, you configure the BIOS to use RAID as the SATA type. If you had not completed this step, you would not be able to run the RAID configuration utility,. Use AHCI to configure SATA drives to support hot-swapping. |
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You have been asked to implement a RAID 10 solution for a video editor’s desktop workstation. What is the minimum number of hard disks that can be used to configure RAID 10? |
4 Explanation A RAID 10 array nests a mirrored array within a striped array. To create a RAID 10 array, a minimum of four hard disks is required (two for the mirrored array and two more to stripe the mirror). |
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Which of the following drive configuration uses striping with parity for fault tolerance? |
RAID 5 Explanation RAID 5 also uses disk striping, but provides fault tolerance for a single disk failure. Disk striping breaks data into units and stores the units across a series of disks by reading and writing to all disks simultaneously. RAID 0 uses disk striping and offers no fault tolerance. A failure of one disk in the set means all data is lost. RAID 1 provides fault tolerance but does not use striping. A RAID 10 array nests a mirrored array within a striped array. |
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Scenario |
You work part-time at a computer repair store. You are in the process of constructing a new system. You would like to install the operating system on a RAID array that provides both fault tolerance and improved performance (RAID 5: Striping with distributed parity). Your task in this lab is to: – Add the minimum number of disks to the computer to create the RAID array that meets the scenario requirements. Do not remove extra disks from the Shelf. – Connect all disks to the motherboard and provide power for the disks. – Boot the computer and configure a RAID array using the motherboard RAID configuration utility. – Choose the RAID level based on the scenario requirements. – Configure the array to use all of the disk space on the installed disks. |
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Procedure |
Important: When accessing the Drive Bays and Motherboard make sure that the computer is turned off. 1. Click on Drive Bays. 2. Install three Hard Drives, Internal, SATA. 3. Click on Power Supply. 4. Select the 15-pin SATA connector and provide power to the three Hard Drives. 5. Click the Cable. 6. Select the SATA Cable Three Times. Remember that there are Partial Connections. 7. Click on Motherboard. 8. Connect the other end of the SATA cables to the SATA connectors on the Motherboard. 9. Click Front. 10. Turn on the computer and press Delete to enter the BIOS. 11. Click on System Configuration. 12. Click on SATA Operation. 13. Select RAID On. 14. Click Apply. 15. Click Exit. 16. Press Ctrl+I to the RAID Configuration. 17. Press 1 to Create RAID volume. 18. Leave the name as Volume 0. 19. Press Tab to go to the RAID Level. 20. Use the Arrow Buttons to Select RAID 5, which provides both fault tolerance and improved performance. 21. Leave Disks, Stripe Size, and Capacity. 22. Press Enter to create the Specified volume. 23. When the warning: ALL DATA ON SELECTED DISKS WILL BE LOST are you sure you want to create this volume> (Y/N) press Y for Yes. 24. Check the Disk Volume Information. 25. Press Done. |
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Lab Report |
Task Summary Install three hard drives. Set the SATA Operation mode in the BIOS to RAID. Create a RAID 5 array with three disks. Configure three drives in the array. Configure the RAID array as RAID 5. Use a total capacity on the disks. Explanation To complete this lab: Create a RAID 5 array to provide both fault tolerance and increased performance. A RAID 0 array increases performance only, while a RAID 1 array provides only fault tolerance. Install three disks to create RAID 5 array. A RAID 5 array requires a minimum of three disks. Complete the following steps: 1. On the computer, switch to the drive bays view. 2. On the Shelf, expand the Hard Drives category. 3. Drag a hard drive to a free 3.5" drive bay. 4. Repeat step 3 to add additional hard drives are required by the scenario. 5. To connect the hard drives to the motherboard, on the Shelf, expand the Cables category. 6. Select a cable. In the Selected Component window, drag a connector end to the hard drive. 7. Repeat step 6 to connect cable to additional hard drives. 8. On the computer, switch to the motherboard view. 9. In the Partial Connections list for the computer, select a SATA cable. 10. In the Selected Component window, drag the unconnected cable end to the motherboard SATA connector. 11. Repeat steps 9 and 10 to connect additional SATA cables to the motherboard. 12. To connect the power cables, select the power supply. 13. On the computer, switch to the Drive Bays view. 14. In the Selected Component window, drag a SATA power connector to a hard drive. 15. Repeat step 14 to connect power to the other drive (s). 16. Switch to the front view of the computer. 17. Turn on the computer. 18 As the computer, press the Delete key to enter the BIOS setup program. 19. To configure the SATA drive mode, open System Configuration in the drop-down menu on the left. 20. Select SATA Operation. 21. Select RAID On and click Apply. 22. Select Exit to restart the system. 23. As the system boots, after the BIOS loads the RAID controller will load. Press Ctrl + I when you see the message on the screen. 24. Select Create RAID Volume and press Enter. 25. Press Enter. 26. Use the up and down arrow keys to define the RAID Level. 27. Press Enter. 28. Use the up and down arrow keys to define the stripe size. 29. Press Enter. 30. Press Enter to accept the default capacity and continue. 31. Press Enter. 32. When prompted, press Y. 33. Press Esc, then Y to restart. |
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You have a CD-RW drive that advertises speeds of 32x/12x/48x. What is the read speed of the drive? |
