Psychology – Study Guide # 8

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1.The study of how people change physically, mentally, and socially throughout the lifespan is called:

A)cognitive psychology.
C)developmental psychology.
B)humanistic psychology.
D)epigenetics.

C)developmental psychology.

2.Kyle is studying how language abilities change throughout childhood, and Kelly is studying cognitive changes in late adulthood. Both Kyle and Kelly are conducting studies in which area of psychology?

A)clinical psychology
C)epigenetics
B)humanistic psychology
D)developmental psychology

D)developmental psychology

3.At every age and stage of life, _____ psychologists investigate the influence of multiple factors on development, including biological, environmental, social, cultural, and behavioral factors.

A) epigenetic
B) cognitive
C) biological
D) developmental

D) developmental

4.Developmental psychologists divide the lifespan into:

A)four distinct psychosocial stages of development and six physical stages of development.
B)genetic and environmental phases of development.
C)continuous and abrupt aspects of development.
D)eight age-related stages of development.

D)eight age-related stages of development.

5.Some aspects of development, such as prenatal development and language development, are closely tied to _____ which are periods during which a child is maximally sensitive to environmental influences.

A) germinal periods
B) critical periods
C) embryonic periods
D) fetal periods

B) critical periods

6.In terms of development, a critical period:

A)is the period of prenatal development extending from the third week through the eighth week.
B)is a period during which a child is maximally sensitive to environmental influences.
C)is a period during which a child is maximally sensitive to genetic influences.
D)is the third and longest period of prenatal development extending from the ninth week until birth.

B)is a period during which a child is maximally sensitive to environmental influences.

7.Which best characterizes the typical course of human development?

A)Development occurs in distinct stages that are characterized by abrupt changes in physical, mental, and social growth.
B)Gradual, unfolding changes throughout the ages and stages of life characterize human development.
C)Development is viewed as occurring in four distinct stages: infancy, childhood, adolescence, and adulthood.
D)Biological factors cause environmental factors to shape the course of development.

B)Gradual, unfolding changes throughout the ages and stages of life characterize human development.

8.Which of the following statements best represents contemporary thinking on the nature/nurture issue?

A)Environmental factors can determine the expression of genetic potential, but only during infancy.
B)The relationship between genetics and environment is interactive; each influences the other.
C)While genetic factors determine personality, environmental factors determine intelligence and cognitive ability.
D)Genetic factors alone determine physical appearance, including height and weight, but only environmental factors influence personality characteristics.

B)The relationship between genetics and environment is interactive; each influences the other.

9.At the moment of conception, each person begins life as a single cell, which is called a(n):

A) embryo.
B) fetus.
C) placenta.
D) zygote.

D) zygote.

10.Which of the following statements BEST describes deoxyribonucleic acid?

A)a harmful chemical preservative that is a known teratogen
B)a specific gene that is known to be associated with several serious birth defects
C)a double-stranded molecule that encodes genetic instructions
D)the chemical "trigger" that activates cell division in the developing embryo

C)a double-stranded molecule that encodes genetic instructions

11.Each human chromosome contains:

A) 1 gene.
B) 23 genes.
C) 23 pairs of genes.
D) thousands of genes.

D) thousands of genes.

12.Which of the following statements BEST defines a chromosome?

A)a single unit of DNA instructions
B)the chemical genetic code that is the basis of heredity
C)a long, threadlike structure composed of twisted strands of DNA
D)the observable traits or characteristics displayed by an organism

C)a long, threadlike structure composed of twisted strands of DNA

13.A gene encodes the instructions for:

A)a specific combination of amino acids that form a particular protein molecule.
B)a particular physical or psychological characteristic that you will display.
C)a particular combination of chromosomes.
D)one of 46 specific combinations of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

A)a specific combination of amino acids that form a particular protein molecule.

14.Which of the following BEST defines a gene?

A)the observable traits or characteristics displayed by an organism
B)a unit of DNA on a chromosome that encodes instructions for making a particular protein
C)a type of highly specialized cell that directs the development of other cells
D)one of several thousand different protein molecule

B)a unit of DNA on a chromosome that encodes instructions for making a particular protein

15.A unit of DNA on a chromosome that encodes instructions for making a particular protein molecule is the definition of:

A) a gene.
B) a zygote.
C) deoxyribonucleic acid.
D) a genotype.

A) a gene.

