Abnormal Psychology Chapter 13

A paraphilia:
A)
usually involves rape.
B)
is a response to a socially inappropriate object or situation.
C)
is an inability to experience sexual arousal.
D)
is an inability to achieve sexual satisfaction.

B) is a response to a socially inappropriate object or situation.

A person who becomes sexually aroused in the presence of stimuli most people in that person’s society would not think appropriate is experiencing:
A)
sexual dysfunction.
B)
gender identity disorder.
C)
paraphilia.
D)
hyperactive sexual desire.

C) paraphilia.

If someone felt assigned to the wrong sex and identified with the other gender, that person would MOST likely receive a diagnosis of:
A)
gender dysphoria.
B)
homosexuality.
C)
fetishism.
D)
sexual dysfunction.

A) gender dysphoria.

Research shows that sexual dysfunctions among homosexual couples:
A)
are virtually nonexistent.
B)
generally are more severe than among heterosexual couples.
C)
include two distinct categories not included among heterosexual dysfunctions.
D)
are the same as those seen in heterosexual couples.

D) are the same as those seen in heterosexual couples.

If someone had a sexual dysfunction, we know that this person would not be having difficulty in which of the following phases of the sexual response cycle?
A)
excitement
B)
resolution
C)
orgasm
D)
desire

B) resolution

In a person who has an unusually long resolution phase of the sexual response cycle, which of the following is MOST likely?
A)
The person is a man.
B)
The person is a teenager.
C)
The person did not have an orgasm.
D)
The person was never aroused.

C) The person did not have an orgasm.

A man who has never been able to achieve or maintain an erection for sexual intercourse would MOST likely be diagnosed with what type of erectile disorder?
A)
acquired
B)
lifelong
C)
situational
D)
generalized

B) lifelong

A woman is perfectly capable of masturbating herself to orgasm, yet is unable to reach orgasm with a partner, either through sexual intercourse or through being masturbated. MOST likely, this type of orgasmic disorder would be called:
A)
lifelong.
B)
acquired.
C)
generalized.
D)
situational.

D) situational.

If an individual had experienced normal sexual functioning for years and gradually developed a problem with becoming aroused under any conditions, the type of dysfunction would be:
A)
lifelong and situational.
B)
acquired and situational.
C)
lifelong and generalized.
D)
acquired and generalized.

D) acquired and generalized.

If an individual had experienced normal sexual functioning for years and then had a problem with becoming aroused only when with her husband as a partner, the type of dysfunction would be:
A)
lifelong and situational.
B)
acquired and situational.
C)
lifelong and generalized.
D)
acquired and generalized.

B) acquired and situational.

If a woman had never experienced normal sexual functioning with her husband and had a problem with becoming aroused with him, but found she could be aroused with other men, the type of dysfunction would be:
A)
lifelong and situational.
B)
acquired and situational.
C)
lifelong and generalized.
D)
acquired and generalized.

A) lifelong and situational.

A person who once experienced normal to above-normal levels of sexual desire recently has begun to feel much less than normal sexual desire. A sexual dysfunction following this pattern would be called what type?
A)
situational
B)
acquired
C)
lifelong
D)
generalized

B) acquired

According to Masters and Johnson, the resolution phase is more gradual and less sudden in women when:
A)
they do not experience orgasm.
B)
they do not experience arousal.
C)
they experience a sexual aversion.
D)
they have experienced multiple orgasms.

A) they do not experience orgasm.

An otherwise healthy man reports almost no interest in sexual activity, and has had very few sexual experiences in the past several years. That person MOST likely is experiencing:
A)
hypoactive sexual desire.
B)
paraphilia.
C)
sexual aversion.
D)
sexual repulsion.

A) hypoactive sexual desire.

Hypoactive sexual desire may include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)
a low level of sexual activity.
B)
finding sexual activity repulsive.
C)
a lack of interest in sexual activity.
D)
normal physical sexual responses.

B) finding sexual activity repulsive.

To be classified as having hypoactive sexual desire, one would have a reduced interest in sex and little sexual activity, lasting:
A)
a week.
B)
a month
C)
six months.
D)
a year.

B) a month

Some individuals experience a normal interest in sex but choose not to engage in sexual relations. Such people would be diagnosed with:
A)
sexual aversion.
B)
hypoactive sexual desire.
C)
no sexual dysfunction.
D)
failure of the sexual response cycle.

C) no sexual dysfunction

Female sexual interest/arousal disorder differs from male hypoactive sexual desire disorder MOST notably in that it:
A)
includes difficulties in both the desire and arousal stages of the sexual response cycle.
B)
leads to reproductive difficulties.
C)
is much more likely to be physically caused than psychologically caused.
D)
is much more difficult to treat.

A) includes difficulties in both the desire and arousal stages of the sexual response cycle.