48x Explanation The read speed is 48x. When multiple numbers are listed together, the first number is the record speed, the second number is the rewrite speed, and the last number is the read speed. If the drive does not perform rewrite functions, the middle number will be omitted. |
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Which optical media has the greatest storage capacity? |
Single-layer, single-sided Blu-ray disc. Explanation A Blu-ray disc has the greatest storage capacity of optical media. A single-sided Blu-ray disc holds up to 25 GB of data. Dual-layer or double-sided discs double the storage capacity. Experimental 20 layer Blu-ray discs hold up to 500 GB. Single-layer, single-sided DVDs hold about 4.7 GB. A dual-layer or double-sided DVD can hold up to 8.5 GB; a dual-layer, double-sided DVD can hold up to 17 GB. |
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Which Blu-ray standard defines rewritable disks? |
BD-RE Explanation BD-RE is the Blu-ray standard which defines rewritable disks. BD-ROM is the read-only standard and BD-R is the recordable standard. R/RW is used to designate rewritable CD and DVD discs, not Blu-ray discs. |
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Which of the following are optical storage devices? |
BD CD DVD Explanation Optical storage devices use lasers for both reading and writing information. The following are all optical storage devices: CD (Compact Disc) DVD (Digital Video Disc or Digital Versatile Disc) BD (Blu-ray Disc) HDDS (Hard Disk Drives) are magnetic storage devices. A flash device stores information using programmable, non-volatile flash memory. USB flash drive, SSDs (Solid state Drives), and SDHC memory cards are flash devices. |
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First developed to store digital music. Later, was adapted to store digital computer data. |
Compact Disc (CD) |
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Disc surface made up of lands and pits. Reflective light used to interpret the data. |
Compact Disc (CD) |
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Single-sided discs can hold about 4.7 GB of data. Dual-layer discs can hold up to 8.5 GB of data. |
Digital Versatile Disc (DVD) |
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A red laser causes a crystal to form which creates the reflective and non-reflective areas on the bottom of the disc. |
Digital Versatile Disc (DVD) |
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Uses blue laser light which has a shorter wavelength, which allows data to be packed more tightly on the disc. |
Blu-ray Disc (BD) |
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Was originally developed for high definition video (expanded content on movie discs), but can also be used for data storage. |
Blu-ray Disc (BD) |
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Explanation |
Compact Discs (CDs) were first developed store digital music. Later, the CD technology was adapted to store digital computer data. Data is stored on a CD’s disc surface in a series of lands and pits. Reflective light is used to interpret the data on the disc. Digital Versatile Disc (DVD) is an optical media standard that can be used to store large amounts of different types of data ( computer, data, video, audio). Single-sided discs can hold about 4.7 GB of data. Dual-layer discs can hold up to 8.5 GB of data. A red laser causes a crystal to form which creates the reflective and non-reflective areas on the bottom of the DVD-RW disc. Blu-ray Disc (BD) was originally developed for high definition video (and expanded content on movie discs), but can also be used for data storage. Blu-ray uses a blue laser instead of the red laser used with CDs and DVDs. The blue laser light has a shorter wavelength, which allows data to be packed more tightly on the disc. |
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You have a motherboard with 4 built-in SATA connectors. What is the maximum number of SATA devices you can connect to the motherboard using the integrated ports? |
4 Explanation You can connect one SATA device per port. If you have 4 port, you can connect 4 devices. |
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A manager wants you to install a Serial ATA hard drive into his computer, but the motherboard does not have a Serial ATA connector. What should you do? |
Install a Serial ATA host adapter in an expansion slot. Explanation To add a feature to a computer, add an expansion card in a free bus slot. In this case, you could add a Serial ATA host adapter in a free PCI slot. |
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Which of the following tasks would you complete as part of a SATA installation? |
Plug the 15-pin power connector into the SATA drive. Explanation SATA devices use a special 15-pin power connector that supplies 3.3, 5, and 12 volts. Using the 4-pin Molex connector for a SATA device requires an adapter cable. The master setting only applies to IDE drives, and is used to determine the active controller with multiple devices on the same cable channel. Device IDs are used with SCSI devices, not SATA devices. Low-level formatting is done at the factory by the drive manufacturer. |
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Which of the following is the most common disk interface used for optical drives on home and office computers? |
SATA Explanation Most modern computer systems use SATA optical drives. At one time, IDE/EIDE (ATAPI) optical drives were the most common type of optical drives implemented but this has changed. SCSI was also used at one time but has fallen out of favour for optical drives. In the early 1990’s some sound cards provided a proprietary internal connector for ealy CD-ROM drives, but these are now obsolete. Likewise, parallel ports were used in the early 1990’s optical drives, but these are also now obsolete. |
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Which interface is primarily used for internal hard drives in modern desktop PC systems? |
