Social Psychology Final

Total Word Count: 12432
   Send article as PDF   

Conflict is defined as:
a) perceived incompatibility of actions or goals.
b) dissatisfaction with relationship outcomes.
c) hostility that results from frustrating interaction

A

The occurrence of conflict in any relationship
A. is usually a sign of lack of motivation.
B. can stimulate improved human relations.
C. is a necessary evil of human interaction.
D. necessarily signifies an incompatibility of goals.

B

The outcome of creatively managed conflict is
A. satisfaction.
B. peace.
C. accord.
D. compliance.

B

Peace is defined as
A. surface calmness.
B. the suppression of open conflict.
C. the absence of conflict.
D. the outcome of creatively managed conflict.

D

Christina and Massimo have been saving money since they got married. Now Massimo wants to buy a new car, but Christina wants to continue saving for a new house. Massimo and Christina
A. are experiencing conflict.
B. are experiencing dissonance.
C. have mirror-image perceptions.
D. are developing superordinate goals.

A

Pursuing one’s self-interest to the collective detriment of one’s community or society is the central pattern in
A. mirror-image perception.
B. the jigsaw problem.
C. perceived injustice.
D. a social dilemma.

D

Some individuals have many children so that they can ensure someone will take care of them in the future. However, this contributes to the collective devastation of overpopulation. This is an example of
A. mirror-image perception.
B. the jigsaw problem.
C. perceived injustice.
D. a social dilemma.

D

In the Prisoner’s Dilemma, if both prisoners confess, each will get a _______; if neither confesses, each will _______.
A. moderate sentence; get a light sentence
B. severe sentence; get a light sentence
C. severe sentence; go free
D. moderate sentence; get a severe sentence

A

In playing the laboratory version of the Prisoner’s Dilemma, you would personally obtain the best payoff on any given trial if you _______ and the other person _______.
A. confess; does not confess
B. confess; confesses
C. do not confess; confesses
D. do not confess; does not confess

A

If an attorney creates a Prisoner-like Dilemma for two suspects, the attorney’s goal is to
A. trick either one of them into revealing what really happened.
B. create an incentive for one of them to confess while the other maintains innocence.
C. create an incentive for both of them to confess privately.
D. achieve the greatest punishment for both suspects.

C

In small groups – as opposed to large ones – individuals are
A. more likely to take more than their equal share.
B. less anonymous and thus less cooperative.
C. less likely to take more than their equal share.
D. more open about their conflicts.

C

Which of the following is NOT an effect of rules and regulations in modern societies?
A. safeguards on our common good
B. reduction in social dilemmas
C. diminished personal freedom
D. increased personal freedom

D

When individuals consume more than their share, and the cost of doing so is dispersed among all, the result is called
A. greed.
B. environmental devastation.
C. overconsumption.
D. the tragedy of the commons.

D

In the tragedy of the commons, the "commons" refers to
A. disputed border territory.
B. stolen goods or winnings.
C. any jointly used, finite resource.
D. private property that repeatedly changes ownership.

C

In real life, which of the following parallels the tragedy of the commons?
A. pollution of rivers and streams
B. gun control
C. the death penalty
D. online auctions

A

Despite official government warnings of a severe water shortage, most citizens fail to conserve in the belief that their personal water consumption will have little effect on the community’s total water supply. The eventual depletion of the community’s water resources provides an example of
A. mirror-image perceptions.
B. individualistic calamity.
C. the tragedy of the commons.
D. rational disaster.

C

Sato (1987) gave Japanese students opportunities to harvest trees in a simulated forest for money. When the students equally shared the costs of planting the forest, the result was that
A. most of the trees were left to grow too tall for harvesting because the students bickered about the criterion to be used in sharing profits.
B. most of the trees were harvested before they had grown to the most profitable size.
C. none of the trees were harvested because the collectivist students did not want to be the first to ask for his or her share.
D. students made maximum profit not only for themselves individually but for the group.

B

Facing the recurring dilemma of cookie-jar depletion within 24-hours of its being re-stocked, Mom and Dad decide to do something. What strategy will be most effective?
A. Do not allow family members to talk to one another about how many cookies they eat.
B. Restrict each family member to just two cookies per day.
C. Stop buying cookies.
D. Call a family meeting and scold everyone for eating too many cookies.

B

In the commons dilemma, people often consume more than they realize when
A. others take on a cooperative strategy.
B. resources are not partitioned.
C. the "commons" is divided into equal parts.
D. everyone cooperates.

B

Consistent with what is known about how the common’s dilemma operates, people are most likely to take a disproportionate share of food when the
A. cookie jar is filled every week.
B. cookie jar is not filled every week.
C. food is a bowl of mashed potatoes being passed around.
D. food is a platter of ten chicken wings that are being passed around.

C

Which of the following is NOT a feature shared by both the Prisoner’s Dilemma and the Commons Dilemma?
A. One party’s wins necessarily equals the other party’s losses.
B. Participants tend to commit the fundamental attribution error.
C. Participants’ motives change in the course of the entrapment.
D. Both are non-zero-sum games.

A

Attempting to explain one’s own behavior situationally is a characteristic of
A. the Prisoner’s Dilemma.
B. the Commons Dilemma.
C. both dilemmas.
D. neither dilemma.

C

Attempting to explain other’s behavior dispositionally is a characteristic of
A. the Prisoner’s Dilemma.
B. the Commons Dilemma.
C. both dilemmas.
D. neither dilemma.

C

In both the Prisoner’s Dilemma and the Commons Dilemma, people are tempted to explain their own behavior _______ and others’ behavior _______.
A. situationally; situationally
B. dispositionally; dispositionally
C. situationally; dispositionally
D. dispositionally; situationally

C

Which one of the following is an example of a non-zero-sum game?
A. the Prisoner’s Dilemma
B. the Commons Dilemma
C. both the Prisoner’s and the Commons Dilemmas
D. neither the Prisoner’s nor the Commons Dilemmas

C

In a non-zero-sum game
A. both can win and both can lose.
B. one side wins and the other loses.
C. one’s gains equal another’s losses.
D. altruistic motives dominate.

A

In Sherif’s research, the camper groups became hostile towards each other when
A. they learned of the other group’s existence.
B. the two groups first met.
C. when competition between the groups was introduced.
D. when competition between the groups ended.

C

A common excuse for noncooperation is
A. "I couldn’t have made a difference anyway."
B. "The devil made me do it."
C. "That’s unfair."
D. "Cooperation is for the weak and cowardly."

A

The smaller the commons, the more
A. responsibility each person feels for it.
B. intense the conflict among individual members.
C. apathetic people are about its preservation.
D. the more likely communication will take the form of intimidation and deception.

A

The relationship between the size of a commons and a person’s feeling of responsibility for it is
A. positive.
B. negative.
C. neutral.
D. curvilinear.

b

Research on laboratory dilemmas reveals that cooperation is facilitated if
A. one person is 100% cooperative.
B. the opponents can communicate with one another.
C. the game is changed into a zero-sum game.
D. the size of the payoffs is increased.

B

In research on social dilemmas, it has been found that group discussion
A. polarized competitive tendencies.
B. had no effect on the outcome.
C. led to greater cooperation and better outcomes for all participants.
D. led to escalated conflict and tension.

C

Which of the following is cited in the text as an example of changing payoffs to resolve social dilemmas?
A. allowing carpoolers to drive in the faster, freeway lane
B. requiring carpool cars and vans to park in special, larger parking lots farther away from the office building
C. lowering the price of gasoline well below $1 per gallon
D. raising the price of gasoline well above $5 per gallon

A

According to research, it seems that just knowing about the dire consequences of noncooperation in a social dilemma
A. is sufficient to convince people to behave cooperatively.
B. leads to greater mistrust of others.
C. tends to foster greater self-interest and competition.
D. has little real effect on people’s behavior.

D

At the beginning of 2000, people were aware that global warming was already occurring, yet they were also buying gas-slurping SUVs in record numbers. This is an example of
A. greed.
B. overconsumption.
C. how knowing good does not always lead to doing good.
D. how important status is to so many people.