A woman who experiences little sexual response to erotic cues and physical stimulation is MOST likely experiencing:
A)
sexual interest/arousal disorder.
B)
hypersexuality.
C)
vaginismus.
D)
gender dysphoria.

A) sexual interest/arousal disorder.

Which hormone can cause decreased sexual desire when present in low, but not high levels?
A)
estrogen
B)
prolactin
C)
testosterone
D)
progesterone

C) testosterone

Which hormone can cause decreased sexual desire when present in either low or high levels?
A)
estrogen
B)
prolactin
C)
testosterone
D)
progesterone

A) estrogen

A young woman who formerly had a fairly high sex drive, and who reports no new medical problems, nonetheless experiences an unexpected drop in sex drive. What would be an important question to ask her, before recommending some sort of psychotherapy?
A)
"Have you been exposed to high levels of testosterone lately?"
B)
"Have you recently started taking birth control pills?"
C)
"Have you recently stopped using marijuana?"
D)
"Have you experienced lower levels of prolactin lately?"

B) "Have you recently started taking birth control pills?"

Which of the following drugs, used at low levels, may raise the sex drive?
A)
alcohol
B)
cocaine
C)
amphetamines
D)
pain medication

A) alcohol

Obsessive-compulsive symptoms may contribute to hypoactive sexual desire because someone with this disorder:
A)
finds contact with body fluids and odors unpleasant.
B)
compulsively seeks sexual partners.
C)
obsesses about having no sexual partners.
D)
is too afraid to enjoy sexual activity.

A) finds contact with body fluids and odors unpleasant.

If a therapist were seeing patients for treatment of hypoactive sexual desire, the therapist would be MOST likely to find which of the following disorders as well?
A)
schizophrenia and eating disorders
B)
substance abuse and anxiety disorder
C)
depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder
D)
organic brain dysfunction and personality disorders

C) depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder

During the young adult years (18-24), which of the following is LEAST common among women?
A)
masturbation
B)
not having had heterosexual contact
C)
having had sexual contact with a same-sex partner
D)
having had heterosexual contact

B) not having had heterosexual contact

If grandma is 90 and healthy, what is the percent chance she still masturbates at least occasionally?
A)
less than 1 percent
B)
about 10 percent
C)
about 20 percent
D)
over 20 percent

D) over 20 percent

About 90 percent of males in their ______ years masturbate one or two times a week and most have two sex partners
A)
teenage
B)
early adult
C)
middle age
D)
old age

A) teenage

If grandpa is 90 and healthy, what is the percent chance he still masturbates at least occasionally?
A)
less than 5 percent
B)
about 20 percent
C)
about 40 percent
D)
over 40 percent

D) over 40 percent

Studies of patterns of teenage sexual behavior today compared to such behavior a generation ago show today’s teens having:
A)
intercourse younger, and using condoms more.
B)
intercourse younger, and using condoms less.
C)
intercourse at about the same age, and using condoms more.
D)
intercourse at about the same age, and using condoms less.

A) intercourse younger, and using condoms more.

The following are all examples of sociocultural causes of hypoactive sexual disorder EXCEPT:
A)
having a partner lacking in sexual skills.
B)
loss of a job.
C)
infertility problems.
D)
pain medication.

D) pain medication.

The event that is very likely to result in sexual aversion or hypoactive sexual desire is:
A)
sexual molestation.
B)
the birth of a child.
C)
infertility difficulties.
D)
conflict in a relationship.

A) sexual molestation

A recently married, physically healthy man expresses great love for his new spouse, yet feels almost no sexual desire for her. One likely cause of his condition is:
A)
belief in a cultural double standard about women.
B)
decreased testosterone output due to drinking on his wedding night.
C)
increased estrogen output now that he has "settled down."
D)
a relationship that is too positive and healthy.

A) belief in a cultural double standard about women.

In females, the labia swells during which phase of the sexual response cycle?
A)
desire
B)
arousal
C)
orgasm
D)
resolution

A) desire

In males, the penis becomes erect during which phase of the sexual response cycle?
A)
excitement
B)
arousal
C)
orgasm
D)
resolution

B) arousal

Women with sexual arousal disorder have difficulty with:
A)
painful intercourse.
B)
vaginal spasms.
C)
maintaining proper lubrication.
D)
stereotypical female sex roles.

C) maintaining proper lubrication.

A woman reports having vivid sexual fantasies, yet is unable to experience either clitoral or labial swelling, or vaginal lubrication. The MOST likely diagnosis for this woman would be:
A)
vaginismus.
B)
fridgity.
C)
female orgasmic disorder.
D)
sexual interest arousal disorder.

D) sexual interest arousal disorder.