SATA Explanation SATA is primarily used for internal hard drives in modern desktop PC systems. PATA (also called EIDE, IDE, and ATAPI) is a parallel ATA interface and was the most common interface used for hard disks and CD/DVD drives in the past, but not in modern PC systems, USB and Firewire are interface standards for connecting various external devices, including external hard drives. SCSI is commonly used for server storage, but is rarely used for hard disks in modern desktop systems. |
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Which generation of SATA storage devices does the following? Supports up to 6 Gbps data transfer rates. |
SATA3 Explanation SATA3 support up to 6Gbps (600 MBps). It mainly addresses solid state drives with SATA (hard disk drives are not capable of sending data at this rate). SATA1 is the original SATA standard. It provided for 1.5 Gbps (150 MBps) data transfer. SATA2 supports up to 3 Gbps (300 MBps). eSATA is a subset of other standards specifically for externally connected devices. eSATAp (also known as Power over eSATA or Power eSATA) is meant to replace eSATA. It combines the functionality of an eSATA and a USB port with a source of power in a single connector. |
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Which SATA storage device standard does the following? Integrates data and device power into a single cable. Uses a connector and port that are neither L-shaped nor rectangular. |
eSATAp Explanation eSATAp (also known as Power over eSATA or Power eSATA) is meant to replace eSATA. It combines the functionality of an eSATA and a USB port with a source of power in a single connectors. It integrates data and device power into a single cable, and the connector and port are neither L-shaped nor rectangular. SATA1 is the original SATA standard. It provided for 1.5 Gbps (150 MBps) data transfer. SATA2 supports up to 3 Gbps (300 MBps). SATA 3 support up to 6 Gbps (600 MBps). It mainly addresses solid state drives with SATA (hard disk drives are not capable of sending data at this rate). eSATA is a subset of other standard specifically for externally connected devices. |
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What method does an SDHC card use for storing data? |
Reprogammable memory Explanation Flash devices store information using programmable, non-volatile flash memory. Common flash devices are MMC, SD, SDHC, and XD memory cards as well as USB thumb drives. DLT drivers use magnetic tape. Hard disks and floppy disks use magnetic disks and platters. Optical drives use a reflective surface and optical readers. |
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Which storage device uses magnetic film or aluminum platters for storing data? |
Hard disk Explanation Hard disks use magnetic disks and platters. Optical drives such as DVD or CD-ROM drives, use a reflective surface that is read by an optical reader. Flash devices such as SD cards store information using programmable, non-volatile flash memory. DLT drives use magnetic tape. |
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Which of the following is typically used for large data backups of servers? |
DLT tape Explanation DLT tape systems are used primarily for backups. The large storage capacity of these systems make them ideal for server backups. CD-R and DVD-R do not provide sufficient storage capacity for server backups. RAID is a data protection method that preserves data on hard disks if one disk in a set fails. It is not considered a back mechanism. |
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You need a storage device that has very large storage capacity, is fast and is relatively inexpensive. Which storage device will best suit your needs? |
Hard disk Explanation A hard disk has a large memory capacity, is fast, and is relatively inexpensive. Optical disks are also inexpensive, but are not as fast and do not provide the storage capacity of hard disks. USB flash drives are not as inexpensive as hard disks with equal storage capacity and are not available with the capacity as the larger hard disks. Solid State Drives (SSD) have a large memory capacity and are fast, but are much more expensive than comparable hard drives. |
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Which of the following are advantages of solid state storage compared to hard drives? |
No moving parts. Lower power requirements Explanation Solid state drives have the following advantages when compare to hard disk drives: They have lower power consumption. They have no moving parts (and hence less prone to failure) They are faster They are less susceptible to physical damage (from dropping) They are smaller and lighter. They are smaller and lighter. They use standard SATA disk interfaces. The storage capacity for SSDs is small in comparison to HDDs. SSDs are several times more expensive than comparable HDDs. |
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Which of the following is not an advantage of SSDs over HDDs? |
Inexpensive Explanation Solid State Drives (SDDs) are generally more expensive than hard disk drives (HDDs). Some advantages of SSDs over HDDs include the following: They are faster They have no moving parts so they last longer. They have lower power consumption. They are less susceptible to physical damage (from dropping) and immune from magnetic fields. They are smaller and lighter. |
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What method does an eMMC card use for storing data? |
Non-volatile memory chips. Explanation Flash devices store information using programmable, non-volatile flash memory. Common flash devices are eMMC, SD, SSD, MiniSD, MicroSD, memory sticks, and USB thumb drives. DLT drives use magnetic tape. Hard disks use magnetic disks and platters. Optical drives use a reflective surface and optical readers. |
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Which of the following are magnetic storage devices? |
Tape drive Hard disk Explanation The following are magnetic storage devices: A hard disk is a thick magnetic disk encases in a thicker protective shell. A tape drive (also called a digital linear tape or DLT drive) stores data on magnetic tapes similar to audio cassette tapes. Optical discs such as CDs and DVDs use lasers for both reading and writing information. Flash devices store information using programmable, non-volatile flash memory. Solid state drives are flash devices with a storage capacity similar to a small hard drive. |