16. Genes make up _____ of human DNA.

A)99.9 percent
B)about 20 to 25 percent
C)less than 2 percent
D)about 60 percent

C)less than 2 percent

17.Your unique genotype:

A)has changed dramatically as you have progressed through the various ages and stages of the lifespan.
B)is found in the chromosomes of every cell in your body, except for your reproductive cells (sperm or eggs).
C)is comprised of 23 pairs of genes.
D)is found in dominant gene pairs but not in recessive gene pairs.

B)is found in the chromosomes of every cell in your body, except for your reproductive cells (sperm or eggs).

18.At conception, each biological parent contributes:

A)23 chromosomes.
C)23 genes.
B)23 pairs of chromosomes.
D)23 pairs of genes.

A)23 chromosomes.

19.A normal human genotype is made up of:

A)a set of 23 single chromosomes.
B)a set of 23 pairs of chromosomes.
C)46 pairs of genes.
D)over 1,000,000 different genes.

B)a set of 23 pairs of chromosomes.

20.With the exception of the reproductive cells, every cell in a person’s body contains:

A)a complete copy of that person’s genotype.
B)only the genes that control that cell’s characteristic.
C)a complete copy of that person’s phenotype.
D)the developing zygote.

A)a complete copy of that person’s genotype.

21.The diverse characteristics of different body cells develop because:

A)each cell type contains a distinct set of genes that is specific to that type of cell.
B)each body cell type contains a different set of chromosomes.
C)they contain a different genotype.
D)different genes are activated.

D)different genes are activated.

22.Which of the following statements about genes is TRUE?

A)Each gene controls the development of a single characteristic or trait.
B)Like a massive computer program, an organism’s inherited genetic make-up directs its development and behavior from infancy through old age.
C)Genes direct the manufacture of proteins, the body’s building blocks, and are activated in different body cells at different times.
D)An organism’s phenotype and genotype are essentially identical, except for rare cases of gene mutations.

C)Genes direct the manufacture of proteins, the body’s building blocks, and are activated in different body cells at different times.

23.Alleles are:

A)different forms of a particular gene.
B)different types of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
C)defective chromosomes that are missing a few key genes.
D)chemicals or other environmental agents that are known to cause birth defects.

A)different forms of a particular gene.

24.Dominant and recessive genes are examples of:

A) genetic predispositions.
B) mutations.
C) zygotes.
D) alleles.

D) alleles.

25.Both Bonnie and Brendan spend a lot of time in the sun. Bonnie has freckles but her brother Brendan doesn’t have freckles. You can safely assume that:

A)Bonnie and Brendan have the same genotype, even though their phenotypes differ.
B)Bonnie and Brendan have inherited different alleles for the trait of freckles.
C)Bonnie and Brendan have the same phenotypes even though their genotypes differ.
D)Bonnie inherited two recessive no freckle alleles and Brendan inherited one dominant allele of the freckle gene.

B)Bonnie and Brendan have inherited different alleles for the trait of freckles.

26.Michelle has freckles. It is likely that she inherited:

A)two recessive "no freckles" genes, one from each biological parent.
B)a dominant version of the "freckles" gene from either or both of her biological parents.
C)two recessive "freckles" genes, one from each biological parent.
D)a dominant version of the "no freckles" gene from either or both of her biological parents.

B)a dominant version of the "freckles" gene from either or both of her biological parents.

27.The human genome:

A)is the complete map of the DNA in the human organism.
B)contains 23 pairs of genes.
C)is almost identical to that of primates and contains approximately 250,000 kinds of chromosomes.
D)has been hypothesized since the early 1900s but scientists have yet to prove that it exists.

A)is the complete map of the DNA in the human organism.

28.According to the latest findings from the International Human Genome Sequencing Consortium, the human genome consists of about _____ genes.

A)20,000 to 25,000
C)100,000 to 125,000
B)70,000 to 75,000
D)1 million

A)20,000 to 25,000

29.Although all humans have the same basic set of genes, these genes can come in different versions. These different forms of a particular gene are called:

A) alleles.
B) phenotypes.
C) sex chromosomes.
D) karyotypes.

A) alleles.

30.The best known, although not the most common, pattern of allele variation is the simple:

A)karyotype variation.
B)dominant-recessive gene pair.
C)chromosomal version.
D)germinal gene pair.

B)dominant-recessive gene pair.