What were once referred to as frigidity and impotence are dysfunctions that occur during the ______ phase of sexual arousal.
A)
excitement
B)
orgasmic
C)
desire
D)
resolution

A) excitement

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of female sexual interest arousal disorder?
A)
lack of clitoral swelling
B)
lack of interest in sexual activity
C)
inadequate lubrication during sexual activity
D)
vaginal contractions that prevent penetration

C) inadequate lubrication during sexual activity

A recent study of erectile disorder showed that most cases of erectile disorder are caused by:
A)
psychosocial factors.
B)
physical impairment.
C)
a combination of psychosocial and physical causes.
D)
causes other than psychosocial or physical ones.

C) a combination of psychosocial and physical causes.

In looking for a biological cause of an erectile disorder, one would MOST productively look for a:
A)
neurological problem.
B)
vascular problem.
C)
reproductive problem.
D)
renal problem.

B) vascular problem.

What is the MOST common biological cause of erectile failure in men?
A)
diabetes
B)
performance anxiety
C)
vascular problems
D)
abnormal hormone levels

C) vascular problems

A person who (unfortunately) had the following disorders—clogged arteries, diabetes, kidney failure—would be at special risk for:
A)
erectile disorder.
B)
sexual aversion.
C)
dyspareunia.
D)
vaginismus.

A) erectile disorder.

A healthy man is likely to have two to five REM periods each night and several penile erections during that time. If he is not experiencing this, he MOST likely has:
A)
a normal response.
B)
nocturnal penile tumescence.
C)
performance anxiety.
D)
a biologically based erectile dysfunction.

D) a biologically based erectile dysfunction.

A man awakens after eight hours of normal sleep, and has an unbroken "snap gauge" band. There’s a good chance that the man has:
A)
a physical basis for his erectile problems.
B)
a case of socioculturally related erectile disorder.
C)
a case of psychologically related erectile disorder.
D)
a normal sex life.

A) a physical basis for his erectile problems.

A normal healthy man experiences:
A)
20 to 30 minutes of penile erection per night of sleep.
B)
most nocturnal tumescence during deep (delta) sleep.
C)
brief, fleeting nighttime erections.
D)
erections during REM sleep.

D) erections during REM sleep

According to Masters and Johnson, performance anxiety may result in a man:
A)
failing to break a "snap gauge" band.
B)
breaking a "snap gauge" band.
C)
experiencing severe depression after sexual activity.
D)
adopting a spectator role during sexual activity.

D) adopting a spectator role during sexual activity.

Which of the following occupations is MOST similar to what Masters and Johnson identified as the spectator role in sexual behavior?
A)
priest
B)
airline pilot
C)
actor
D)
judge

D) judge

Which of the following is a sociocultural cause for male erectile disorder?
A)
diabetes
B)
loss of a job
C)
mild depression
D)
performance anxiety

B) loss of a job

Based on the likely sociocultural factors related to erectile disorders, the BEST advice you could give to an aging couple would be to:
A)
"Retire or quit your job or jobs."
B)
"Provide more intense and lengthy penile stimulation."
C)
"Focus on intercourse over other forms of sexual expression."
D)
"Give up; there is no effective treatment."

B) "Provide more intense and lengthy penile stimulation."

Which of the following is MOST descriptive of an orgasm?
A)
vascular congestion
B)
muscle contraction
C)
cardio relaxation
D)
psychological desire

B) muscle contraction

According to DSM-5, the cut-off point for diagnosing early ejaculation is within _____ of initiating sexual activity.
A)
30 seconds
B)
a minute
C)
3 minutes
D)
10 minutes

B) a minute

A man experiencing the process of erection and partial elevation of the testes is in which stage of sexual response?
A)
excitement
B)
desire
C)
orgasm
D)
refraction

B) desire

Compared to erectile disorder, early ejaculation is:
A)
common among older men.
B)
likely to have a physical explanation.
C)
likely related to a low testosterone level.
D)
common among men of all ages.

D) common among men of all ages.

n the United States, over the past several decades, the typical duration of sexual intercourse has:
A)
increased, as has the distress of those suffering from early ejaculation.
B)
increased, while the distress of those suffering from early ejaculation has decreased.
C)
decreased, while the distress of those suffering from early ejaculation has increased.
D)
decreased, as has the distress of those suffering from early ejaculation.

D) decreased, as has the distress of those suffering from early ejaculation.

From a psychological perspective, early ejaculation is usually the result of:
A)
sexual aversion.
B)
sexual impotence.
C)
organic problems.
D)
sexual inexperience.

D) sexual inexperience.

William, a 20-year-old who is having his first sexual relationship, has gone to see a sex therapist about a sexual dysfunction problem. What is William MOST likely suffering from?
A)
sexual aversion
B)
inhibited ejaculation
C)
delayed early ejaculation
D)
hypoactive sexual desire

C) delayed early ejaculation

A male diagnosed with a sexual dysfunction is MOST likely to be diagnosed with:
A)
erectile disorder.
B)
orgasmic disorder.
C)
early ejaculation.
D)
dyparenuia.

C) early ejaculation.