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A thick magnetic disk made of aluminum platters. Uses read/write heads to access data stored on the platters. |
Hard disk drive (HDD) |
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A flash device and storage capacity similar to a small hard drive. |
Solid state drive (SSD) |
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Uses lasers to read and write information stored in the form of pits in their reflective coating. |
Optical disc |
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Up to several TB in storage capacity and cost per MB is cheap. |
Hard disk drive (HDD) |
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Faster than other devices. No moving parts. Last longer than other storage devices. |
Solid state drive (SSD) |
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Ideal for music and video. Portable and cheap with a long shelf life. |
Optical disc |
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Explanation |
Hard disk drives (HDD) are thick magnetic disks made of aluminum platters, They use read/write heads to access data stored on the platters. They have up to several TB in storage capacity and their cost per MB is cheap. Solid state drive (SSD) is a flash device with storage capacity similar to a small hard drive. They are faster than other devices. They have no moving parts and last longer than other storage devices. Optical discs use lasers to read and write information that is stored in the form of pits in their reflective coating. They are ideal for storing and playing music and video. They are portable and cheap and have a long shelf life. |
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During the POST, you receive a message stating: Keyboard not present. Present F1 to continue. What are the most likely causes of this error message? |
A stuck key on the keyboard. A poor keyboard connection Explanation If the keyboard is not detected during the POST, the keyboard is probably not attached to the computer correctly. Check that the keyboard is securely connected to the keyboard port. While a bad keyboard will also result in this error, you should first check the keyboard connection to the computer before replacing the keyboard. This error is also commonly caused by a stuck key on the keyboard. |
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You are trying to connect a new USB device to your computer. You install the driver, then connect the device to an open USB port. The device does not work. What should you do first? |
Make sure the USB device is plugged in properly. Explanation The first thing to check would be if the USB device is plugged in properly. If that doesn’t correct the problem, you might try a different USB cable before doing more extensive troubleshooting. You should only replace the device or install a new USB controller card after verifying where the problem lies. For example, if you try the device on another computer and it still doesn’t work, you might assume that the device is defective. If the device works on a different computer, then the USB ports on the first computer might be defective. |
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A user complains that his USB scanner no longer works. You check Device Manager and see an icon with a black down arrow on it. What should you do? |
Enable the device in Device Manager Explanation An icon with a black down arrow through it in Device Manager means that the device is disabled. Simply re-enable the device. An icon with an exclamation mark identifies a device with a problem. Many times this can be fixed by updating the driver, although you might need to replace the device if it no longer works properly. |
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You have just installed a new device in your Windows system. After installation, you can’t use the device. You check Device Manager and find an icon for the device with a yellow exclamation mark over it. What should you do? |
Download the latest driver from the manufacturer’s Website. Explanation The first thing to try would be to obtain the latest driver for the device. In this scenario, Windows detected the device, a suitable driver for it. Use the Add Legacy Hardware wizard to install legacy (non Plug and Play) devices. An icon with a black down-arrow over it indicates a disabled device. Replacing the device should only be done after performing other troubleshooting tasks. |
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A user installs a new graphics application on her Windows system. During the installation process, the application prompts the user to load a custom video driver that has been optimized for the application. She does so and then completes the installation. Several days later, the user reports that her display doesn’t seem to be working properly under some conditions. To fix the problem, you need to reload the old video driver. How could you accomplish this? |
Use Device Manager to roll back the video driver. Revert the system to a restore point prior to installing video driver. Explanation To roll back to a previous driver, access Device Manager and then use the Roll Back Driver option available in the video driver’s properties. You may need to boot the system into Safe Mode first if the problem is serious enough to make the display difficult to see. Alternatively, you could also revert the system to a prior restore point that was created before the problematic driver was installed. You should not disable the driver in this situation. The Last Known Good configuration boot option is only available on Windows 7 and earlier systems. Even if it were available, it would not work in this scenario because the system has been rebooted and the user has logged in since the change was made. Running a startup repair would not correct a problem with an erratic video driver. |
