PSYC2314-Final Exam

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Chatava is a professional who does research to determine the numbers of people in different countries, their ages, and how these numbers might change in the years to come. Chatava would best be described as a
A. social worker.
B. metabolic theorist.
C. demographer.
D. cartographer

A. social worker.

In order to depict the number of people of different ages in the population, Dr. Gillen would be best served using a graphing technique called a(n)
A. demography.
B. presbycusis.
C. external aid.
D. population pyramid.

D. population pyramid.

According to your text, the United States is ____ financially for the increasing numbers of elderly.
A. very well prepared
B. well prepared
C. somewhat prepared
D. unprepared

D. unprepared

Longevity appears to be determined
A. exclusively by genetic factors.
B. exclusively by environmental factors.
C. jointly by genetic and environmental factors.
D. by unexplained factors.

C. jointly by genetic and environmental factors.

Genetic factors appear to play _____ role in determining whether people reach centenarian status.
A. no
B. a minimal
C. some
D. a major

D. a major

Environmental toxins appear to play _____ role in determining longevity.
A. no
B. a minimal
C. some
D. a major

D. a major

Which statement concerning sex differences in longevity is true?
A. In the U.S., women’s average longevity is about one year longer than that of men.
B. The reduction of death during childbirth has led to an increase in longevity of women over the past century.
C. In industrial countries, factors like education and work opportunities do not appear to impact longevity in women.
D. The rate of dying from one of the top 15 causes of death is significantly higher in women than men.

B. The reduction of death during childbirth has led to an increase in longevity of women over the past century.

One common characteristic of the fourth age is
A. a high level of dementia.
B. a virtual absence of chronic stress.
C. establishment of one’s career.
D. a great probability of major improvement on physical strength/flexibility.

D. a great probability of major improvement on physical strength/flexibility.

____ is best explained by the wear-and-tear theory of aging.
A. AIDS
B. A misshapen blood cell in sickle-cell disease
C. Joint deterioration during osteoarthritis
D. Alzheimer’s disease

C. Joint deterioration during osteoarthritis

In explaining why people age and eventually die, Dr. Filipovsky talks about "free radicals" and how their buildup produces tissue damage. Dr. Filipovsky is promoting a _____ theory of aging.
A. wear-and-tear
B. metabolic
C. cellular
D. programmed cell death

C. cellular

Telomeres are found exclusively on
A. the tips of chromosomes.
B. neurons.
C. cancer cells.
D. X and Y chromosomes

A. the tips of chromosomes.

____ are chemicals produced during normal cell metabolism that may cause cellular damage that impairs functioning.
A. Neurofibrillary tangles
B. Neuritic plaques
C. Transient ischemic attacks
D. Free radicals

D. Free radicals

As a proponent of cross-linking theory, Dr. Rennie would be most interested in
A. brain cells.
B. muscles and arteries.
C. hormones.
D. telomeres

B. muscles and arteries

If the programmed cell theory of aging is correct,
A. people under stress should die sooner than those not under stress.
B. a low-fat diet should extend life.
C. the elimination of free radicals should greatly extend life.
D. humans are born with a "prewired death clock."

D. humans are born with a "prewired death clock."

When viewed through a microscope, a _____ would most resemble a spiral-shaped mass.
A. telomere
B. free radical
C. neurofibrillary tangle
D. neurotransmitter

C. neurofibrillary tangle

While looking at slides of brain tissue in a physiology class, you see groups of damaged neurons that have collected around a core of protein. What are you looking at?
A. Neurotransmitters
B. Neuritic plaques
C. Neurofibrillary tangles
D. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

B. Neuritic plaques

If your goal was to get the best image of a brain structure, you should use a
A. single-photon emission computerized tomography (SPECT).
B. computerized tomography (CT scan).
C. positron emission tomography (PET).
D. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI).

B. computerized tomography (CT scan).

The defining characteristic of a cerebral vascular accident is
A. death.
B. neuritic tangling.
C. an interruption of blood flow to the brain.
D. the cessation of respiratory output.

C. an interruption of blood flow to the brain.

What is a more common term used to describe a cerebral vascular accident?
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Presbyopia
C. Presbycusis
D. Stroke

D. Stroke

Which does not belong?
A. Emphysema
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. Dysphoria
D. Asthma

C. Dysphoria

After assessing Nalini’s brain, her physician comments, "You have significantly reduced amounts of dopamine in your midbrain." Since she is a nurse, Nalini would most likely suspect that she has
A. Huntington’s disease.
B. Alzheimer’s disease.
C. Parkinson’s disease.
D. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

C. Parkinson’s disease.

Visual adaptation involves the ability to adjust to changes in
A. an object’s position.
B. an object’s distance.
C. illumination.
D. acceleration

C. illumination.

When visiting your eye specialist, you are informed that you have large opaque spots on the lens of your left eye. As a knowledgeable student, you would know that this means that you have
A. presbyopia.
B. glaucoma.
C. a cataract.
D. myopia.

C. a cataract.

Joyce’s doctor has just told her that the fluid in her eyes is not draining properly and that she’ll have to administer eye drops to prevent experiencing damage from the pressure in her eyes. Joyce has most likely been diagnosed with
A. diabetic retinopathy.
B. cataracts.
C. glaucoma.
D. macular degeneration.

C. glaucoma.

The leading cause of functional blindness in older adults is the result of
A. glaucoma.
B. macular degeneration.
C. presbyopia.
D. cataracts.

B. macular degeneration.

Hank has just been informed that he is a diabetic. As a knowledgeable physician, he realizes that his risk for developing ____ has also increased.
A. macular degeneration
B. Cataracts
C. retinopathy
D. glaucoma

C. retinopathy

Presbycusis is the most common age-related
A. form of dementia.
B. type of hearing problem.
C. visual disorder.
D. variety of COPD.

B. type of hearing problem.

Dr. Aoyama has to prescribe a syrupy medication for one of her elderly patients. She has two choices: one that smells bad but tastes good or one that smells good but tastes bad. Since her patient is 75 years old, and assuming she wants to prescribe the medicine that is most tolerable, which medicine should she prescribe?
A. The one that smells bad
B. The one that tastes bad
C. Either one, because people that old have little or no sense of taste or smell
D. If the patient is male, she should prescribe the one that tastes bad; if the patient is female, she should prescribe the one that smells bad

A. The one that smells bad

While at a conference dealing with issues related to aging, Eve is interested in learning about how sleep patterns change in late life. She will be best served by attending a presentation entitled "____ and the Elderly."
A. Circadian Rhythms
B. Neuritic Plaques
C. Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors
D. Selectivity

A. Circadian Rhythms

The only universal behavior change in aging that has been discovered is the fact that older adults
A. show improvements in vigilance.
B. exhibit dysphoria.
C. lose autobiographical memories.
D. have slower reaction times.

D. have slower reaction times.

The Useful Field of View measure does an excellent job of assessing
A. an individual’s IQ.
B. one’s risk for Alzheimer’s disease.
C. the type of skills necessary to drive.
D. working memory.

C. the type of skills necessary to drive.

Concerning memory, implicit is to explicit as
A. fact is to fiction.
B. unconscious is to intentional.
C. events are to people.
D. divided is to selective.

B. unconscious is to intentional.

The key question in determining whether or not Kwan should be concerned about her memory is,
A. "Does the memory problem interfere in Kwan’s life?"
B. "Has Kwan ever forgotten to perform a household chore?"
C. "How many times has Kwan forgotten something?"
D. "Does anyone think Kwan might have a memory problem?"

A. "Does the memory problem interfere in Kwan’s life?"

Maura suspects that she has some memory deficit. What kind of assessment should she undergo?
A. COPD
B. Divided attention
C. Neuropsychological
D. Selective attention

C. Neuropsychological

When asked how she is able to remember the names of all the students in his class, Dr. Willis-Rivera says, "I just try to match each student’s face to an image of a famous person." This technique best exemplifies the concept of
A. spaced retrieval.
B. implicit memory.
C. vigilance.
D. an internal memory aid.

D. an internal memory aid.

Which is not one of the three abilities used to define creativity in adults by Sternberg and Lubart (2001)?
A. Producing work that is novel
B. Producing work that is task appropriate
C. Producing work that is artistic
D. Producing work that is high in demand

C. Producing work that is artistic

Which of the following is not an aspect of wisdom described from the psychological perspective?
A. Orchestration of mind and virtue
B. Postformal thinking
C. Action-oriented knowledge
D. Cross-linking

D. Cross-linking

Which statement about depression is true?
A. Physical symptoms may include loss of appetite and insomnia
B. In older people, trouble breathing is a very good predictor of depression
C. It is easy to diagnose as the symptoms are unlike any other disorder
D. It does not involve any significant impairment in daily life activities

A. Physical symptoms may include loss of appetite and insomnia

If Nathan is prescribed ____ for his depression, he will have to be very careful about what kinds of food he eats.
A. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
B. monoamine oxidase inhibitors
C. cognitive therapy
D. an amyloid

B. monoamine oxidase inhibitors

While being treated for depression, 70-year-old Ian is encouraged to avoid situations that lead to negative consequences and to reward himself when something good happens to him. Ian appears to be being treated by a ____ therapist.
A. cognitive
B. behavioral
C. psychoanalytic
D. biomedical

B. behavioral

Because he is a cognitive therapist, Dr. Spence is most likely to suggest that the underlying cause of depression involves
A. an unconscious battle between the id and superego.
B. an imbalance of neurotransmitters.
C. a past life that includes too few rewards.
D. a thought process that focuses only on negative memories.

D. a thought process that focuses only on negative memories.

Prior to entering a restaurant, Amy starts to shake, hyperventilate, and feel light-headed. She is too terrified to enter the restaurant. She turns around immediately and catches the first taxi back home. This behavior is most consistent with
A. depression.
B. Parkinson’s disease.
C. an anxiety disorder.
D. Huntington’s disease.

C. an anxiety disorder.

Dementia as defined as a serious impairment of
A. mood.
B. anxiety.
C. psychomotor functioning.
D. cognitive and behavioral functioning.

D. cognitive and behavioral functioning.

Charles has changed a great deal. He has a difficult time remembering things, even simple things like where he is or what year it is. He is having increasing difficulty understanding people or saying things that make sense to others. In addition, he rarely cleans himself anymore and acts in very inappropriate ways around others. Charles is exhibiting many signs of
A. depression.
B. anxiety disorder.
C. Parkinson’s disease.
D. Alzheimer’s disease.

D. Alzheimer’s disease.

The loss of bladder or bowel control is called
A. impotence.
B. immobility.
C. incontinence.
D. impertinence.

C. incontinence.

The fact that Kenyon can cope with his current boss’s bad attitude because he has had past experience dealing with similar bosses is best
explained by
A. continuity theory.
B. mechanics intelligence.
C. the social convoy.
D. cross-linking theory.