Delayed ejaculation appears MOST likely to be caused by disruptions in which of the following?
A)
the neurological system
B)
the urological system
C)
the digestive system
D)
the muscular system

A) the neurological system

According to DSM-5, all of the excitement disorders have in common the diagnostic requirement that the difficulty:
A)
begins in adolescence or early adulthood.
B)
causes significant distress or impairment.
C)
is apparent in all sexual encounters.
D)
lasts at least one year.

B) causes significant distress or impairment.

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate about female orgasm?
A)
About 50 percent of women experience orgasmic disorder.
B)
About 25 percent of women have never experienced an orgasm.
C)
Women who are comfortable masturbating are more likely to experience orgasm.
D)
Clitoral orgasms are inferior to vaginal orgasms.

C) Women who are comfortable masturbating are more likely to experience orgasm.

A woman who can masturbate or be masturbated to orgasm but cannot reach orgasm during sexual intercourse, would be diagnosed with:
A)
no sexual disorder.
B)
orgasmic disorder.
C)
vaginismus.
D)
dyspareunia.

A) no sexual disorder.

The view that modern researchers hold about clitoral orgasms is that they are:
A)
as healthy as vaginal orgasms.
B)
felt only by sexually dysfunctional women.
C)
the result of fixation on neurotic infantile needs.
D)
superior to vaginal orgasms in terms of sexual gratification.

A) as healthy as vaginal orgasms.

A woman who is sexually assertive and comfortable with masturbation will MOST likely:
A)
experience a sexual dysfunction.
B)
have orgasms more regularly.
C)
have a partner who experiences premature ejaculation.
D)
have both an arousal and an orgasmic disorder.

B) have orgasms more regularly.

In Victorian times, a woman diagnosed as "insane" was presumed to have a dysfunction of her:
A)
brain.
B)
soul.
C)
heart.
D)
reproductive organs.

D) reproductive organs.

Attitudes about women’s sexuality are more liberal now, yet the rates of female orgasmic disorders have remained the same. This trend:
A)
argues against a purely sociocultural cause of female orgasmic disorder.
B)
suggests that the Victorians were incorrect in their assumptions about clitoral orgasms.
C)
implies that biological factors are at the root of orgasmic dysfunction.
D)
means that there must be an interaction of many factors that produce sexual dysfunction.

A) argues against a purely sociocultural cause of female orgasmic disorder.

Research shows that parents who want to decrease the likelihood that their young daughters will experience orgasmic disorder as adults should:
A)
be affectionate with each other.
B)
expose them to liberal religious training.
C)
make sure they have early sexual experiences.
D)
punish them for masturbation.

A) be affectionate with each other.

Having a positive relationship with one’s mother is associated with ______ in women.
A)
positive orgasm outcomes
B)
hypoactive desire
C)
hyperactive desire
D)
paraphilia

A) positive orgasm outcomes

Women are MORE likely to be orgasmic when they have:
A)
unhappy marriages.
B)
a weak emotional attachment to their first sex partner.
C)
an attraction to their current partner’s occupation.
D)
had a relatively long relationship with their first sex partner.

D) had a relatively long relationship with their first sex partner.

Which of the following findings would argue against the idea that hypoactive sexual desire in women is caused by societal treatment of women?
A)
The same drugs that interfere with ejaculation in men cause hypoactive sexual desire in women.
B)
A sexually restrictive history is just as common among women with and without hypoactive sexual desire.
C)
Clitoral orgasms are just as common and pleasurable as vaginal orgasms.
D)
Erotic fantasies are more common in women with hypoactive sexual desire than in those without it.

B) A sexually restrictive history is just as common among women with and without hypoactive sexual desire.

Which of the following findings BEST argues against the idea that female orgasmic problems are due to society’s message to women that they should deny their sexuality? Many women with arousal and orgasmic difficulties:
A)
had overly strict religious upbringings.
B)
were punished for childhood masturbation.
C)
have a history of rape or child sexual molestation.
D)
received little information about sex and menstruation

C) have a history of rape or child sexual molestation.

No matter the country—whether it is the United States, Japan, or Russia—women say casual sex is significantly less acceptable than men say it is. These results reflect which of the following regarding gender, country of origin, and sexual attitudes?
A)
One’s gender is the most important determinant.
B)
One’s country is the most important determinant.
C)
The interaction between sex and country is the most important determinant.
D)
One’s personal history is the most important determinant.

A) One’s gender is the most important determinant.

What is thought to be the cause of vaginismus (the involuntary contraction of vaginal muscles)?
A)
conditioning of a fear response
B)
nervous system damage from diabetes
C)
neurological damage in the cerebellum
D)
a learned aversion to sexual behavior in general

A) conditioning of a fear response

People experiencing dyspareunia:
A)
do not enjoy sex.
B)
are unable to become sexually aroused.
C)
experience pain during sex.
D)
are unable to masturbate.