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You have just connected a new USB device to your Windows system. You used the installation disc that came with the device to install the drivers needed to support the device. After installation, the system frequently crashes when you try to access the new device. What should you do? |
Download and install the latest driver from the manufacturer’s Website. Explanation The first thing to try would be to download and install the latest driver for the device from the manufacturer’s website. You would use the Add Hardware wizard to configure legacy (non Plug and Play) devices. Reinstalling or replacing the device should only be done after performing other troubleshooting tasks. |
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You have just installed several devices at once to a computer, but now the computer fails to boot properly. What should you do? |
Remove all of the newly added devices and install them one at a time. Explanation When installing, you should always install one device at a time. In that way, if a problem occurs after installing the new device, you know that the new device has caused the problem. Swapping components at this point might not help as you have not yet identified the component that is most likely causing the problem. |
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Which system utility would you use to troubleshoot hardware devices, examine and control the resources used by specific devices, and install updated device drivers? |
Device Manager Explanation Use Device Manager to troubleshoot hardware devices, examine and control the resources used by specific devices, and install updated device drivers. System Restore takes periodic snapshots, called restore points, of the system configuration. Network acts as a built-in network browser showing all networks and shared folders to which the user has access. The Notification Area displays icons that represent the application and processes that are running behind the scenes on your computer such as audio volume, security programs, and connectivity to the network. It also displays the time and date. The Control Panel contains various utilities that change how a computer looks and behaves. |
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You have just installed a new hardware device, upgraded the driver, and installed the custom software that came with the device. Now you can’t get the device to work. What should you do first? |
Run any diagnostic software that came with the device. Explanation As a first step, run any diagnostic software that came with the device. Using an older driver, like one that came on the installation CD, will rarely correct a problem. In addition, you should only try this and the other solutions after performing the self-test and trying the obvious fixes. |
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You recently installed a fiber-optic network board in an expansion slot in your system’s motherboard. You no longer need to use the integrated UTP network board that is integrated in the motherboard. Click the option you would use in the properties of the integrated network adapter in Device Manager to disable it. |
Driver Explanation You can disable a device in Device Manager by accessing its properties and then selecting Disable on the Driver tab. You set device-specific settings on the Advanced tab. For example, you can use this tab to set the network adapter’s speed and duplex configuration. The Details tab displays extended information about the device. The Resources tab is used to view the hardware resources used by the device. |
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In which of the following situations would driver rollback be the best tool to use? |
You recently installed a new video driver and now the system behaves erratically. Explanation Driver Rollback would be best suited to a situation where you’ve installed a misbehaving driver and need to revert to an older version of the driver. Driver Rollback preserves the old driver every time you install a newer driver. Therefore, you could use Driver Rollback to uninstall the current driver and restore the previous version. |
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You have installed a device in your system and have run the Add a device wizard from Control Panel. Under what circumstance would it be appropriate to continue with the wizard if the device was not discovered? |
The device does not support plug and play. |
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Most devices that you install in a system require little to no configuration; they simply work after you plug them in. This is because devices are automatically assigned the system resources needed for the device to begin functioning What are the three types of system resources that are usually automatically assigned? |
I/O address, IRQ, DMA channel |
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Device manufacturers are constantly finding bugs, vulnerabilities, or better ways for their devices to communicate with the operating system. Because of this, what should you do before you install a new device? |
Obtain the latest driver from the manufacturer’s website before installing the device. |
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As a member of the help desk administration team you’ve been assigned to update the driver for the network adapter that is installed on most of the machines in your department. You have a copy of the latest driver on a USB flash drive. Which Windows utility will allow you to maually update this new driver? |
Device Manager |
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For which type of device will you typically install the driver before you connect the device to your system? |
USB devices |
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On a Linux system, what is the name of the directory where you will find a text file called devices that contains information about the devices that are configured on the system? |
/proc |
