Psychology Test Chapters 12,13,14

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1. (p. 441) When a behavior is _____ it is often considered abnormal.
A. impulsive and not as frequent
B. atypical in that it deviates from what is acceptable in a culture
C. repetitive
D. unique

B. atypical in that it deviates from what is acceptable in a culture

2. (p. 441-442) Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria that psychologists use to define abnormality?
A. Unique
B. Maladaptive
C. Personally distressful
D. Deviant

A. Unique

3. (p. 442) With respect to the three characteristics of abnormal behavior, when a behavior interferes with a person’s ability to function effectively in the world, it is considered _____.
A. unique
B. dependent
C. maladaptive
D. repetitive

C. maladaptive

4. (p. 442) Jason is very depressed and can’t help but think that life holds few rewards. He feels upset and frustrated by the fact that he just can’t "shake the blues." The _____ aspect of abnormal behavior applies to Jason.
A. deviant
B. maladaptive
C. digressive
D. personally distressful

D. personally distressful

5. (p. 443) The _____ approach to disorders primarily focuses on the brain, genetic factors, and neurotransmitter functioning as the sources of abnormality.
A. psychological
B. sociocultural
C. biological
D. evolutionary

C. biological

6. (p. 443) The _____ approach is evident in the medical model.
A. biological
B. psychological
C. sociocultural
D. cognitive

A. biological

7. (p. 443) Which theoretical approach emphasizes the contributions of experiences, thoughts, emotions, and personality characteristics in explaining psychological disorders?
A. The sociocultural approach
B. The psychological approach
C. The humanistic approach
D. The biological approach

B. the psychological approach

8. (p. 443) Marilyn is depressed a great deal of the time and seeks help from a doctor. She is diagnosed as having a mental illness caused by a chemical imbalance. Marilyn is most likely being treated by someone who adheres to the _____ model of psychological disorders.
A. medical
B. behavioral
C. psychoanalytic
D. cognitive

A. medical

9. (p. 446) Drug companies commonly fund research that focuses on a(n) _____ model of psychological disorders.
A. cultural
B. analytical
C. disease
D. cognitive

C. disease

10. (p. 447) Chad regularly experiences motor tension, hyperactivity, and apprehensive expectations and thoughts. It is likely that Chad suffers from a(n) _____.
A. mood disorder
B. anxiety disorder
C. personality disorder
D. dissociative disorder

B. anxiety disorder

11. (p. 447) Which of the following is NOT classified as an anxiety disorder?
A. Specific phobia
B. Panic disorder
C. Depression
D. Social anxiety disorder

C. depression

12. (p. 447) Although Carol has been experiencing persistent anxiety for the past 6 months, she has been unable to specify the cause or source of her nervous feelings. Carol likely suffers from _____.
A. Schizophrenia
B. post-traumatic stress disorder
C. a panic disorder
D. generalized anxiety disorder

D. generalized anxiety disorder

13. (p. 448) In a(n) _____, a person experiences recurrent, sudden onsets of intense terror, often without warning and with no specific cause.
A. panic disorder
B. generalized anxiety disorder
C. phobic disorder
D. obsessive-compulsive disorder

A. panic disorder

14. (p. 448) You are having dinner with your friend Sophia when she experiences a sudden onset of intense terror, without warning and with no specific cause. Sophia would most likely be diagnosed as suffering from _____.
A. obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. panic disorder
C. phobic disorder
D. generalized anxiety disorder

B. panic disorder

15. (p. 448) John has sudden attacks of intense fear in which he experiences palpitations, he feels dizzy, and he has trouble catching his breath. During these attacks, he worries that he is going to die. From this description, it sounds like John has _____.
A. Schizophrenia
B. obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. panic disorder
D. generalized anxiety disorder

C. panic disorder

16. (p. 449) A fear becomes a phobia when _____.
A. a doctor diagnoses it as such
B. an individual will go to any length to avoid the object of the fear/phobia
C. a person can specifically identify what they are afraid of
D. the regions of the brain like amygdala and hippocampus are deactivated

B. an individual will go to any length to avoid the object of the fear/phobia

17. (p. 449) Former NFL coach John Madden had a famous fear of flying that led him to take a bus to all of the games he broadcasted. The fact that he would go to any length to avoid flying suggests that he suffered from _____.
A. schizophrenia
B. obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. specific phobia
D. post-traumatic stress disorder

C. specific phobia

18. (p. 450) Individuals who suffer from _____ have an intense fear of being humiliated or embarrassed in public/collective situations.
A. generalized anxiety disorder
B. obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. post-traumatic stress disorder
D. social anxiety disorder

D. social anxiety disorder

19. (p. 451) The Anxiety disorder in which the individual has anxiety-provoking thoughts that will not go away and/or urges to perform repetitive, ritualistic behaviors to prevent or produce some future situation is called _______.
A. specific phobia
B. post-traumatic stress disorder
C. obsessive-compulsive disorder
D. schizophrenia

C. obsessive-compulsive disorder

20. (p. 451) The most common compulsion exhibited by individuals who have obsessive-compulsive disorder is excessive _____.
A. exercising
B. cleansing
C. sleeping
D. eating

B. cleansing

21. (p. 451) _____ are recurrent thoughts, whereas _____ are recurrent behaviors.
A. Compulsions/obsessions
B. Obsessions/compulsions
C. Delusions/hallucinations
D. Hallucinations/delusions