31.Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)If your genotype contains a copy of the dominant "freckles" gene, you will develop freckles regardless of environmental factors, such as exposure to sunlight.
B)To be "freckle free" you would have to inherit one dominant "no-freckles" gene from either or both of your biological parents.
C)If your genotype contains a copy of the dominant "freckles" gene, you will never develop freckles even with prolonged exposure to sunlight.
D)To be "freckle free" you would have to inherit two recessive "no-freckles" genes, one from each biological parent.

D)To be "freckle free" you would have to inherit two recessive "no-freckles" genes, one from each biological parent.

32.The term genotype refers to:

A)a recessive gene that is found only on the X chromosome.
B)the genetic makeup of an organism.
C)a computer-enhanced image of the genes found embedded in a single chromosome.
D)a category of living organisms that are genetically related.

B)the genetic makeup of an organism.

33.If Gerry’s genotype contains a copy of the dominant freckles gene:
A)he will never develop freckles even with exposure to sunlight.
B)he will inevitably develop freckles regardless of environmental influences, such as exposure to sunlight.
C)he will not develop freckles unless the expression of that dominant gene is triggered by a specific environmental factor, sunlight.
D)it will also contain two inherited recessive genes that need to be activated in order for him to develop freckles.

C)he will not develop freckles unless the expression of that dominant gene is triggered by a specific environmental factor, sunlight.

34.Because different genotypes react differently to environmental factors, psychologists and other scientists speak of _____ to develop in a particular way.

A)the genetic predisposition
B)the genetic blueprint
C)the environmental predisposition
D)the epigenetic tendency

A)the genetic predisposition

35.Phenotype is to genotype as:

A)inherited genes are to expressed characteristics.
B)expressed characteristics are to inherited genes.
C)recessive traits are to dominant traits.
D)dominant traits are to recessive traits.

B)expressed characteristics are to inherited genes.

36.The term phenotype refers to:

A)a dominant gene found only on the X chromosome.
B)a computer-enhanced image of the chromosomal makeup of a single organism.
C)the observable characteristics of an organism as determined by the interaction of genetic and environmental factors.
D)the complete set of genes that an organism has inherited.

C)the observable characteristics of an organism as determined by the interaction of genetic and environmental factors

37.One problem with the genotype-as-a-blueprint analogy is that:

A)environmental factors influence the actual phenotype displayed.
B)even though genes directly control physical development and behavior, the final result is never predictable.
C)the genotype does not direct and control any aspect of development as it unfolds over the lifespan.
D)environmental factors have little or no influence on the phenotype displayed.

A)environmental factors influence the actual phenotype displayed.

38.People with a particular genetic configuration will be more or less sensitive to particular environmental factors. This is referred to as a person’s _____ to develop in a particular way.

A)epigenetic tendency
B)genetic blueprint
C)environmental predisposition
D)genetic predisposition

D)genetic predisposition

39.Unlike Donna, who usually gets a nice tan when exposed to sunlight, Derek has a tendency to sunburn easily. Donna and Derek obviously have different sensitivities to the same environmental factor. This example illustrates their different _____.

A)epigenetic predispositions
B)environmental predispositions
C)karotypic predispositions
D)genetic predispositions.

D)genetic predispositions.

40.Which of the following factors was listed in your textbook as a possible trigger for gene activity?

A)internal chemical changes
B)external environmental influences on the organism
C)the activity of other genes
D)All of the Answers are correct.

D)All of the Answers are correct.

41.A male has an _____ combination in the _____.

A)XX; 1st pair of genes
B)XX; 23rd pair of chromosomes
C)XY; 1st pair of chromosomes
D)XY; 23rd pair of chromosomes

D)XY; 23rd pair of chromosomes

42.A female has an _____ combination in the _____.

A)XX; 1st pair of genes
B)XX; 23rd pair of chromosomes
C)XY; 1st pair of chromosomes
D)XY; 23rd pair of chromosomes

B)XX; 23rd pair of chromosomes

43.The _____ pair of chromosomes, called the sex chromosomes, determine a person’s biological sex.

A) 22nd
B) 46th
C) 23rd
D) 1st

C) 23rd

44.Humans carry all of the genes necessary to develop a tail but we typically don’t develop tails because:

A)those genes are never activated.
B)those genes can only be activated by external factors that no longer exist in our present environment.
C)we have also inherited a copy of the dominant "no tails" gene.
D)we have also inherited two recessive "no tails" genes.