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Which of the following is true of most newer SATA drives? |
They can be added to or removed from a system without shutting down the computer. |
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Allows two devices in a computer to send information to each other |
I/O address |
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The method used by different system devices to interact with the CPU |
IRQ (Interrupt Request) |
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Conduits used by high-speed devices to bypass the CPU and communicate directly with RAM |
DMA (Direct Memory Access) |
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Allows a device to request processing time from the CPU |
IRQ (Interrupting Request) |
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Each device in a computer must have its own |
I/O address |
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Your monitor is displaying images using strange colours. Which of the following is a solution to this problem? |
Increase the colour depth. Explanation To solve colour shift problem, you need to increase the colour depth. The colour depth controls the number of colours that can be displayed on the screen at a time. The actual colours that are used on the screen is determined by the colour palette. The number of colours in the palette is dtermined by the colour depth. If the colour depth is low (such as 256 or 16,000), colours unavailable in the palette are shifted to the closest available colour. The screen resolution determines the size of the display area. Modern video adapters typically have more than enough memory to display the full colour palette. |
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A customer complains that a recently purchased monitor no longer displays a picture. You verify that the monitor is powered on and that the video cable is securely fastened to the video port. Which of the following actions should you take next? |
Check the monitor’s brightness and contrast settings using the controls on the monitor. Explanation It’s not uncommon for a monitor’s brightness or contrast controls to be accidentally turned down. Check the brightness and contrast on the monitor to see if it has any effect on the problem. When troubleshooting, be sure to check the obvious things first before taking more serious actions, such as returning the monitor to the manufacturer. Moving the video card or reloading the video driver is unlikely to resolve the customer’s problem in this scenario. |
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You recently upgraded a client’s older workstation from Windows 7 to Windows 10. The client has called to complain that the interface is very slow. For example, after clicking on the Start button, the Start Menu slowly appears on the screen. How can you fix this problem without upgrading the hardware itself? |
Set the visual effects for best performance. Explanation You need to adjust the visual effects for best performance. This will disable animation, shading, and fading effects used by Windows. Doing so reduces the load on the older hardware used in the client’s systems and should increase the performance of the user interface. However, the best resolution to this problem would be to install a newer video adapter in the system. Changing the resolution setting changes the size of text and windows in relation to the screen. Changing the colour depth affects the number of colours that can be displayed at one time. Increasing the video acceleration settings increases the amount of processing done by the video card instead of the CPU. |
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You’ve just installed a new video card in a user’s Windows workstation. However, when you power the system on, the screen is displayed in 16 colours at 640 x 480 resolution. Which of the following will resolve this problem? |
Download and install the latest driver from the video card manufacturer’s website. Explanation You should download the latest video driver from the manufacturer’s Website. Because Windows didn’t have the right driver, it used a generic VGA or SVGA driver instead. |
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You have purchased an LED monitor and connected it to the DVI-I port on your computer using a DVI-D cable. You configure the screen resolution to 1440 x 900 with 32-bit colour. The display on the screen seems to be pixilated. What should you do to correct the problem? |
Change the screen resolution to the native resolution of the monitor. Explanation LED and LCD monitors have a native display resolution. You should set the resolution of the video board to the native resolution of the monitor (whatever it might be). While it might be possible to set the resolution other than the native resolution, the images on the display will be distorted or pixelated. DVI-D and DVI-I cables are compatible– both carry digital output to the monitor. DVI-A cables are incompatible with DVI-D or DVI-I hardware because they use an analogue signal. Changing the colour depth increases the number of colours that the monitor displays. |
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You’ve just purchased 10 new notebook systems for your users. You are concerned that users will leave the systems on for long periods of time, which could result in display burn-in. What should you do to prevent this from happening? |
Configure a screen saver on each system. Explanation Burn-in can happen when the same image is displayed on the screen for an extended period of time. The best way to prevent this from happening is to configure a screen saver on each system. Configuring the systems to automatically power off after 5 minutes of inactivity will also prevent burn-in, but will also make them very inconvenient to use. Increasing hardware acceleration settings will not prevent burn in from occurring. Installing a software utility on each system that is designed to fix stuck pixels can be used to repair a burnt-in display, but it will not prevent it from happening in the first place. |
