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For a thermodynamic mixture of isomeric products |
the relative mole ratio of products is directly related to the relative stability of these products |
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#2. What can be inferred from the results of scheme A about the relative thermodynamic stabilities of Compounds 4a and 4b A. Compound 4a is less stable than Compound 4b. |
Compound 4a is more stable than 4b The image shows that 4a is produced 60% and 4b 40%. –So 4a will be more stable among the two thermodynamic products |
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#3. Which of the following compounds is most likely to be a major product in step 2 if the aldol condensation is NOT followed by a dehydration reaction? |
Ans in image –coz if there is no dehydration, then the OH would be present instead of the double bond |
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#4. Compound X is shown below.(image) If compound 2 is replaced with compound X, what will be the structure of the final product in steps 1 and 2? (Note: assume that the yields of steps 1 and 2 are not affected by substitution) |
Ans in image –coz this is the product of Michael addition followed by intramolecular aldol condensation (Robinson annulation) |
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#5. What is the total amount of charge and energy, respectively, that the capacitor will store if it is connected to the battery on the railcar? |
1.20C and 7.20J C=Q/V Energy stored by a capacitor = Ue = (1//2)CV^2 = (1/2)QV = (1/2)Q^2V Given V= 12V C = 100 x 10^-3 F Q = VC = (12)(100 x 10^-3) = 1.20 C Ue = (1/2)QV = (1/2)(1.20)(12) = 7.20J |
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#6. Suppose that the railcar passes by a horn that is emitting a sound with a frequency f. Which of the following describes f’ that the person on the railcar hears? |
f’ > f before passing the horn, f’ < f after passing it Due to doppler effect, the frequency that the person on the railcar hears before passing the horn is larger than the actual frequency of the sound emitted, while the person hears a frequency lower than the actual frequency after passing the horn –Before passing the horn, the object(rail car) is coming closer to the source (horn) so f’>f –After passing the horn, the object(railcar) is moving away from the source (horn) so f<f’ |
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Doppler effect |
The apparent frequency (f’) of the source is increased as the source approaches the observer, and is decreased as the sources leaves the observer f’ = ((V+_ Vo)/(V-+Vs))f |
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#7. A railcar has a decelerating force of 1000 N. if no braking occurs, a total of how much power would be required to keep the railcar moving at 40 m/s? A. 16 kW |
Power = work done/ time Work done = Fd v= d/t –> d =vt W= Fd –> Fvt P = Fv = (1000N)(40) = 40000 W = 40 kW There are lot of force values given in the passage but we use 1000N coz the power required must match the work done by the friction force that tends to slow down the railcar |
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#10. Raadioactive tritium (3H) labeleed guanine has been used to measure the rate of biochemical processes that involve its building or incorporation Given that water is the solvent for this type of experiment, what is the best site for tritum labeling? |
I Because the best site for tritium labeling would not exchange the tritium ions for protons in water. All of the N-H sites (II-IV) would readily exchange tritium protons due to their lone pair-facilitating protonation and subsequent tritium exchange with water, but the C-H site (I), lacking a lone pair, would retain its tritium label |
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#8. If a generator-brake system alone were engaged when the railcar was moving, which of the following graphs would most accurately represent the subsequent speed of the railcar? |
Ans Image–> Coz the speed of the car decreases in time such that the decelerating force declines linearly with speed, according to the passage. Because the decelerating force is directly proportional to the deceleration acceleration, it follows that the decelerating acceleration itself declines linearly with speed. Finally, because the decelerating acceleration is the rate of change of velocity, or the slope of the velocity vs. time graph, then the slope of the graph must decrease in time |
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#9. The relative thermodynamic stability of isomeric organic compounds can be inferred from which of the following types of experimental data? A. Boiling points |
D. Heats of combustion The relative thermodynamic stability of isomers can be determined based on the amount of heat produced when the compounds are combusted; less heat, greater stability |
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#14. The energy of activation for the reaction described in the passage is given by the energy of: |
The activated complex minus the energy of the reactants The activation energy for the reaction presents the minimum energy barrier necessary to be overcome by the reactants on the path to products |
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#16. What type of reaction is occurring between I2 and Zn? |
Oxidation-reduction because both Zn and I2 change oxidation states during the reaction |
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#18. What is the period of the voltage source that operates the plasma pencil? |