A)those genes are never activated.

45.Epigenetics refers to:

A)the study of the mechanisms that control gene expression and its effect on behavior and health.
B)the study of harmful agents or substances that can cause malformation or defects in an embryo or fetus.
C)the study of karyotypes and the contribution of chromosomes to the development of genotypes.
D)the scientific study of the complete set of DNA in the human organism

A)the study of the mechanisms that control gene expression and its effect on behavior and health.

46.Most developmental psychologists believe that gene expression is:

A)inflexible and unresponsive to both internal and external factors.
B)primarily influenced by the fixed, master plan, or genotype that people are born with.
C)flexible and responsive to both internal and external factors.
D)determined by the genetic blueprint people are born with and unfolds in an inevitable manner over the lifespan.

C)flexible and responsive to both internal and external factors.

47.In his research, Dr. Maxwell investigates how gene activity is regulated within a cell, what signals switch genes "on" or "off," and in particular, what determines whether a given cell will become a skin cell, a nerve cell, or a heart muscle cell. His area of research is called:

A)genetic mutation research.
B)zygotic research.
C)epigenetics.
D)the human genome project.

C)epigenetics.

48.Sheena and Tina are identical twins who developed from a single zygote and share identical DNA. Nevertheless, as they develop, differences in physical and psychological characteristics become evident. These differences are due to:

A)each twin’s unique genetic blueprint.
B)epigenetic change.
C)allele variation.
D)genotypic change.

B)epigenetic change.

49.In an experiment it was found that newborn rats who were genetically predisposed to be skittish, nervous, and high-strung would develop into calm, exploratory, and stress-resistant adult rats when raised by genetically unrelated, attentive mothers. Although the rats’ DNA did not change, the chemicals that controlled their gene expression did change, a phenomenon called:

A)epigenetic change.
C)recessive gene mutation.
B)allele variation.
D)dominant gene mutation.

A)epigenetic change.

50.In an experiment it was found that newborn rats who were genetically predisposed to be skittish, nervous, and high-strung would develop into calm, exploratory, and stress-resistant adult rats when raised by genetically unrelated, attentive mothers. The researchers concluded that:

A)although the rats’ DNA did not change, the chemicals that controlled their gene expression did change.
B)the genes controlling the rats’ behavior must have mutated.
C)although the rats’ DNA changed, the chemicals that controlled their gene expression did not.
D)the epigenetic changes were inherited from the previous generation of temperamental rats and were only expressed when the environment was favorable.

A)although the rats’ DNA did not change, the chemicals that controlled their gene expression did change.

51.In an experiment it was found that newborn rats who were genetically predisposed to be calm and stress-resistant grew up to be nervous, high-strung, and easily stressed adult rats when raised by genetically unrelated, inattentive mothers. The explanation for these results was that:

A)the rats’ DNA changed because of their upbringing.
B)epigenetic changes had taken place that changed their brain chemistry and literally "reprogrammed" their behavior.
C)severe genetic mutations had taken place from one generation to the next.
D)the rats’ DNA was damaged by environmental factors, such as exposure to ultraviolet light, radiation, or chemical toxins.

B)epigenetic changes had taken place that changed their brain chemistry and literally "reprogrammed" their behavior.

52.In addition to interactions among genes, and between genotype and environmental influences, another crucial factor in the relationship between genotype and phenotype is:

A)the fact that gene expression is inflexible and unresponsive to internal factors.
B)that genes can mutate or spontaneously change from one generation to the next.
C)that because of the blood-brain barrier, teratogens such as exposure to radiation or chemical toxins do not affect the genotype or damage DNA.
D)the fact that the vast majority of genes in the human genome are never expressed.

B)that genes can mutate or spontaneously change from one generation to the next.

53.Two crucial factors in the relationship between genotype and phenotype are interactions among genes, and interactions between genotype and environmental influences. Which of the following is NOT listed as important in considering the relationship between genotype and phenotype?

A)DNA can be damaged by environmental factors, such as exposure to ultraviolet light, radiation, or chemical toxins.
B)Errors in the genetic code can disrupt production of the correct proteins and lead to birth defects or genetic disorders.
C)Genes can mutate, or change spontaneously, from one generation to the next.
D)Epigenetic changes determine how an individual’s genetic blueprint directs and controls all aspects of development as it unfolds over the lifespan.