A. continuity theory.

The comment, "I have been in this line of work for the past 35 years" is best associated with _____.
A. external continuity.
B. internal continuity.
C. external discontinuity.
D. internal discontinuity.

A. external continuity.

As with many individuals with senile dementia, Alois has begun to experience a reduced and distorted sense of self. This is an example of
A. external continuity.
B. internal continuity.
C. external discontinuity.
D. internal discontinuity.

D. internal discontinuity.

Experimenters are attempting to assess the upper limits of Ralph’s physical, sensory-perceptual, cognitive, motor, and personal skills.
When they are done, they will have determined Ralph’s
A. proactivity.
B. continuity.
C. competence.
D. environmental press.

C. competence.

The demands exerted on one’s self by one’s surroundings defines
A. an environmental press.
B.maximum comfort.
C. internal continuity.
D. competence.

A. an environmental press.

Adaptation level is reached when
A. competence exceeds an environmental press.
B. environmental press exceeds competence.
C. the environmental press makes no demands on competence but competence still exists.
D. the environmental press is at the average state for a given level of competence.

D. the environmental press is at the average state for a given level of competence.

Watching his grandchildren for the weekend has increased the environmental press in Hugo’s life slightly, bringing out the best in Hugo’s interpersonal skills. While watching his grandchildren, Hugo is apparently operating
A. at the adaptation level.
B. in the zone of maximum comfort.
C. in the zone of maximum performance potential.
D. in a marginal zone.

C. in the zone of maximum performance potential.

Which adaptation level is associated with the greatest happiness and lack of worry about environmental demands?
A. Zone of maximum performance potential
B. The marginal adaptation level
C. Average level of competence and press level
D. Zone of maximum comfort

D. Zone of maximum comfort

The ability to exert control over one’s life underlies a strong sense of
A. docility.
B. proactivity.
C. environmental press.
D. disengagement.

B. proactivity.

Hazel is tired of worrying about her new landlord. When her friends tell her to become involved to protect her interests, Hazel says, "It’s too late in the day. Whatever happens, happens. I’ll simply do whatever the landlord says." Hazel is exhibiting
A. docility.
B. proactivity.
C. adaptation level.
D. high levels of competence.

A. docility.

As you believe in Erikson’s theory, you would most likely view your 90-year-old grandmother as struggling with a conflict of
A. generativity versus stagnation.
B. integrity versus despair.
C. identity versus role confusion.
D. industry versus inferiority.

B. integrity versus despair.

Jeff is 73 years old. Lately, he’s been thinking about the things he’s done in his life—his relationships, his accomplishments, and other experiences he’s had. Which term best describes what Jeff is doing?
A. Life review
B. Despair
C. Proactivity
D. Socioemotional selectivity

A. Life review

After conducting a life review, 85-year-old Gus concludes that his life was riddled with inappropriate actions and basically stunk. Based on this review, Erikson would predict that Gus would
A. be very fearful of death.
B. become proactive.
C. regress back to an earlier stage of life.
D. exhibit generativity.

A. be very fearful of death.

Erikson would suggest that 80-year-old ____ has achieved integrity.
A. Elmer, who is highly self-conscious,
B. Christine, who is highly self-affirming,
C. Harold, who has good self-recognition skills,
D. Francis, who has excellent self-monitoring skills,

B. Christine, who is highly self-affirming,

When Kayla looks back on her life, she is filled with a sense of pride and feels good about what she’s done. Which term best describes these feelings?
A. Subjective well-being
B. Social convoy
C. Docility
D. Socioemotional selectivity

A. Subjective well-being

How do changes in the amygdala over time impact the regulation of emotion?
A. Younger adults have higher amygdala activation and lower emotional arousal
B. Younger adults have lower amygdala activation and higher emotional arousal
C. Older adults have higher amygdala activation and lower emotional arousal
D. Older adults have lower amygdala activation and lower emotional arousal

D. Older adults have lower amygdala activation and lower emotional arousal

Which statement about spirituality and health is true?
A. Higher levels of spirituality are associated with better physical and mental health
B. Higher levels of spirituality are associated with better physical but poorer mental health
C. Higher levels of spirituality are associated with better mental but poorer physical health
D. Lower levels of spirituality are associated with better physical and mental health

A. Higher levels of spirituality are associated with better physical and mental health

Native Americans tend to view spiritual elders
A. with disdain.
B. as wisdom-keepers.
C. as gods.
D. with skepticism.

B. as wisdom-keepers.

A clean break from employment is referred to as a ____ retirement.
A. "cusp"
B. "crisp"
C. "convoy"
D. "competent"

B. "crisp"

A pattern of full-time work, retirement, full-time work, another retirement provides a good example of _____ retirement.
A. crisp
B. social convoy
C. skilled
D. blurred

D. blurred

Gene is about to retire after coaching college basketball for 30 years. He has decided that rather than going "cold turkey" on coaching, he will take a low-paying part-time job as a high school coach to help ease him into retirement. Gene’s actions best exemplify
A. a bridge job.
B. integrity.
C. docility.
D. a social convoy.

A. a bridge job.

Concerning satisfaction in retirement,
A. no group has been found to show increased levels of satisfaction in retirement.
B. well-being tends to drop significantly during the first year following voluntary retirement.
C. forced retirement is associated with declines in physical and mental health.
D. early-life social challenges are almost always continued in the retirement years, even if you experience positive
interactions in middle adulthood.

C. forced retirement is associated with declines in physical and mental health.

Eric has maintained contact with six of his high school friends for the last 60 years. They often get together for activities, to socialize, and to simply spend time together. Eric and his longtime friends would be best described as a(n)
A. zone of maximal performance potential.
B. environmental press.
C. zone of minimal comfort.
D. social convoy.

D. social convoy.

Older women have ________ number of friends characterized by _______.
A. a greater; less intimacy
B. a greater; more intimacy
C. a smaller; more intimacy
D. a smaller; less intimacy

B. a greater; more intimacy

"Socioemotional selectivity" is a term that describes the process involved in
A. arriving at subjective well-being.
B. developing relationships with others.
C. maximizing one’s zone of maximum comfort.
D. mastering instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs).

B. developing relationships with others.

Hanna is a 70-year-old woman who has a choice: she can either go out with some old friends or make some new friends at the community center. Socioemotional selectivity theory would predict that if Hanna’s decision is based on emotional regulation, she will
A. choose to make new friends.
B. go out with her old friends.
C. stay home and see no one.
D. invite her old friends to the community center so that they can all make new friends.

B. go out with her old friends.

Compared to nonusers, heavy Internet users tend to have
A. fewer friends online and more friends offline.
B. more friends online and fewer friends offline.
C. fewer friends online and offline.
D. more friends online and offline.

D. more friends online and offline.

Sibling relationships are special in that they
A. vary across families.
B. typically last a lifetime.
C. are based on competition.
D. are emotionally based.

B. typically last a lifetime.

When comparing the average middle-aged married couple with the average older married couple, the older couple is more likely to be characterized as
A. unhappy.
B. disengaged.
C. similar.
D. docile.

C. similar.

After 45 years of marriage, Athena now has to take care of her husband, who has a major debilitating disease. Athena is likely to be ____ with her marriage than other older adults who are not caregivers for their spouses.
A. more satisfied
B. less satisfied
C. equally satisfied
D. satisfied in a different way

B. less satisfied

Which statement is true regarding the differences between grandparents and great-grandparents?
A. Grandparents are more likely to develop integrity.
B. The roles of grandparents are more diverse.
C. Great-grandparents are less likely to be proactive.
D. Social convoys are not important for great-grandparents.

B. The roles of grandparents are more diverse.

To be accurately classified as a frail older adult, an individual must
A. be very ill and have physical disabilities.
B. have the potential for becoming very ill and have mental disabilities.
C. be over 65 and be under constant medical care.
D. have less than one year to live.

A. be very ill and have physical disabilities.

Being able to take a bath, walk, and eat are all examples of
A. instrumental activities of daily living.
B. activities of daily living.
C. the zone of maximum comfort.
D. the zone of maximum performance potential.

B. activities of daily living.

In the United States, ____ would be considered an instrumental activity of daily living.
A. walking
B. opening a door
C. taking a bath
D. purchasing a car

D. purchasing a car

An elderly individual with few cognitive or physical limitations but who sometimes requires help with everyday living needs would most likely live in
A. a nursing home.
B. intermediate care.
C. skilled nursing care.
D. an assisted-living facility.

D. an assisted-living facility.

The main reason for a person to enter a nursing home is his or her
A. health.
B. age.
C. wealth.
D. spouse.

A. health.

Which of the following factors places elderly people at higher risk for fraud?
A. Unhappiness
B. Loneliness
C. Social isolation
D. Disability

B. Loneliness

Hubert, who is taking care of his elderly uncle, has recently been cashing his uncle’s social security checks and putting the money into his own account. As this is being done without his uncle’s knowledge, Hubert’s behavior would be classified as
A. psychological abuse.
B. abandonment.
C. material exploitation.
D. neglect.

C. material exploitation.

Social Security money is obtained from
A. money put away by workers over the course of their working life.
B. taxes on current workers’ payroll.
C. interest on a large federal investment fund.
D. a low-interest loan from the business sector.

B. taxes on current workers’ payroll.

The major problem facing Medicare involves the lack of
A. skilled nursing facilities.
B. a refusal by the government to fund via a payroll tax.
C. rising healthcare costs.
D. the increasing age of retirement.

C. rising healthcare costs.

The definition of death
A. varies within and between cultures.
B. is the same for everyone within a culture.
C. is the same across all cultures.
D. never changes.

A. varies within and between cultures.

Kim’s statement, "I cannot believe that I am dying so young, I have so much more to do," provides a nice example of the concept of death as a
A. mystery.
B. thief of meaning.
C. fear.
D. boundary.

B. thief of meaning.

A chart showing the number of teens who died from homicide during the past year represents death as a(n)
A. statistic.
B. analogy.
C. boundary.
D. anxiety.

A. statistic.

Who is clinically dead?
A. John, who is not responsive to pain
B. Naomi, who is not breathing and whose heart is not beating
C. Helga, who exhibits no cortical functioning
D. John, Naomi, and Helga, would all be considered clinically dead.

B. Naomi, who is not breathing and whose heart is not beating

A flat electroencephalogram for 10 minutes is one of the criteria for
A. clinical death.
B. euthanasia.
C. whole-brain death.
D. death as a mystery.

C. whole-brain death.

Individuals in permanent comas or persistent vegetative states
A. are considered dead both clinically and according to the whole-brain standard of death.
B. are considered dead by the clinical but not the whole-brain standard of death.
C. will not regain consciousness but do not meet the whole-brain standard of death.
D. will regain consciousness but do not meet the whole-brain standard of death.

C. will not regain consciousness but do not meet the whole-brain standard of death.

Dr. Rahman has made a career out of studying mercy killing and new surgical options to extend life. She is most likely interested in
A. grief.
B. death as a statistic.
C. bioethics.
D. death as an object.