C) experience pain during sex

A woman’s dyspareunia is MOST likely caused by:
A)
a traumatic psychological event.
B)
relationship difficulties.
C)
some physical condition.
D)
sociocultural expectations related to the female role.

C) some physical condition.

Symptoms of vaginismus always include:
A)
an inability to experience orgasm.
B)
involuntary contraction of vaginal muscles.
C)
a dislike for and distrust of sexual relationships.
D)
an emotional detachment from the partner.

B) involuntary contraction of vaginal muscles.

What is another name for genital pain during sexual activity?
A)
dyspareunia
B)
premature ejaculation
C)
postmature ejaculation
D)
male orgasmic disorder

A) dyspareunia

In psychodynamic theory, the therapeutic goal in treating sexual dysfunction is:
A)
to cause broad personality changes.
B)
systematically use free association.
C)
overcoming learned aversion to sexual material.
D)
keeping a dream diary for dream interpretation.

A) to cause broad personality changes.

What problem did early behavioral therapists focus on when treating sexual dysfunction?
A)
fear
B)
depression
C)
aggression
D)
conflict resolution

A) fear

The study of sexuality that led to a revolution in the treatment of sexual dysfunction was done by:
A)
Kaplan.
B)
Freud and Jung.
C)
Masters and Johnson.
D)
Friedman and LoPiccolo.

C) Masters and Johnson.

If someone receives "modern" sex therapy, chances are that the therapy will:
A)
center on specific sexual problems.
B)
center on specific personality problems.
C)
deal with broad biological/cultural issues.
D)
deal with broad personality issues.

A) center on specific sexual problems.

Which of the following would a qualified sex therapist be LEAST likely to say to a client?
A)
"Focus on your performance as if you were a spectator."
B)
"Try to figure out what events in the past might be impacting your sexual behavior."
C)
"Maybe if you work on your marital happiness, your sex life will improve."
D)
"You need to talk more with your partner about what you like and don’t like sexually."

A) "Focus on your performance as if you were a spectator."

The idea that both partners share the accountability for sexual dysfunction is known as:
A)
couples therapy.
B)
mutual responsibility.
C)
nondemand pleasuring.
D)
interactionary dysfunction.

B) mutual responsibility.

"Sensate focus" refers to the technique in which:
A)
sexual intercourse is encouraged daily.
B)
eye contact is maintained during sexual activity.
C)
the genitals are focused on during sexual activity.
D)
the sexual relationship is rebuilt, concentrating on pleasure.

D) the sexual relationship is rebuilt, concentrating on pleasure.

Couples in sex therapy who are working on eliminating the spectator role, are generally advised:
A)
to have sex in as many different settings as they can manage.
B)
to video their sexual encounters in order to increase fantasy material.
C)
to refrain from having intercourse and focus on other body pleasure instead.
D)
to drink small quantities of alcohol in order to relax.

C) to refrain from having intercourse and focus on other body pleasure instead.

Which of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A)
sensate focus
B)
sexual aversion
C)
nondemand pleasuring
D)
petting

B) sexual aversion

In therapy, a patient is taught to visualize sexual scenes and uncover any negative emotions that occur. The therapist is using:
A)
self-instruction training.
B)
affectual awareness.
C)
aversion therapy.
D)
performance anxiety.

B) affectual awareness.

If you were instructed to imagine sexual scenes in order to identify when in the sexual encounter your anxiety about sex first arose, you would be engaging in a therapeutic technique called:
A)
affectual awareness.
B)
systematic desensitization.
C)
orgasmic reorientation.
D)
sexual satiation.

A) affectual awareness.

In treating erectile disorder, the "tease" technique involves:
A)
three or more episodes of intercourse each night for a month.
B)
stimulating the penis, but stimulation is stopped once erection occurs.
C)
stimulating the penis until ejaculation, followed by a pause and then another period of stimulation.
D)
stimulation of the penis, but before ejaculation can occur, the woman squeezes the penis below the head to prevent ejaculation.

B) stimulating the penis, but stimulation is stopped once erection occurs.

A man’s sexual partner repeatedly stimulates him to erection, then allows the erection to subside without the man experiencing an ejaculation. The sexual technique is called the:
A)
phase technique.
B)
sneeze technique.
C)
tease technique.
D)
squeeze technique.

C) tease technique.

How does Viagra work?
A)
It increases blood flow into the penis.
B)
It draws blood flow out of the penis to create a vacuum.
C)
It increases testosterone levels.
D)
It creates new cognitions about sex.

A) It increases blood flow into the penis.

If a man has been taught to masturbate almost to orgasm, and then to insert his penis for intercourse, the man is MOST probably being treated for:
A)
early ejaculation.
B)
dyspareunia.
C)
delayed ejaculation.
D)
gender identity disorder.

C) delayed ejaculation.

