Psychology 203 Quiz 2

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1. (p. 49) As the environment changes, some species adapt in a way that helps them survive and reproduce, while other species do not adapt well and die. This process is called

A. canalization. B. sociobiology. C. natural selection. D. genetic inheritance.

C. natural selection.

2. (p. 49) Natural selection favors individuals of a species that are best able to _____ and _____.

A. survive; reproduce B. find food; hide C. survive change; adapt D. change; adapt

A. survive; reproduce

3. (p. 49) Evolutionary psychology holds that

A. natural selection does not ring true for personality characteristics. B. natural selection favors certain behaviors as well as physical characteristics. C. biological evolution explains why humans live well beyond child-bearing years. D. only physical development is stage-like in process.

B. natural selection favors certain behaviors as well as physical characteristics.

4. (p. 49) Natural selection operates primarily on characteristics that are tied to
A. group social interaction. B. psychological wellness. C. reproductive fitness. D. developmental plasticity.

C. reproductive fitness.

5. (p. 49-50) Which of the following statements describes the main idea of David Buss’ theory?

A. It is not useful to compare human social behavior with social behavior in other species. B. Evolutionary processes can influence behavior as well as physical features. C. Behavior is determined by the environmental consequences it brings about. D. Development proceeds in a series of stages.

B. Evolutionary processes can influence behavior as well as physical features.

6. (p. 50) Which of the following is the BEST explanation for an extended childhood period in human development?
A. During this time, a human’s immune system reaches its full potential. B. A long childhood period is a "left over" adaptation from the time when the human life span was considerably shorter than it is today. C. Rebellion against authority is a necessary step in the evolutionary development of independent behavior. D. During this time, humans develop a large brain and gain experience required to master the complexities of human society.

D. During this time, humans develop a large brain and gain experience required to master the complexities of human society

7. (p. 50) Which of the following statements is NOT an idea held by evolutionary developmental psychologists?

A. Evolved characteristics are not always adaptive in contemporary society. B. Some evolved characteristics could be the cause of problems in contemporary society. C. All evolved mechanisms are adaptive in contemporary society. D. An extended childhood period may be the result of evolution.

C. All evolved mechanisms are adaptive in contemporary society.

8. (p. 50-51) Baltes holds that natural selection operates

A. primarily during the first half of life. B. primarily during late adulthood. C. through the end of the adolescent period. D. through the end of late childhood.

A. primarily during the first half of life.

9. (p. 50-51) According to Baltes, older adults have an increased

A. generativity. B. need for culture-based resources. C. benefits of evolutionary selection. D. developmental plasticity.

B. need for culture-based resources.

10. (p. 51) A bidirectional view of evolutionism suggests that

A. social behavior is a product of evolved biology. B. evolved biology is a product of social behavior. C. environmental and biological conditions influence each other. D. evolution dictates social behavior.

C. environmental and biological conditions influence each other.

11. (p. 52) Which of the following is a double-helix-shaped molecule that contains genetic information?

A. chromosome B. genotype C. DNA D. gene

C. DNA

12. (p. 53) Approximately how many genes does a typical human have according to the latest research?

A. more than 100,000 B. 50,000-75,000 C. 35,000-40,000 D. 20,000-30,000

D. 20,000-30,000

13. (p. 53) What did researchers working on the Human Genome project accomplish?

A. They estimated how many genes humans have. B. They determined that DNA is collaborative. C. They found that the number of human proteins is higher than the number of human genes. D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

14. (p. 53) In his book The Dependent Gene, David Moore reports that

A. genes are collaborative. B. genes act independently. C. genes have a one-to-one correspondence with proteins. D. the expression of genes is not affected by environmental conditions.

A. genes are collaborative.

15. (p. 53-54) Which of the following statements BEST explains the nature of genetic expression?

A. A single gene is the source of a single protein’s genetic information. B. Events outside of a cell cannot excite or inhibit genetic expression. C. Only internal events inside a cell can influence genetic expression. D. The activity of genes is affected by the internal and external factors.

D. The activity of genes is affected by the internal and external factors.

6. (p. 54) Which of the following has 23 unpaired chromosomes?

A. zygotes B. the sperm and egg C. mitosis D. chromosome

B. the sperm and egg

17. (p. 54) In a human body, all cells except the sperm and egg reproduce by a process called

A. meiosis. B. mitosis. C. fertilization. D. zygote.

B. mitosis.

18. (p. 54) _____ is a specialized form of cell division that occurs to form eggs and sperm.