1000ns Because the period of a time-varying signal is the shortest repitition time. According to fig 2, each pulse is on for 500ns, then off for 500ns. Thus the time between consecutive pulse is 500ns + 500ns = 1000ns |
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#19. What is the maximum energy of the UV photons generated by this plasma pencil? (Note: speed of light is c = 3.0 x 10^8 m/s; Planck’s constant is h = 6.63 x 10^-34 J.s) |
E=hf = hc/lamda given: lamda = 200-300nm the question is asking for MAXIMUM energy, so you would want to minimize the denominator, so use 200nm for lamda E = (6.63 x 10^-34 J.s)( 3.0 x 10^8 m/s)/ (200 x 10^-9 m) = 1 x 10^-18 |
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#20. That the electric field is uniform between the electrodes means that the electric field lines: a) are more closely spaced to the positive electrode than at the negative one |
are equally spaced at both electrodes and between them –By definition, electric field lines are spaced in a uniform field |
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#23. the glucose meter measures the current produced during reaction 3. If 0.67 umol of electrons were measured, what mass of glucose was present in the sample. Note the molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol or 180 ug/umol a) 20 ug |
B the device measured 0.67 or 2/3 of the electrons. which means that 1/3 of the electrons were consumed. thus, that means that 1/3 of 180. which is 60 ug |
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#24. What additional substance is necessary for reaction 2 to take place? |
FAD –Because among the choices listed, only FAD is a cofactor oxidant |
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What is one characteristic of steroid |
FOUR FUSED RINGS |
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#26. The pH of a 1L phosphate buffer solution was measured as 7.6, but the experimental procedure calls for a pH 7.2 buffer. Which method will adjust the solution to the proper pH? (Note: pKa values for phosphoric acid are 2.2, 7.2, and 12.3.) A, Add enough 1M Na2HPO3 to increase the phosphate anion concentration ten-fold |
Alter the ratio of monosodium/disodium phosphate added to favor the monosodium species because in order to lower the pH of a buffer, the proportion of acidic buffer component must be increased. Adding strong base, diluting with water, or adding a different salt will NOT lower the pH |
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#27. When two amino acids are joined via a peptide bond, what is the mass of the byproduct of the reaction? |
18amu Peptide bond formation is the dehydration reaction so byproduct will be water |
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#28. Which experimental condition is NOT necessary to achieve reliable data for Michaelis-Menten enzyme kinetics? A. Initial velocity is measure under steady state conditions |
The reaction is allowed to reach equilibrium before measurements are taken Because once the reaction reached equilibrium, it will be impossible and the kinetic data will look the same regardless of substrate concentration |
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What structure is attached during acetylation? |
RC=O |
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What is the structure of a hydroxylamine? |
NHOH |
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#30. What is the general structure of hydroxamic acid? |
Ans–> image Becuase a hydroxamic acid was described in the passage as resulting from the acetylation (attachment RC=O) of the hydroxylamine nitrogen (NHOH) in compound 2 |
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What coordinates with cations |
LEWIS BASES!! |
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#38. Which structure represents a component of the HRP cofactor? |
Ans image –> Because the cofactor is heme, which is a porphyrin. The basic unit of a porphyrin is the pyrrole ring -a 5 sided heterocycle containing one nitrogen atom |
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Resistivity = |
Inverse of conductivity |
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the best performing PANI had a maximum conductivity of 5×10^-3 Ohm xcm^-1. what is the resistivity of the best performing PANI? a) 0.002 |
200 1/(5×10^-3) |
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#40. In mammalian cells, iMs have been shown be subject to two epigenetic modifications: methylation and hydroxymethylation. Which two classes of enzymes are needed in the two-step conversion of cytosine to 5hmC? a) transferase and oxireductase |
Transferase and oxireductase –Because the first step involves transfer of a methyl group to cytosine, and the next step involves the hydroxylation of that methyl group. Therefore, the two classes of enzymes needed are a transferase and an oxireductase. |
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#41. What is the correct expression for the deltaG’o for the transition observed in the experiments described in the passage? the products in this passage are the unfolded version of the proteins |
deltaG’o = -RTlnKeq delta G= -RT lb K (unfolded/native) Keq = [products]/[reactants] |
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#42. Which statement about the unfolding cooperativity and pK of the oligonucleotides is consistent with the data in Figure 1? |
The oligonucleotides with the lowest pK displays the highest unfolding cooperativity –because the pK is the pH at which the fraction of folded DNA is 0.5. this occurs at the lowest value in 5hmC-WT. Cooperativity is measured as the slope of the unfolding transition. This is also highest in 5hmC-WT |
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What is pK? |