D)Epigenetic changes determine how an individual’s genetic blueprint directs and controls all aspects of development as it unfolds over the lifespan.

54.During the germinal period:

A)the zygote becomes implanted on the mother’s uterine wall.
B)the pregnant woman is highly susceptible to colds and infections.
C)the mother can feel the fetus moving.
D)All of the organs and the major body systems have formed.

A)the zygote becomes implanted on the mother’s uterine wall.

55.Which of the following represents the correct order of prenatal development?

A)embryonic period, germinal period, fetal period
B)fetal period, embryonic period, germinal period
C)germinal period, embryonic period, fetal period
D)germinal period, zygotic period, fetal period

C)germinal period, embryonic period, fetal period

56.Shannon is in the seventh week of her pregnancy. In terms of prenatal development, Shannon’s pregnancy is in the _____ period.

A) zygotic
B) embryonic
C) germinal
D) fetal

B) embryonic

57.During the embryonic period, the:

A)Mother can feel the fetus moving.
B)Fetus gains an additional three to four pounds of body fat.
C)organs and major systems of the body form.
D)zygote undergoes rapid cell division.

C)organs and major systems of the body form.

58.Which of the following is TRUE of the placenta?

A)It is the fluid-filled sac that houses the developing embryo and fetus.
B)It forms during the seventh month of prenatal development.
C)It is fully developed about six months after birth.
D)It prevents the mother’s blood from mixing with the blood of the developing embryo and fetus.

D)It prevents the mother’s blood from mixing with the blood of the developing embryo and fetus.

59.Elizabeth is in the fifteenth week of her pregnancy. In terms of prenatal development, Elizabeth’s pregnancy is in the _____ period.

A) fetal
B) germinal
C) embryonic
D) zygotic

A) fetal

60.One question on the midterm exam asked which period of prenatal development is the third and longest period, extending from the ninth week until birth. The correct Answer would be:

A)The fetal period.
B)The germinal period.
C)the zygotic period,
D)The embryonic period.

A)The fetal period.

61.When does a fetus double in weight, gaining an additional three to four pounds of body fat?

A)during the last two months of the fetal period
B)during the third and fourth months of the germinal period
C)during the first two months following conception
D)during the first two to eight weeks of prenatal development

A)during the last two months of the fetal period

62.Heather is in her fifth month of a healthy pregnancy and sometimes she can feel the fetus moving, a common experience during this period called:

A) Epigenetic movement.
B) Quickening.
C) Rooting.
D) Induction.

B) Quickening.

63.The fetal period of prenatal development lasts from _____ until _____.

A)the ninth week; birth
B)conception; the second week of pregnancy
C)the third week; the eight week of pregnancy
D)birth; three months of age

A)the ninth week; birth

64.As a general rule, the greatest vulnerability to _____ occurs during the _____ period of prenatal development.

A)teratogens; embryonic
B)epigenesist; embryonic
C)epigenesist; germinal
D)teratogens; germinal

A)teratogens; embryonic

65.A teratogen is a:

A)Specific type of genetic mutation that typically results in severe birth defects.
B)Harmful agent, such as a chemical, drug, or disease that can cause malformations or defects in an embryo or fetus.
C)Segment of DNA that is sometimes found on both the X and Y chromosome and that commonly results in mental retardation.
D)Recessive gene which is usually found only on the Y chromosome and that causes hemophilia and red-green color blindness in males.

B)Harmful agent, such as a chemical, drug, or disease that can cause malformations or defects in an embryo or fetus.

66.Which of the following is NOT one of the teratogens listed in your textbook?

A)radiation exposure
B)viruses and bacteria
C)drugs, such as alcohol, cocaine, and heroin
D)deoxyribonucleic acid

D)deoxyribonucleic acid

67.By the third week after conception, a sheet of primitive neural cells has formed:

A)A hollow tube called the neural tube.
B)A cavity called the ventricle.
C)A hollow tube called the stem cell.
D)A cavity called the amniotic sac.

A)A hollow tube called the neural tube.

68.Which of the following is (are) TRUE regarding the neural tube?

A)The neural tube is formed from a sheet of primitive neural cells.
B)The neural tube is lined with stem cells.
C)The neural tube eventually thickens into three bulges that will form the three main regions of the brain; the hindbrain, the midbrain, and the forebrain.
D)All of these statements are true regarding the neural tube.

D)All of these statements are true regarding the neural tube.