B. obsessions/ compulsions

22. (p. 451) Jillian can’t bear to leave her home without washing all the linens and floors, vacuuming the carpets, and organizing everything in her cupboards. Because she knows that her behavior is extreme, she has tried to go to work without doing all these things, but she is overcome with such overwhelming dread that she never makes it all the way to the office. Jillian probably has _____.
A. obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. generalized anxiety disorder
C. post-traumatic stress disorder
D. panic disorder

A. obsessive-compulsive disorder

23. (p. 451) Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) _____.
A. does not seem to have a genetic component because it does not run in families
B. is linked with high levels of serotonin and dopamine
C. does not seem to be linked with abnormal brain functioning
D. sometimes occurs during a period of life stress

D. sometimes occurs during a period of life stress

24. (p. 452) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of post-traumatic stress disorder?
A. Flashbacks
B. Impulsive outbursts of behavior
C. Difficulties with memory and concentration
D. Feeling emotionally charged

D. feeling emotionally charged

25. (p. 452) When Sandra was 18 years old, she was in a serious car accident. Although she made a full recovery from her injuries, she experienced extreme anxiety afterward. Sandra is now very anxious when driving, has nightmares about the accident, and flinches when she goes through intersections. Sandra has symptoms suggestive of _____.
A. generalized anxiety disorder
B. specific phobia
C. post-traumatic stress disorder
D. panic disorder

C. post-traumatic stress disorder

26. (p. 452-453) In movies that focus on war, soldiers who have returned from the frontlines often struggle with overwhelming anxiety, nervousness, depression, and flashbacks. In many cases these soldiers have problems with memory and an inability to experience happiness. These characters are indicative of _____.
A. obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. post-traumatic stress disorder
C. specific phobia
D. dissociative identity disorder

B. post-traumatic stress disorder

27. (p. 452-453) Randy experienced a horrific childhood. She was physically and verbally abused by her mother and sexually abused by her stepfather. Years later, she began experiencing anxiety symptoms. Which of the following anxiety related disorders would best apply to this situation?
A. major depressive disorder
B. post-traumatic stress disorder
C. bipolar disorder
D. schizophrenia

B. post-traumatic stress disorder

28. (p. 454) A depressive disorder is classified as a(n) _____ disorder.
A. anxiety
B. mood
C. personality
D. digressive

B. mood

29. (p. 454) _____ is an unrelenting lack of pleasure in life.
A. Anxiety
B. Fear
C. Anger
D. Depression

D. Depression

30. (p. 455) According to the National Institute of Mental Health, the leading cause of disability in the United States is _____.
A. obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. panic disorder
C. schizophrenia
D. major depressive disorder

D. major depressive disorder

31. (p. 455) _____ involves a significant depressive episode and depressed characteristics, such as lethargy and hopelessness, for at least 2 weeks.
A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Generalized anxiety disorder

B. major depressive disorder

32. (p. 455) Depressed people tend to have fewer receptors of the neurotransmitters _____
A. dopamine and GABA
B. GABA and epinephrine
C. oxytocin and serotonin
D. serotonin and norepinephrine

D. serotonin and nonrepinephrine

33. (p. 457) _____ is a mood disorder that is characterized by extreme mood swings that include one or more episodes of mania, an overexcited, unrealistically optimistic state.
A. Major depressive disorder
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Generalized anxiety disorder

C. Bipolar disorder

34. (p. 457) Your roommate is acting very strangely. Although she has not slept much in the past few days, she says she is on top of the world. She has cleaned and re-cleaned her closets several times. She also took all her savings and invested it in a questionable financial venture. This period of non-stop activity has lasted for well over a week and is in sharp contrast to the depression and fatigue she exhibited earlier this semester. Your roommate is exhibiting symptoms of _____.
A. bipolar disorder
B. generalized anxiety disorder
C. panic disorder
D. obsessive-compulsive disorder

A. bipolar disorder

35. (p. 457) Depressive disorders are _____, whereas bipolar disorder is _____.
A. more common among men/equally common in men and women
B. more common among women/equally common in men and women
C. equally common in men and women/more common among women
D. equally common in men and women/more common among men

B. more common among women/equally common in men and women

36. (p. 457) Genetic factors are stronger predictors of _____ than _____.
A. depressive disorders/bipolar disorder
B. bipolar disorder/depressive disorders
C. dysthymic disorder/depressive disorders
D. dysthymic disorders/bipolar disorder

B. bipolar disorder/ depressive disorders

37. (p. 460) Suicide is linked with low levels of the neurotransmitter _____.
A. dopamine
B. GABA
C. serotonin
D. epinephrine

C. serotonin

38. (p. 462) _____ is an eating disorder in which an individual, typically female, consistently follows a binge-and-purge eating pattern.
A. Bulimia nervosa
B. Binge-eating disorder
C. Anorexia nervosa
D. Schizophrenia

A. bulimia nervosa

39. (p. 462) ______ is an eating disorder that involves the relentless pursuit of thinness through starvation.
A. Binge-eating disorder
B. Anorexia nervosa
C. Schizophrenia
D. Dissociative identity disorder

B. anorexia nervosa

40. (p. 462) _____ has the highest mortality rate of any psychological disorder.
A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Bipolar disorder
D. Anorexia nervosa

D. anorexia nervosa

41. (p. 463) Francine has been suffering from a chronic sore throat, kidney problems, dehydration, gastrointestinal problems, and dental problems. These complications are commonly experienced by individuals who suffer from _____.
A. binge eating disorders
B. anorexia nervosa
C. bulimia nervosa
D. bipolar disorder