A. Meiosis B. Mitosis C. Reproduction D. Fertilization

A. Meiosis

19. (p. 54) How many chromosomes does an egg or a sperm have?

A. 46 B. 24 C. 23 D. 48

C. 23

20. (p. 54) Fertilization results in the formation of a(n)

A. egg. B. zygote. C. gamete. D. sperm.

B. zygote.

21. (p. 54) In _____, the number of cells doubles, whereas in _____, the number of chromosomes in each resulting cell is halved.

A. meiosis; mitosis B. mitosis; meiosis C. genotype; phenotype D. phenotype; genotype

B. mitosis; meiosis

22. (p. 55) All of a person’s genetic material makes up the _____, whereas the _____ consists of only observable characteristics.

A. phenotype; genotype B. genotype; phenotype C. dominant genes; recessive genes D. recessive genes; dominant genes

B. genotype; phenotype

23. (p. 55) Angela describes her friend as tall and slender with blue eyes and red hair. She is describing her friend’s

A. genotype. B. phenotype. C. dominant genes. D. recessive genes.

B. phenotype.

24. (p. 55) You notice that Lou’s eyes are a unique shade of green. You have observed his:
A. genotype. B. phenotype. C. dominant genes. D. recessive genes.

B. phenotype.

25. (p. 56) Which of the following principles is demonstrated when one gene overrides the effect of a second gene?

A. polygenic inheritance B. sex-linked genes C. dominant-recessive genes D. genetic imprinting

C. dominant-recessive genes

26. (p. 56) Kevin has blond hair, but both of his parents have brown hair. What might account for Kevin’s differing phenotype from both of his parents?

A. polygenic inheritance B. genetic imprinting C. sex-linked genes D. dominant-recessive genes

D. dominant-recessive genes

27. (p. 56) X-linked inheritance describes the inheritance of a(n)

A. unaltered gene that is carried on the Y chromosome. B. altered gene that is carried on the Y chromosome. C. unaltered gene that is carried on the X chromosome. D. altered gene that is carried on the X chromosome.

D. altered gene that is carried on the X chromosome.

28. (p. 56) Melinda and Joseph both have brown eyes, but their child has blue eyes. This shows that

A. both Melinda and Joseph are carrying a recessive gene for blue eyes. B. either Melinda or Joseph is carrying a recessive gene for blue eyes. C. both Melinda and Joseph are carrying a dominant gene for blue eyes. D. either Melinda or Joseph is carrying a dominant gene for blue eyes.

A. both Melinda and Joseph are carrying a recessive gene for blue eyes

29. (p. 56) Research found that many genes interact to influence a psychological characteristic. This is the concept of

A. dominant-recessive inheritance. B. sex-linked inheritance. C. genetic imprinting. D. polygenic inheritance.

D. polygenic inheritance

30. (p. 56) People who have hemophilia or fragile-X syndrome are

A. equally distributed among females and males. B. mostly females. C. mostly males. D. those who have mutated genes carried on the Y chromosome.

C. mostly males.

31. (p. 57) _____ is a genetic disorder that occurs less often to children with mothers who are 16 to 34 years old.

A. Down syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. Sickle-cell anemia D. Phenylketonuria (PKU)

A. Down syndrome

32. (p. 57) Both _____ are genetic disorders caused by the presence of an extra chromosome.

A. Down syndrome and Turner syndrome B. Turner syndrome and sickle-cell anemia C. Klinefelter syndrome and Down syndrome D. Phenylketonuria (PKU) and XYY syndrome

C. Klinefelter syndrome and Down syndrome

33. (p. 57) _____ syndrome causes males to have undeveloped testes, enlarged breasts, and tallness. Boys with this chromosomal disorder often have language, academic, attentional, and motor impairments.

A. Down B. Klinefelter C. Turner D. Fragile X

B. Klinefelter

34. (p. 57) Which of the following characteristics is likely to be exhibited in boys with fragile X syndrome?

A. a flattened skull B. aggression and violence C. hyperactivity D. mental deficiency

D. mental deficiency

35. (p. 58) Conditions, such as phenylketonuria or sickle cell anemia, are produced by _____ abnormalities.