pH at which the fraction of folded DNA is 0.5 |
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#43. Based on the information in the passage and in figure 1, what effect does epigenetic modification have on iM pH-dependent denaturation |
Only hydroxymethylation results in significantly decreased stability because cytosine is more readily deprotonated –Because the drop on pK of the transition denotes a decrease in stability. Because DNA unfolding occurs as the pH increases, it can be inferred that this is due to cytosine deprotonation. Since 5hmC-WT has the lowest pK, hydroxymethylation decreases the stability by increasing acidity of cytosine |
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when you protonate a substrate are you adding or removing a H+ and what happens to the pH when you protonate the substrate |
you are adding a H+ the pH decreases (becomes more acidic) |
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when you de-protonate a substrate are you adding or removing a H+ and what happens to the pH when you de-protonate the substrate? |
you are removing a H+ the pH increases (becomes more basic) |
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#45. The isoelectric focusing points pI for four proteins are shown in the following table At which buffer pH would two out of four of the proteins adhere to a cation-exhcange column? |
7.0 Because cation-exchange column only binds to positively charged proteins which only occurs when the pH is less than the pI. At pH 7.0, both proteins A and B would positively charged. |
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what happens to a substrate when the pH is less than pI? negatively charged or positively charged? will it bind to anode or cathode? |
it will be positively charged it will bind to cathode |
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what happens to the substrate when the pH is greater than pI? will it be negatively charged or positively charged? will it bind to cathode or anode? |
it will be negatively charged it will bind to anode |
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#46. A common column material used in size-exclusion chromatography is dextran, a polysaccharide of glucose. Which type of interaction occurs between proteins and the dextran column material? A) aromatic |
Hydrogen bonding because glucose has numerous hydroxyl groups that can hydrogen bond to the polar side chains that are typically exposed on a protein surface |
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which halogen has the highest first ionization energy? a) iodine |
D is the smallest halogen with fewer electrons to shield the valence electrons, it will have the highest first ionization energy |
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#49. Which of the following properties of a 2.3 MHz ultrasound wave remains unchanged as it passes into human tissues? A. Frequency |
Frequency –Coz frequency of a wave is not affected by the medium through which it propagates. |
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#50. Assume that in the study with the rat tissues, fluid flows through a typical capillary opening caused by a burst microbubble. Given this, which of the following is the closest to the volume flow rate of fluid passing through the opening? Given A= 2.5×10^4 |
7.5 x 10^6 micrometer^3/s Volume flow rate = Av +(2.5 x 10^4)(0.30) = 7.5 x 10^6 |
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equation for Speed of sound |
speed of sound = Wavelength x frequency |
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#52. Suppose that a blood vessel of cross-sectional area A carries microbubbles at a speed v into a capillary bed. If the capillary bed is made up of n capillaries, each with cross-sectional area a, with what speed will the blood flow in the capillary bed? |
if u= speed of flow in capillary bed Av = nau u=Av/na |
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A=B –> C+D Ksp =? |
Ksp = [A][B] |
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Name the 1st and 2nd groups on the periodic table |
1st – alkali metals 2nd – alkaline earth metals |
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for spontaneous reactions |
delta G<0, Keq>1 |
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equation for density |
density = mass/volume p=(m/v) |
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area equation for cyclinder |
area of cylinder= (area of circle) x height area of cylinder = h x pi x r^2 |
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#57. Which of the following molecules have octahedral geometry? A. SF6 |
A. SF6 |
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#58. A tall tube is evacuated, and its stopcock closed. The open end of the tube is immersed into a container of water (densiy 10^3 kg/m^3) that is open to the atmosphere (pressure 10^5 N/m^2) When the stopcock opened, how far up the tube will the water rise? |
10m –Because the water will rise to a height such that the weight (mass multiplied by gravitational acceleration) of the water column equals the atmospheric pressure multiplied by the tube cross-sectional area A. Because mass is density times volume, it follows that 10^3 kg/m^3 x h x A x 10 = 10^5 x A, where h is the height sought. Solving for h yields h = 10^5/10^4 = 10m |
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#59. Which of the following is a second period element that is a covalent network solid in its standard? |
Carbon graphite –> covalent network solid |