C. bulimia nervosa

42. (p. 463) Individuals with bulimia nervosa tend to have _____ of perfectionism and _____ of self-efficacy.
A. high levels/high levels
B. high levels/low levels
C. low levels/high levels
D. low levels/low levels

B. high levels/ low levels

43. (p. 463) Problems in regulating _____ are related to both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa.
A. serotonin
B. epinephrine
C. tryptamine
D. dopamine

A. serotonin

44. (p. 465) _____ involve a sudden loss of memory or change in identity.
A. Anxiety disorders
B. Mood disorders
C. Personality disorders
D. Dissociative disorders

D. dissociative disorders

45. (p. 465) Dissociative disorders often occur in individuals who also show signs of _____.
A. bipolar disorder
B. post-traumatic stress disorder
C. antisocial personality disorder
D. panic disorder

B. post-traumatic stress disorder

46. (p. 466) _____ is the most dramatic, least common, and most controversial dissociative disorder.
A. Dissociative amnesia
B. Dissociative identity disorder
C. Dissociative fugue
D. Schizophrenia

B. dissociative identity disorder

47. (p. 466) Which of the following was formerly called multiple personality disorder?
A. Dissociative amnesia
B. Dissociative identity disorder
C. Dissociative fugue
D. Schizophrenia

B. dissociative identity disorder

48. (p. 468) _____ is a severe psychological disorder that is characterized by highly disordered thought processes.
A. Social anxiety disorder
B. Bipolar disorder
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Schizophrenia

D. schizophrenia

49. (p. 468) _____ are sensory experiences in the absence of real stimuli. _____ are false, unusual, and sometimes magical beliefs that are not part of an individual’s culture.
A. Delusions/Hallucinations
B. Hallucinations/Delusions
C. Referential thoughts/Catatonic thoughts
D. Catatonic thoughts/Referential thoughts

B. hallucinations/ delusions

50. (p. 468) Frank believes that he is the finest fisherman ever and that, when he is out on the lake, thousands of people are in the surrounding area with binoculars watching his every move in the hopes of discovering his technique. This is an example of _____.
A. a delusion
B. a hallucination
C. a mirage
D. flat affect

A. a delusion

51. (p. 469) _____ is a common negative symptom of schizophrenia, which means the display of little or no emotion.
A. Catatonia
B. Flat affect
C. Referential thinking
D. Hallucination

B. flat affect

52. (p. 469) Catatonia _____.
A. is a state of immobility and unresponsiveness that lasts for long periods of time
B. means giving personal meaning to completely random events
C. refers to false, unusual, and sometimes magical beliefs that are not part of an individual’s culture
D. refers to sensory experiences that occur in the absence of real stimuli

A. is a state of immobility and unresponsiveness that lasts for long periods of time

53. (p. 473) _____ personality disorder is a psychological disorder characterized by guiltlessness, law-breaking, exploitation of others, irresponsibility, and deceit.
A. Histrionic
B. Schizoid
C. Antisocial
D. Obsessive-compulsive

C. antisocial

54. (p. 473) Ted is a superficially charming person but is indifferent to the pain of others. He has spent his life in and out of prison for violent crimes. Ted would most likely be diagnosed with which type of personality disorder?
A. Borderline
B. Narcissistic
C. Antisocial
D. Schizotypal

C. antisocial

55. (p. 475) _____ is characterized by a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotions, and of marked impulsivity beginning by early adulthood and present in various contexts.
A. Schizophrenia
B. Dissociative identity disorder
C. Antisocial personality disorder
D. Borderline personality disorder

D. borderline personality disorder

56. (p. 475) The thinking style called splitting is associated with which of the following disorders?
A. Schizophrenia
B. Dissociative identity disorder
C. Antisocial personality disorder
D. Borderline personality disorder

D. borderline personality disorder

57. (p. 478) The Americans with Disabilities Act _____.
A. made it illegal to hold social stigmas against those with mental disorders
B. made it illegal to discriminate against a person with a psychological disorder in the workplace when the person’s condition does not prevent performance of the job’s essential functions
C. was designed to reduce the cultural stereotypes of people with mental disorders
D. was designed to provide additional healthcare coverage to people with mental disorders who were stereotyped as violent

B, made it illegal to discriminate against a person with a psychological disorder in the workplace when the person’s condition does not prevent performance of the job’s essential functions

1. Which of the following treatments reduce or eliminate the symptoms of psychological disorders by altering aspects of body functioning?
A. Psychotherapies
B. Humanistic therapies
C. Cognitive behavioral therapies
D. Biological therapies

D. biological therapies

2. Which of the following statements about biological therapies is false?
A. Biological therapies are treatments that reduce or eliminate the symptoms of psychological disorders by altering aspects of body functioning.
B. Drug therapy is the most common form of biological therapy.
C. Psychologists can prescribe drugs for psychological disorders in most states.
D. Medical doctors can prescribe drugs for psychological disorders.