Which of the following is the MOST accurate conclusion regarding the use of Viagra and related drugs to treat erectile disorders?
A)
The drugs are safe but not effective in treating the disorders.
B)
The drugs are safe and effective but should only used after careful assessment of what is causing the problem.
C)
The drugs work about 75 percent of the time and are often given without first assessing what is causing the problem.
D)
The drugs are effective, but so unsafe that they are no longer prescribed.

C) The drugs work about 75 percent of the time and are often given without first assessing what is causing the problem.

Theoretically, why do SSRIs help treat early ejaculation?
A)
Men who ejaculate early often become depressed.
B)
SSRIs reduce serotonin levels, thus increasing arousal.
C)
SSRIs inhibit the anxiety that is often related to early ejaculation.
D)
SSRIs reduce arousal and orgasm and help men delay ejaculation.

D) SSRIs reduce arousal and orgasm and help men delay ejaculation.

If during intercourse, the female repeatedly stimulates her male partner up to the point when he almost reaches orgasm and then stops, he is probably being treated for:
A)
erectile dysfunction.
B)
early ejaculation.
C)
orgasmic dysfunction.
D)
dyspareunia.

B) early ejaculation.

EMTs need to be sure to ask someone who is taking nitroglycerin if that person also has taken:
A)
estrogen.
B)
sildenafil.
C)
testosterone.
D)
antidepressants.

B) sildenafil.

A client receives directed masturbation training and self-exploration instruction as part of the client’s sex therapy. MOST likely, the client is a:
A)
woman being treated for orgasmic disorder.
B)
woman being treated for vaginismus.
C)
man being treated for erectile dysfunction.
D)
man being treated for premature ejaculation.

A) woman being treated for orgasmic disorder.

The fact that insurance companies in the United States generally covered Viagra but not birth control pills until required to by state law supports the idea that:
A)
birth control pills carry more medical risks than Viagra.
B)
private funds need to cover women’s sexual health, but not men’s.
C)
societal standards are different for sexually active men than they are for women.
D)
the United States lags behind other countries (such as Japan) in recognizing women’s sexuality.

C) societal standards are different for sexually active men than they are for women.

Why do people object to the use of Viagra and similar drugs being voluntarily covered by health insurance companies, but fail to object to birth control pills not being covered unless mandated by law?
A)
Viagra is much more expensive than birth control pills.
B)
The reason is ageism; Viagra is used by older people, while birth control is used by younger people.
C)
Viagra is a trade drug; birth control pills are largely generic.
D)
The reason may be the sexual double standard; sex is OK for men but not for women.

D) The reason may be the sexual double standard; sex is OK for men but not for women.

A woman who is inserting graduated cylinders into her vagina in a nondemand manner is probably being treated for:
A)
orgasmic dysfunction.
B)
vaginismus.
C)
dyspareunia.
D)
arousal difficulties.

B) vaginismus.

Which of the following does NOT belong with the others as a treatment for orgasmic dysfunction in women?
A)
creating orgasm triggers
B)
masturbation training
C)
positioning that produces clitoral stimulation
D)
use of the squeeze technique

D) use of the squeeze technique

All of the following are examples of current trends in sex therapy EXCEPT:
A)
treating partners who are living together but not married.
B)
treating the elderly who have sexual dysfunctions.
C)
treating homosexual people with sexual dysfunctions.
D)
treating only those who do not have other serious psychological problems.

D) treating only those who do not have other serious psychological problems.

Most sex therapists are uneasy about recent reliance on drug treatments for sexual dysfunctions because:
A)
the integrated approach to therapy might be ignored.
B)
drug treatment is generally not effective.
C)
of the risk of drug dependence.
D)
it makes the treatment of sexual disorders more complex than it needs to be.

A) the integrated approach to therapy might be ignored.

Which of the following disorders is NOT listed in DSM-5, but might be in future DSMs, following additional study?
A)
pedophilic disorder
B)
gender dysphoria
C)
male orgasmic disorder
D)
hypersexuality

D) hypersexuality

Most clinicians would agree that paraphilic activities should NOT be considered a disorder when:
A)
children are involved.
B)
the behavior is the exclusive way one becomes aroused.
C)
the behavior is part of an otherwise typical sex life.
D)
the behavior is nonconsensual.

C) the behavior is part of an otherwise typical sex life.

DSM-5 recommends a diagnosis of paraphilia only when associated behaviors, fantasies, or urges last at least:
A)
six months.
B)
one year.
C)
two years.
D)
three years.

A) six months.

According to DSM-5, someone who initiates sexual contact with children is:
A)
experiencing a paraphilia, but only if the person is also mentally ill.
B)
experiencing a paraphilia but only if the behavior causes the person significant distress.
C)
experiencing a paraphilia, but only if the behavior is illegal.
D)
experiencing a paraphilia regardless of how troubled the individual may be.

D) experiencing a paraphilia regardless of how troubled the individual may be.