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A person stands inside a railcar that is attached to a locomotive. Suppose that the railcar passes by a horn that is emitting a sound with frequency f. Which of the following describes the frequency f’ that the person on he railcar hears? A. f’ < f before passing horn, f’ > f after passing it |
C. f’ > f before passing the horn, f’ < f after passing it Due to the Doppler effect, the frequency that the person on the railcar hears before passing the horn is larger than the actual frequency of the sound emitted, while the person hears a frequency lower than the actual frequency after passing the horn. AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 6 |
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The relative thermodynamic stability of isomeric organic compounds can be inferred from which types of experimental data? A. Boiling points |
D. Heats of Combustion Because the thermodynamic stability of isomers can be determined based on the amount of heat produced when the compounds are combusted; less heat, greater stability. AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 9 |
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What is the formula for changing Celcius to Kelvin? |
degrees in Celcius + 273= temperature in Kelvin AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 11 |
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Which expression gives the number of gas particles (not Moles but the number of individual particles) found in the lungs of an average human (V= 6.0 L) under normal physiological conditions (P=1.0 atm, T=37 degrees C) ? A. (6.0 L)/ (0.0821 x 310 K) |
D. (6.0 L x 6 x 10^23)/ (0.0821 x 310K) The Ideal Gas Law= (PV=nRT) must be reaaranged to solve for the number of moles of gas particles, n. the result is then multiplied by Avogradro’s number to get the number of individual particles AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 11 |
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What is the energy of activation of a reaction? |
The activated complex – reactants An activated complex is the structure that results in the maximum energy point along the reaction path. AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 14 |
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That the electric field is uniform between electrodes means that electric field lines: A. intersect halfway between electrodes. |
D. are equally spaced at both electrodes and between them. By definition electric field lines are equally spaced in a uniform field AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 20 |
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What is the total mass of D-glucose dissolved in a 2 microliter aliquot of the solution for this experiment? A. 3.6 x 10 . 10^-4 g |
C. 1.4 x 10^-4 g The stock solution consisted of 72 g of glucose in 1.0 L of solution or (72microg/microL). Therefore, 2 microL contains 144 microgram, or 1.4 x 10^-4 g of solute. AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 21 |
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What does the structure of is common of steroids? |
4 fused rings AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 25 |
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The pH of 1 L phosphate buffer solution was measure as 7.6, but the experimental procedure calls for a pH 7.2 buffer. Which method will adjust the solution to the proper pH (Note: The pKa values of phosphoric acid are 2.2, 7.2, and 12.3) A. Add enough 1 M Na2HPO3 to increase the concentration ten-fold |
C. Alter the ratio of monosodium/disodium phosphate added to favor the monosodium species. In order to lower the pH of a buffer, the proportion of acidic buffer component must be increased. Adding strong base, diluting water, or adding a different base salt will not lower the pH. AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 26 |
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When two amino acids are joined via a peptide bond what is the mass of the by product of this reaction? ( Note: Assume that the amino acids were not modified by protecting groups) A. 17 amu |
B. 18 amu When a peptide bond forms the by product is water. It removes the H from the amide of one amino acid and an OH from the Carboxylic acid of the other amino acid AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 27 |
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Draw a hydroxamic acid? |
AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 29 |
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With the exception of N^6-trimethyllysine, the amino acids employed in the study are best categorized as: A. acidic and hydrophobic |
B. basic and hydrophillic Compound 1, Lysine and the other amino acids (N^6-methyllysine, etc) with fewer than 3 methyl groups on the side chain amino group are basic because they ar protonated at pH 7. As positively charged substances, they are also very hydrophilic.The answer requires recalling that the side chain of lysine is basic at pH 7 and that charged compounds are hydrophilic The graph is telling you which compounds are protonated as the pH is raised you know this bc it says Figure 1 Effect of pH on the rate constant KFAD for conversion of FADH-OOH to FAD AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 33 |
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The isoelectric focusing points pI for four proteins are shown in the following table. At which buffer pH would two out of four of the proteins adhere to a cation-exchange column? Protein pI |
B. 7.0 A cation- exchange column only binds to positively charged proteins, which only occurs when the pH is less than the pI. At pH 7.0, both proteins A and B would be positively charged. With distractors A, C, and D, there would be four, one, and zero positively charged proteins, respectively. AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 45 |