C. bioethics.

By definition, euthanasia is defined as the practice of ending life for reasons of
A. mercy.
B. health.
C. speed.
D. religiosity.

A. mercy.

Dr. Steinmetz decides to follow the wishes of her patient and withhold treatment for the patient’s terminal cancer, thus allowing the patient to die. This is an example of
A. a near-death experience.
B. passive euthanasia.
C. bioethics.
D. active euthanasia.

B. passive euthanasia

While they differ in some respects, both a living will and a durable power of attorney
A. identify someone to act on your behalf if you become incapacitated.
B. make it legal for a physician to perform active euthanasia.
C. allow others to know one’s preferences concerning issues like whether you want to be put on life support.
D. cannot be written until a person is about to lose the ability to make his or her own decisions.

C. allow others to know one’s preferences concerning issues like whether you want to be put on life support.

According to research presented in your text, understanding how adults deal with death is probably best understood from the perspective of
____ theory.
A. cognitive-developmental
B. attachment
C. psychoanalytic
D. terror management

B. attachment

A(n) ____ is often used to describe the duration of time between the onset of dying and death itself.
A. death trajectory
B. end-of-life scenario
C. hospice
D. final scenario

A. death trajectory

Elizabeth Kübler-Ross’s stage theory of dying was initially developed as a research project
A. investigating how the terminally ill cope with dying.
B. probing into the suffering of inmates at Holocaust death camps.
C. designed to determine the impact of hospice care.
D. testing the effectiveness of an antidepressant medication.

A. investigating how the terminally ill cope with dying.

What is the correct sequence of Kübler-Ross’s original "five stages of dying"?
A. Depression, acceptance, denial, bargaining, anger
B. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
C. Anger, depression, denial, acceptance, bargaining
D. Bargaining, denial, acceptance, anger, depression

B. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Tricia has just been informed that she has terminal cancer. According to Kübler-Ross’s original model, her first reaction would involve
A. depression.
B. anger.
C. bargaining.
D. denial.

D. denial.

Devin has been told he only has a few more months to live. He is totally unable to deal with people, because he knows everyone he sees is going to outlive him. "It’s not fair. Why is this happening to me?" is something he says over and over to himself. He feels frustrated and alone. He is most likely in the ____ stage of dying.
A. depression
B. anger
C. denial
D. bargaining

B. anger

Sandy knows she is going to die in a few months. She seems calm and concerned more about how to help her family deal with her death than with her own mortality. She seems to be disconnecting herself from people and things and at peace. Sandy is most likely in the ____ stage of dying.
A. denial
B. bargaining
C. depression
D. acceptance

D. acceptance

Brent has been diagnosed with terminal cancer. Today, he spent hours praying: "Please, I’ll do anything. Just give me one more chance. I’m so sorry. I’ll be the best person, just please give me another chance." Brent is most likely in the ____ stage of dying.
A. bargaining
B. acceptance
C. depression
D. denial

A. bargaining

In Kübler-Ross’s original theory, the emotion of ____ was thought to immediately precede feelings of acceptance.
A. anger
B. euphoria
C. depression
D. resignation

C. depression

All stage theories of dying are based on the notion that
A. the faster the death trajectory, the better.
B. there are great cultural differences in the dying process.
C. there is a specific direction to the developmental pattern of reacting to one’s death.
D. the unconscious mind plays a major role in death anxiety.

C. there is a specific direction to the developmental pattern of reacting to one’s death.

Jensen is dying. She is explaining to her family that she would like to spend her last days alone in her country home with just her husband. These arrangements are an example of
A.passive euthanasia.
B. denial.
C. death anxiety.
D. a final scenario.

D. a final scenario.

The hospice philosophy is best summarized as
A. "prevent death at all costs."
B. "promote death with dignity."
C. "die a natural death (i.e., drugs have no place in death)."
D. "everyone should die at home."

B. "promote death with dignity."

Ninety-year-old Albert is terminally ill and has decided to die at home. He has also decided that he would like to have visits from a nurse who can provide assistance in making his process of dying more comfortable. This indicates that Albert is involved in ____ hospice care.
A. implicit
B. outpatient
C. passive
D. nonpalliative

B. outpatient

Bereavement is best defined as the
A. emotions expressed when we grieve.
B. rituals we go through when we grieve.
C. state or condition caused by loss through death.
D. condition created in one’s self when we are dying.

C. state or condition caused by loss through death.

For most European Americans, _____ would be the best example of a mourning ritual.
A. being cremated
B. wearing black
C. having an open casket
D. writing a will

B. wearing black

Which is the best advice for an individual trying to overcome grief?
A. Strengthen ties to the deceased
B. Repress the loss
C. Express the emotions you feel
D. Adopt ways of living identical to those used when the deceased was still alive

C. Express the emotions you feel

The grieving process is much ____ than most people believe it to be.
A. shorter
B. easier
C. less complex
D. longer

D. longer

Grief work is best defined as the
A. physiological reaction to bereavement.
B. psychological coming of terms with bereavement.
C. social reaction to dying.
D. bioethical debate over dying.

B. psychological coming of terms with bereavement.

Chung is trying to get through numerous conflicting emotions and come to grips with his bereavement. Chung is involved in
A. a near-death experience.
B. clinical death.
C. grief work.
D. passive euthanasia

C. grief work.

According to Muller and Thompson (2003), the ____ theme of grief relates to what someone does to deal with loss in terms of what helps
that person.
A. coping
B. affect
C. narrative
D. relationship

A. coping

Whenever Abe sees the beach, he’s reminded of his deceased spouse and feels very upset. This represents which of Muller and Thompson’s (2003) themes of grief?
A. Coping
B. Relationship
C. Affect
D. Narrative

C. Affect

The fact that circulatory problems increase following the death of a spouse indicates that there is a(n) _____ component to grief.
A. psychological
B. bioethical
C. physiological
D. emotional

C. physiological

Jefferson’s brother died on the 4th of July. Now, every 4th of July, Jefferson gets very sad and thinks about his dead brother. This experience of Jefferson’s is best described as a(n) ____ reaction.
A. anniversary
B. anticipatory
C. passive
D. bioethical

A. anniversary

For most people, grief tends to peak within ______ following the death of a loved one.
A. one month
B. three months
C. six months
D. twelve months

C. six months

Which of the following most accurately describes the length of time people experience grief?
A. Grief typically lasts about a year.
B. Grief lasts approximately three times the length of the relationship.
C. Grief over loved ones goes away with time.
D. Grief can last for extended periods of time at great intensity.

D. Grief can last for extended periods of time at great intensity.

The comment, "She died unexpectedly and way before her time," is best associated with Bonanno and Kaltman’s (1999) ____ component of grief.
A. emotional-regulation
B. continuation of subjective meaning associated with loss
C. changing representation of lost relationship
D. context of the loss

D. context of the loss

Shortly after the death of her husband Hatcher, Terri felt fine. However, as she has begun to grieve, she actually appears to have become more depressed. This reaction best fits with the
A. Kübler-Ross stage theory.
B. anniversary reaction perspective.
C. normal dying trajectory.
D. grief work as rumination hypothesis.

D. grief work as rumination hypothesis.

According to the dual-process model of coping (DPM), ____ are the two main type of stressors.
A. implicit and explicit
B. loss orientation and restoration orientation
C. traumatic and separation
D. active euthanasia and passive euthanasia

B. loss orientation and restoration orientation

The defining element of separation distress during prolonged grief is that it
A. interferes with daily activities.
B. must involve a child-parent dyad.
C. is based on disbelief about death.
D. is an emotionless reaction.

A. interferes with daily activities.

Which emotions are most common to an individual who is experiencing prolonged grief?
A. Relief and euphoria
B. Euphoria and guilt
C. Guilt and self-blame
D. Self-blame and relief

C. Guilt and self-blame

Which comment would have most likely come from a concrete operational thinker?
A. "I am not going to die because I sleep under the covers where the Bogeyman can’t get me."
B. "Grandpa is dead, but he’ll come to visit us next week."
C. "Even though I can’t imagine what death is like, it must be wonderful."
D. "When you’re dead, you’re dead."

D. "When you’re dead, you’re dead."

Which statement about death of a parent during adolescence is true?
A. About 50 percent of teens lose a parent
B. The response to the death is much more intense that the death of a sibling
C. The nonbereaved peers of teens tend to be unwilling to discuss the death
D. Teens seldom feel a presence of their deceased parent

C. The nonbereaved peers of teens tend to be unwilling to discuss the death

____ tend to have the most intense feelings concerning death.
A. Young children
B. Adolescents
C. Young adults
D. Older adults

C. Young adults

Which is devastating for a parent?
A. Death of a child before birth
B. Death of a young child
C. Death of a young-adult child
D. All of these events are devastating

D. All of these events are devastating

After Sarah died, Ashley felt like she had lost a source of guidance in her life. Sarah’s death made Ashley reevaluate her role as a parent and the importance of the time spent with her children. In addition, Ashley now feels as though she is "next" to die. Sarah was probably Ashley’s
A. mother.
B. sister.
C. friend.
D. grandmother.

A. mother.

Role transitions always
A.occur at the same age for individuals within a given cultural population.
B. involve family relationships.
C. lead to significant increases in stress.
D. involve the acquisition of new responsibilities

D. involve the acquisition of new responsibilities

In most non-Western developing cultures, ____ is the most important determinant of adult status.
A. completing college
B. marriage
C. getting a job
D.having a child

B. marriage

A rite of passage is best classified as a(n)
A. implicit stereotype
B. biological event.
C. reflective judgment.
D. ritual

D. ritual

The youngest age at which most colleges label an individual as a returning adult student is ____.
A. 25
B. 35
C. 45
D. 55

A. 25

Which of the following statements about returning students is false?
A. Returning students tend to be problem-solvers.
B. Returning students tend to need more direction from instructors.
C. Returning students tend to experience conflicts between school, work, and family.
D. Returning students often have life experience relevant to coursework.

B. Returning students tend to need more direction from instructors.

In what way is Cheyenne different from Ciara, her teenage daughter?
A. Cheyenne is more likely to have unprotected sex .
B. Cheyenne is less likely to speed while driving.
C. Ciara is more likely to comply with social norms.
D. Ciara is less likely to shoplift

B. Cheyenne is less likely to speed while driving.

Erikson would argue that 30-year-old Rollie is currently experiencing a crisis involving
A. trust versus mistrust.
B. identity versus role confusion.
C. autonomy versus shame and doubt.
D. intimacy versus isolation.