C. psychologists can prescribe drugs for psychological disorders in most states

3. Which of the following biomedical interventions for changing behavior is used least often?
A. Aversive conditioning
B. Psychotherapy
C. Psychosurgery
D. Drug therapy

C. psychosurgery

4. Tranquilizers are _____ drugs.
A. antianxiety
B. antidepressant
C. antipsychotic
D. MAO inhibitor

A. antianxiety

5. Xanax, Valium, and Librium are benzodiazepines that are commonly used drug therapies for treating _____.
A. mood disorders
B. anxiety disorders
C. schizophrenia
D. dissociative disorders

B. anxiety disorders

6. Which of the following classes of drugs are not considered antidepressants?
A. Tricyclics
B. Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors
C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
D. Benzodiazepines

D. Benzodiazepines

7. _____ treat depression by increasing the level of norepinephrine and serotonin.
A. Tricyclics
B. Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors
C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
D. Benzodiazepines

A. Tricyclics

8. _____ inhibits the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine and is also known as serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor.
A. Prozac
B. Paxil
C. Zoloft
D. Effexor

D. Effexor

9. Prozac, Paxil, and Zoloft are what type of antidepressant drugs?
A. Tricyclics
B. Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors
C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
D. Benzodiazepines

C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

10. Elizabeth visited a psychiatrist who, after interviewing her, recommended either Paxil or Prozac. These drugs are generally used to treat _____.
A. social skills deficiencies
B. depression and anxiety
C. bipolar disorder
D. psychosis

B. depression and anxiety

11. In addition to providing treatment for depression, antidepressant drugs may also be an effective treatment for _____.
A. schizophrenia
B. anxiety disorders and eating disorders
C. dissociative amnesia
D. antisocial personality disorder

B. anxiety disorders and eating disorders

12. Lithium is commonly used to treat _____.
A. panic attack disorder
B. bipolar disorder
C. schizophrenia
D. major depression

B. bipolar disorder

13. Lithium is an effective _____ drug.
A. antipsychotic
B. antianxiety
C. barbiturate
D. mood-stabilizing

D. mood-stabilizing

14. Experimental studies on whether antidepressants increase risk of suicide in children and adolescents show that, compared to the control group, children who use antidepressants _____.
A. were less likely to attempt suicide
B. were three times as likely to attempt suicide
C. were five times as likely to commit suicide
D. showed a greater number of spontaneous statements about suicidal thoughts

D. showed a greater number of spontaneous statements about suicidal thoughts

15. Antipsychotic drugs are used to treat _____.
A. obsessive-compulsive disorder
B. major depressive disorder
C. schizophrenia
D. panic disorder

C. schizophrenia

16. Neuroleptic drugs _____.
A. are antianxiety drugs
B. reduce schizophrenic symptoms
C. effectively block serotonin activity in the brain
D. cure schizophrenia

B. reduce schizophrenic symptoms

17. Which of the following is true of neuroleptic drugs?
A. Neuroleptic drugs treat the causes of schizophrenia, not its symptoms.
B. Neuroleptic drugs have substantially increased the length of hospital stays for individuals with schizophrenia.
C. Neuroleptic drugs are widely used to treat bipolar disorder.
D. If an individual with schizophrenia stops taking neuroleptic drugs, the symptoms return.

D. if an individual with schizophrenia stops taking neuroleptic drugs, the symptoms return.

18. The potential side effect of neuroleptic drugs is _____, a neurological disorder characterized by involuntary random movements of the facial muscles, tongue, and mouth, as well as extensive twitching of the neck, arms, and legs.
A. insomnia
B. schizophrenia
C. tardive dyskinesia
D. transference

C. tardive dyskinesia

19. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a treatment sometimes used for _____.
A. dissociative identity disorder
B. depression
C. schizophrenia
D. obsessive-compulsive disorder

B. depression

20. Sharon is seeing a new doctor after many different medications have failed to help with her condition. This doctor tells her that many well-designed studies suggest that electroconvulsive therapy is effective in the treatment of _____.
A. borderline personality disorder
B. panic attack disorder
C. schizophrenia
D. depression

D. depression

21. Ivan is very depressed, and the danger of suicide is eminent. He is not responding to the drugs normally employed to treat depression. Which of the following treatments is most likely to prove helpful in reducing Ivan’s depression and suicidal behavior?
A. A self-help group
B. Electroconvulsive therapy
C. Encounter groups
D. Minor tranquilizers

B. electroconvulsive therapy

22. Which of the following is a biological intervention that involves the removal or destruction of brain tissue?
A. Electroconvulsive therapy
B. Psychotherapy
C. Psychoanalysis
D. Psychosurgery

D. psychosurgery

23. Which of the following statements about psychosurgery is false?
A. Psychosurgery is a biological therapy that involves the removal or destruction of brain tissue to improve the individual’s adjustment.
B. A prefrontal lobotomy is a type of psychosurgery that involves severing fibers that connect the frontal lobe and the thalamus.
C. The effects of psychosurgery can be reversed with intensive therapy.
D. Present-day psychosurgery involves making just a small lesion in the amygdala or another part of the limbic system.

C. the effects of psychosurgery can be reversed with intensive therapy

24. Which of the following forms of treatment would be used only as a last resort to help patients with severely debilitating conditions?
A. Drug therapy
B. Cognitive therapy
C. Psychosurgery
D. Psychoanalysis

C. psychosurgery

25. Which of the following perspectives views abnormal behavior as the result of unconscious conflicts?
A. Psychodynamic therapy
B. Humanistic therapy
C. Social learning therapy
D. Biological therapy

A. psychodynamic therapy

26. The main goal of psychoanalysis is to _____.
A. persuade clients to abandon their irrational, misery-inducing beliefs
B. provide clients with insight into their unconscious conflicts
C. train clients to avoid maladaptive patterns of behavior through modeling of appropriate behaviors
D. demonstrate unconditional positive regard toward the client

B. provide clients with insight into their unconscious conflicts

27. Which of the following is true of psychoanalytic techniques?
A. Freud believed that transference was an avoidable aspect of the analyst-patient relationship.
B. Transference is the psychoanalytic term for the client’s unconscious defense strategies that prevent the analyst from understanding the person’s problems.
C. Resistance is the psychoanalytic term for the client’s relating to the analyst in ways that reproduce or relive important relationships in the client’s life.
D. Freud believed that a person’s current problems could be traced to childhood experiences.