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You have purchased an LED monitor and connected it to the HDMI port on your computer using an HDMI cable, You configure the screen resolution to 1280 x 1024 with 32-bit colour. The geometry of the images displayed on the screen appear to be distorted. What should you do to correct the problem? |
Set the display resolution to the native resolution of the monitor. Explanation LED and LCD monitors have a native display resolution. You should set the resolution of the video board to the native resolution of the monitor (whatever it might be). While it might be possible to set the resolution other than the native resolution, the images on the display will be distorted or pixilated. Changing connection types will not correct an incorrectly set display resolution, nor will increasing the hardware acceleration or installing an updated driver. |
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You have purchased an LED monitor and connected it to the HDMI port on your computer using an HDMI cable. You configure the screen resolution to 1280 x 768 with 32-bit colour. The images displayed on the screen appear to be overly large. What should you do to correct the problem? |
Set the display resolution to the native resolution of the monitor. Explanation LED and LCD monitors have a native display resolution. You should set the resolution of the video board to the native resolution of the monitor (whatever it might be). In this scenario, the display resolution has been set to a resolution that is much smaller than the native resolution, causing the images on the display to appear over-sized. Changing connection types will not correct an incorrectly set display resolution, nor will increasing the hardware acceleration or installing an updated driver. |
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What is the difference between UXGA and WUXGA displays? |
WUXGA has a widescreen aspect ratio. Explanation WUXGA uses a widescreen (16:10) aspect ratio. The aspect ratio describes the relative width and height of the screen. Though the screen for a WUGXA screen is larger in size, technically the resolution is similar to UXGA but it is adjusted for the wider aspect ratio. The contrast ratio is a description of the relative difference between white and black, and is independent of the screen resolution. All LCD monitors are capable of using the entire screen for displaying images. |
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Which of the following are true of the SXGA screen resolution? |
1280 x 1024 5:4 aspect ratio Explanation A SXGA (super extended) display has a resolution of 1280 x 1024 and an aspect ratio of 5:4. VGA has a resolution of 1024 x 768, and UXGA has a resolution of 1600 x 1200. Widescreen aspect ratios include "W" in the name. For example, WUXGA has a 16: 10 aspect ratio (resolution of 1920 x 1200). |
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Which of the following terms describes the difference between white and black in an LCD monitor? |
Contrast ratio Explanation The contrast ratio identifies the relative difference between white and black. A higher contrast ratio means a better screen. Pitch is the distance between pixels. Resolution is the number of pixels in the display. Brightness is a measure of the intensity of the light coming from the display. The aspect ratio is the ratio of the width and the height. |
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You have purchased a 1600 x 1200 LCD monitor and connected it to the DVI-I port on your computer using a DVI-D cable. You configure the screen resolution at 1280 x 1024 with 24-bit colour. The display output seems to be fuzzy and stretched. What should you do to correct the problem? |
Change the screen resolution to the native resolution of the monitor. Explanation LCD monitors have a native display resolution. The native display of this monitor is 1600 x 1200. While it might be possible to set the resolution lower than the native display, you should use the native display setting for the clearest picture. Using a DVI-D cable is the same as using a DVI-I cable– both will give you digital output. Using a DVI-A cable (if it will work on the monitor) could result in lower quality images as you will be using an analogue signal. Increasing the colour depth increases the number of colours that the monitor displays. |
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Which of the following video card connectors provides digital video output? |
DVI-D HDMI Explanation High- Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is a digital video and audio connector used for high-definition digital audio and video. A DVI-D (digital video-digital) connection provides digital output. A DVI-I (digital video-integrated) connection also provides digital output as it sends both a digital and an analogue signal. Most video cards have DVI-I ports that allow you to connect both digital and analogue monitors. A DVI-A (digital video-analogue) connection is used only for analogue video signals, and will be found on cables but rarely (if ever a video card itself). A composite video connection on a video card provides analogue, video-only TV output in a single channel. S-video (separate-video. V/C. or S-VHS) supply analogue, video-only TV output in two channels. An HDTV connector supplies analogue, video-only TV output in three separate channels. |
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How many pins are on a VGA connector? |
D-shaped with 15 pins Explanation A VGA/SVGA monitor uses a high-density (three-row) female DB-15 connector on the computer. Some printers use a Mini Centronics connector, which also has 36-pins. A 6-pin mini-DIN (PS/2 connector) is for keyboard and mouse. DB-9 (serial) connector is for specialized input devices. |
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Which of the following statements are true about the DisplayPort interface for connecting video monitors to computers? |