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Which halogen has the highest first ionization energy? A.Iodine |
D. Fluorine Florine is the smallest halogen and appears at the top of the column 17 in Group 17. With fewer electrons to shield the valence electron from the nucleus, fluorine will exhibit the highest first ionization energy. AAMC Practice Test 3: Chem/ Phys: Q 47 |
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3 equations for energy of capacitor |
1/2 C(V^2) 1/2 (Q^2)/C 1/2 QV |
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equation for charge |
Q = CV charge = capacitance x voltage charge = coloumbs capacitance = farads voltage = volts |
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What are the relative potentials for force and power generation by a slow-twich muscle fiber and a fast-twitch muscle fiber of the same diameter? Given: A. the slow-twitch and fast twitch fiber possess the same potentials for force and power generation |
C. the fast-twitch fibers is capable of generating more power than the slow-twitch fiber, while the potential for force generation is the same Same diameter = same force Fast velocity > slow velocity | Power NOT the same. |
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which of the follow is least likely to occur in a muscle fiber that is metabolizing anaerobically? a) fermentation of glucose to lactic acid |
B the ETC only provides ATP when it is metabolizing aerobically |
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Relative to slow-twitch fibers, fast twitch fibers are likely to exhibit which property? A) greater Ca2+ pumping activity |
A It should be obvious that fast-twitch muscles requires more Ca2+ pumping for faster contration Slow twitch are anaerobic so will have increase capillary density, more mitochondria since it requires oxygen, and higher levels of oxygen-binding proteins. |
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How to know if a disease is recessive? |
If it skips a generation, it MUST be recessive |
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How to know if a disease may be autosomal dominant? |
At least one parents must have it |
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How to know if a disease is Y linked? |
Only males have the disease |
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How to know if a disease is likely x-linked? |
If more males than females have the disease or condition, it is more likely to be X-linked recessive Son’s must receive it from their mother since that’s where they get x gene |
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structure of histidine |
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disulfide bonds are between which AA? |
cysteine AA only NOT sulfide |
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convergent evolution |
Convergent: Different organisms/lineage, evolving closer together to be similar, using different mechanisms. i.e. dolphin and the shark. They have analogous structures Divergent: Same lineage, evolving apart to be more different. i.e. bat and horse are both mammals but different structures Parallel: similar to convergent but begins with organisms that are related. |
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which of the following animal pairs best illustrates an example of convergent evolution? a) dolphin and shark |
A |
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assume that a certain species with sex chromosomes R and S exists where RR is male and RS is female. which of the following mechanisms would likely compensate for the potential imbalance of sex chromosome sex products between males and females of this species? a) inactivation of one of the R chromosomes in males |
A |
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Kallman Syndrome is a disease in which gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) producing neurons fail to migrate from the olfactory area to the hypothalamus during embryonic development. which endocrine axis is disrupted in individuals with kallman syndrome? a) stress axis |
D The reproductive axis GnRH regulates LH and FSH |
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describe the stress axis |
the stress axis is the same thing as the HPA axis hypothalamic release of corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF). CRF is also known as CRH or corticotropin-releasing hormone. When CRF binds to CRF receptors on the anterior pituitary gland, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is released. ACTH binds to receptors on the adrenal cortex and stimulates adrenal release of cortisol. In response to stressors, cortisol will be released for several hours after encountering the stressor. |
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describe growth hormone axis |
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describe thyroid axis |
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DNA replication |
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describe DNA transcription |
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describe translation |
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If an enzyme is similar to a protease but is inactive, which type of catalytic activity is most likely missing? A) oxidoreductase |
D Bc proteases use water to break bonds |
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From passage: phosphorylation of p38 indicates normal apoptotic signaling in GM6112 cells. cells that contain a large amount of phosphorylated p38 are most likely a) increasing in size |