D. intimacy versus isolation.

Dr. Winslow is doing a health survey of 200 young adults. If this group is typical of young adults in the United States, ____ of them will say
they are in good to excellent health.
A. 188
B. 164
C. 132
D. 106

A. 188

Kofi was a 27-year-old male living in the United States, who just died. What was the most likely cause of Kofi’s death?
A. Cardiovascular disease
B. Homicide
C. Cancer
D. An accident

D. An accident

Smoking represents a major medical problem in the United States with about ____ people each year dying from smoking-related disorders.
A. 4,000
B. 40,000
C. 400,000
D. 4,000,000

C. 400,000

Gallo drinks exactly two glasses of wine per day. As a result, Gallo can expect to
A. end up in a treatment center for alcoholism.
B. be at risk for cardiovascular disease.
C. be labeled a binge drinker.
D. experience some health-related benefits from his actions.

D. experience some health-related benefits from his actions.

Jimmy goes to a party with his college buddies and has six beers in a row. Jimmy’s behavior would be best classified as
A. alcoholism.
B. light drinking.
C. binge drinking.
D. purge drinking

C. binge drinking.

Amanda is physically dependent on alcohol and experiences withdrawal symptoms when she doesn’t drink. Amanda’s experience with
alcohol would be best described as
A. an addiction.
B. a rite of passage.
C. binge drinking.
D. healthy behavior.

A. an addiction.

At a chemical level, alcohol addiction results in chemical changes that
A. cause the body to crave alcohol.
B. destroy all GABA receptors.
C. reduce levels of serotonin and dopamine within the brain.
D. increase cellular develop in the medulla oblongata

A. cause the body to crave alcohol.

Bernice is very interested in studying how the energy needs of the human body change through the life span. In other words, Bernice is
interested in studying
A. cholesterol.
B. metabolism.
C. lipoproteins.
D. addiction

B. metabolism.

_____ help keep your arteries clear.
A. Trans fats
B. Serotonin
C. High-density lipoproteins
D. Steroids

C. High-density lipoproteins

Who is at the greatest risk of a heart attack?
A. Forrest, who has high levels of LDLs and low levels of HDLs
B. Tucker, who has low level of LDLs and high levels of HDLs
C. Sawyer, who has low levels of both LDLs and HDLs
D. Gump, who has high levels of both LDLs and HDLs

A. Forrest, who has high levels of LDLs and low levels of HDLs

A doctor is most likely to recommend that you consume higher levels of ____ to increase your HDL level.
A. fiber
B. fat
C. Sodium
D. Yogurt

A. fiber

What is BMI?
A. A measure of cholesterol in the blood
B. A personality test
C. A device used to assess binge drinking
D. An index related to total body fat

D. An index related to total body fat

Socioeconomic status and _____ are the two most important social influences on health.
A. education
B. occupation
C. marital status
D. religious status

A. education

Intellectual multidirectionality is based on the premise that
A. no two people develop the same way intellectually.
B. there is more than one kind of intelligence.
C. most aspects of intelligence cannot be modified.
D. with age, some aspects of intelligence improve while others may decline.

D. with age, some aspects of intelligence improve while others may decline.

Which is not a "primary mental ability?"
A. Number
B. Inductive reasoning
C. Spatial orientation
D. Fluid intelligence

D. Fluid intelligence

Which is not a factor identified by Schaie as a variable that helps reduce the risk of cognitive decline in old age?
A. Living in good housing
B. Having a flexible personality style
C. Being satisfied with life
D. Being single

D. Being single

Crystallized intelligence is
A. acquired across one’s life.
B. best exemplified by sensory integration.
C. not very useful in solving real-life tasks.
D. best assessed on timed, standardized IQ tests.

A. acquired across one’s life.

If you wanted to show that age decreases a certain type of intelligence, you should focus on testing participants’
A. general intelligence.
B. fluid intelligence.
C. crystallized intelligence.
D. primary intelligence.

B. fluid intelligence.

The theory that proposes that intelligence comes from a distributed and integrated network of neurons in the parietal and frontal lobes of the
brain is called
A. parieto-frontal integration theory.
B. parietal distribution theory.
C. lobe integration network theory.
D. neuron network distribution theory.

A. parieto-frontal integration theory.

Postformal adult thinkers differ from adolescent formal operational thinkers in that the adults are more likely to
A. use deductive logic.
B. consider situational circumstances.
C. be swayed by their own experience.
D. make quick decisions on complex problems.

B. consider situational circumstances.

Which constitutes the highest level of thinking in adulthood?
A. Conventional thought
B. Sensorimotor thought
C. Postformal thought
D. Hypothetical-deductive thought

C. Postformal thought

When Satoru ponders the question, "How can light be both a wave and a particle?" he is engaging in
A. a role transition.
B. a rite of passage.
C. reflective judgment.
D. multidirectionality.

C. reflective judgment.

Ralphie believes that following school rules is important because a teacher’s authority should not be questioned. Ralphie would probably be
closest to the _____ stage of reflective judgment.
A. initial
B. halfway
C. later
D. last

A. initial

Which of the following individuals is most likely to effectively integrate emotion into their thinking?
A. A female high school student
B. A male college student
C. A female in her mid 30s
D. A male in his mid 40s

D. A male in his mid 40s

Which of the following best describes the way middle-aged people think about a young couple that eloped over their parents’ objection?
A. They emphasize the role that the parents should play in the situation.
B. They focus on respecting the parents in this situation.
C. They emphasize the pragmatic factors, such as age, in this situation.
D. They focus on the importance of love in this situation.

C. They emphasize the pragmatic factors, such as age, in this situation.

A life-span construct represents a
A. unified sense of one’s past, present, and future.
B. multidimensional conceptualization of intelligence.
C. fear that when people act in negative ways expected by others, they are doing a disservice to all members of their sex.
D. personal timetable concerning when someone else should experience some event.

A. unified sense of one’s past, present, and future.

Harouna is thinking about graduating from graduate school and finding a job in which he can use his skills. This is an example of
A. an implicit stereotype.
B. a life story.
C. a scenario.
D. reflective judgment.

C. a scenario.

Which best reflects a "social clock?"
A. Donald, who wants to be a millionaire by age 30
B. Ivana, who has been married four times
C. Melania, who can accurately remember her adolescent "coming-out" party
D. Trump, who is presently going through puberty

A. Donald, who wants to be a millionaire by age 30

According to McAdams, a person’s life story is
A. set in a single direction and uninfluenced by culture.
B. set in a single direction and influenced by culture.
C. fashioned, refashioned, and uninfluenced by culture.
D. fashioned, refashioned, and influenced by culture.

D. fashioned, refashioned, and influenced by culture.

Gabriella often thinks of herself as a mother and dreams of herself as an actress, but is afraid she’ll end up suffering from alcoholism. These
are examples of
A. stereotype threats.
B. possible selves.
C. reflective judgments.
D. life-span constructs.

B. possible selves.

Kate thinks that no matter what she does, she will not be able to do well in her developmental psychology class. This perception is a sample
of Kate’s
A. rite of passage.
B. life story.
C. crystallized intelligence.
D. personal control beliefs.

D. personal control beliefs.

Merlin believes that he can get what he wants if he tries hard enough. This indicates that he has _____ sense of personal control.
A. no
B. a low
C. a moderate
D. a high

D. a high

Erikson saw young adulthood as involving the psychosocial conflict between generativity and stagnation.
A. True
B. False

B. False

Which characterizes most friendships?
A. They are based on choice and high reciprocity.
B. They are based on choice and low reciprocity.
C. They are based on no choice and high reciprocity.
D. They are based on no choice and low reciprocity.

A. They are based on choice and high reciprocity.

The initial stage in friendship development is called
A. buildup.
B. continuation.
C. acquaintanceship.
D. deterioration.

C. acquaintanceship.

Siegfried and Roy have been friends for many years. In the past few months, however, they seem to have less in common, and Roy has been
thinking more about hanging out with a potential new friend. Siegfried and Roy appear to be in the ____ stage of friendship development.
A. buildup
B. continuation
C. acquaintanceship
D. deterioration

D. deterioration

People tend to have the most acquaintances/friends during
A. young adulthood.
B. middle adulthood.
C. late adulthood.
D. latest adulthood.

A. young adulthood.

Sanford’s friendships tend to be based on self-disclosure and intimacy. This exemplifies the ____ component of friendship.
A. contextual
B. sociability
C. shared
D. affective

D. affective

The fact that Bert’s friend Ernie keeps him amused by telling funny stories best illustrates the _____ dimension of friendship.
A. shared
B. affective
C. sociability
D. communal

C. sociability

Calliope is a typical woman who works in an office and likes to play handball. Who is most likely to be her friend?
A. Athena, who also likes to play handball
B. Hera, who works in the same office
C. Aphrodite, who is someone in whom Calliope can confide
D. Venus, who likes to party

C. Aphrodite, who is someone in whom Calliope can confide

Hansel (a male) and Gretel (a female) are best friends. If their cross-gender friendship is typical of most, Hansel’s biggest misperception
concerning Gretel would likely be
A. overperceiving Gretel’s level of sexual interest in him.
B. overperceiving Gretel’s need for emotional intimacy in the friendship.
C. underperceiving Gretel’s intelligence.
D. underperceiving Gretel’s jealousy.

A. overperceiving Gretel’s level of sexual interest in him.

Which is not one of the three components of love, according to Sternberg?
A. Intimacy
B. Sociability
C. Commitment
D. Passion

B. Sociability

Juliet wants Romeo physically, and she wants him badly! Juliet is most likely experiencing
A. intimacy.
B. passion.
C. commitment.
D. companionate love.

B. passion.

When discussing his new girlfriend, Mickey says, "I can tell her everything about myself." Mickey clearly feels ____ toward his girlfriend.
A. commitment
B. passion
C. infatuation
D. intimacy

D. intimacy

Toni and Tim have just gotten married. Which component of love is most likely to be stronger 20 years from now than it is today?
A. Commitment
B. Passion
C. Intimacy
D. Infatuation

A. Commitment

The "intimacy" component of love is most similar to the ____ theme of adult friendships.
A. sociability
B. shared or communal nature
C. passion
D. affective

D. affective

According to Kahlil Gibran, author of The Prophet, the two sides of love are
A. passion and intimacy.
B. fear and friendship.
C. ecstasy and pain.
D. sex and caring.

C. ecstasy and pain.

The assortative mating theory proposes that initial mate selection is based primarily on
A. similarity.
B. instincts.
C. random factors.
D. love.

A. similarity.

Kalminjn and Flap (2001) found that ____ tended to promote strong homogamy in relationships.
A. meeting other members of one’s family
B. living in the same neighborhood
C. meeting in school
D. seeking a mate with different characteristics than yourself

C. meeting in school

Surveys indicate that nearly ________ couples in the United States meet online.
A. 1 in every 5
B. 1 in every 10
C. 1 in every 15
D. 1 in every 20

A. 1 in every 5

Arnold is a highly educated, intelligent young man with a less than pleasing disposition. As such, he is most likely to be viewed as an
excellent potential mate
A. in every culture in the world.
B. nowhere in the world.
C. in some cultures but not in other cultures.
D. only in the United States.