DisplayPort can send both video and audio signals over the same cable. DisplayPort uses a lower voltage than DVI or HDMI. Explanation DisplayPort is an alternative to an HDMI connector. DisplayPort uses a different signal format than DVI or HDMI. However, DisplayPort supports sending DVI or HDMI signals over the same port using a simple adapter. DisplayPort uses a digital-only signal. To connect a VGA monitor to a DisplayPort, you will need a special active converter that reformats the signal for analogue devices. Like HDMI, DisplayPort can send audio signals over the same cable (if audio is supported by the video and monitor). DisplayPort uses lower voltage than DVI and HDMI. |
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Which of the following is true of modern LCD monitors regarding backlighting? |
LEDs are used to backlight the screen. Explanation Modern LCDS use LEDs (light-emitting diodes) to backlight the screen. Older LCD monitors use cold cathode fluorescent lamps (CCFLs) for backlighting. Plasma displays use millions of small cells that contain electrically charged ionized gases and don’t need backlighting. RGB-LED displays are available on modern LCD displays; they gave an array of special LEDs that are able to emit red, green, and blue light, resulting in superior colour accuracy but as the most expensive type of backlighting technology. |
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You are putting together a gaming system and need to make sure you get a display that meets your needs. The display needs to have a very good response time, and you would prefer that it be affordable and power efficient. Which type of display is most likely to meet these needs? |
LCD display with TN panel. Explanation LCD displays with TN panels are the most common technology used by LCDs. TN panels have very good response times (1-5 ms) and refresh rates (60-144 Hz), so they are great for PC gaming. They are more affordable and have faster response times than LCDs with IPS panels, use far less power than a plasma display, and far more affordable than OLED displays. |
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You have a friend who is offering to sell the monitor and video card from his gaming system along with several PC games. The games have fast moving graphics, and you want to be able to play them on your own home system. The monitor he is selling is an LCD TN with a 144 Hz refresh rate. The video card he is selling supports a max refresh rate of 144 HZ. You want to buy the games, but you have a couple of other choices when it comes to the monitor and the video card. The monitor in your current system has a 60 Hz refresh rate. The video card has a max refresh rate of 75 Hz. This configuration has always worked fine for watching videos. You’re also looking at new 60 Hz LCD IPS monitors and several high end video cards with max refresh rates of up to 240 Hz. Which of the following options will allow you to play the games on your home system with the best gaming experience possible? |
Buy your friend’s games, monitor, and video card. Swap out both your video card and monitor. Explanation The LCD TN monitor with the 144 Hz refresh rate along with the video card with a max refresh rate of 144 Hz will give you the best gaming experience compared to the other options. Remember that in order to achieve a specific refresh rate, the following components must all support the same maximum refresh rate: Display device. Video card. Display cable Fast moving graphic applications, such as games, perform best with a refresh rate of 120 Hz or higher, which is covered by this option. Also, LCD TN panel monitors have a much faster response time, which makes them superior for gaming when compared to LCD IPS panel monitors. The newer video card with a max refresh rate of 240 Hz has some advantages over the older card, but not in combination with the LCD IPS panel monitor. Either option where you keep the 60 Hz monitor, or the 75 Hz card, or both will limit the performance of your system to the rate of the slowest component, which will not be sufficient for the fast moving graphics in the games. |
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Which aspect ratio applies to displays with resolutions of 800 x 600 and 1600 x 1200? |
4:3 |
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Which aspect ratio applies to displays with resolutions of 1680 x 1050 and 1920 x 1200? |
16:10 |
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Which aspect ratio applies to displays with resolutions of 1280 x 720 and 1920 x 1080? |
16:9 |
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Explanation |
The aspect ratio is the proportion between the width and height of a resolution. Aspect ratios are used by both display devices and video content. The following are the three most commonly used aspect ratios: 4:3 is used primarily by analogue TV broadcasts and older flat-panel and CRT displays. Typical resolutions include 800 x 600 and 1600 x 1200. 16:9 is a widescreen aspect ratio used by HDTVs, computer displays, and most production films. Typical resolutions include 1280 x 720 and 1920 x 1080. 16:10 is a widescreen aspect ratio used exclusively by computer display devices. Typical resolutions include 1680 x 1050 and 1920 x 1200. |
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You are putting together a system for a graphic artist and need to make sure you get a display that meets her needs. The display needs to have very good colour reproduction quality and viewing angles. The display needs to run cool and be power efficient. Which type of display is most likely to meet these needs? |
LCD display with IPS panel Explanation LCD displays with IPS panels have the best colour representation quality and viewing angles among LCDs. TN panels have imperfect colour representation due to the fact that only 6-bits per colour can be displayed and have poor viewing angles. LCDs with IPS panels use far less power and run much cooler than plasma displays. They are more expensive than LCDs with TN panels but are still more affordable than OLED displays. |
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