C

Which of the following is cited in the text as a method for resolving social dilemmas?
A. communication
B. punishment
C. increasing group size
D. competition

A

Which of the following is NOT cited in the text as a method for resolving social dilemmas?
A. regulation
B. making the group smaller
C. communication
D. competition

D

Mio (1993) and her colleagues found that after reading about the commons dilemma, theater patrons
A. littered less.
B. demanded reserved seats.
C. were more likely to assist a handicapped person find a seat.
D. spent more on theater refreshments.

A

As Sherif noted, despite the fact that the behavior of the boys in the warring camps seemed "wicked, disturbed, and vicious," what actually triggered their evil behavior was
A. their leaders’ modeling of aggression.
B. their delinquent backgrounds.
C. their ethnic identities.
D. an evil situation.

D

Esses and his colleagues (2004) found that competition breeds conflict when
A. people perceive that resources are limited and available on a non-zero-sum basis.
B. there is no distinct outgroup.
C. the ingroup is dominant.
D. communication is facilitated.

A

Equity exists when
A. rewards are distributed in proportion to individuals’ contributions.
B. partners share equally in the rewards of collective effort.
C. rewards are distributed in relation to individuals’ needs or deservingness.
D. group members decide among themselves how rewards should be distributed.

A

Before they married, Melinda and Michael, who are both employed full time and collect the same pay, agreed to share equally in routine household tasks such as cleaning and grocery shopping. In reality, Melinda is now doing about 80% of the household work. This situation is an example of
A. an integrative disaster.
B. an inequitable relationship.
C. a social dilemma.
D. a zero-sum relationship.

B

Rodney and Ralph are twin brothers who each contributed $75 to purchase a new bicycle. Rodney rides it 75% of the time. This would be an example of
A. an inequitable relationship.
B. the tragedy of the commons.
C. a zero-sum relationship.
D. mirror-image perceptions.

A

What does your text refer to as the "golden rule" of social justice?
A. "Equity for strangers, equality for friends."
B. "An eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth."
C. "Care most for those in greatest need."
D. "Whoever has the gold makes the rules."

D

Some noncapitalist cultures define justice not as equity but as
A. equality.
B. the fulfillment of a need.
C. either equality or the fulfillment of a need.
D. socialism.

C

Knowing that one’s group has over-benefited can trigger
A. equality.
B. devaluation of others’ inputs.
C. heightened competition.
D. retaliation.

B

Research on the equity theory reveals that the more competent and worthy people feel, and the more they value their inputs, the
A. more they will feel under-benefited.
B. more they will feel rewarded equitably.
C. more competition they will feel.
D. higher the likelihood of misperception.

A

One potential way to prevent conflict is to
A. avoid making excess regulations.
B. avoid over-communication.
C. reduce excess resources.
D. keep groups small.

A

Which one of the following is NOT one of the seeds of misperception according to your text?
A. the self-serving bias
B. reduced competition
C. the fundamental attribution error
D. groupthink

B

What do self-serving biases, group polarization, and negative stereotypes have in common?
A. They illustrate the power of the situation.
B. They are potential seeds of misperception.
C. They illustrate that we are cognitive misers.
D. They negate conflict.

B

According to Staub and Bar-Tal (2003) all of the following are characteristics of a group in intractable conflict EXCEPT the group that
A. views its own goals as supremely important.
B. believes itself victimized.
C. takes pride in "us" and intensely devalues "them."
D. attributes similar characteristics to the other group.

D

The misperceptions of those who are in conflict with each other, such as two nations who regard each other with suspicion and hostility, are usually
A. nonreciprocal.
B. unilateral.
C. mutual.
D. inequitable.

C

The reciprocal views that parties in conflict often hold of one another are referred to as
A. mirror-image perceptions.
B. stereotypic reciprocation.
C. complementary images.
D. reciprocal illusions.

A

The Republic of Fredonia believes its long-time enemy, the kingdom of Franistan, is aggressive, greedy, and impulsive. On the other hand, Franistan believes Fredonia is hostile, selfish, and unpredictable. This is an example of
A. an inequitable relationship.
B. a zero-sum relationship.
C. mirror-image perceptions.
D. reciprocal illusions.

C

When two sides have clashing perceptions, at least one of them is misperceiving the other, and when that is the case, according to Bronfenbrenner (1960), "It is characteristic of such images that they are _______."
A. self-defeating
B. self-confirming
C. self-handicapping
D. self-monitoring

B

Ralph White reviewed ten wars from the last century and reported that each was marked by at least one misperception. Which of the following was NOT on this list?
A. underestimating the enemy’s strength
B. overestimating the leaders’ power
C. demonizing the enemy
D. rationalizing one’s own motives

B

When Bush called Iraq "evil" in the buildup to the invasion, he was making which common misperception?
A. underestimating the strength of one’s enemy
B. demonizing the enemy
C. rationalizing one’s own motives
D. blaming the wrong people

B

John believes that he is hardworking and that his wife Rachel is lazy. Rachel believes that she is hardworking and that John is lazy. This is an example of
A. an inequitable relationship.
B. mirror-image perception.
C. a superordinate goal.
D. a social trap.

B

In a study by executives who were asked to describe a recent conflict, Thomas and Pondy (1977) found that 12% described the opposing party as _______ and 74% perceived themselves as _______.
A. cooperative; cooperative
B. intelligent; intelligent
C. cooperative; competitive
D. rational; competent

A

In times of tension, such as during an international crisis,
A. views of the opposing side become more simplistic.
B. political statements acknowledge that each country’s motives are complex.
C. judgments about action are prolonged and postponed by time-consuming reevaluations.
D. tendencies toward groupthink are weakened.

A

One aspect of mirror-image perception is that one side tends to
A. exaggerate their differences from their adversaries.
B. see itself reflected in the way others see it.
C. see the situation as the reflection of an evil situation.
D. agree with the other side.

A

Which of the following is NOT one of the four C’s of peacemaking identified in the text?
A. contact
B. correction
C. conciliation
D. communication

B

For Blacks, the most noticeable consequence of desegregated schooling is
A. very short-term improvements of interracial relations.
B. a reduced likelihood of attending primarily White colleges.
C. the increased likelihood of living and working in integrated settings.
D. a more favorable self-image.

C

Surveys of nearly 4000 Europeans revealed that an important factor in determining whether attitudes toward a minority group will become more favorable is whether
A. one has a friend who is a member of that minority group.
B. the minority group tends to be submissive.
C. the minority group has a history of significant accomplishment.
D. the language of the minority group can be easily mastered.

A

In order for contact between opposing racial groups to reduce conflict, the contact must
A. occur in a zero-sum context.
B. be structured to confer equal status on both races.
C. temporarily award superior status to the minority group.
D. be mediated by a third party.

B

Gurin and her colleagues (2002) found that informal interactions enabled by ethnic diversity in college classrooms
A. increase perceptions of differences among ethnic groups.
B. tend to foster greater acceptance of differences among ethnic groups.
C. have little effect on perceptions of differences among ethnic groups.
D. tend to foster more negative perceptions of other ethnic groups.

D

The U.S. Supreme Court’s 2003 decision that racial diversity may be a criterion in admissions to colleges and universities was
A. the result of counter-prejudice.
B. the result of negative stereotypes.
C. based on research findings that revealed that racial diversity in the classroom has positive consequences.
D. based on research findings that revealed that minorities excel in diverse groups.

C

Approval of President Bush’s performance after September 11th, 2001
A. increased.
B. decreased.
C. stabilized.
D. was unaffected.

A

The fact that 51% of Americans approved of President Bush’s performance on September 10th, 2001, and 90% of Americans approved of President Bush’s performance on September 11th, 2001 is an example of
A. cooperation.
B. cohesiveness as a result of a common external threat.
C. justification for poor performance.
D. heightened paranoia.

B

A goal that overrides people’s differences from one another is called a(n)
A. superior goal.
B. superordinate goal.
C. ingroup goal.
D. independent goal.

B

Through the use of _______, Muzafer Sherif made enemies into friends.
A. contact
B. superordinate goals
C. bargaining
D. conciliation

B

Which of the following best illustrates a superordinate goal?
A. A college student who has been failing English gets an "A" on a paper.
B. A woman beats her husband at tennis.
C. Apartment dwellers install a television antenna they can all use.
D. An obese person loses 20 pounds in two weeks.