D. Freud believed that a person’s current problems could be traced to childhood

28. Dr. Billings is a therapist who specializes in psychoanalysis. The types of techniques that she is likely to use would include _____.
A. free association, dream interpretation, transference, and interpreting the client’s resistance to discussing painful memories
B. teaching clients to replace their fears systematically with more relaxed responses
C. systematic desensitization and token economies
D. prescribing strong medication that will reduce the client’s anxiety so that the client can learn to relax and gain insight

A. free association, dream interpretation, transference, and interpreting the client’s resistance to discussing painful memories

29. Your psychotherapist asks you to "free associate." What are you being asked to do?
A. You are being asked to concentrate on relaxing as your therapist presents you with anxiety-provoking stimuli.
B. You are being asked to completely empty your mind of all thoughts.
C. You are being asked to just "talk" in an undirected manner without reflecting on what you are about to say.
D. You are being asked to recall everything you can about traumatic childhood events.

C. You are being asked to just ‘talk’ in an undirected manner without reflecting on what you are about to say

30. The release of emotional tension a person experiences when reliving an emotionally charged and conflicting experience is known as _____.
A. tardive dyskinesia
B. catharsis
C. resistance
D. transference

B. catharsis

31. According to the psychoanalytic approach to psychotherapy, which of the following is an essential part of the job of a psychotherapist?
A. Point out inconsistencies in the patient’s thoughts and behaviors
B. Encourage the patient to explore his or her potential for growth
C. Encourage the client to assess his or her own problems through client-centered therapy
D. Interpret the disguised revelations of the unconscious mind to the patient

D. interpret the disguised revelations of the unconscious mind to the patient

32. According to Freudian dream interpretation, the obvious content of a person’s dream hides the true meaning or content of the dream, called the _____ content.
A. obtuse
B. subliminal
C. latent
D. manifest

C. latent

33. James dreamed that he went to his neighbor’s house at midnight and made himself a sandwich. His psychoanalyst interpreted the dream to mean that James really wanted to have sex with his neighbor’s wife. Making the sandwich was the _____.
A. symbolic content of the dream
B. manifest content of the dream
C. latent content of the dream
D. resistant content of the dream

B. manifest content of the dream

34. In psychoanalytic theory, the term transference is used to describe _____.
A. the gradual shifting of erogenous desires from the mouth to the genitals
B. the phenomenon in which the patient comes to relate to the therapist in ways that resemble her or his other relationships
C. efforts to redirect anxiety-provoking desires into socially acceptable actions
D. the repression of painful memories from conscious awareness

B. the phenomenon in which the patient comes to relate to the therapist in ways that resemble her or his other relationships

35. Sherice started seeing a psychotherapist because of marital problems. She is unhappy because she feels her husband does not give her enough attention. After several sessions, she is quite taken with her male therapist because he gives her undivided attention. This growing affection for the therapist is called _____.
A. resistance
B. latent content
C. reflection
D. transference

D. transference

36. Bruce is seeing a therapist for his depression but he is always late and has missed several appointments. He talks about sports and the weather to try and avoid facing his problems and he often becomes argumentative with his therapist. According to psychoanalytic theory, Bruce’s behavior is a classic example of _____.
A. transference
B. resistance
C. projection
D. catharsis

B. resistance

37. Alice is trying to decide on a type of therapy. Two that were recommended to her were Heinz Kohut’s contemporary psychodynamic therapy and humanistic psychotherapy. What do these therapies have in common?
A. They both believe that therapy should replace the patient’s unhealthy childhood relationships.
B. They both believe that therapy should bring the patient’s feelings into conscious awareness.
C. They both believe that empathy and understanding are needed in therapeutic interactions.
D. They both believe that repressed sexual motives are at the root of emotional disturbance.

C. they both believe that empathy and understanding are needed in therapeutic interactions

38. Dr. Patterson tries to create a warm supportive atmosphere to help her clients improve their self-concepts and to encourage insight into problems. Dr. Patterson says little to her depressed client. Instead, she waits for him to express his feelings and for him to decide what he wants to do about his problems. This emphasis on encouraging self-reflection indicates that Dr. Patterson is practicing _____.
A. client-centered therapy
B. behavior therapy
C. psychoanalysis
D. cognitive therapy

A. client-centered therapy

39. Mary has been working with a therapist because she has felt very confused and unsure about herself for the past few years. Mary’s therapist tends to be very non-directive and devotes a great deal of the session to allowing Mary to explore her identity, wants, and dreams for the future. The therapist rarely gives direct advice and instead is primarily interested in helping Mary clarify her own ideas and feelings. Mary’s therapist is most likely associated with the _____ perspective of psychotherapy.
A. cognitive
B. behavioral
C. humanistic
D. psychoanalytic

C. humanistic

40. You are a humanistic therapist. A potential client is unfamiliar with your school of therapy and asks you to sum it up. You tell him the primary premise of humanistic therapy is that _____.
A. individuals possess the capacity to heal themselves
B. irrational thought results in negative consequences
C. the unconscious mind can affect conscious behavior
D. abnormal behavior can be manipulated in therapy