SSRIs successfully treat paraphilias, MOST likely because of paraphilias’ similarity to:
A)
compulsive-like disorders.
B)
sexual dysfunctions.
C)
depression.
D)
schizophrenia.

A) compulsive-like disorders.

An antiandrogen would be MOST appropriate if a paraphilic disorder is caused by:
A)
too much estrogen in the body.
B)
an inappropriate sex drive.
C)
a deficiency in the production of testosterone.
D)
a hormonal imbalance that occurred during the prenatal period.

B) an inappropriate sex drive.

The campus "bra bandit" steals women’s underwear from the campus laundry, then masturbates into the underwear. The MOST accurate diagnosis would be:
A)
no diagnosis: the behavior falls within "normal" limits.
B)
fetishism.
C)
transvestic fetishism.
D)
exhibitionistic fetishism.

B) fetishism.

What is the term for the use of and attraction to inanimate objects as a preferred method of achieving sexual excitement?
A)
fetishism
B)
pedophilia
C)
voyeurism
D)
exhibitionism

A) fetishism

What does the process of covert sensitization for fetishism involve?
A)
masturbation while thinking of the fetish object
B)
mentally pairing a fetish object with an aversive stimulus
C)
pairing electric shock to the arm or leg with the fetish object
D)
creating a hierarchy of arousing objects and teaching the patient to relax while thinking of each in turn

B) mentally pairing a fetish object with an aversive stimulus

When a fetishist imagines the object of the fetish, then immediately imagines an aversive stimulus, the behavioral approach being used is:
A)
covert sensitization.
B)
relapse-prevention training.
C)
aversion therapy via classical conditioning.
D)
aversion therapy via operant conditioning.

A) covert sensitization.

Of the following, which would MOST likely be treated with masturbatory satiation?
A)
transvestism.
B)
premature ejaculation.
C)
a fetish.
D)
erectile dysfunction.

C) a fetish.

A man being treated for a fetish to women’s hats first obtains an erection from looking at women’s hats, then begins to masturbate while looking at a picture of a nude woman. At the moment of orgasm, he makes sure to be looking at the picture of the nude woman. The behavioral approach being used is:
A)
covert sensitization.
B)
masturbatory satiation.
C)
orgasmic reorientation.
D)
relapse-prevention training.

C) orgasmic reorientation.

Which of the following does NOT belong with the others?
A)
graduated cylinders
B)
masturbatory satiation
C)
orgasmic reorientation
D)
aversion therapy

A) graduated cylinders

"Cross-dressing" is another term for:
A)
homosexuality.
B)
transvestic disorder.
C)
orgasmic reorientation.
D)
satiation.

B) transvestic disorder.

A man derives sexual arousal exclusively from dressing in women’s clothing. MOST likely, that person would be diagnosed as:
A)
normal and healthy.
B)
an exhibitionist.
C)
having transvestic disorder.
D)
having gender dysphoria.

C) having transvestic disorder

Terry has been diagnosed as having a paraphilia, specifically transvestic fetishism. Terry is MOST likely to be:
A)
male.
B)
gay.
C)
female.
D)
elderly.

A) male.

Exhibitionists engage in that behavior because they:
A)
were sexually abused as children.
B)
are trying to solicit sexual contact.
C)
are unable to experience sexual relations.
D)
desire a shock reaction from their victim.

D) desire a shock reaction from their victim.

Which of the following responses from the person he exposed himself to would be LEAST satisfying to an exhibitionist?
A)
"I’m shocked. You really surprise me."
B)
screaming
C)
ignoring the exhibitionist
D)
hiding one’s eyes and gasping

C) ignoring the exhibitionist

Why are people who go to strip clubs not generally considered to be voyeurs?
A)
The nudity of the performers is not complete.
B)
There is no sense these people who go there are doing something frowned on by society.
C)
The performers are consenting to being seen by the audience.
D)
The performers are exhibitionists and it’s impossible for someone to simultaneously be an exhibitionist and a voyeur.

C) The performers are consenting to being seen by the audience.

Which of the following thoughts would likely be MOST arousing to a voyeur in the act of secretly watching a couple have sex?
A)
I wish those people knew I was watching them.
B)
I know I am doing this in a way that I can’t get caught.
C)
I’ll probably never think about this again.
D)
The people would be humiliated if they knew I was watching.

D) The people would be humiliated if they knew I was watching.

In a very crowded department store during the Christmas rush, a woman suddenly feels a stranger rubbing his genital area against her thigh. He continues until the crowd begins to break up, then he moves away. The MOST likely diagnosis for this man is:
A)
pedophilia.
B)
frotteurism.
C)
sexual masochism.
D)
hypoxyphilia.

B) frotteurism.