C

After their town was ravaged by a disastrous tornado, two rival community groups set aside their differences and worked together on repairing the damage. This cooperation best illustrates the importance of
A. mediation.
B. the GRIT strategy.
C. superordinate goals.
D. the jigsaw technique.

D

According to Slavin (2003), a "practical, proven method for implementing contact theory in the desegregated classroom," is
A. academic competitions between different schools.
B. after-school classes on race relations.
C. peer support groups.
D. cooperative learning.

D

Aronson’s jigsaw technique involved having elementary school children
A. study in small, racially mixed teams and then compete with other teams in a class tournament.
B. form academically and racially diverse groups with each member of the group becoming an expert in one area.
C. role-play being members of another race for two-week periods.
D. take turns telling each other about their family backgrounds in small-group discussions.

B

By emphasizing the contribution Jackie Robinson might make to the Brooklyn Dodgers’ winning the 1947 pennant, Branch Rickey used _______ to reduce racial prejudice and conflict among team members.
A. a superordinate goal
B. an integrative agreement
C. arbitration
D. the GRIT strategy

A

According to Phinney (1990), someone who identifies with both his or her ethnic culture and the larger culture is said to have a _______ identity.
A. schizophrenic
B. cultural
C. bicultural
D. subcultural

C

Triandis (1994) reported that _______ immigrants felt more comfortable identifying with their ethnicity than _______ immigrants.
A. grandchildren of; second-generation
B. second-generation; grandchildren of
C. European; Asian
D. Asian; European

A

_______ occurs when conflicted parties seek an agreement through direct negotiation.
A. Bargaining
B. Amelioration
C. Mediation
D. Arbitration

A

_______ occurs when a neutral third party attempts to facilitate communication and offer suggestions for how to resolve a conflict.
A. Bargaining
B. Amelioration
C. Mediation
D. Arbitration

C

_______ occurs when a neutral third party studies a conflict and imposes a settlement.
A. Bargaining
B. Amelioration
C. Mediation
D. Arbitration

D

Motto and Yoko are roommates and are experiencing a conflict about what type of cable television service is within their budget. They negotiate by having Yoko, who wanted a more expensive service, pay the remainder of the bill after both of them have paid for half of the cost of the less expensive service. What form of communication did Motto and Yoko use to resolve their conflict?
A. bargaining
B. amelioration
C. mediation
D. arbitration

A

Vivian and Pearl, who have been a couple for many years, are having a conflict they have been unable to resolve, so they make an appointment with a counselor. The counselor helps facilitate communication between Vivian and Pearl, and offers suggestions for dealing with future conflicts. What form of communication have they used to resolve their conflict?
A. bargaining
B. amelioration
C. mediation
D. arbitration

C

A mediator seeks to achieve a mutually beneficial resolution by having the parties adopt a _______ orientation.
A. carefree
B. win-lose
C. win-win
D. submissive

C

Mediators seek to establish _______ agreements that reconcile both parties’ interests to their mutual benefit.
A. arbitrated
B. integrative
C. mirror-image
D. zero-sum

B

Ahmed and Fatima, two teenage siblings, are fighting over the evening newspaper. Knowing Ahmed only wants the sports section and Fatima only wants the latest stock quotations, their mother takes the paper and gives each the section containing the news of interest. In this case the mother arrived at a(n)
A. mutual compromise.
B. cooperative settlement.
C. enlightened consensus.
D. integrative agreement.

D

According to conflict researchers, you are more likely to divulge your needs and concerns if your relationship with your partner includes
A. mediation.
B. trust.
C. passion.
D. the threat of withdrawal.

B

David and Julie fought over what to name their new puppy, until finally they went to their children for a decision. David and Julie relied on _______ to resolve their conflict.
A. mediation
B. bargaining
C. conciliation
D. arbitration

D

Factory workers want a pay rate of $15 per hour and management offers $12 per hour. After weeks of conflict, they agree to have a third party set the pay scale. After hearing both sides, the third party sets the rate at $14. This is an example of resolving conflict through
A. bargaining.
B. arbitration.
C. mediation.
D. conciliation.

B

Osgood’s (1980) GRIT strategy is an alternative that best fits into the _______ category of the "four C’s of peacemaking."
A. contact
B. conciliation
C. communication
D. correction

B

Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in Osgood’s (1980) GRIT strategy?
A. Build up first-strike capability to negotiate from a position of strength.
B. Announce your conciliatory intent.
C. Carry out several verifiable conciliatory acts.
D. Maintain retaliatory capability.

A

Disputing groups usually prefer to settle their differences
A. with arbitration.
B. without mediation.
C. without arbitration.
D. without bargaining.

B

Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic that conflict expert Deutsch (1993) advises negotiators to exhibit?
A. fairness
B. firmness
C. friendliness
D. sympathy

D

The communitarian synthesis emphasizes
A. individualist values.
B. collectivist values.
C. both individualist and collectivist values.
D. neither individualist nor collectivist values.

C

The study, assessment, and treatment of people with psychological difficulties is known as
A. developmental psychology.
B. comparative psychology.
C. social psychology.
D. clinical psychology.

D

Chapman and Chapman had college students and professional clinicians study the relationship between patients’ test performances and diagnoses. They found that
A. if students or clinicians expected a particular association, they perceived it, regardless of whether the data was supportive.
B. students and clinicians only saw relationships that were supported by the data.
C. professional clinicians were more accurate than students in assessing relationships.
D. students and clinicians only recognized positive relationships if the actual correlations were greater than 0.75.

A

Myers suggests that clinicians may continue to have confidence in uninformative or ambiguous tests because of human susceptibility to
A. the inoculation effect.
B. learned helplessness.
C. the representativeness heuristic.
D. illusory correlations.

D

Following the suicide of a friend or family member, feelings of guilt are often magnified by
A. illusory thinking.
B. the fundamental attribution error.
C. hindsight bias.
D. confirmation bias.

C

When psychologists were surveyed regarding intuition versus the scientific method, _______ were more likely to value intuition.
A. clinical psychologists
B. developmental psychologists
C. social psychologists
D. educational psychologists

A

Rosenhan and his colleagues (1973) faked schizophrenic symptoms to infiltrate mental hospitals. Once they had been admitted and no longer complained of any fake symptoms,
A. professional clinicians quickly distinguished them from the real patients and released them from the hospital.
B. the clinicians sought and found evidence in their histories and behavior to confirm their admitting diagnoses.
C. the pseudo-patients were ostracized by the hospital’s real patients.
D. the pseudo-patients absorbed their "sick" roles and developed additional symptoms in the course of their treatment.

B

In Rosenhan’s study (1973), clinicians who dealt with pseudo-patients who had faked symptoms to get into mental hospitals demonstrated the error of
A. self-serving bias.
B. hindsight bias.
C. self-handicapping.
D. overjustification.

B

Luisa, a Freudian analyst, found that, without exception, her patients reported having dreams closely related to their emotional problems. What may best explain why the dreams and problems of Luisa’s patients are so consistent with Freudian theory?
A. Freud’s theory is the oldest and most comprehensive of all the theories of personality.
B. Freud’s theory is more ambiguous than any other theory, and thus any problem fits into its framework.
C. The patients are perhaps induced by Luisa to give information that is consistent with her theoretical orientation.
D. Freudian psychotherapists are "true believers," and Luisa’s report is an attempt to convert other therapists to her orientation.

C

Snyder and Swann (1984) gave interviewers some hypotheses to test concerning individuals’ traits, and found that people often tested for a trait by
A. asking those being tested for a general self-evaluation.
B. looking for information that would contradict it.
C. looking for information that would confirm it.
D. asking very specific questions to disprove it.

C

April is going out on a first date with Nikos, whom her best friend says is funny and fun-loving. On the date, April asks Nikos, "What is the most fun-loving thing you’ve ever done?" What is the likely effect of such questioning on Nikos?
A. He will act more fun-loving on the date than if not asked such questions.
B. He will act more reserved and shy than if not asked such questions.
C. He will resent such questions and become annoyed.
D. He will try to explain that there are times when he is not fun-loving.

A

Research indicates that when interviewers are instructed to test for a trait, they tend to ask questions that show evidence of
A. the confirmation bias.
B. the illusion of control.
C. negative attributional styles.
D. illusory correlations.