C. in some cultures but not in other cultures.

Research on the biology of physical attraction suggests that neurochemicals related to ____ underlie the feeling of exhilaration that often is
experienced when you fall in love.
A. barbiturates
B. hallucinogens
C. amphetamines
D. narcotics

C. amphetamines

A relationship in which one individual becomes violent or aggressive toward the other is classified as a(n) ____ relationship.
A. abusive
B. consummate
C. reciprocal
D. homogenous

A. abusive

The defining belief among individuals experiencing "battered woman’s syndrome" is that
A. the abuse is tied to a sense of personal high self-esteem.
B. the abuse is not harmful to them.
C. the abuser is acting out of unconditional love.
D. they are powerless to get away from the abuse.

D. they are powerless to get away from the abuse.

O’Leary (1993) presents a continuum of aggressive behavior in abusive relationships anchored by ____ on one end and ____ on the other
end.
A. physical aggression; verbal aggression
B. severe aggression; murder
C. verbal aggression; murder
D. physical aggression; murder

C. verbal aggression; murder

Which statement is true?
A. Women are not as violent as men in heterosexual relationships but are more violent in homosexual relationships.
B. Men are not as violent as women in heterosexual relationships but are more violent in homosexual relationships.
C. Women are not as violent as men in either heterosexual relationships or homosexual relationships.
D. Men are not as violent as women in either heterosexual relationships or homosexual relationships.

C. Women are not as violent as men in either heterosexual relationships or homosexual relationships.

For most people, the decision to remain permanently single is
A. made in the teenage years.
B. due to the untimely death of their "one true love."
C. driven by economic factors.
D. the result of gradual circumstances, not a lifestyle choice.

D. the result of gradual circumstances, not a lifestyle choice.

Ken and Barbie are sexually active singles who are discussing the idea of moving in together. They are definitely contemplating
A. forming an extended family.
B. homogamy.
C. cohabitation.
D. assortative mating.

C. cohabitation.

The primary difference between limited and premarital cohabitation involves
A. intention to marry.
B. the duration of the cohabitation.
C. the degree of sexual involvement.
D. tax benefits.

A. intention to marry.

Each of these women has just married for the first time. Who is most likely to get divorced?
A. Lucy, who is 17
B. Lacy, who is 23
C. Lanny, who is 29
D. Laurie, who is 35

A. Lucy, who is 17

Homogamy is ____ with marital satisfaction.
A. unrelated
B. positively related
C. inversely related
D. negatively related

B. positively related

According to exchange theory, the key factor in determining whether an exchange will increase marital satisfaction is the
A. length of time the individuals have been married.
B. age of the participants.
C. potential monetary cost of the exchange.
D. perceived equity of the exchange.

D. perceived equity of the exchange.

Which best describes the typical pattern of marital satisfaction from honeymoon through retirement?
A. High to low to high
B. High to medium to low
C. Medium to high to low
D. Low to medium to high

A. High to low to high

According to the vulnerability-stress-adaptation model of marriage, marital quality
A. is a dynamic process resulting from a couple’s ability to handle stress.
B. declines when couples are "too" alike.
C. is predicted by the age of the couple at marriage.
D. means there is one strong member of a couple and one weak member.

A. is a dynamic process resulting from a couple’s ability to handle stress.

Which statement concerning children and marital satisfaction is true?
A. Couples with children show a decline in marital satisfaction while those without children show an increase.
C. Couples who are child-free due to infertility tend to have high levels of marital satisfaction.
C. African-American couples tend to show little increased conflict due to the birth of a child.
D. The birth of a child is usually viewed as a positive event even though it is associated with a decrease in marital
satisfaction.

D. The birth of a child is usually viewed as a positive event even though it is associated with a decrease in marital satisfaction.

The "empty nest" is most likely to occur for parents in
A. adolescence.
B. young adulthood.
C. middle age.
D. old age.

C. middle age.

Troy and Helen are both 55 and have been married for 20 years. However, they have grown apart and essentially live as housemates. Troy
and Helen are best classified as
A. emotionally divorced.
B. empty nested.
C. being in part-time cohabitation.
D. being in a substitute marriage.

A. emotionally divorced.

According to research presented in your text, what can be done to keep a marriage happy for a long time?
A. Be up front about what bothers you about your spouse
B. Do not intrude on your spouse’s private life
C. Be forgiving
D. Confide in friends

C. Be forgiving

Which constitutes an "extended family?"
A. Two parents and one child
B. Two parents and six children
C. Two parents, one child, and one grandfather
D. Two cohabitating (but not married) adults

C. Two parents, one child, and one grandfather

It is estimated that it will cost middle-income parents about ____ to raise a child born in 2007 from birth through high school.
A. $80,000
B. $180,000
C. $280,000
D. $800,000

C. $280,000

The average age at which a woman gives birth to her first child has changed because of _____ and women postponing having children for
career purposes.
A. an increase in teen birthrate
B. a decrease in teen birthrate
C. an increase in the age of menopause
D. a decrease in the age of menopause

B. a decrease in teen birthrate

Ashley is 35 years old and just had her first baby. She is less likely to ____ than younger mothers.
A. spend time with the baby
B. be anxious about being a parent
C. be sensitive to her baby’s needs
D. be affectionate toward her baby

B. be anxious about being a parent

Thirty-six-year-old Alexander and 25-year-old Jonathan are typical first-time fathers. We would expect that
A. Alexander will spend more time with his child than Jonathan.
B. Alexander and Jonathan will spend about the same amount of time with their children.
C. Jonathan will spend more time with his child than Alexander.
D. Jonathan will spend more time with his child if his child is male and Alexander’s is female.

A. Alexander will spend more time with his child than Jonathan.

Which statement best describes familism?
A. Go forth and multiply as often as possible
B. Violence aimed at specific members of the family
C. Family needs are more important than individual needs
D. The intentional desire to remain childless

C. Family needs are more important than individual needs

The opposite of familism is
A. homogamy.
B. individuality.
C. nuclear.
D. adoption.

B. individuality.

Studies of the parenting of multiracial children in the United States and New Zealand found that
A. a parent from a racial minority group played the largest role in guiding the child’s development of his or her ethnic
identity.
B. moms played the largest role in guiding the child’s development of ethnic minority identity, even when that child was not
of that ethnic group.
C. dads played the largest role in guiding the child’s development of ethnic minority identity, even when that child was not
of that ethnic group.
D. parents of these children tend to see their children through "ethnic blinders" and do not typically attempt to instill their
children with a sense of ethnic identity.

B. moms played the largest role in guiding the child’s development of ethnic minority identity, even when that child was not of that ethnic group.

In the United States, the out-of-wedlock birthrate
A. is highest in African Americans.
B. is highest in Latinos.
C. is highest in European Americans.
D. does not vary by ethnicity.

A. is highest in African Americans.

Lisa and Phil are more likely to end up divorced if they are
A. both European Americans.
B. both Hispanic Americans.
C. both African Americans.
D. from different ethnic backgrounds.

D. from different ethnic backgrounds.

Jillian and Nick often express negative emotions toward each other, which means they are most likely to experience
A. early divorce.
B. later divorce.
C. marital satisfaction.
D. infidelity.

A. early divorce.

The main purpose of the Collaborative Divorce Project is to
A. assist same-sex marriage partners when they "divorce."
B. encourage legislators to consider all divorces and being "no fault."
C. address custody issues involving younger children.
D. ensure that more couples stay married.

C. address custody issues involving younger children.

According to Lips-Wiersma (2003), which is not one of the four common meanings people derive from work?
A. Developing self
B. Economic independence
C. Union with others
D. Serving others

B. Economic independence

Holland categorizes occupations using the dimensions of
A. interpersonal settings and lifestyle.
B. lifestyle and income.
C. income and education level.
D. education level and interpersonal settings.

A. interpersonal settings and lifestyle.

Super’s theory of occupational development places individuals along a continuum of
A. job satisfaction.
B. occupational priorities.
C. comparable worth.
D. vocational maturity.

D. vocational maturity.

Which developmental task would most likely characterize Dave, who is in his mid-teens?
A. Implementation
B. Stabilization
C. Consolidation
D. Crystallization

D. Crystallization

Though Jenny has not decided on a career, she has taken a number of temporary jobs in hopes of finding something she really likes. Jenny
is most likely in Super’s ____ phase of developmental tasks.
A. Deceleration
B. Stabilization
C. implementation
D. maintenance

C. implementation

The selection of a specific occupational marks the beginning of the ____ stage of occupational development.
A. maintenance
B. implementation
C. stabilization
D. decline

C. stabilization

Since being promoted to an executive position a few years ago, Alison continued to find ways to work her way up the corporate ladder.
Alison is most likely in Super’s ____ phase of developmental tasks.
A. retirement
B. consolidation
C. specification
D. implementation

B. consolidation

Kurt always had visions of a very extravagant, luxurious, happy life as a rock star. When he finally became a rock star, he found it to be
lonelier and far less satisfying than he had imagined. Kurt is experiencing
A. the glass ceiling.
B. occupational priorities.
C. a dream.
D. reality shock.

D. reality shock.

When Debra started her new job, she met Rosalind, an experienced worker who took Debra "under her wing." Rosalind gave Debra many
pointers and was always there when Debra had a question about what to do or why she needed to do it. Rosalind served as a ____ for
Debra.
A. mentor
B. career plateau
C. realistic type
D. conventional type

A. mentor

Mutt and Jeff both work at the glue factory. Recently, Mutt, who is a more experienced worker, has begun to establish a protégé-mentor
relationship with Jeff. As this process has just begun, it is best characterized as being in the ____ phase.
A. initiation
B. separation
C. redefinition
D. cultivation

A. initiation

Bonnie and Clyde had a mentor-protégé relationship that lasted years. They now no longer view this as a mentor-protégé relationship but one
of equal-status colleagues. This suggests that their relationship is in the _____ phase.
A. initiation
B. separation
C. redefinition
D. cultivation

C. redefinition

How are mentoring and generativity related?
A. Mentoring is one avenue for achieving generativity.
B. Generativity causes mentoring.
C. Individuals who mentor are less likely to express generativity.
D. Mentoring is done by the employee, and generativity is done by the employer

A. Mentoring is one avenue for achieving generativity.

Job satisfaction in individuals with a good fit between themselves and their occupation tends to
A. increase with age.
B. remain stable across time.
C. decrease with age.
D. follow no clear pattern.

A. increase with age.

Which statement about the development of job satisfaction is true?
A. Blue-collar workers’ level of job satisfaction rises quicker than that of white-collar workers.
B. Increases in job satisfaction are best predicted solely by a worker’s age.
C. Job satisfaction may be cyclical regardless of age.
D. When older workers begin to make work less of a focus in their lives, it takes more to keep them satisfied with work.