D |
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what is a feature of cancerous cells, increased or decreased apoptosis? |
a feature of cancer cells is decreased apoptosis or the inhibition of apoptosis because that will allow the cells to keep replicating and dividing even though they should be killed off |
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Operon containing two genes, cgr1 and cgr2, in prokaryotic cells. The Cgr1 and Cgr2 proteins are produced from: A) separate mRNAs transcribed from different promoter sequences upstream of each gene |
B an operon containing two genes is transcribed from a single promoter upstream of the first gene in the operon |
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what does deacetylation do? |
Makes the chromatin more tightly bound to histone, condensing it, and inhibiting transcription Acetyl is [(methyl)-(carboxyl)-(R)] |
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what does acetylation do? |
Makes the chromatin less tightly bound to histone, opening it up, and stimulating transcription Acetyl is [(methyl)-(carboxyl)-(R)] |
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during prolonged exercise or starvation, which of the following will most likely occur? a) sustained fatty acid oxidation |
A fasting leads to glycogen breakdown and gluconeogenesis BUT then continued fasting leads to production of ketone bodies by sustained fatty acid oxidation |
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what is the cori cycle |
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The adrenal medulla is part of which branch(es) of the peripheral nervous system? A) the somatic nervous system only |
B – ep and norep are only part of fight or flight |
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describe allosteric inhibition of an enzyme |
the inhibitor binds to a site on the enzyme other than the active site |
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The average osmotic pressure of ocean water is 28 atm corresponding to a concentration of 0.50M solutes. What is the approximate concentration of solutes present in blood with an osmotic pressure of 7atm? A. 0.12M |
A. 0.12M Osmotic pressure is directly proportional to concentration. If it’s pressure is cut by one-fourth, then the concentration is cut by one-fourth. |
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the passage states that in hypoxia glycolysis is further increased while mitochondrial functions are attentuated. What are the effects of hypoxia on energy metabolism? a) citric acid cycle is induced to produce more NADH |
B |
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what is glycogenesis? |
is the process of glycogen synthesis, in which glucose molecules are added to chains of glycogen for storage |
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glycolysis |
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gluconeogenesis |
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What is tubulin and when is it present in the cell? |
Tubulin is a cytoskeletal protein it is used to assess total protein levels AAMC Practice Test 3: Q36 |
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What do restriction enzymes look for in their sites? |
palindrome sequence; they recognize a 4-base or 6-base sequence |
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what is a palindrome |
sequence of characters which reads the same backward as forward, such as madam or racecar. |
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Complex I and Complex II in ETC? |
Complex 1: NADH reductase Complex 2: Succinate dehydrogenase |
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Which statement accounts for the hereditary transmission of SDH-linked paraganglioma in a parent specific manner? SDH is: A) an imprinted gene |
A imprinted genes are expressed in a parents-specific manner |
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Assuming that protein synthesis was under way when the radioactive amino acids were added, which of the following best describes how the radioactivity was distributed in one of the first molecules of protein X that was completely translated? A) radioactive aa were randomly located throughout the molecule |
D by saying that protein synthesis was already under way that means the N terminal and the middle of the sequence of AA were already synthesized thus the radioactive AA would only be at the end |
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what does the glomerulus prevent from entering the filtrate? |
large proteins |
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if there are large proteins in the urine which portion of the kidney filter system is not properly functioning? |
the glomerulus |
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Mucous secretions in the respiratory tract inhibit microbial infections. These secretions are produced by which of the following tissue types found in the lungs? A) smooth muscle |
B ep. cells are specialized cells for secretion and are present in the resp. tract |
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One consequence of advanced malnutrition is reduced amounts of plasma proteins in the blood. The condition would most likely cause the osmotic pressure of the blood to: A. decrease, resulting in a decrease of fluid in the body tissue |
C. decrease, resulting in an increase of fluid in the body tissues Large plasma proteins, such as albumin, in the blood increase the osmotic pressure of blood, which in turn, increases the return of fluid to the circulatory system from the body tissues. Therefore with malnutrition the osmotic pressure of the blood would decrease resulting in an increase of fluid in the body tissues. F = 1.8C +32 AAMC Test 3: Q 54 |