A

When Rosenham and his research associates (1973) reported to mental hospital admissions offices that they were "hearing voices," most were
A. diagnosed with schizophrenia and hospitalized for two to three weeks.
B. not diagnosed with a mental illness, since they were in fact normal.
C. diagnosed with schizophrenia initially but never hospitalized.
D. diagnosed with schizophrenia initially, hospitalized, but then released after testing revealed that they were normal.

A

Freudian therapists who expect to find evidence of early childhood traumas are likely to uncover such experiences among
A. clients who are males.
B. clients who are real victims of childhood sex abuse.
C. clients who are healthy, successful adults.
D. all clients.

D

When researchers pit statistical prediction—such as predicting graduate school success using a formula that includes grades and aptitude scores—against interviewers’ intuitive prediction,
A. statistical prediction is usually superior to expert intuition.
B. expert intuition is usually superior to statistical intuition.
C. statistical prediction and expert intuition do equally well.
D. both methods usually fare no better than chance.

A

Myers suggests that we avoid the confirmation bias by
A. looking for illusory correlations.
B. carefully monitoring the information that is consistent with our ideas.
C. considering opposing ideas and then testing them.
D. discarding opposing ideas that have not been tested.

C

Myers points out that hindsight can
A. lead you to feel overconfident.
B. lead you to judge yourself too harshly for not having foreseen outcomes.
C. lead to both overconfidence and the tendency to judge yourself too harshly.
D. be very helpful in developing hypotheses about personality traits.

C

Research suggests that the prediction of someone’s future academic success is best when the prediction is based on
A. statistics.
B. the judgments of trained admissions officers.
C. statistics plus the judgments of trained admissions officers.
D. letters of recommendation.

A

According to the text, professional clinicians are NOT LIKELY to
A. be the victims of illusory correlation.
B. suffer from confirmation bias.
C. consider opposing ideas and test them.
D. overestimate their clinical intuition.

C

According to the text, an important implication of the research on illusory thinking is that
A. intuition has no legitimate place in the field of science.
B. the scientific method is the only legitimate way to answer significant human questions.
C. research psychologists must test their preconceptions before presenting them as truth.
D. conventional wisdom is almost always wrong.

C

Myers suggests that the pervasiveness of illusory thinking points to the need for a _______ study of thought and behavior.
A. psychohistorical
B. literary
C. scientific
D. humanistic

C

Alloy and Abramson (1979) had depressed and nondepressed students observe whether pressing a button was linked with a light blinking and found that depressed students
A. were too self-focused to complete the task.
B. were quite accurate at assessing their control.
C. exaggerated the extent of their control of the light.
D. underestimated the extent of their control of the light.

B

The work of Alloy and Abramson (1979) examined how depressed individuals view the extent of their personal control over events. Their results provided evidence of the phenomenon known as
A. optimistic well-being.
B. pessimistic exaggeration.
C. depressive realism.
D. learned helplessness.

C

The tendency of mildly depressed people to make accurate rather than self-serving judgments is referred to as
A. the accurate explanatory style.
B. the Barnum effect.
C. realistic pessimism.
D. depressive realism.

D

Yvonne, a college senior, is mildly depressed. Asked to describe herself, she notes both her positive and negative qualities. She recalls both past successes and failures and takes personal responsibility for both. Yvonne clearly illustrates the _______ effect.
A. rose-colored-glasses
B. sadder-but-wiser
C. head-in-the-clouds
D. feet-on-the-ground

B

Vanessa is a mildly depressed college student. Considering the research findings presented in the text on depression, she probably
A. suffers from the better-than-average phenomenon.
B. assumes that her behavior is well-accepted by others.
C. demonstrates the sadder-but-wiser effect.
D. is below average in intelligence.

B

Compared to depressed people, non-depressed people
A. exaggerate their control of events around them.
B. have realistic perceptions of the good and bad things that the future holds.
C. readily accept responsibility for both successes and failures.
D. describe themselves with a fairly even mix of positive and negative qualities.

A

"Explanatory style" refers to
A. the complexity of one’s persuasive arguments.
B. one’s habitual way of explaining life events.
C. the pitch and speed with which one communicates.
D. whether one relies primarily on reason or emotion when debating an issue.

B

Explaining life events in terms of factors that are stable, global, and internal is a _______ explanatory style.
A. negative
B. positive
C. realistic
D. repressive

A

Who is more likely to exhibit a negative explanatory style?
A. a teenager
B. a non-depressed person
C. an elderly person
D. a depressed person

D

Maxwell, a college junior, suffers from chronic depression. After learning that he has performed poorly on his chemistry test, he is most likely to say,
A. "The test was not a fair assessment of what I actually know."
B. "My chemistry professor does not grade his tests fairly."
C. "I’m incompetent and probably always will be."
D. "I am sure most people did poorly on the test."

C

Which of the following attributions regarding a failure or a setback illustrates the global quality of a depressed person’s explanatory style?
A. "It’s my fault."
B. "It’s going to last forever."
C. "It’s going to affect everything I do."
D. "It’s the same with everybody."

C

Which of the following best illustrates an internal attribution for a failure or setback?
A. "I’ll never succeed."
B. "This ruins everything."
C. "It’s my fault."
D. "The whole world is against me."

C

Which of the following does NOT belong?
A. negative explanatory style
B. external attribution
C. global attribution
D. stable attribution

B

Which of the following attributions regarding a failure or setback illustrates the stable quality of a depressed person’s explanatory style?
A. "It’s all my fault."
B. "It’s going to last forever."
C. "The whole world is against me."
D. "It’s going to affect everything I do."

B

Compared to nondepressed people, depressed people are more likely to attribute their failures and setbacks to causes that are
A. unstable.
B. specific.
C. internal.
D. situational.

C

Strack and Coyne (1983) found that depressed people were realistic in thinking that other people
A. possessed more accurate self-concepts than they did.
B. did not appreciate their behavior.
C. would welcome their friendship and trust.
D. were less influenced by fear of social disapproval than they were.

B

College students who have depressed roommates tend to become
A. somewhat depressed themselves.
B. more accepting of people suffering from psychological disorders.
C. more optimistic about their own lives.
D. more studious and committed to achieving academic success.

A

Your roommate Joel is depressed. As a result, you will tend to become
A. somewhat depressed yourself.
B. more accepting of people suffering from psychological disorders.
C. more optimistic about your own life.
D. more studious and committed to achieving academic success.

A

Giesler and her colleagues (1996) found that when given a choice whether to read a favorable or unfavorable assessment of their personality, depressed and high-self-esteem people made which choice?
A. High-self-esteem individuals were more likely to choose the unfavorable assessment.
B. Depressed individuals were more likely to choose the unfavorable assessment.
C. Depressed individuals were more likely to choose the favorable assessment.
D. Both groups were about 50/50 in choosing the favorable or unfavorable assessment.

The vicious cycle of depression is usually triggered by negative experiences that lead directly to
A. self-focused rumination and self-blame.
B. depressed moods.
C. further negative experiences.
D. blaming others for the negative experiences.

A

According to Lewinsohn and her colleagues (1985), which of the following does NOT belong in the vicious cycle of depression?
A. self-focus
B. self-blame
C. depressed mood
D. defensive pessimism

D

Which of the following explains the relationship between depression and negative thinking?
A. depressed moods cause negative thinking
B. negative thinking causes depressed moods
C. depression and negative thinking are unrelated in laboratory experiments
D. depressed moods can cause negative thinking and negative thinking can cause depressed moods

D

According to Seligman (2002), near-epidemic levels of depression in America today, ironically, can be blamed in part on the promotion of attitudes that say,
A. "Everybody needs somebody sometime."
B. "You can make it on your own."
C. "You’re nobody if nobody loves you."
D. "Eat, drink, and be merry, for tomorrow we die."

B

According to Seligman’s (2002) analysis of the attitudes that promote near-epidemic levels of depression in America, most of us feel that, if we do not "make it" in today’s world, we can blame
A. our parents.
B. the government.
C. the alienation of the modern world.
D. only ourselves.