A. individuals possess the capacity to heal themselves

41. "I have never been a good problem solver. I am not direct enough to be successful," the client complained. "You do not see yourself as a direct problem solver?" responded the therapist. This conversation is an example of _____ and is typical of _____.
A. free association/client-centered therapy
B. transference/psychodynamic therapy
C. reflective speech/psychodynamic therapy
D. reflective speech/client-centered therapy

D. reflective speech/ client- centered therapy

42. _____ are called insight therapies because they encourage self-awareness as the key to psychological health.
A. Cognitive and sociocultural therapies
B. Behavior and humanistic therapies
C. Psychodynamic and humanistic therapies
D. Psychodynamic and behavior therapies

C. psychodynamic and humanistic therapies

43. The primary goal of behavior therapy is to _____.
A. uncover unconscious conflicts
B. gain self-awareness
C. reduce or eliminate maladaptive behavior
D. be sensitive to the cultural and contextual needs of the client

C. reduce or eliminate maladaptive behavior

44. Two key assumptions of the _____ approach to therapy are that psychological disorders are learned in exactly the same way as normal behaviors are and that they can be treated by applying the basic principles of learning.
A. biological
B. interpersonal
C. humanistic
D. behavioral

D. behavioral

45. All of the following are examples of therapy procedures derived directly from the principles of classical conditioning except _____.
A. flooding
B. behavior modification
C. systematic desensitization
D. aversive conditioning

B. behavior modification

46. Systematic desensitization involves _____.
A. pairing a feared stimulus with a state of deep relaxation by being exposed to feared situations in a gradual hierarchical fashion
B. exposing an individual to feared stimuli to an excessive degree while not allowing him or her to avoid the stimuli
C. gaining systematic insight into the source of your fear
D. using a gradual build-up of self-reflective speech

A. pairing a feared stimulus with a state of deep relaxation by being exposed to feared situations in a gradual hierarchical fashion

47. Frank is seeing a therapist for his spider phobia. The therapist first teaches him muscle relaxation and then they develop a stimulus hierarchy. Frank is seeing a therapist who uses _____.
A. flooding
B. systematic desensitization
C. psychoanalysis
D. social skills training

B. systematic desensitization

48. Which of the following is not considered a form of behavior therapy?
A. Applied behavior analysis
B. Aversive conditioning
C. Systematic desensitization
D. Client-centered therapy

D. client-centered therapy

1. _____ emphasizes psychology’s role in establishing and maintaining physical well-being and preventing and treating illness.
A. Evolutionary psychology
B. Social psychology
C. Developmental psychology
D. Health psychology

D. health psychology

2. Health psychology reflects the belief that _____.
A. health is predetermined by genetics and biology
B. lifestyle choices, behaviors, and psychological characteristics can play important roles in health
C. the body has a tremendous impact on the mind, but the mind has very little impact on the body
D. health has very little to do with psychology, so research should focus more on an exclusively physiologic al model of health

B. lifestyle choices, behaviors, and psychological characteristics can play important roles in health

3. Behavioral medicine _____.
A. explains the importance of social ties as an important variable in predicting health
B. focuses on motivational tools for self-change that involve changing for the right reasons
C. is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on developing and integrating behavioral and biomedical knowledge to promote health and reduce illness
D. explains the importance and usage of medicines in everyday life

C. is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on developing and integrating behavioral

4. Although the concerns of behavioral medicine and health psychology overlap, behavioral medicine primarily focuses on _____ factors, whereas health psychology primarily focuses on _____ factors.
A. behavioral and biomedical/behavioral and cognitive
B. behavioral and cognitive/behavioral and biomedical
C. conscious/unconscious
D. unconscious/conscious

A. behavioral and biomedical/behavioral and cognitive

5. Which of the following is not considered a health behavior?
A. Brushing your teeth
B. Practicing safe sex
C. Exercising
D. Reading

D. reading

6. According to _____, effective change requires individuals to have specific intentions about their behaviors, as well as positive attitudes about a new behavior, and to perceive that their social group looks positively on the new behavior as well.
A. the stages of change model
B. the theory of reasoned action
C. the general adaptation syndrome
D. Lazarus’s model of stress and coping

B. the theory of reasoned action

7. You are having fun at a New Year’s Eve party when your friend Dominic tells you that he really wants to quit smoking. He asks you to share what you know about health psychology so that he can use your advice to help him to successfully quit. If you apply the theory of reasoned action to Dominic’s situation, which of the following statements best represents the advice you should offer?
A. "Dominic, you should make an explicit commitment. If you are really serious about quitting, you should make a New Year’s resolution to stop smoking. "
B. "Dominic, you should envision quitting smoking as a form of punishment for your previous behavior. Think of quitting as a negative behavior."
C. "Dominic, you should make sure you surround yourself with friends who smoke and who don’t support your goal of quitting. Having a little adversity from your social network will keep you motivated."
D. "Dominic, you should give in to the ‘higher power’ and realize that you can’t truly control your smoking behavior. Just hope and pray for the best."