C. Job satisfaction may be cyclical regardless of age.

Edsel is an autoworker on an assembly line. When asked to comment on his job, Edsel says, "First, I am a nothing to this company.
Second, my ‘do-nothing’ job serves no purpose in the production of automobiles." Edsel is best described as
A. burned out.
B. generative.
C. having poor occupational priorities.
D. alienated.

D. alienated.

Which manager’s strategy for preventing alienation in company workers will probably work best?
A. Judith’s, who wants to cut salaries to increase the likelihood that workers will continue because they like their job, not
because they make money
B. Michael’s, who wants to help alleviate job stress by making sure workers know nothing of the day-to-day operations of
the company
C. Colleen’s, who wants to include workers in the company’s decision-making process
D. Dennis’s, who wants to fire workers at random so that no one will ever know if they are going to have a job tomorrow or
not

C. Colleen’s, who wants to include workers in the company’s decision-making process

Occupational burnout comes from excessive
A. feelings of exploitation.
B.disconnection from coworkers.
C. underutilization.
D. belief that one’s job really doesn’t matter to the company.

A. feelings of exploitation.

As the owner of a business worried about employee burnout, you should attempt to
A. reduce interoffice communication.
B. reassure workers that what they do at an individual level does not really impact the overall business.
C. provide regular feedback to workers about their performance.
D. add more bureaucratic paperwork.

C. provide regular feedback to workers about their performance.

Devin was born in 1950. As such, he is best classified as part of the _____ generation.
A. lost
B. baby-boomer
C. generation X
D. millennial

B. baby-boomer

Gen-X women
A. seldom start their own business.
B. often negotiate on more than just salaries.
C. reject the idea of home-based businesses.
D. tend to be unconcerned about childcare issues.

B. often negotiate on more than just salaries.

Which tends to be considered a feminine-valued characteristic?
A. Independence
B. Interdependence
C. Self-sufficiency
D. Competitiveness

B. Interdependence

A key reason for women leaving the workforce is that they feel
A. employers demand too much collaboration.
B. that employment is a masculine trait.
C. technologically inept.
D. disconnected from the workplace.

D. disconnected from the workplace.

As he has a same-ethnicity mentor, Chappell is likely to receive ____ than his friend Dave who has a mentor from another ethnic group.
A. more direct financial assistance
B. more psychosocial support
C. less clear career advice
D. less push to move up the corporate ladder

B. more psychosocial support

The textbook defines gender discrimination as something that
A. involves the denial of a job.
B. only affects women.
C. is very uncommon.
D. is found only in ethnic minority populations

A. involves the denial of a job.

A "glass ceiling" is best described as a(n)
A. barrier preventing advancement in a company.
B. sex-based form of rapid advancement in a company.
C. example of the use of the reasonable woman standard.
D. method for encouraging mentoring of ethnic minority workers.

A. barrier preventing advancement in a company.

Pay equity specifically involves equal pay for
A. all jobs.
B. equivalent jobs.
C. all ethnic groups.
D. both sexes.

B. equivalent jobs.

Which statement about sexual harassment is true?
A. The incidence of harassment has been reliably identified
B. Harassment has little negative psychological impact
C. It does not occur in males
D. It can have negative consequences even when the degree of harassment is low

D. It can have negative consequences even when the degree of harassment is low

The Oncale v. Sundowner Offshore Services Supreme Court case (1998) ruled that men could be victims of sexual harassment and also
established a precedent barring
A. teacher-student harassment.
B. same-sex harassment.
C. age discrimination.
D. workplace romance for those in government jobs.

B. same-sex harassment.

Which best exemplifies career plateauing?
A. Taking on a new job in order to increase one’s salary
B. Signing up for a college course that may help you get a promotion
C. Experiencing a career dream
D. A longtime employee decides not to seek a promotion

D. A longtime employee decides not to seek a promotion

Which statement is true?
A. Caring for an older parent is less stressful than caring for a child
B. Caring for a child is less stressful than caring for an older parent
C. Caring for a child or an older parent are both stressful
D. Neither caring for a child nor caring for an older parent leads to stress

C. Caring for a child or an older parent are both stressful

Gail is a work supervisor who is very supportive of her workers’ needs in regard to childcare and other family issues. Because of this, it is
likely that Gail’s workers will
A. report more job satisfaction.
B. report more job-family conflict.
C. experience greater burn out.
D. be more likely to alter their "reasonable person" standard.

A. report more job satisfaction.

The 1993 Family Medical Leave Act gave people the right to
A. unpaid time off to care for dependents.
B. sue for gender discrimination.
C. paid daycare for infants under the age of 18 months.
D. sue for sexual harassment.

A. unpaid time off to care for dependents.

A Swedish study showed that most fathers who took parental leave when their child was born
A. never returned to work.
B. were more likely to continue their involvement in childcare.
C. increased their work involvement.
D. took primary responsibility for their child’s care.

B. were more likely to continue their involvement in childcare.

A movie producer is looking for someone to play the role of a domestic servant. She wants to cast someone who has significant experience
with all kinds of housework in their everyday life. Based on this criterion, who is least likely to get the role?
A. Julie, a European-American female
B. Jed, a European-American male
C. Matt, an African-American male
D. Alonzo, a Hispanic-American male

B. Jed, a European-American male

Which couple is likely to be experiencing the most inter-role conflict?
A. Willy and Tina, who do not have any children
B. Shaun and Joanna, who have two preschool-age children
C. Karen and Jim, whose children are now in college
D. Michelle and Kenny, who are both retired

B. Shaun and Joanna, who have two preschool-age children

To qualify as "leisure," an activity must
A. involve physical exertion.
B. be discretionary.
C. involve some monetary payment
D. be creative.

B. be discretionary.

Research has found that
A. the positive impacts of a vacation can be eliminated by the workload created by the vacation.
B. participation in leisure activities tend to weaken family attachments.
C. there is a negative correlation between frequency of leisure activities and social acceptance.
D. the more extreme leisure activity a spouse chooses, the less likelihood of it creating family conflict.

A. the positive impacts of a vacation can be eliminated by the workload created by the vacation.

Osteoporosis is best thought of as involving a loss of bone
A. brittleness.
B. porousness.
C. hormones.
D. mass.

D. mass.

Misha often experiences severe swelling and joint pain in her fingers and wrists each morning. This pattern of symptoms is most likely due to
A. rheumatoid arthritis.
B. osteoarthritis.
C. the climacteric.
D. osteoporosis.

A. rheumatoid arthritis.

The defining element of "the climacteric" involves the loss of
A. the natural ability to produce children.
B. cancer-fighting agents.
C. emotional stability.
D. blood flow through the circulatory system.

A. the natural ability to produce children.

Which are hormonal-related symptoms of menopause?
A. Poor respiration and hot flashes
B. Hot flashes and vaginal dryness
C. Vaginal dryness and joint stiffness
D. Joint stiffness and poor respiration

B. Hot flashes and vaginal dryness

Tom has always wanted to be a father but has not yet found an acceptable partner. He is now 35 years old, healthy, and beginning to be
concerned about how much longer he will remain fertile. When he asks his doctor about this, his doctor tells him that he will probably be
capable of fathering a child
A. until he is about 45 years old.
B. until he is about 65 years old.
C. until he is about 85 years old.
D. for the rest of his life.

D. for the rest of his life.

Some males experience an age-related decline in ____ resulting in menopause-like symptoms.
A. testosterone
B. dopamine
C. estrogen
D. progestin

A. testosterone

As a typical middle-aged male, Rasheed will most likely experience
A. a brief increase in sperm production.
B. a shorter resolution phase.
C. a prostate gland that becomes enlarged.
D. more perceived demand to ejaculate.

C. a prostate gland that becomes enlarged.

The stress and coping paradigm focuses on the interactive relationship between
A. person and environment.
B. mind and body.
C. hormones and neurotransmitters.
D. family and work.

A. person and environment.

Heather is experiencing a great deal of stress. She has tried relaxation training, thinking about life events in a different way, and even talking
to her friends. All of these strategies are best classified as attempts at
A. repression.
B. coping.
C. stagnation.
D. appraisal

B. coping.

Stress has been shown to decrease
A. angina.
B. cholesterol levels.
C. risk for irritable bowel syndrome.
D. estrogen levels.

D. estrogen levels.

Type A is to Type B as
A. set is to subset.
B. hassle is to appraisal.
C. intense is to calm.
D. introversion is to extroversion.

C. intense is to calm.

If there were a phrase that would describe Stacy, it would be "laid back." She rarely gets frustrated or angry, could care less about "climbing
the corporate ladder," and is satisfied taking "life as it comes." Stacy is best described as exhibiting
A. neuroticism.
B. Type B behavior.
C. stagnation.
D. Type A behavior.

B. Type B behavior.

Research on Type A and Type B personalities provides support for the notion that
A. psychological factors can be related to physical health.
B. neurotransmitters are important determinants of behavior.
C. sociocultural factors such as television can make life more stressful.
D. elderly individuals are just as prone to stress as younger people.

A. psychological factors can be related to physical health.

Which statement is true?
A. Low levels of self-esteem predict low levels of stress
B. High levels of self-esteem predict low levels of stress
C. High levels of self-esteem predict high levels of stress
D. Stress and self-esteem are unrelated concepts

B. High levels of self-esteem predict low levels of stress

Exercise
A. is not related to physical health.
B. can significantly slow the aging process.
C. is beneficial to health but does not affect the aging process.
D. should be avoided by people over 50 years old.

B. can significantly slow the aging process.

____ intelligence is defined as involving the skills and knowledge necessary for adapting to one’s physical and social environment.
A. Fluid
B. Traditional
C. Practical
D. Unexercised

C. Practical

In most people, practical intelligence
A. begins to decline appreciably in young adulthood.
B. begins to decline appreciably in middle age.
C. begins to decline appreciably in old age.
D. never declines.

C. begins to decline appreciably in old age.

When confronted with a problem in his relationships with his wife, Frank scoffs it off, saying "Ahhh, that’s not really an issue… it will work
itself out." This is probably best classified as
A. a cognitive analysis.
B. avoidant thinking.
C. passive-dependent behavior.
D. problem-focused action.

B. avoidant thinking.

McGuyver is trapped in a room with seemingly no way out. While contemplating his escape, he thinks about how part of the bed in the room
could be used to make a helicopter. This practical thought is best classified as
A. problem-focused action.
B. a cognitive analysis.
C. avoidant thinking.
D. denial.

B. a cognitive analysis.

_____ occurs when the processes of thinking become connected to the products of thinking.
A. Agreeableness
B. Encapsulation
C. Generativity
D. Openness

B. Encapsulation

Which statement between adult learners and their younger counterparts is true?
A. Adults are more willing to learn about abstract problems.
B. Adults tend to be more motivated by internal factors.
C. Younger learners tend to have a larger variety of experiences on which they can build.
D. Younger learners have a higher need to know why they should learn something.