D

In comparison to those in Western cultures, depressed people in Japan are more likely to report feeling
A. guilt and self-blame over personal failure.
B. shame over letting down their family or co-workers.
C. sad about social problems such as poverty and discrimination.
D. hopeless and helpless.

B

Loneliness is best described as a state created by the awareness that you
A. are alone most of the time.
B. have lost a significant relationship.
C. have less numerous or meaningful social relationships than you desire.
D. are not really respected even though you have many acquaintances.

C

Larsen and her colleagues (1982) found that when beeped by an electronic pager at various times during a one week period and asked to record what they were doing and how they felt, _______ were most likely to report feeling lonely when alone.
A. adolescents
B. adults
C. women
D. men

A

Chronically lonely people seem to have the same _______ as chronically depressed people.
A. unrealistic vision of the future
B. need to achieve perfection
C. illusion of control
D. negative explanatory style

D

Chronically lonely people tend to blame _______ for their poor social relationships.
A. their parents and early childhood experiences
B. the uncaring attitudes of those presently around them
C. themselves
D. cultural patterns

C

Which of the following statements about lonely people is FALSE?
A. They perceive others in positive ways.
B. They tend to be low in self-esteem.
C. When talking with strangers, they spend more time talking about themselves and take less interest in the other person.
D. They self-disclose quickly.

A

According to the self-presentation theory, we will feel social anxiety when we are
A. motivated to impress others but doubt our ability to do so.
B. motivated and able to impress others, but they ignore us.
C. in any circumstance in which we can be observed.
D. depressed.

A

Which of the following theories most clearly predicts that we will feel anxious when we are motivated to impress others but doubt our ability to do so?
A. social learning theory
B. self-presentation theory
C. self-perception theory
D. cognitive dissonance theory

B

According to the text, shyness is a form of _______ characterized by self-consciousness and worrying about what others think.
A. loneliness
B. social anxiety
C. depression
D. social incompetence

B

Shy people tend to
A. make a good first impression.
B. depersonalize social situations.
C. become less well-liked over time.
D. be self-conscious

D

According to the text, labeling oneself as shy, depressed, or under the influence of alcohol can serve a(n) _______ function.
A. anger-reducing
B. self-handicapping
C. concurrence-seeking
D. group-identification

B

Brodt and Zimbardo (1981) found that shy women who were bombarded with loud noise and told that it would leave them _______ were subsequently _______ when interacting with a handsome male.
A. with a pounding heart; no longer so shy
B. unaffected; no longer so shy
C. with a pounding heart; even more shy
D. unaffected; unaffected

A

Brodt and Zimbardo (1981) found that shy women were no longer shy when they
A. were provided an alternative explanation for their social anxiety.
B. were provided alcohol before interacting with others.
C. discovered that most people feel shy.
D. were taught to blame their failures on circumstances beyond their control.

A

Which of the following is an interdisciplinary field that integrates and applies behavioral and medical knowledge about health and disease?
A. health psychology
B. behavioral medicine
C. applied psychology
D. clinical psychology

B

Psychology’s contribution to the interdisciplinary field of behavioral medicine is
A. clinical psychology.
B. psychiatry.
C. behavioral analysis.
D. health psychology.

D

Dr. Jones is a psychologist who specializes in the causes and control of stress. Dr. Jones is most likely a(n) _________ psychologist.
A. consumer
B. educational
C. forensic
D. health

D

According to the text as well as research evidence, premenstrual syndrome (PMS)
A. occurs in 6 out of 10 women.
B. leads to premenstrual dysphoric disorder in 3 out of 10 women.
C. has many characteristics of a socially constructed disorder.
D. is a myth perpetuated by men.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. People more often seek treatment if they believe their symptoms have a physical rather than a psychological cause.
B. Women are more often sick.
C. Women are more likely than men to visit a physician.
D. Men use fewer prescription and nonprescription drugs.

B

People are more likely to use sunscreen or get an HIV test when the message is
A. framed attractively in terms of the potential gain in doing so.
B. framed negatively.
C. highly arousing.
D. framed in terms of shared goals.

A

Experiments that subject animals to mild but uncontrollable electric shocks have shown that such experiences
A. directly cause diseases like cancer.
B. lower the body’s resistance to disease.
C. strengthen the animals’ capacity to deal with future stressors.
D. lead to the animals becoming more aggressive in interacting with members of their own species.

B

A growing body of evidence reveals that people who undergo highly stressful experiences become
A. more resistant to low-level illnesses like colds and flu.
B. more vulnerable to disease.
C. less self-disclosing and more socially isolated.
D. stronger and more socially skilled than less stressed people.

B

Research has reported that newlywed couples who become angry while discussing problems
A. experience catharsis and have better long-term relationships with their spouses.
B. are subsequently more susceptible to problems of depression and loneliness.
C. suffer more immune system suppression the next day.
D. are more prone to develop colon cancer in the subsequent six months.

C

A large Swedish study has found that, compared with unstressed workers, those with a history of workplace stress
A. are better prepared to deal with stress in their family lives.
B. tend to have a more pessimistic explanatory style.
C. are at much greater risk of developing colon cancer.
D. develop stronger immune defenses.

C

Maggie wants advice on how to cope with the stress of a new job. She would be best advised to approach her new job with a sense of
A. passive resignation.
B. ambition and competitiveness.
C. urgency and time-consciousness.
D. optimism.

D

Which of the following is NOT an example of one of the components of a pessimistic explanatory style?
A. "This is all my fault."
B. "I’ve learned my lesson."
C. "This is going to ruin everything."
D. "Things are going to be terrible from now on."

B

Peterson and Seligman (1987) analyzed the press quotes of baseball Hall of Famers and found that those who routinely offered pessimistic explanations for bad events, like losing big games, were more likely to
A. earn lower salaries.
B. experience divorce.
C. play aggressively.
D. die at younger ages.

D

Which of the following is an example of an optimistic explanatory style?
A. "My fate is out of my hands."
B. "Human life is fragile."
C. "I usually expect the best."
D. "I rarely count on good things happening to me."

C

Research investigating the nature of the connection between explanatory style and health has shown that people who routinely use the pessimistic style
A. are more likely to experience illness.
B. boost the morale of others via a contrast effect.
C. also tend to be impulsive and resistant to influence.
D. complain more but do not get sick more frequently than optimists.

A

According to the text, which of the following is a social-psychological principle that can be applied to the treatment of psychological difficulties?
A. attitudes-follow-behavior
B. we are cognitive misers
C. acceptance breeds compliance
D. behavior-follows-attitudes

A

Which of the following is NOT a therapy that utilizes the "attitudes-follow-behavior" principle?
A. assertiveness training
B. rational-emotive therapy
C. self-help groups
D. psychoanalysis

D

Both assertiveness training and rational-emotive therapy are cited in the text as examples of psychotherapeutic techniques that
A. utilize social support to change behavior.
B. utilize the attitudes-follow-behavior principle.
C. encourage changes in explanatory style.
D. use counter-conditioning strategies.

B

Mendonca and Brehm (1983) found that overweight children were more likely to lose weight and keep it off after an eight-week program if they
A. felt responsible for choosing their weight-loss program.
B. were regularly monitored and penalized for breaking rules.
C. were praised and rewarded for even minor weight loss.
D. had been assigned to their "least preferred" treatment program

B

Which statement is TRUE?
A. A bad marriage is often less depressing to a woman than to a man.
B. Single women are happier than married women.
C. Marital happiness predicts overall happiness more than finances.
D. Finances predict overall happiness more than marital happiness.

Having shy or anxious people observe, then rehearse, then try out more assertive behaviors in real situations is called
A. foot-in-the-door training.
B. rational-emotive therapy.
C. social skills training.
D. explanatory style therapy.

C

A study by Haemmerlie and Montgomery (1986) enticed shy college men to participate in laboratory exercises that would enhance their socially competence. The men
A. were taught specific communication skills.
B. took a short course on positive thinking.
C. delivered self-laudatory speeches to strangers.
D. had several successful conversations with women.

Research by Haemmerlie and Montgomery (1986) supported the notion that social skills training can lead shy men to
A. become dependent on their therapist.
B. reduce their social anxiety.
C. concentrate on their social incompetence.
D. become more shy 6 months after treatment.