A. "Dominic, you should make an explicit commitment. If you are really serious about quitting, you should make a New Year’s resolution to stop smoking"

8.The theory of planned behavior includes the basic ideas of the theory of reasoned action but adds another important variable to the model. This variable is _____.
A. genetic health history
B. a person’s perception of control over the outcome of the situation
C. level of introversion
D. intelligence and cognitive ability

B. a person’s perception of control over the outcome of the situation

9. What is the main difference between the theory of reasoned action and the theory of planned behavior?
A. The theory of reasoned action includes the stages of change model.
B. The theory of planned behavior includes the stages of change model.
C. The theory of reasoned action includes the idea that perceptions of control over the outcome are important.
D. The theory of planned behavior includes the idea that perceptions of control over the outcome are important.

D. the theory of planned behavior includes that idea that perceptions of control over the outcome are important

10. The stages of change model _____.
A. describes the process by which individuals evolve to think about others before themselves
B. describes the process by which individuals develop physically and mentally in adolescence
C. describes the process by which individuals give up bad habits and adopt healthier life-styles
D. describes the process by which individuals give up their inhibitions and behave against the norms of society

C. describes the process by which individuals give up bad habits and adopt healthier life-styles

11. Which of the following lists the stages of the stages of change model in the correct order?
A. Preparation, precontemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance
B. Preparation, action, precontemplation, contemplation, maintenance
C. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
D. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, maintenance, action

C. Pre-contemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance

12. Which of the following is the first stage in the stages of change model?
A. Preparation/determination
B. Precontemplation
C. The action/willpower
D. Contemplation

B. pre-contemplation

13. During the _____ stage, individuals are not yet genuinely thinking about changing.
A. preparation/determination
B. maintenance
C. precontemplation
D. contemplation

C. pre-contemplation

14. Raising one’s consciousness is the key component of which of the following stages of change?
A. Precontemplation
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation/determination
D. Action/willpower

A. pre-contemplation

15. Sam has a problem with alcohol. He gets substantially drunk at parties four to five nights a week and it is not uncommon for him to experience blackouts. Despite his friends’ concerns, Sam doesn’t think he has a problem and believes that he is just being a typical college student. Sam would most likely be classified as being in the _____ stage of change.
A. maintenance
B. contemplation
C. precontemplation
D. preparation/determination

C. pre-contemplation

16. Your roommate has been engaging in risky sexual behavior all semester, yet she denies that anything is wrong. She is likely in the _____ stage of the stages of change model.
A. preparation/determination
B. contemplation
C. Termination
D. precontemplation

D.pre-contemplation

17. Some of the characteristics that distinguish people who are in the _____ stage of change are that they possess a beginning awareness of their problem behavior but they are not yet ready to change it.
A. action/willpower
B. contemplation
C. maintenance
D. preparation/determination

B. contemplation

18. Suzanne wants to lose 20 pounds before her honeymoon to Hawaii. Although she realizes that being thinner will make her feel stronger and healthier, she has a weakness for ice cream. She’s not sure that she will be able to give up the short-term pleasure of indulging in an ice cream cone for dessert today in exchange for the long-term benefits of weight loss. Suzanne appears to be in which of the following stages of change?
A. Maintenance
B. Contemplation
C. Preparation/determination
D. Action/willpower

B. contemplation

19. During the _____ stage individuals acknowledge the problem but may not be ready to commit to change.
A. preparation/determination
B. maintenance
C. action/willpower
D. contemplation

D. contemplation

20. Dan has a problem with smoking. If Dan were in the _____ stage of change, the best stage-matched intervention would be to inform him about the dangers of continuing this unhealthy behavior. However, if he were in the _____ stage, you would do well to provide him with training in specific skills that can help him to actually stop smoking.
A. contemplation/precontemplation
B. precontemplation/contemplation
C. preparation/contemplation
D. precontemplation/preparation

D. pre contemplation/ preparation

21. You are trying to change your exercise routine in order to have a healthier lifestyle. You develop a new exercise schedule and plan to implement it starting next month. You are in the _____ stage of the stages of change model.
A. precontemplation
B. contemplation
C. preparation/determination
D. action/willpower

C. preparation/determination

22. Belief in one’s ability to successfully change and "see it through" is characteristic of which of the following stages of change?
A. Preparation/determination
B. Maintenance
C. Action/willpower
D. Contemplation

A. preparation/determination

23. Which of the following statements would be most typical of someone in the preparation/determination stage of change?
A. "Problem? What problem? I don’t have a problem."
B. "I am going to focus on learning new alternative healthy behaviors that will replace the old unhealthy ones."
C. "I know that my behavior is problematic, but I’m just not ready to change it yet."
D. "I’m going to do something about this problem, starting first thing next week."

D. "I’m going to do something about this problem, starting first thing next week"

24. According to the stages of change model, during the _____ stage, individuals commit to making a real behavioral change and enact a plan for effective change.
A. action/willpower
B. contemplation
C. maintenance
D. preparation/determination

A. action/willpower

25. Uncle Leo quit smoking two months ago. He is hoping that he can continue to stay tobacco-free so he has been trying to find ways to support his new, healthy behavior pattern. He eats mint whenever he gets a craving to smoke. Uncle Leo seems to be in the _____ stage of the stages of change model.
A. preparation/determination
B. contemplation
C. action/willpower
D. maintenance

C. action/willpower

26. _____ our accomplishments can motivate consistent behavior.
A. Bragging about
B. Forgetting
C. Downplaying
D. Acknowledging, enjoying, and celebrating