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Within the intestines, unabsorbed fats are broken down into fatty acids by intestinal bacteria. Given this, excess unabsorbed fats most likely have which of the following effects within the intestines? A. They increase the osmotic pressure within the intestines, leading to diarrhea |
A. They increase the osmotic pressure within the intestines, leading to diarrhea An excess of unabsorbed fats in the intestines inhibits normal water and electrolyte absorption, resulting in increased osmotic pressure and diarrhea. AAMC Test 3: Q 55 |
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What order does filtrate pass through tubular regions in the nephron (Kidney)? A.Bowman’s capsule >> Proximal tubule >> Loop of Henle >> distal tubule >> collecting duct |
A. Bowman’s capsule >> Proximal tubule >> Loop of Henle >> distal tubule >> collecting duct Blood is filtered from the Bowman’s space within the Bowman’s capsule and then moves sequentially through the proximal tubule, the loop of henle, the distal tubule, and the collecting duct AAMC Test 3: Q 59 |
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which type of inhibitor binds reversibly to the enzymes active site? |
competitive inhibitor |
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define centration |
it is a form of egocentrism the tendency to focus on one salient aspect of a situation and neglect other, possibly relevant aspects. Introduced by Piaget through his cognitive-developmental stage theory, centration is a behaviour often demonstrated in the preoperational stage. |
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flashbulb memory |
the memory of emotionally significant events that people often recall with more accuracy and vivid imagery than everyday events |
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reproductive memory |
remembering something exactly (not generally how we process things) |
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prospective memory |
Remembering to do things (stop at store on way home; take pie out of oven; etc.) in the future as opposed to retrospective memory ; Memory for the future. |
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eidetic memory |
photographic memory the ability to remember with great accuracy visual information on the basis of short-term exposure |
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epsidoic memory |
stores personally experienced episodes with tags for context and time |
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describe generalizability |
Essentially this is the extent to which findings (from a study) can be generalized (or extended) to the those in natural settings |
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the findings from a study regarding the differential effect of emotional arousal on memory for central and peripheral details is best explained by which mechanism. increasing emotional arousal: a) causes a restriction of the focus of attention |
A psych question 9 |
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somatic symptoms |
symptoms involving physical problems and/or concerns about medical symptoms characterized by physical symptoms that are accompanied by negative thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that cannot otherwise be explained by substance use or any other psychological disorder. |
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illness anxiety disorder |
condition marked by intense preoccupation with the possibility of a serious undiagnosed illness refers to the fear of behaviors or sensations associated with the experience of anxiety. Bodily sensations related to anxiety are misattributed as a harmful experience causing more intense anxiety or fear. |
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panic attacks |
are periods of intense fear or apprehension of sudden onset accompanied by at least four or more bodily or cognitive symptoms such as heart palpitations, dizziness, shortness of breath, or feelings of unreality. |
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generalized anxiety disorder |
an anxiety disorder characterized by excessive, uncontrollable and often irrational worry, that is, apprehensive expectation about events or activities. |
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What are the three components of socioeconomic status? |
Income, education, and occupation |
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in response to stress, what part of the brain sends signals to the endocrine system? a) hippocampus |
hypothalamus the hypothalamus controls the pituitary gland, initiating the stress response |
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what further supports the validity of a study? |
when two independent measures of a variable converge |
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dichotic listening task |
a task in which people wearing headphones hear different messages presented to each ear |
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Public health campaigns often target behaviors that are formed in adolescence. For example, alcohol, tobacco, and drug use interventions are often designed to prevent or delay risky behaviors because patterns established in adolescence are associated with disorders in adulthood. This example is best describes as using which approach to health? A. biopsychosocial model of health risks |
D. life course perspective on health behavior particularly referring to stages of life (adolescence vs adulthood) |