B

Haemmerlie and Montgomery (1986) concluded that the success of their social skills training with shy men may have occurred because their program
A. employed skilled counselors who took responsibility for inspiring the men to feel confident and competent.
B. included no counseling, so the participants made internal attributions for their success.
C. protected the men from having to participate in actual conversations until they had first been extensively trained.
D. paved the way for conversational success by providing many external reasons for initiating conversation.

B

Maria’s therapist instructed her to monitor her attributions for successes and failures. Maria is probably participating in
A. assertiveness training.
B. explanatory style therapy.
C. stress inoculations.
D. group therapy.

B

Improvements achieved through changing thought or behavior patterns are most likely to endure if people
A. redesign their behavioral contexts.
B. are required to report back to their therapist on a regular basis.
C. attribute such changes to factors under their own control.
D. recognize that success depends on a power beyond themselves.

C

As a result of participating in a program to help her quit smoking, Anne has not had a cigarette for three weeks. She is least likely to return to smoking if she attributes her success in quitting the habit to
A. her own motivation.
B. the therapist who helped her quit.
C. the support of her friends.
D. the unique nature of the therapeutic program.

A

John was recently attacked and mugged on a subway. He is less likely to experience long term stress from the trauma if he
A. forgets about it.
B. talks about it with a friend.
C. sees a doctor immediately.
D. blocks it from his thoughts.

B

According to research conducted by Cacioppo and her colleagues (2002), the relationship between loneliness and health risks is
A. positive.
B. negative.
C. neutral.
D. curvilinear.

A

A common conclusion reached by several studies involving thousands of people is that
A. close relationships predict health.
B. close relationships promote stress and some forms of illness.
C. family relationships are unrelated to health.
D. physical health is not linked to social support.

A

The negative correlation between poverty and health is likely caused by all of the following factors EXCEPT
A. reduced material possessions.
B. increased stress.
C. reduced health care.
D. unhealthy lifestyle.

A

Women who had been sexually abused reported more health problems especially if they had
A. not seen a therapist.
B. kept their abuse secret.
C. not confronted their abuser
D. confronted their abuser.

B

Which of the following is the best predictor of overall happiness?
A. a satisfying job
B. satisfaction with finances
C. satisfaction with one’s community
D. satisfaction with marriage

D

According to the text, marriage enhances happiness for which of the following reasons?
A. It provides regular sex to both partners.
B. It provides financial security.
C. It provides multiple roles (e.g., spouse, parent) that can contribute to self-esteem.
D. It provides companionship.

C

At the University of Washington, Loftus (1979) found that eyewitnesses in a hypothetical robbery-murder case were influential
A. unless their testimony was shown to be useless.
B. even when their testimony was discredited.
C. only if other evidence supported their story.
D. only if they were similar to those making the judgments.

B

Loftus (1979) found that when an eyewitness who had testified against the defendant in a hypothetical robbery-murder case was discredited because of having poor vision
A. about half the jurors switched their votes from guilty to innocent.
B. the majority of jurors still voted for conviction.
C. jurors regarded the eyewitness testimony as useless and it had no impact on their verdict.
D. a boomerang effect occurred with all the jurors changing their votes in favor of an acquittal.

B

A prosecuting attorney is uncertain whether her eyewitness will seem credible to the jury. The eyewitness’s testimony could help win a conviction, but the witness might be discredited by the defense attorney. What advice should the prosecutor accept?
A. Put the witness on the stand, since even a discredited eyewitness is more convincing than no eyewitness at all.
B. Do not put the witness on the stand, since a discredited eyewitness is worse than no eyewitness at all.
C. Put the eyewitness on the stand but admit your reservations about the credibility of the witness before the defense attorney raises the issue.
D. Put the witness on the stand only if he or she is attractive and similar to the jurors.

A

Studies of eyewitness testimony indicate that
A. jurors can discern whether eyewitnesses have mistakenly identified an innocent person.
B. when witnessing conditions are poor, jurors do not usually believe eyewitness testimony.
C. eyewitnesses who are shown to have poor eyesight have little effect on the juror’s judgment.
D. false eye witnesses are usually recognized by the jury.

C

Jurors think that an eyewitness who can recall trivial details such as how many pictures were hanging in the room probably
A. gained information about these details by a second visit to the crime scene.
B. was paying better attention than one who recalls no details.
C. was not paying attention to the culprit or the crime itself.
D. is no more accurate in recalling important information than witnesses with no memory for details.

B

Research indicates that eyewitnesses who remember trivial details of a crime scene
A. also tend to overestimate the degree of harm or damage done as a result of the crime.
B. also tend to be particularly suspicious of all unfamiliar faces.
C. are less likely to have paid attention to the culprit’s face.
D. are more likely to have paid attention to the culprit’s face.

C

City police found that Mr. Caldwell, an eyewitness to a murder in a local bank, correctly remembered many trivial details of the crime scene, including the specific time on the clock and the paintings on the wall. Research findings suggest that Mr. Caldwell’s recall of trivial details means
A. it is more likely that he can also correctly identify the murderer.
B. it is less likely that he can also correctly identify the murderer.
C. nothing in terms of his ability to correctly identify the murderer.
D. it is more likely that he can also correctly identify the murderer, provided Mr. Caldwell is also highly educated.

B

A prosecuting attorney learns that a crucial eyewitness to a grocery store robbery correctly remembers trivial details of the crime scene. If the prosecutor hopes to convince the jury that the eyewitness is credible, research suggests
A. he should make the jury aware of the witness’s ability to remember trivial details.
B. he should deliberately avoid making the jury aware of the witness’s ability to remember trivial details.
C. it will make no difference whether the jury knows that the witness can remember trivial details.
D. he should make the jury aware of the witness’s ability to remember trivial details only if the jury is composed of all males.

A

Wells and his colleagues (2002) reported that it is the _______ eyewitnesses whom jurors find to be most believable.
A. older
B. younger
C. confident
D. emotional

C

Of the following eyewitnesses to a crime, who would probably appear most believable to a jury?
A. Teddy, a fifth-grader whose father is a lawyer
B. Randy, a radio announcer who appears very confident about what he saw
C. Moira, a retired teacher who has traveled widely to visit other countries
D. Dawn, a shy student who smiles and speaks very softly

B

Which of the following statements about eyewitness testimony is FALSE?
A. Eyewitnesses’ certainty about what they have seen is closely related to their accuracy.
B. Confident witnesses are more believable to jurors than those lacking confidence.
C. Incorrect witnesses are virtually as confident as correct witnesses.
D. Eyewitness testimony is powerful to juries.

A

In what we now know to be a mistake, the U.S. Supreme Court declared in 1972 that among the factors to be considered in determining an eyewitness’s accuracy is "the level of _______ demonstrated by the witness."
A. impartiality
B. interest
C. certainty
D. fluency

C

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Eyewitnesses are often more confident than correct.
B. Confident eyewitnesses are more accurate than uncertain eyewitnesses.
C. Both the gender and race of eyewitnesses have been shown to correlate with their degree of accuracy.
D. Eyewitnesses who pay attention to details are most likely to pay attention to the culprit’s face.

A

Studies of the misinformation effect provide a dramatic demonstration of
A. memory construction.
B. repressed memory.
C. proactive interference.
D. state-dependent memory.

A

The process of witnessing an event, receiving misleading information about it, and then incorporating the misleading information into one’s memory of the event is referred to as the _______ effect.
A. false memory
B. misinformation
C. inoculation
D. interference

B

In the process known as the misinformation effect, individuals
A. give misleading testimony in court.
B. receive wrong information about an event and then incorporate that information into their memory of the event.
C. purposely give wrong information to police.
D. fail to remember any information following a traumatic event.

B

After hearing a television report falsely indicating that drugs may have contributed to a recent auto accident, several eyewitnesses of the accident begin to remember the driver as traveling at a faster rate of speed than was actually the case. This provides an example of
A. flashbulb memory.
B. state-dependent memory.
C. the serial position effect.
D. the misinformation effect.

D

Research on false memories in children find that children
A. are not very confident about their memories.
B. cannot reliably separate real from false memories.
C. very rarely lie about their memories.
D. are unlikely to make false accusations.