69.Researchers at State University study cells that can divide indefinitely, renew themselves, and give rise to a variety of other types of cells. These researchers are investigating:

A) Epigenetic cells.
B) Chromosomes,
C) stem cells.
D) teratogens,

C) stem cells.

70.Stem cells are:

A)Long, threadlike structures composed of twisted parallel strands of deoxyribonucleic acid.
B)Cells that can divide indefinitely, renew themselves, and give rise to a variety of other types of cells.
C)cells that have mutated or spontaneously changed during transmission from one generation to the next.
D)cells that have been damaged by environmental factors, such as exposure to ultraviolet light, radiation, or chemical toxins.

B)Cells that can divide indefinitely, renew themselves, and give rise to a variety of other types of cells.

71.Cells that can divide indefinitely, renew themselves, and give rise to a variety of other types of cells are called:

A) epigenetic cells.
B) zygotic cells.
C) stem cells.
D) karyotypic cells.

C) stem cells.

72.Monika was amazed to read in her textbook that during the peak periods of brain development in the prenatal period, new cells are being generated at the rate of _____ per minute.

A) 100 to 150
B) 1 million
C) 250,000
D) 500 or 600

C) 250,000

73.A structure called _____ eventually thickens into three bulges that will form the three main regions of the brain: the hindbrain, the midbrain, and the forebrain.

A)the ventricle
B)the neural tube
C)the epigenetic structure
D)the amniotic sac

B)the neural tube

74.As the neural tube expands during development, it develops cavities, called _____, that are found at the core of the fully developed brain and are filled with cerebrospinal fluid.

A) chromosomes
B) alleles
C) ventricles
D) amniotic sacs

C) ventricles

75.The fetal brain is constantly changing, forming as many as 2 million synaptic connections per second. By the_____ month of prenatal development, the fetus has all the brain cells it will have at birth.

A) first
B) third
C) second
D) fifth

D) fifth

76.Sarah gave birth to a full-term healthy baby boy who weighed just over 9 lbs. Assuming that the infant is normal, his brain will be about _____ the size of an adult human brain and will weigh about _____.

A)one-half; one pound or more
B)one-quarter; one pound or less
C)one-sixth; half a pound or less
D)one-tenth; a quarter of a pound

B)one-quarter; one pound or less

77.Janeen touches her newborn’s cheek. Her baby turns toward Janeen’s hand and opens her mouth. Janeen has triggered which reflex?

A)the sucking reflex
B)the quickening reflex
C)the rooting reflex
D)the grasping reflex

C)the rooting reflex

78.When you put your finger on your newborn nephew’s palm, he curls his own fingers around yours, grasping your finger tightly. You have triggered what sort of behavior?

A)the grasping reflex
B)the rooting reflex
C)the stepping reflex
D)a newborn’s inborn preference to seek human contact

A)the grasping reflex

79.Touching a newborn’s lips evokes the _____ reflex.

A) grasping
B) sucking
C) rooting
D) stepping

B) sucking

80.The rooting, sucking, and grasping reflexes:

A)become stronger and more pronounced during the first six months of life.
B)gradually disappear over the first year of life and are replaced by voluntary behaviors.
C)disappear within the first month of life.
D)first appear at about three months of age.

B)gradually disappear over the first year of life and are replaced by voluntary behaviors.

81.Of the following senses, which is LEAST developed at birth?

A) vision
B) smell
C) touch
D) hearing

A) vision

82.The newly born infant:

A)is capable of a variety of voluntary behaviors, including rolling over.
B)is able to see near objects more clearly than distant objects.
C)is unable to distinguish between different voices.
D)has no sense of smell.

B)is able to see near objects more clearly than distant objects.

83.The newborn’s senses are most keenly attuned to what sort of stimuli?

A)brightly colored objects, especially moving objects
B)people, especially faces
C)food, especially milk and cookies
D)loud sounds, especially sounds that seem threatening

B)people, especially faces

84.Although Baby Emma was only a few hours old, she would turn her head to visually follow which sort of moving stimulus?

A) a red ball
B) a black-and-white mobile
C) a human face
D) a green block

C) a human face

85.If Claudia wishes to make sure that her newborn infant can see her face as clearly as possible, Claudia should position her face so that she is about _____ away from her newborn’s face.

A)six to twelve inches
B)two to five inches
C)two to three feet
D)four to six feet

A)six to twelve inches

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