During which period does frotteurism typically develop?
A)
adolescence
B)
early adulthood
C)
middle adulthood
D)
late adulthood

A) adolescence

During which period does pedophilia typically develop?
A)
adolescence
B)
early adulthood
C)
middle adulthood
D)
late adulthood

A) adolescence

In the classic type of pedophilic disorder, those MOST at risk are:
A)
postpubescent boys.
B)
boys in early puberty.
C)
boys of any age.
D)
prepubescent boys.

D) prepubescent boys.

"It’s all right to have sex with children as long as they agree." This is an example of the ______ often experienced by pedophiles.
A)
depression
B)
distorted thinking
C)
anxiety
D)
close relationships with children

B) distorted thinking

Recent studies of pedophiles show that:
A)
most have at least one other psychological disorder.
B)
relapse-prevention training is unsuccessful.
C)
most victims are boys.
D)
there is a clear biological cause.

A) most have at least one other psychological disorder.

Clients identify the situations that trigger pedophilic fantasies, and then learn to avoid the situations or cope with them more effectively. The treatment approach being used is:
A)
orgasmic reorientation.
B)
antiandrogenic drugs.
C)
aversion therapy.
D)
relapse prevention.

D) relapse prevention.

The technique of having a client with pedophilia identify situations in which he performs inappropriate behavior and then teaching him more appropriate coping strategies is called:
A)
aversion therapy.
B)
masturbatory satiation.
C)
orgasmic reorientation.
D)
relapse-prevention training.

D) relapse-prevention training.

Arnold cannot enjoy sexual intercourse unless he is tied up by his partner and beaten. His behavior is typical of:
A)
voyeurism.
B)
frotteurism.
C)
sexual sadism.
D)
sexual masochism.

D) sexual masochism.

Autoerotic asphyxia is a fatal side effect of:
A)
taking Viagra.
B)
a masochistic practice.
C)
cross-dressing.
D)
a rope fetish.

B) a masochistic practice.

What is the PRIMARY source of sexual excitement for sexual sadists?
A)
the victim’s suffering
B)
a specific part of the victim’s body
C)
the use of leather to cause suffering
D)
the intense pain they receive from their partner

A) the victim’s suffering

While inflicting pain, perhaps unintentionally, on an animal or person, a teenager may become sexually aroused and later turn out to be a sadist. The theory that BEST describes this example of the development of sadism is:
A)
behavioral.
B)
psychodynamic.
C)
sociocultural.
D)
biological.

A) behavioral.

One who is experiencing gender dysphoria:
A)
cross-dresses for the purpose of sexual arousal.
B)
is content with his or her transgendered experiences.
C)
is unhappy with his or her biological gender.
D)
cannot be categorized using current DSM-5 definitions.

C) is unhappy with his or her biological gender.

A man who is biologically masculine but considers himself a woman and would like to live as a woman is:
A)
a pedophile.
B)
transgendered.
C)
a transvestite.
D)
a homosexual.

B) transgendered.

A person feels most comfortable wearing clothes preferred by the other gender, strongly wishes to be the other gender, and is considering a surgical procedure. The MOST likely diagnosis for this person is:
A)
transvestite.
B)
sexual masochist.
C)
sexual sadist.
D)
transsexual.

D) transsexual.

What is the MOST common outcome of gender dysphoria in childhood?
A)
It develops into pedophilia.
B)
It disappears by adolescence or adulthood.
C)
It is a precursor to transsexualism.
D)
It is a precursor to transvestite fetishism.

B) It disappears by adolescence or adulthood.

Which of the following theoretical orientations is MOST helpful in understanding the origin of gender identity disorder?
A)
sociocultural
B)
biological
C)
family systems
D)
cognitive

B) biological

Which of the following pairs are MOST analogous (comparable)?
A)
female-to-male gender dysphoria and male-to-female gender dysphoria: androphilic type
B)
female-to-male gender dysphoria and male-to-female gender dysphoria: autogynephilic type
C)
male-to-female gender dysphoria: androphilic type and male-to-female gender dysphoria: autogynephilic type
D)
female-to-female gender dysphoria and male-to-male gender dysphoria

A) female-to-male gender dysphoria and male-to-female gender dysphoria: androphilic type

When people with gender identity disorder take hormones it is in an attempt to:
A)
enhance their gender of birth.
B)
facilitate their living as the other gender.
C)
reduce their sex drives.
D)
change their external genitals.

B) facilitate their living as the other gender.

What do androphilia and autogynephilia have in common?
A)
They are transvestic disorders.
B)
Those who are diagnosed cross-dress for the purpose of becoming sexually aroused.
C)
Those who are diagnosed experience gender dysphoria, beginning early in life.
D)
Those who are diagnosed are genetically male.

D) Those who are diagnosed are genetically male.

Who is MOST likely to receive phalloplasty?
A)
someone experiencing premature ejaculation
B)
someone experiencing erectile dysfunction
C)
someone experiencing gender identity disorder
D)
someone who has a homosexual orientation

C) someone experiencing gender identity disorder