B

The tendency for witnesses to incorporate misleading information into their memories is especially strong when
A. suggestive questions are repeated.
B. the questioner is female rather than male.
C. the event was a traffic incident rather than a violent crime.
D. the witness is low in need for cognition.

A

Research on the memories of young children indicates that they
A. are better at remembering verbal details than visual details.
B. tend to fabricate stories about their own victimization even when asked open-ended questions.
C. are especially susceptible to misinformation.
D. do not react to misinformation.

C

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Retelling events accurately makes people less resistant to the misinformation effect.
B. Rehearsing answers before taking the witness stand decreases the confidence of those who are wrong.
C. Retelling events commits people to their recollections, accurate or not.
D. Retelling has no effect on memory.

C

Wells, Ferguson, and Lindsay (1981) had eyewitnesses to a staged theft rehearse their answers to questions before taking the witness stand. Doing so
A. increased the accuracy of the eyewitness testimony.
B. decreased the confidence of those who were correct.
C. increased the confidence of those who were wrong.
D. None of the choices are correct.

C

Eyewitness testimony can be distorted or biased by which of the following?
A. suggestive questions
B. an eyewitnesses’ own retelling of events
C. whether the person is an eyewitness for the defendant or the plaintiff
D. All of the choices are correct.

D

An eyewitness gains confidence from which of the following sources?
A. being the only person who saw the event
B. being asked the same question repeatedly
C. testifying against a person whose race is different from their own
D. disliking the defendant

B

Stan was initially uncertain about the man he identified as the burglar in a police lineup. His confidence increased, however, after
A. learning that he was the only eyewitness in the case.
B. being asked the same question repeatedly.
C. viewing a thousand police mug shots.
D. seeing the grainy, inconclusive security camera video.

B

In Wells and Bradfield’s study (1999), participants were asked to identify a gunman they had seen on video. After making a false identification but receiving confirming feedback, ___ % rated their initial certainty as very high.
A. 94
B. 58
C. 34
D. 5

B

In a police lineup, the lineup interviewer’s feedback
A. has no effect on the witness’s confidence.
B. has a very mild effect on the witness’s confidence.
C. has a large effect on the witness’s confidence.
D. is usually not believed by the witness.

C

Which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy for increasing the accuracy of eyewitnesses and jurors?
A. Train police interviewers to elicit unbiased accounts.
B. Educate jurors about the limitations of eyewitness testimony.
C. Ask witnesses to scan a lineup of several suspects or mug shots simultaneously rather than one at a time.
D. Have police acknowledge that the offender may not even be in the lineup.

C

In order to promote accurate recall, the "cognitive interview" procedure for questioning eyewitnesses begins with
A. specific questions about the event.
B. guiding eyewitnesses to visualize the scene.
C. advising witnesses about what others’ have said.
D. flooding witnesses with mug shots right away.

B

When Fisher and his colleagues (1994) trained detectives to use the "cognitive interview" procedure for questioning eyewitnesses,
A. both the accuracy and the confidence of the eyewitnesses increased.
B. the amount of information elicited from eyewitnesses increased 50%.
C. the false memory rate increased 50%.
D. the false memory rate increased slightly, but confidence increased dramatically.

B

Whose eyewitness testimony is probably the most reliable?
A. Millie’s report given immediately after a grocery store robbery. She was simply asked to tell the police what she saw.
B. Fred’s report given in court about a bank robbery a month ago. He has been interviewed several times by the defense attorney before appearing in court.
C. Sue’s report given immediately after observing an attempted rape. She was asked very specific questions by the police, who had identified a suspect immediately after the assault.
D. All of these would be equally reliable.

B

A police interrogator questioning an eyewitness to a robbery hopes to learn whether the assailant was wearing a bright green hat similar to one seen in another robbery. According to research, which of the following questions will elicit the most detailed, undistorted recall from the eyewitness?
A. "Did you see whether the robber was wearing a hat?"
B. "Can you describe the hat the robber was wearing?"
C. "What color was the robber’s hat?"
D. "How was the robber dressed?"

D

Researchers have found that eyewitness’s accuracy can improve when
A. interrogators delay the interview at least one week.
B. the witnesses scan a group of mug shots or a composite drawing before reviewing a lineup.
C. they are presented with a sequence of individual people, one by one, instead of being presented with a group of photos or a lineup.
D. the seriousness of the crime is highlighted.

C

Dunning and Perretta (2002) found that those eyewitnesses who made their identifications _______ were nearly 90% accurate.
A. after a long deliberation
B. confidently
C. in less than 10-12 seconds
D. and then changed them

C

Which one of the following is an indicator that can suggest accuracy in a lineup identification?
A. being an older eyewitness
B. taking a long time to make an ID
C. being very confident about an ID
D. making a very quick identification

D

Which of the following has been suggested as a strategy for reducing misidentifications in police lineups?
A. Give eyewitnesses a "blank" lineup that contains no suspects and screen out those who make false identifications.
B. Minimize false identifications with instructions that acknowledge that the offender may not be in the lineup.
C. Include one suspect and several known innocent people in the lineup rather than a group of several suspects.
D. All of the choices are correct.

D

Which of the following is the best strategy for weeding out eyewitnesses who are just guessing?
A. Include several people known to be innocent in the lineup.
B. Include several suspects in the lineup and dress them all alike.
C. Include several suspects who look very different from one another in the lineup.
D. Tell the witness that the suspect is definitely in the lineup.

A

Pryke and her colleagues (2004) invited students to identify a prior class visitor from multiple lineups that separately presented face, body and voice samples. When eyewitnesses consistently identified the same suspect by face, body and voice, he or she was
A. never accurate.
B. hardly ever accurate.
C. sometimes accurate.
D. nearly always accurate.

D

A study of more than 3,500 criminal cases and some 4,000 civil cases found that _______ the judge agreed with the jury’s decision.
A. two out of three times
B. three out of four times
C. four out of five times
D. nine out of ten times

C

The more lenient treatment juries often give to _______ defendants suggests jurors’ judgments continue to be contaminated by cultural bias.
A. young
B. high-status
C. repentant
D. poor

B

Which of the following factors is NOT likely to lead to a lighter sentence for the person convicted?
A. high status
B. baby-faced features
C. height
D. physical attractiveness

C

When Efran (1974) gave students a description of a case of students cheating and showed them a photograph of either an attractive or unattractive person accused of the crime, he found that attractive defendants were
A. recommended for least punishment.
B. more likely to be judged as guilty.
C. more respected.
D. perceived as more dangerous.

A

Who among the following is likely to receive the most severe sentence for drunk driving?
A. Kim, a good looking real estate agent
B. Tim, an unattractive auto mechanic with long hair
C. Ken, a clean-cut businessman
D. Carol, an attractive single mother

B

If convicted, _______ people strike people as more dangerous, especially if they are sexual offenders.
A. cute or baby-faced
B. attractive
C. unattractive
D. underage

C

In an experiment conducted with the help of BBC Television, Wiseman (1998) reported that viewers saw the defendant played by either an attractive or an unattractive actor. How did the viewers react?
A. More viewers "convicted" the attractive defendant.
B. More viewers "convicted" the unattractive defendant.
C. There was no difference in the conviction rates of the attractive and unattractive defendants.
D. Baby-faced defendants were more often found guilty.

B

In researching over 1,700 defendants appearing in Texas misdemeanor cases, Downs and Lyons (1991) found that the judges _______ less attractive defendants.
A. set lower bails for
B. set greater fines for
C. spent less time reviewing the cases of
D. spent more time questioning

B

Which of the following factors has been shown to influence either the likelihood of conviction or the severity of punishment?
A. poverty
B. attractiveness
C. similarity to the jurors
D. both attractiveness and similarity to the jurors

D

Someone accused of a crime is judged more sympathetically
A. by females than by males.
B. if he or she appears to have personality characteristics that are complementary to the one who judges.
C. if he or she appears similar to the one who judges.
D. if there was a bystander who watched and did not intervene.

C

Amato (1979) found that when people play the role of juror, they are more sympathetic to a defendant who
A. shares their political views.
B. is of another race.
C. speaks a different language.
D. is of the other gender.