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Describe a CT scan |
An x-ray through a specific plane of the body part to be examined. Images appear as narrow slices of the organ or body part. Thus, CT scans reveal the gross features of the brain but do not resolve its structure well. Bone and hard tissue absorb x-rays well, air and water absorb very little and soft tissue is somewhere in between. |
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describe EEG |
but does NOT measure brain activity in particular areas Electroencephalography. Records and measures electrical impulses of the brain through small surface electrodes attached tot he scalp. Shows difference brain waves associated with various activities. EEGs are frequently used in experimentation because the process is non-invasive to the research subject. The EEG is capable of detecting changes in electrical activity in the brain on a millisecond-level. It is one of the few techniques available that has such high temporal resolution. |
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Describe a PET scan |
Positron Emission Tomography. Allows imaging of metabolic activity through measurements of radioactivity in the part of the body being viewed. Pt is injected with radioactive substance. Areas of high radioactivity are associated with brain activity. |
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Describe fMRI scans. |
Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging. A magnetic field causes oxygen in the brain to align, and the oxygen is shown on a computer screen as ‘voxels’. More active areas have more oxygenated haemoglobin for respiring tissues. Used to detect diseased tissue, monitor tumours and observe brain function. MRI can be used to produce activation maps showing which parts of the brain are involved in a particular mental process. |
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Describe MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) |
Magnetic resonance imaging is a medical imaging technique used in radiology to form pictures of the anatomy and the physiological processes of the body in both health and disease |
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social solidarity |
Solidarity is unity that produces or is based on unities of interests, objectives, standards, and sympathies. It refers to the ties in a society that bind people together as one. |
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What are NMDA receptors related to? |
Glutamate! The most common excitatory neurotransmitter. |
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When an individual moves from one social class to another over the course of his or her lifetime, this process is defined as: A. intergenerational mobility |
B. intragenerational mobility intergenerational mobility = throughout generations structural mobility = vertical movement BUT within a specific group, not class. |
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structural mobility |
vertical movement BUT within a specific group, not class. |
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self verification |
the desire to have others perceive us as we truly perceive ourselves a person’s inherent motivation to confirm and maintain his/her existing self-concept |
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what is social stratification? |
a hierarchy that society ranks status | power | wealth |
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What is the drive theory? |
motivation to specifically maintain homeostasis |
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social interactionism studies what |
social interactionism is directly related to studying social practices and rituals |
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motion parallax |
the perception of motion of objects in which close objects appear to move more quickly than objects that are farther away a depth cue in which the relative movement of elements in a scene gives depth information when the observer moves relative to the scene |
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vestibular sense |
the sense of body movement and position, including the sense of balance a sensory system located in structures of the inner ear that registers the orientation of the head |
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sensory interaction |
the principle that one sense may influence another, as when the smell of food influences its taste |
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gestalt closure principle |
The law of closure states that individuals perceive objects such as shapes, letters, pictures, etc., as being whole when they are not complete. Specifically, when parts of a whole picture are missing, our perception fills in the visual gap. For example C and O |
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Gestalt: Similarity |
we group similar figures together Parts of a configuration are perceived as similar |
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Gestalt Proximity |
group items near each other together (easier to understand; happens when counting cells-counting clusters close together instead of counting all of them without stopping) elements that are near each other are likely to be perceived as part of the same configuration |
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gestalt symmetry |
we make figures out of symmetrical images (can be stronger than proximity) the mind perceives objects as being symmetrical and forming around a center point |
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Gestalt Principles |
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