A. chromosome B. sex-linked chromosome C. both sex-linked chromosome and gene-linked D. gene-linked

D. gene-linked

36. (p. 58) _____ is a genetic disorder that can be controlled by diet.

A. Down syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. Sickle-cell anemia D. Phenylketonuria (PKU)

D. Phenylketonuria (PKU)

37. (p. 5) Which of the following genetic disorders occurs most often in African Americans?

A. Down syndrome B. Turner syndrome C. sickle-cell anemia D. phenylketonuria (PKU)

C. sickle-cell anemia

38. (p. 60) Behavior genetics is the field of study that seeks to discover how individual differences in human traits and development are influenced by

A. environment. B. heredity. C. heredity and environment. D. behavior.

C. heredity and environment.

39. (p. 60) Dr. Santos designs studies to examine the influence of heredity and environment on individual differences in human traits and development. Her field of study is in

A. behavior genetics. B. evolutionary genetics. C. evolutionary psychology. D. developmental genetics.

A. behavior genetics.

40. (p. 60) Behavior genetics mostly uses which of the following research methods?

A. twin studies B. adoption studies C. both twin studies and adoption studies D. neither twin studies nor adoption studies

C. both twin studies and adoption studies

41. (p. 60) Brent is an athlete who loves to play catch or shoot baskets with his son Todd. Todd is quickly developing the same affinity for sports. This is an example of which type of genotype-environment correlation?

A. active B. passive C. evocative D. niche-picking

B. passive

42. (p. 60) An individual’s genes may influence the type of environment he/she is exposed to. This is called a(n)

A. heredity-environment correlation. B. passive genotype-environment correlations. C. active genotype-environment correlations. D. evocative genotype-environment correlations.

A. heredity-environment correlation.

43. (p. 60) Katrina played basketball in high school and in college. She recently enrolled her son in a junior basketball league. This is an example of which type of genotype-environment correlation for Katrina’s son?

A. passive B. evocative C. active D. niche-picking

A. passive

44. (p. 61) Kylie is friendly and outgoing. Because of this, people treat her well and often seem drawn to her. This is an example of which type of genotype-environment correlation?

A. active B. passive C. evocative D. niche-picking

C. evocative

45. (p. 61) Hannah is an "easy" child. She rarely cries and is cooperative and pleasant. As a result, she receives much attention and nurturing. This is an example of which type of genotype-environment correlation?

A. passive B. evocative C. active D. niche-picking

B. evocative

46. (p. 61-62) Dani loves dinosaurs. She always chooses library books about dinosaurs and has even asked her parents to enroll her in a junior paleontology club. This is an example of which type of genotype-environment correlation?

A. passive B. evocative C. niche-picking D. None of these answers are correct.

C. niche-picking

47. (p. 61-62) Elise has enrolled in a parenting program aimed at teaching parents to recognize and support a child’s natural abilities and chosen activities. Which type of genotype-environment interaction will she learn to encourage?

A. passive B. evocative C. active D. suggestive

C. active

48. (p. 61-62) Allison inherited a singing talent from her parents. She requested vocal lessons when she was young, and now she participates in the school choral program. This is an example of which type of genotype-environment correlation?

A. passive B. evocative C. niche-picking D. None of the these answers is correct.

C. niche-picking

49. (p. 62) Which of the following is a genotype-environment interaction that plays a smaller role in development as children grow older?

A. passive B. evocative C. active D. niche-picking

A. passive

50. (p. 62) Louis has accepted a scholarship opportunity to study art in Europe for a semester. His twin sister will continue her schooling at a local university. Their experiences are examples of

A. shared environmental experiences. B. nonshared environmental experiences. C. genotype-environment interaction. D. epigenetic view.

B. nonshared environmental experiences.

51. (p. 62) More similarities are seen among twins than among siblings who are different ages, because twins may have

A. more shared environmental influences. B. more non-shared environmental influences. C. fewer shared environmental influences. D. identical shared environmental and hereditary influences.

A. more shared environmental influences.

52. (p. 62) The epigenetic view of development states that development is

A. becomes less influenced by heredity and more influenced by environments as people grow older. B. becomes more influenced by heredity and less influenced by environment as people grow older. C. is influenced 50 percent by heredity and 50 percent by environment. D. is the result of an ongoing, bidirectional interchange between heredity and the environment.