A

When Amato (1979) had Australian students read evidence concerning a left- or right-wing person accused of a politically motivated burglary, they judged him less guilty if
A. he claimed to have no religious preferences.
B. his political views were similar to their own.
C. he claimed he had been hired to commit the crime.
D. he proved he had not profited by the burglary.

B

According to the text, what factor helps explain why in acquaintance rape trials, men more often than women judge the defendant not guilty?
A. similarity
B. height
C. status
D. attractiveness

A

Nearly all the states in the U.S. now have _______ statutes that prohibit or limit testimony concerning a rape victim’s prior sexual activity.
A. inadmissible rape testimony
B. rape protection
C. rape shield
D. All of the choices are correct.

C

Research shows that when a judge rules evidence to be inadmissible and admonishes the jury to ignore it,
A. jurors are generally able to follow the judge’s instructions.
B. jurors have a hard time ignoring the evidence and its influence on their deliberations.
C. jurors do so if the evidence damages the defendant’s case but not if it hurts the prosecution’s case.
D. the evidence typically becomes the focus of debate in jury deliberations.

B

Jurors have difficulty "erasing" the impact of inadmissible evidence
A. when it is a criminal trial as opposed to a civil trial.
B. when the inadmissible evidence is presented by the defense as opposed to the prosecution.
C. especially when the inadmissible evidence has an emotional impact.
D. when a witness, as opposed to a trial lawyer, blurts out the inadmissible evidence.

C

As a result of the judge’s warning that the jury disregard evidence ruled inadmissible, the stricken evidence may have an even greater impact on the jury’s decision than if it had not been ruled out. This is probably due to _______ in the jurors.
A. reactance
B. disinhibition
C. self-efficacy
D. self-monitoring

A

Jurors exhibit a tendency to treat racial outgroups
A. more favorably.
B. without bias.
C. less favorably.
D. with a strong negative bias.

C

In 2006, of the first 130 convictions overturned by DNA evidence, 78% were
A. influenced by political parties.
B. the result of mistaken eyewitnesses.
C. based on falsified evidence.
D. the result of novice jurors’ errors.

B

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Most people will admit that pretrial publicity has influenced their ability to be impartial.
B. The effect of pretrial publicity on jury members can be removed by a judge’s instructions to disregard such publicity.
C. A judge’s orders to ignore inadmissible testimony can boomerang—adding to the impact of the testimony.
D. Getting jurors to publicly pledge their impartiality eliminates the effect of pretrial publicity.

C

To minimize the effects of inadmissible testimony, Myers suggests that judges are best advised to
A. wait until jurors have heard the testimony before ruling it inadmissible, so jurors specifically know what they are to disregard.
B. videotape the testimony and cut out the inadmissible parts.
C. meet with jurors during their deliberations after the trial to insure that inadmissible testimony is not influencing their judgments.
D. immediately follow the trial by seeking a verbal pledge from each juror to ignore inadmissible evidence.

B

You have just been appointed to serve as a new county judge. You are concerned about the effect inadmissible evidence may have on the jury in an upcoming trial of a case involving rape. You anticipate that the defense attorney will seek to introduce evidence regarding the victim’s prior sexual history. To minimize the impact of such evidence on the jury, you should
A. say nothing about such inadmissible evidence to the jury.
B. remind the jury before the trial that the victim’s previous sexual history is irrelevant.
C. only tell the jury that the evidence is inadmissible after the defense attempts to introduce it.
D. ask the defendant to refute any damaging evidence about her previous sexual history.

B

Eberhardt and her colleagues (2006) reported that over a two-decade period, Black males convicted of murdering a White defendant were doubly likely to be sentenced to death if
A. the murder was violent.
B. the jurors were inexperienced.
C. the jurors were older.
D. if they had more stereotypically Afrocentric features.

D

Support for capital punishment in the United States has _______ since 1994.
A. fallen
B. increased slightly
C. remained stable
D. increased significantly

A

Survey researchers sometimes assist defense attorneys by using "scientific jury selection" to eliminate individuals likely to be unsympathetic. Results indicated that in the first nine important trials in which the defense relied on such methods, it
A. won all nine.
B. won two.
C. won seven.
D. lost all nine.

C

Kressel and Kressel (2002) concluded that jury-selection consultants can make a difference, but
A. they charge astronomically high fees.
B. they are biased themselves.
C. such cases are few and far between.
D. they are totally unethical.

C

In 1986, the U.S. Supreme Court in a split decision
A. ruled that death-qualified jurors are a biased sample.
B. overturned a lower court ruling that death-qualified jurors are a biased sample.
C. ruled that Georgia’s five-member juries were as reliable and accurate as twelve-member juries.
D. overturned a lower court decision that six-member juries could decide cases involving the death penalty.

B

Death-qualified jurors are
A. more likely to be women.
B. less likely to convict in criminal cases.
C. more likely to convict in criminal cases.
D. more concerned with due process of law than with crime control.

C

An attorney will be defending James S., who is accused of raping a 22-year-old woman. Who among the following jurors is likely to be least sympathetic to his client’s case?
A. John, a 40-year-old plumber who once served a sentence for burglary
B. Todd, a 22-year-old college student who is a political liberal
C. Wilma, a 42-year-old mother of two who tends to be authoritarian
D. Rita, a 32-year-old television executive who opposes the death penalty

C

Racially mixed mock juries have been found to
A. express more leniency.
B. be less open to information.
C. be harsher in sentencing.
D. more susceptible to group polarization.

A

Research suggests that jury deliberations can be influenced by all of the following processes except
A. group polarization.
B. minority influence.
C. deindividuation.
D. informational influence.

C

What is meant by the "two-thirds-majority" scheme?
A. Two-thirds of all people asked refuse to serve on a jury.
B. Two out of three times judges agree with the jury’s decision.
C. A two-thirds majority is a better rule than consensus for a jury to follow in reaching a verdict.
D. The jury verdict is usually the alternative favored by at least two-thirds of the jurors at the outset.

D

Research suggests that jurors in the minority will be most persuasive when they
A. change their position.
B. are consistent
C. are assertive.
D. are similar to the others.

C

Research suggests that jurors in the minority will be most persuasive when they are all of the following EXCEPT
A. consistent.
B. self-confident.
C. when they win defections from the majority.
D. well-educated.

D

Hastie, Penrod, and Pennington (1983) showed participants reenactments of an actual murder case, and asked them to deliberate until they agreed on a verdict. After deliberation, their initial leanings
A. had weakened.
B. had grown stronger.
C. were inconsequential.
D. did not change.

B

After hearing evidence in a murder trial, 10 jurors believed that the evidence was insufficient to convict the 25-year-old Black defendant. According to the group polarization hypothesis, after the jurors deliberated, they would be
A. more convinced that the defendant was guilty.
B. more convinced that the evidence was insufficient to convict.
C. evenly split, with some convinced that he was guilty and others convinced that he was innocent.
D. split, with the minority favoring acquittal and the majority favoring conviction.

B

Research suggests that minorities are most likely to sway the majority when the minority
A. favors conviction.
B. favors acquittal.
C. is composed of women.
D. is composed of Whites.

B

Research on the effects of group deliberation by a jury suggests that
A. groups do no better at recalling information from a trial than do their individual members.
B. deliberation cancels out some of the biases that contaminate individual judgments.
C. deliberation increases the likelihood that jurors will use inadmissible evidence.
D. All of the choices are correct.

D

Research indicates that six-member juries
A. are more likely to have hung verdicts.
B. encourage less balanced participation among jurors.
C. are less likely to embody a community’s diversity.
D. All of the choices are correct.

C

Jury researcher Michael Saks (1998) reported that
A. smaller juries more accurately recall trial testimony.
B. larger juries more accurately recall trial testimony.
C. smaller juries give more time to deliberations.
D. larger juries are more likely to convict.

B

According to the text, simulated juries
A. can help us formulate theories that we can then use to interpret the more complex world.
B. are virtually identical to real juries.
C. have been viewed by the majority of Supreme Court judges as valuable in predicting the behavior of actual juries.
D. have mundane realism but not experimental realism.

A

The majority of judges express _______ in the ability of mock jury studies to predict the actual behavior of jurors.
A. extreme confidence
B. moderate confidence
C. moderate doubt
D. serious doubt

D

Scroll to Top