B. Adults tend to be more motivated by internal factors.

Costa and McCrae’s model of personality, which includes dimensions like conscientiousness, neuroticis0m, and openness to experience, is
commonly referred to as the ____model.
A. humanistic
B. centrality
C. five-factor
D. psychodynamic

C. five-factor

If Barney is accurately described as being very even-tempered and unemotional, he would likely score very low on a test of
A. openness to new experience.
B. agreeableness.
C. encapsulation.
D. neuroticism.

D. neuroticism.

Ruth is determined to become president of the corporation. She works more than 10 hours per day, is meticulous in her work, and sticks
with the most difficult projects until they are completed. Ruth would most likely score highly on a scale that measured
A. conscientiousness
B. agreeableness.
C. extroversion.
D. openness to experience.

A. conscientiousness

Research suggests that during middle age,
A. personality as reported by both self-report and by a spouse changes dramatically.
B. personality as reported by self-report changes dramatically and by a spouse remains stable.
C. personality as reported by a spouse changes dramatically and by self-report remains stable.
D. personality as reported by both self-report and by a spouse remains stable.

D. personality as reported by both self-report and by a spouse remains stable.

Which statement would be the most legitimate criticism of the study of the Big Five conducted by Srivastava and colleagues (2003)?
A. The sample was not large enough.
B. The use of Internet sites provides a non-representative sample.
C. They drew cause-and-effect conclusions based on correlational data.
D. You cannot generalize on the basis of case study data.

B. The use of Internet sites provides a non-representative sample.

An individual characterizing what Erikson called "stagnation" is unable to
A. make meaningful appraisals concerning hassles.
B. form a superego.
C. contribute to a society’s continuation.
D. think in an encapsulated manner.

C. contribute to a society’s continuation.

Which statement is true in middle age?
A. Both generative concern and generative action relate to life satisfaction
B. Generative concern relates to life satisfaction but generative action does not
C. Generative action relates to life satisfaction but generative concern does not
D. Neither generative concern nor generative action relate to life satisfaction

B. Generative concern relates to life satisfaction but generative action does not

The greatest personality resource that enables an individual to avoid a midlife crisis is called
A. encapsulation.
B. Type A behavior.
C. introversion.
D. ego resilience.

D. ego resilience.

Kay always does her best to make sure her children, parents, in-laws, and siblings get together for holidays, anniversaries, and birthdays.
Kay would best be described as
A. Type A.
B. a cultural conservator.
C. a kinkeeper.
D. encapsulated.

C. a kinkeeper.

Nina feels like she is being pulled apart from two different directions. On the one hand, she has her two daughters to take care of, and on the
other hand, she now has to also take care of her ailing mother and father. Which term best describes the situation in which Nina finds
herself?
A. Practical intelligence
B. High neuroticism
C. Cultural conservator
D. Sandwich generation

D. Sandwich generation

Having a positive experience of an empty nest is most strongly influenced by
A. how well parents believe they did in their job as parents.
B. how quickly children move back into the house.
C. how much emotional support parents provide for their children.
D. how much financial help parents provide to their children.

A. how well parents believe they did in their job as parents.

Filial obligation is based on a sense of
A. independence.
B. openness to experience.
C. stagnation.
D. responsibility.

D. responsibility.

Which group is most likely to perceive grandparenthood as a central role?
A. African Americans
B. European Americans
C. Latino Americans
D. Native Americans

C. Latino Americans

Which statement concerning custodial care of grandchildren by grandparents is true?
A. Almost 20 million U.S. grandparents have grandchildren living with them
B. In the U.S., grandparents automatically are granted legal guardianship of their grandchildren
C. Rates of behavioral problems in children raised by grandparents is high
D. The most common reason for a grandparent raising a grandchild involves the death of both parents

C. Rates of behavioral problems in children raised by grandparents is high

Dee used to think that everyone else liked the same people she did and hated the same people she did. She now realizes that different people have different opinions toward others. Piaget would suggest that Dee has recently become a ____ thinker.
A. preoperational
B. formal operational
C. concrete operational
D. sensorimoto

C. concrete operational

The main limitation of concrete operational thinking is that such thought is limited to
A. hypothetical situations.
B. tangible, real-life examples.
C. emotional issues.
D. long-term memories.

B. tangible, real-life examples.

Angelica and her younger brother Houston are both given three fountain pens, each containing clear ink, and are informed that some combination of ink will yield a color. Because Angelica is a formal operational thinker and Houston is a concrete operational thinker, how will their behavior likely differ?

A. Angelica will spend more time thinking about the task and be more systematic when attempting to solve it.
B. Angelica will use a piece of paper to draw out the problem.
C. Houston will only use two of the pens.
D. Houston will watch how Angelica solves the problem and then repeat her steps.

A. Angelica will spend more time thinking about the task and be more systematic when attempting to solve it.

The first memory strategy acquired by most children is
A. chunking.
B. use of abstraction.
C. verbal elaboration.
D. rehearsal.

D. rehearsal.

If a person believes in "general intelligence," then he or she believes that
A. some people are smart, no matter the situation, task, or problem.
B. whether people are smart depends on the situation, task, or problem.
C. intelligence cannot be assessed psychometrically.
D. fourth-graders will be smarter than third-graders

A. some people are smart, no matter the situation, task, or problem.

Thurstone and Thurstone (1941) identified seven distinct abilities that they believed formed the basis of intelligence. One of these abilities was
A. musical ability.
B. perceptual speed.
C. interpersonal intelligence.
D. "street smarts."

B. perceptual speed.

Which best describes the hierarchical view of intelligence?
A. It consists entirely of general intelligence
B. It consists entirely of broad categories of intelligence
C. It consists entirely of specific skills
D. It consists of general intelligence, categories, and specific skills

D. It consists of general intelligence, categories, and specific skills

Who is best associated with a theory of "multiple intelligences?"
A. John Carroll
B. Alfred Binet
C. Howard Gardner
D. Jean Piaget

C. Howard Gardner

According to Sternberg, ____ ability is most heavily focused on problem analysis.
A. analytical
B. creative
C. practical
D. familial

A. analytical

Which cooking-related behavior is the best indicator of a high level of analytical ability?

A. Knowing that the reason a cake did not turn out could be the lack of a key ingredient, the stove being too hot, or bad eggs
B. Being able to create a cake flavor that has never before existed
C. Realizing that if you follow the directions on a cake box, the cake will turn out okay
D. Visualizing what a cake will look like before it is baked

A. Knowing that the reason a cake did not turn out could be the lack of a key ingredient, the stove being too hot, or bad eggs

____ ability involves the realization that a solution will actually work.
A. Analytical
B. Creative
C. Practical
D. Familial

C. Practical

Binet and Simon developed the first objective intelligence test in order to
A. rank-order the intellectual capacities of different races.
B. identify children who would need special help in school.
C. help the military select soldiers for important tasks.
D. test their theory of intelligence.

B. identify children who would need special help in school.

Newt has a mental age of 10. That means Newt
A. is 10 years old.
B. has an IQ of 100.
C. is a genius.
D. passed test problems that an average 10-year-old would pass

D. passed test problems that an average 10-year-old would pass

Whose intelligence test was the first to use the concept of an intelligence quotient?
A. Alfred Binet
B. Howard Gardner
C. Jean Piaget
D. Lewis Terman

D. Lewis Terman

Which data suggest the strongest link between heredity and intelligence?
A. Identical twins whose IQ scores correlate at the +.9 level
B.Fraternal twins whose IQ scores correlate at the +.9 level
C. Biological siblings whose IQ scores correlate at the +.9 level
D. Adoptive siblings whose IQ scores correlate at the +.9 level

A. Identical twins whose IQ scores correlate at the +.9 level

IQ scores are
A. good predictors of school success and occupational success.
B. good predictors of school success but bad predictors of occupational success.
C. bad predictors of school success but good predictors of occupational success.
D. poor predictors of school success and occupational success.

A. good predictors of school success and occupational success.

In the United States, ____ Americans tend to score highest on intelligence tests.
A. European
B. African
C. Asian
D. Hispanic

C. Asian

Which statement concerning ethnicity and intelligence is most accurate?
A. The recent discovery of a "smart gene" has led most to believe that intelligence has a strong genetic component.
B. Even if ethnic groups differ significantly in intelligence, the difference could be the result of environmental factors.
C. Being economically disadvantaged is related to ethnicity but not to intelligence.
D. If intelligence differences within an ethnic group are due to genetics, then intelligence differences between the group and other ethnic groups must be due to genetics.

B. Even if ethnic groups differ significantly in intelligence, the difference could be the result of environmental factors.

By traditional definition, how many of the following eight-year-old children would be considered "gifted": Darcy, IQ = 100; Peggy, IQ = 120; Kelly, IQ = 140; Al, IQ = 160?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

B. 2

In recent years, the definition of "gifted" has
A. broadened to include all IQ tests.
B. broadened to include areas like dance and music.
C. narrowed to include only those in the top 5 percent of their graduating class.
D. narrowed to include only scores from the Stanford-Binet test.

B. broadened to include areas like dance and music.

By definition, intellectual disability involves both a below-average intelligence and
A. low standardized IQ scores.
B. a known genetic defect.
C. poor adaptive behaviors.
D. emotional problems

C. poor adaptive behaviors.

Which of the following children most likely has a learning disability?
A. Charlie, who has difficulty learning to read
B. Paul, who has experienced a poor learning environment
C. Andrew, who has Down syndrome
D. Glen, who has Muscular Dystrophy

A. Charlie, who has difficulty learning to read

Phonological processing involves the conversion of
A. spoken sound into memories.
B. memories into words.
C. numbers into letters.
D. printed letters into sound.

D. printed letters into sound.

If asked to list key symptoms for ADHD, you should avoid saying,
A. "inarticulation."
B. " hyperactivity."
C. "inattention."
D. "impulsivity."

A. "inarticulation."

Which is not a typical characteristic of a school that produces high-achieving students?
A. Highly involved parents
B. Effective monitoring of teachers’ performance
C. A well-defined goal of academic excellence
D. A heavy emphasis on nonacademic activities

D. A heavy emphasis on nonacademic activities

Liam is learning the values, behaviors, and roles of his culture. In other words, Liam is experiencing
A. direct instruction.
B. counterimitation.
C. authoritative parenting.
D. socialization.