D. is the result of an ongoing, bidirectional interchange between heredity and the environment.

53. (p. 62-63) The relative contributions of heredity and environment are not additive. This means

A. genes alone cannot account for development, because they can only influence behavioral characteristics in specific environmental contexts. B. some characteristics are solely due to heredity and others to environmental conditions. C. certain characteristics are more linked to heredity and others to environmental conditions. D. that the person we become is due to X percent nature and X percent nurture.

A. genes alone cannot account for development, because they can only influence behavioral characteristics in specific environmental contexts.

54. (p. 63) What do MOST developmentalists today believe about the contributions of both heredity and the environment to development?

A. Heredity plays the dominant role in development. B. Environment plays the dominant role in development. C. Heredity and environment interact to produce development. D. Some aspects in development are determined by heredity, and some others by environment.

C. Heredity and environment interact to produce development.

55. (p. 65) During which prenatal development period does differentiation of cells take place?

A. embryonic B. germinal C. fetal D. fertilization

B. germinal

56. (p. 65) Which of the following is the prenatal development period that takes place during the first 2 weeks after conception, includes the creation of a zygote, and ends with attachment of the zygote to the uterine wall?

A. germinal B. embryonic C. fetal D. fertilization

A. germinal

57. (p. 65) When does the zygote implant in the lining of the mother’s uterus?

A. immediately after conception B. within 2 days after conception C. about 10 to 14 days after conception D. at the end of the embryonic period

C. about 10 to 14 days after conception

58. (p. 65) During which prenatal developmental period do the following changes take place? Eyes appear, four chambers of the heart take shape, spinal cord begins to form, and the intestinal tract develops.

A. germinal B. embryonic C. fetal D. fertilization

B. embryonic

59. (p. 65) Which of the following is the correct order of an embryo’s layering of cells starting from the outermost layer?

A. mesoderm, endoderm, ectoderm B. mesoderm, ectoderm, endoderm C. endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm D. ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

D. ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

60. (p. 65) When baby Juanita was born, she had problems with her eyes, ears, and nose. MOST likely, Juanita’s problems came from defects in the formation of

A. the ectoderm. B. the endoderm. C. the mesoderm. D. any of the three layers.

A. the ectoderm.

61. (p. 65) Baby Weston’s digestive system did not fully develop and does not function properly. This problem likely arose from a defect in the formation of

A. the ectoderm. B. the endoderm. C. the mesoderm. D. any of the three layers.

B. the endoderm.

62. (p. 65) The doctor tells Sharice and Jayden that their unborn baby is having problems because of a drastic change in temperature. The _____ has failed to perform its protective function.

A. umbilical cord B. amnion C. placenta D. trophoblast

B. amnion

63. (p. 65) The _____ connects a baby to the placenta.

A. amniotic fluid B. amnion C. umbilical cord D. uterine wall

C. umbilical cord

64. (p. 65) When a blood test was performed on Cindy’s fetus, the doctors found some of Cindy’s red blood cells in the fetus’ circulatory system. We know that this most likely

A. is normal because the mother’s red blood cells are shared with the fetus. B. indicates a problem with the blastocyst, which should not contain red blood cells. C. indicates a problem with the placenta, which should block the mother’s red blood cells. D. indicates a problem with the amnion, which should eliminate the mother’s red blood cells.

C. indicates a problem with the placenta, which should block the mother’s red blood cells.

65. (p. 65) Iyanla, who is pregnant, is concerned that the bacteria from her ear infection may pass to her unborn baby. She does not need to worry because

A. although the bacteria will pass to the fetus, supercharged white blood cells in the umbilical cord will successfully destroy the infection. B. the bacteria will be destroyed by the amniotic fluid. C. bacteria are large molecules and will be filtered out by the placenta and not reach the fetus. D. the baby’s sinuses are filled with amniotic fluid and are immune to sinus bacteria.

C. bacteria are large molecules and will be filtered out by the placenta and not reach the fetus.

66. (p. 66) During which prenatal developmental period do the following changes—rapid weight gain; active movement of arms and legs; face, forehead, eyelids, nose, and chin becoming distinguishable—take place?

A. germinal B. embryonic C. fetal D. fertilization

C. fetal

67. (p. 66) What is approximately the earliest point that a fetus can survive outside the womb?

A. 5 months B. 6 months C. 7 months D. 8 months

B. 6 months

68. (p. 66) Sidney is expecting her first child and recently began to feel kicking movements. Sidney is MOST likely in the _____ month of her pregnancy.