D. acknowledging, enjoying, and celebrating

27. Bob decided that he was a bit overweight and in order to do something about it, he created a new exercise program, something he’d never tried before. Though he initially had some difficulty setting it up and sticking with it, he has consistently done his exercise workout for the last eight months. Though it is becoming more habitual, the program is still not yet automatic for him and he reinforces himself with new CDs each month if he has successfully completed his workouts. According to the stages of change model, Bob would most likely be in the _____.
A. contemplation stage
B. maintenance stage
C. termination stage
D. preparation/determination stage

B. maintenance stage

28. Which of the following is the last stage in the stages of change model?
A. Resolution
B. Resistance
C. Action/willpower
D. Maintenance

D. maintenance

29. When Wendy first started trying to eat healthier it felt like she was a "dieter." She was constantly thinking about how to eat healthy. After several months of successfully opting to eat nutritious food as opposed to her old fast food favorites, Wendy does not feel like a dieter anymore. She no longer has to consciously think about trying to eat healthy foods; rather, her new lifestyle has become a part of who she is. Wendy is in which of the following stages of change?
A. Preparation/determination
B. Maintenance
C. Action/willpower
D. Contemplation

B. maintenance

30. According to the stages of change model, when conscious attention is no longer required to maintain the new, healthy behaviors and such behaviors simply are part of the individual’s lifestyle, _____ has been achieved. This occurs during the _____ stage of change.
A. determination/action-willpower
B. transcendence/maintenance
C. optimistic appraisal/contemplation
D. hardiness/preparation

B. transcendence/ maintenance

31. One challenge during the maintenance stage is to avoid _____.
A. relapse
B. boredom
C. stagnancy
D. denial

A. relapse

32. Maria, Nicole, Abby, and Jessica are adolescents currently enrolled in an obesity treatment program. According to self-determination theory, which teen will be most likely to achieve her weight loss goals?
A. Maria (who was forced by her parents to come to the program)
B. Nicole (who was forced by her doctor to come to the program)
C. Abby (who voluntarily enrolled because she made a personal commitment to herself)
D. Jessica (who wants to get thinner so that she can get her ex-boyfriend’s attention)

C. Abby (who voluntarily enrolled because she made a personal commitment to herself)

33. _____ refer(s) to specific strategies for dealing with the challenges of making a life change.
A. Intrinsic motivation
B. Attribution strategies
C. Implementation intentions
D. Extraversion

C. implementation intentions

34. Which of the following is the strongest predictor of mortality rates?
A. Cigarette smoking
B. Social isolation
C. Optimism
D. Intelligence

B. social isolation

35. When Samantha’s father passed away, Ronnie got food for Samantha’s family. The giving of food after the death of a loved one is an example of _____.
A. extrinsic motivation
B. emotional support
C. implementation intentions
D. tangible assistance

D. tangible assistance

36. Your co-worker Christina was just laid off. You immediately inform her about a relevant job opening that you recently heard about. You have tried to help Christina by offering _____.
A. tangible assistance
B. emotional support
C. an important source of information
D. affirmation

C. an important source of information

37. Andrea was just fired from a job she really loved. You are her best friend so you try to offer her all the support that she needs. Giving Andrea a hug when she is down and telling her that you will "be there for her" is an example of _____ support, whereas loaning her money and telling her that she can stay with you until she finds another job is an example of _____ support.
A. tangible/emotional
B. emotional/tangible
C. psychological/physical
D. physical/psychological

B. emotional/ tangible

38. In the long run, writing about traumatic life events _____.
A. is harmful because one relives the trauma over and over again
B. increases distress among men but not among women
C. is associated with physical and psychological health benefits
D. has no impact on reducing stress

C. is associated with physical and psychological health benefits

39. Your textbook describes a study that investigated the effects of diverse social ties on the susceptibility to getting a common cold. Results of this study showed that those with diverse social networks were _____ than their counterparts with less diverse social networks.
A. more likely to get a cold
B. less likely to get a cold
C. less likely to volunteer to participate in the study
D. more likely to volunteer to participate in the study

B. less likely to get a cold

40. A number of studies have linked religious participation to _____.
A. increased loneliness and isolation
B. a longer and healthier life
C. greater self-esteem
D. hardiness

B. a longer and healthier life

41. Pauline is responsible and reliable. She likes structure and always sees a task through until it is completed. She exercises, eats healthy foods, and always wears her seatbelt. Pauline would score high on which of the following personality traits?
A. Extraversion
B. Conscientiousness
C. Agreeableness
D. Openness to new experiences

B. conscientiousness

42. _____ is associated with high levels of emotional well-being, successful coping, and good health.
A. An external locus of control
B. A sense of personal control
C. Strong extrinsic motivation
D. Type-A behavior

B. a sense of personal control

43. Self-efficacy is the belief that you can _____.
A. teach others to be self-reliant
B. show unconditional positive regard for others
C. be empathetic to your own problems
D. master a situation and produce positive outcomes

D. master a situation and produce positive outcomes

44. Self-efficacy influences _____.
A. whether an individual tries to develop healthy habits
B. whether a person uses emotion-focused or problem-focused coping strategies
C. a person’s resting heart rate
D. a person’s level of happiness

A. whether an individual tries to develop healthy habits

45. _____ is the power of belief in yourself and how long you persist in the face of obstacles.
A. Problem-solving skill
B. Placebo effect
C. Self-efficacy
D. Self-esteem

C. self-efficacy

46. Individuals who have high self-efficacy are least likely to do which of the following?
A. Persist in the face of obstacles
B. Expend effort in coping with stress
C. Experience less stress in challenging situations
D. Perceive that they have no control over the situation

D. perceive that they have no control over the situation

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