A. second B. fourth C. sixth D. seventh

B. fourth

69. (p. 66) Which of the following would handle information processing at the cellular level?

A. anencephaly B. neurons C. spina bifida D. neural tubes

B. neurons

70. (p. 66) Teri’s doctor has recommended that she take folic acid regularly throughout her pregnancy. The doctor is most likely trying to prevent which of the following from occurring?

A. spina bifida B. fetal neural tube defects C. anencephaly D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

71. (p. 67) At approximately 6 to 24 weeks after conception, cells move outward from their point of origin to their appropriate locations. This is known as _____.

A. anencephaly B. spina bifida C. neurogenesis D. neuronal migration

D. neuronal migration

72. (p. 67) Which of the following involves the process of cells moving outward from their point of origin to their appropriate locations in the brain?

A. neuronal migration B. neurogenesis C. neural connectivity D. organogenesis

A. neuronal migration

73. (p. 68) Which of the following prenatal diagnostic tests would involve removing a small sample of the placenta?
A. ultrasound sonography B. amniocentesis C. maternal blood sampling D. chorionic villi sampling

D. chorionic villi sampling

74. (p. 69) Which of the following prenatal diagnostic tests would detect spina bifida?

A. ultrasound sonography B. amniocentesis C. maternal blood screening D. chorionic villi sampling

C. maternal blood screening

75. (p. 69) Stephanie’s doctor reduces the dosage of her daily medication when she begins trying to get pregnant. The principle behind this action states that

A. the effect of any teratogen is dependent on the genetic susceptibility of the fetus. B. the effect of any teratogen is dependent on the time of exposure. C. the greater the dose of a teratogen, the greater the effect on prenatal development. D. the effect of any teratogen is greater in the last stage of prenatal development

C. the greater the dose of a teratogen, the greater the effect on prenatal development.

76. (p. 70) During which prenatal developmental period is the probability of a structural defect the greatest?

A. implantation B. germinal C. embryonic D. fetal

C. embryonic

77. (p. 69-70) Which of the following statements about teratogens is NOT true?
A. Female fetuses are far more likely to be affected by teratogens than male fetuses. B. The greater the dose of a teratogen, the greater the effect. C. Differences in placental membranes can affect a fetus’ exposure to a teratogen. D. The time of exposure to a teratogen impacts the type and degree of damage to the fetus.

A. Female fetuses are far more likely to be affected by teratogens than male fetuses.

78. (p. 70) Exposure to teratogens after organogenesis is complete may most likely result in

A. severe anatomic defects. B. stunted growth. C. severe Down syndrome. D. severe defects in the internal organs.

B. stunted growth

79. (p. 71) Recent research shows that high doses of aspirin during pregnancy can contribute to which of the following?

A. low intelligence B. miscarriage C. Down syndrome D. maternal and fetal bleeding

D. maternal and fetal bleeding

80. (p. 71) Psychoactive drugs affect the _____ system.

A. endocrine B. nervous C. respiratory D. digestive

B. nervous

81. (p. 71) Gina is pregnant and is a heavy smoker. Compared to the baby of a nonsmoker, her baby is MORE likely to suffer from which of the following?

A. facial and limb deformities B. sudden infant death syndrome C. cleft palate D. tremors and increased general irritability

B. sudden infant death syndrome

82. (p. 70-71) Which of the following prescription and nonprescription drugs can have harmful effects on an embryo or fetus?

A. aspirin B. some antibiotics and hormones C. diet pills D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

83. (p. 71) If the mother normally drinks alcohol, the BEST way to prevent negative effects on the fetus is to

A. drink only beer during the pregnancy. B. maintain good nutrition during the pregnancy. C. completely abstain from drinking during the entire pregnancy. D. drink only wine during the pregnancy.

C. completely abstain from drinking during the entire pregnancy

84. (p. 71) Facial deformities, defective limbs, learning problems, and below-average intelligence are all linked to which teratogen? A. cocaine B. psychoactive drugs C. nicotine D. alcohol

D. alcohol

85. (p. 71) Neonatal deaths, preterm births, low birth weights, respiratory problems, and sudden infant death syndrome are all linked to which teratogen?

A. cocaine B. psychoactive drugs C. nicotine D. alcohol

C. nicotine

86. (p. 72) Cocaine exposure during prenatal development is linked to which of the following?

A. increased likelihood of being in special education and receiving support services B. impaired language development and information processing C. impaired motor development and slower growth rate D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

87. (p. 73) What is the BEST way to keep the infant from being infected if the mother is found to have active genital herpes before the child is born?

A. A cesarean section should be performed. B. Antibiotics should be administered for a minimum of 6 hours before delivery. C. Antibiotics should be administered daily to the fetus until the day of delivery. D. Nothing can be done, because the fetus would have already contracted the disease before delivery.

A. A cesarean section should be performed.

88. (p. 73) If a mother is HIV positive, but her infant does not show signs of AIDS at birth, then the infant may

A. not have been infected with HIV. B. have been infected with HIV but does not show any symptoms of HIV now. C. still develop AIDS later in life. D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

89. (p. 73) Which of the following is a way for a mother infected with HIV to pass the virus to her child?

A. during gestation across the placenta B. during delivery through contact with maternal blood C. after birth through breast-feeding D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

90. (p. 73-74) The nutritional status of the fetus during pregnancy is determined

A. only by the amount of the mother’s protein intake. B. only by the mother’s calorie intake. C. by the mother’s intake of protein, vitamins, minerals, and total calories. D. by the function of the fetus’ digestive system.

C. by the mother’s intake of protein, vitamins, minerals, and total calories.

91. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A pregnant woman’s experience with intense fear and anxiety may have a negative impact on the fetus. B. High maternal stress during pregnancy can have long-term consequences for the child after birth. C. Children of mothers with a high level of depression during pregnancy are more likely to have ADHD and language delay. D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

92. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The mother’s stressful life events may have a negative impact on the fetus even if these events occur before conception. B. Maternal depression during pregnancy may cause preterm birth. C. Maternal depression during pregnancy may cause low birth weight for full-term infants. D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

93. (p. 74) Who among the following is LEAST likely to receive prenatal care?

A. a first-time mother in her mid-30s B. a mother with two or more other children C. a working woman over 25 D. a pregnant adolescent

D. a pregnant adolescent

94. (p. 75) Tammy is pregnant and is 45 years old. Her doctor considers her a "high-risk" pregnancy. Which of the following risks is Tammy’s doctor concerned about?

A. increased risk for Down syndrome B. increased risk for low birth weight C. increased risk for preterm delivery and fetal death D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

95. (p. 75) Which of the following paternal characteristics is LEAST likely to affect a child’s development if the father is younger than 40 years of age?

A. exposure to lead and radiation B. exposure to certain pesticides and petrochemicals C. cigarette smoking D. age

D. age

96. (p. 76) CenteringPregnancy, an innovative prenatal care program, is rapidly expanding in the United States and provides _____.

A. free prenatal care to low-income mothers B. in-home prenatal care by a midwife C. prenatal care in a peer group setting D. confidential prenatal care to pregnant adolescents

C. prenatal care in a peer group setting

97. (p. 76-77) Which of the following outcomes of prenatal education is of the MOST value for pregnant women living in poverty?

A. Participants receive coupons for free goods and services. B. These women can be linked to other valuable social services. C. Classes encourage these mothers to bottle-feed so they can maintain employment. D. Participants are offered free postpartum birth control.

B. These women can be linked to other valuable social services.

98. (p. 78) During which stage of childbirth does the cervix dilate?

A. first B. second C. third D. afterbirth

A. first

99. (p. 78) During which stage of childbirth is the fetus expelled from the womb?

A. first B. second C. third D. afterbirth

B. second

100. (p. 79) Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Three basic kinds of drugs used for labor are analgesia, anesthesia, and oxytocin/Pitocin. B. Analgesia is used to relieve pain. C. Higher doses of drugs given to the mother during delivery potentially have a more negative effect on the fetus than lower doses. D. All of these answers are correct.

D. All of these answers are correct.

101. (p. 79) Which of the following is NOT a method that the natural childbirth method uses during labor and delivery?

A. nonprescription drugs to reduce pain B. relaxation techniques C. Lamaze breathing D. education about anatomy and physiology

A. nonprescription drugs to reduce pain

103. Which of the following is a method to reduce pain during delivery without using medication?

A. waterbirth B. massage C. acupuncture D. All of the these answers are correct.

D. All of the these answers are correct.

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