D. socialization.

Dick and Wendy want their children to work hard. They have rules and expect their children to obey them without question. Dick and Wendy are most likely _____ parents.
A. uninvolved
B. authoritarian
C. authoritative
D. permissive

B. authoritarian

When Ki-Jana asks his parents if he can buy a car, his parents say no but sit down and explain to him the reasoning behind their decision. His parents express affection toward him and tell him that they may consider the matter at some later time. Which parenting style best describes Ki-Jana’s parents?
A. Authoritarian
B. Permissive
C. Uninvolved
D. Authoritative

D. Authoritative

A permissive parent is best thought of as
A. cold and controlling.
B. warm and controlling.
C. cold and uncontrolling.
D. warm and uncontrolling

D. warm and uncontrolling

Liked is to popular children as disliked is to ____ children.
A. controversial
B. rejected
C. average
D. neglected

B. rejected

Rita is incredibly aggressive on the hockey rink but is very nice to everyone when she isn’t competing. What term best describes Rita’s "on-ice" aggression?
A. Relational aggression
B. Hostile aggression
C. Neglect
D. Instrumental aggression

D. Instrumental aggression

Mabel likes to hit other children for no other purpose than to see them get hurt and feel scared. What term best describes Mabel’s behavior?
A. Hostile aggression
B. Instrumental aggression
C. Relational aggression
D. Counterimitation

A. Hostile aggression

Does watching TV violence really affect the behavior of children?
A. No, it has no effect on overt violent behavior.
B. Not really. It may make them a little scared for a while but has no long-term effects.
C. It might if the children are ADHD before they watch the violence.
D. Yes, it tends to be associated with more aggressive behavior

D. Yes, it tends to be associated with more aggressive behavior

Prejudice is best described as
A. a limitation placed on a person because he or she belongs to some group.
B. hating yourself because of who you are.
C. a negative view of others based on their group membership.
D. the ability to put yourself into the "shoes" of another person

C. a negative view of others based on their group membership.

Children who are aggressive tend to come from families with _________ parenting styles.
A. authoritarian or authoritative
B. uninvolved or authoritarian
C. authoritative or permissive
D. permissive or uninvolved

B. uninvolved or authoritarian

In which country would individuality in children be most acceptable to parents?
A. Panama
B. China
C. Taiwan
D. The United States

D. The United States

As a typical parent in Latin America, Maria would place great emphasis on developing a strong sense of _____ in her children.
A. self-reliance
B. family ties
C. emotional restraint
D. free-thinking

B. family ties

What basic premise underlies Chinese parenting?
A. Love is more important than control.
B. Scream but never hit.
C. Keep your emotions in check.
D. Children are not responsible for their actions

C. Keep your emotions in check.

Which parenting style tends to be most common for American parents of lower socioeconomic status?
A. Permissive
B. Authoritative
C. Authoritarian
D. Uninvolved

C. Authoritarian

Rather than simply ordering his son to take out the garbage, Ahmad says, "Son, take out the garbage now. It’s really full and I’m getting ready to make dinner, so I’ll need more space in the garbage bags." Ahmad’s statement is an example of
A. direct instruction.
B. counterimitation.
C. disinhibition.
D. negative reinforcement trap.

A. direct instruction.

Fugi watches her older sister getting yelled at after she throws an apple across the kitchen. Fugi is now less likely to throw an apple across the kitchen herself. This kind of learning through observation would be best described as
A. time-out.
B. direct instruction.
C. counterimitation.
D. a negative reinforcement trap.

C. counterimitation.

Whenever Roger says "please," his father gives Roger what he asks for. This in turn increases Roger’s use of the word "please." Giving in to Roger’s requests appears to be a form of
A. reinforcement.
B. punishment.
C. counterimitation.
D. inhibition.

A. reinforcement.

Ian’s mother tells him to stop watching TV and do his homework. Ian then begins to whine about wanting to watch more TV to the point that his mother gives in and lets him watch more TV as long as he stops whining. Consequently, Ian’s whining behavior increases in frequency. This sequence is best described as
A. punishment.
B. counterimitation.
C. direct instruction.
D. a negative reinforcement trap.

D. a negative reinforcement trap.

What statement about time-out is true?
A. It is based on modeling.
B. It is a reinforcement technique.
C. It bypasses many of the pitfalls of punishment.
D. It produces disinhibition.

C. It bypasses many of the pitfalls of punishment.

Parental conflict
A. usually has no negative effects on children.
B. can make a child feel that the family is unstable.
C. often has positive effects on a child’s development.
D. is not a normal part of most marriages.

B. can make a child feel that the family is unstable.

Which best describes the relationship between parenting styles and children’s temperaments?
A. Parenting styles cause temperaments.
B. Parenting styles may develop as the result of temperament.
C. Temperaments develop as the result of parenting styles.
D. Temperament and parenting styles are unrelated.

B. Parenting styles may develop as the result of temperament.

Which advice should you give to parents who are trying to reduce their children’s sibling conflict?
A. "Admit that you have a ‘favorite.’"
B. "Try to keep your marital problems to yourself."
C. "Next time try and not have your children so close together in age."
D. "It would be helpful if you didn’t have all girls.

B. "Try to keep your marital problems to yourself."

Which adopted child is most likely to have the most problems?
A. Steve, who was adopted right after birth
B. Chuck, who was adopted when he was two years old
C. Ann, who was adopted when she was four years old
D. Lydia, who was adopted when she was eight years old

D. Lydia, who was adopted when she was eight years old

Which is the most effective way for parents to reduce the negative impact of divorce on a child?
A. Reinforce the idea that in life you cannot control what happens to you
B. Make sure that only one parent is actively involved with the child’s life
C. Ask the child to help mediate disputes between you and your ex-spouse
D. Don’t view the love of your child as a competition between you and your ex-spouse

D. Don’t view the love of your child as a competition between you and your ex-spouse

Brooke’s family consists of her biological mother, biological sister, and step-father. This kind of unit is known as
A. a clique.
B. a negative reinforcement trap.
C. a blended family.
D. joint custody.

C. a blended family.

Doreen is a single, divorced mother of a five-year-old boy. Will remarrying be good for her son?
A. No, as he will more likely feel rejected by his mother
B. No, as step-fathers are typically a burden for the boy
C. Yes, if the step-father is warm and involved
D. Yes, no matter what the step-father is like

C. Yes, if the step-father is warm and involved

By far the most frequent sort of child abuse would be categorized as
A. neglect.
B. sexual.
C. physical.
D. psychological.

A. neglect.

Who is most likely to abuse his child?
A. Louis, who relies on the time-out technique to punish his children
B. Derek, who was never abused when he was a child
C. Joe, who is socially isolated from friends and relatives
D. Scott, who is wealthy

C. Joe, who is socially isolated from friends and relatives

What is not one of the effects of being an abused child?
A. Better emotional regulation
B. Delayed cognitive development
C. Aggressive behavior toward peers
D. Depression

A. Better emotional regulation

A child who is able to respond resourcefully in a new situation is said to have high levels of
A. ego resilience.
B. instrumental aggression.
C. counterimitation.
D. co-rumination

A. ego resilience.

What has research shown to be useful in preventing child abuse?
A. Jail time and censure of abusive parents
B. Early childhood intervention programs
C. Encouragement of parents to use more physical punishment
D. Removal of the father from the lives of the children

B. Early childhood intervention programs

A friendship is both
A. mandatory and independent.
B. mandatory and mutual.
C. voluntary and independent.
D. voluntary and mutual.

D. voluntary and mutual.

Which aspect of friendship tends to be new to children aged 8-11?
A. Sharing activities
B. Trust
C. Sharing toys
D. Mutual liking

B. Trust

The fact that friends spend a lot of time discussing personal problems is referred to as
A. co-rumination.
B. ego-resilience.
C. dominancy hierarchy.
D. the negative reinforcement trap.

A. co-rumination.

Jane is identified by others at school as being part of "The Elite," a fairly large group of students who are very popular, get good grades, and are involved in extracurricular activities. "The Elite" are best described as a
A. gang.
B. clique.
C. crowd.
D. band.

C. crowd.

____ is best defined as physical changes that mark the transition from childhood to young adulthood.
A. Puberty
B. Menopause
C. Primary circular reactions
D. Secondary circular reactions

A. Puberty

The two general types of physical development associated with puberty include
A. lower self-esteem and bodily changes.
B. bodily changes and sexual maturation.
C. sexual maturation and formal operational thinking.
D. formal operational thinking and lower self-esteem

B. bodily changes and sexual maturation.

From whom would you expect the biggest gains in height and weight over the next three years?
A. Ginger, who is 2 years old
B. Grant, who is 6 years old
C. Tina, who is 11 years old
D. Louise, who is 14 years old

C. Tina, who is 11 years old

During adolescence,
A. both brain myelination and synaptic pruning first begin.
B. brain myelination first begins and synaptic pruning nears completion.
C. brain myelination nears completion and synaptic pruning first begins.
D. both brain myelination and synaptic pruning near completion.

D. both brain myelination and synaptic pruning near completion.

Primary sex characteristic changes are those directly impacting
A. reproduction.
B. height.
C. intelligence.
D. personality.

A. reproduction.

Which of Kohlberg’s levels places the greatest emphasis on morality as a function of the expectations others hold toward you?
A. Preconventional
B. Conventional
C. Postconventional
D. Unconventional

B. Conventional

When Nicholas and Sanjay are debating whether or not to steal a cool car they just found, Nicholas says, "It’s wrong to steal the car because there are laws against stealing, and no one is above the law." This type of thinking best fits with Kohlberg’s _____ level of moral thinking.
A. preconventional
B. conventional
C. postconventional
D. unconventional

B. conventional

Postconventional moral thinking is characterized by judgments made according to a(n)
A. personal code of behavior.
B. set of society’s laws.
C. list of parental "do’s and dont’s."
D. egocentric self-schema

A. personal code of behavior.

During puberty, changes in physical maturity that are not directly linked to reproduction are referred to as ____ sex characteristics.
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. instrumental

B. secondary

The largest percentage of young children are in stages _____ of Kohlberg’s moral reasoning.
A. one and two
B. two and three
C. three and four
D. four and five

A. one and two

You are reviewing a research article with the title, "Women and the drive to care for others." Who is the most likely author of this material?
A. Kohlberg
B. Piaget
C. Gilligan
D. Bandura

C. Gilligan

Menarche is best described as the onset of
A. puberty.
B. public hair.
C. menstruation.
D. body growth

C. menstruation.

Research has indicated that the most effective way to foster moral development in adolescents is to
A. avoid allowing them to voice amoral opinions.
B. encourage direct observation of immoral behavior.
C. sign a social contract.
D. discuss moral issues.

D. discuss moral issues.

Which event defines spermarche?
A. The production of sperm
B. The ejaculation of sperm
C. The original meiosis of sperm
D. The implantation of sperm into an egg

B. The ejaculation of sperm

Which statement concerning the timing of puberty in males and females is true?
A. The onset of menarche in females typically occurs a few years prior to the typical onset of spermarche in males.
B. The onset of menarche in females typically occurs a few years after to the typical onset of spermarche in males.
C. The onset of menarche in females typically occurs around the same time as the onset of spermarche in males.
D. The onset of menarche in females typically occurs almost a decade after the typical onset of spermarche in males.

C. The onset of menarche in females typically occurs around the same time as the onset of spermarche in males.

A key physical component of puberty is the ____ gland, which regulates pubertal changes by signaling other glands to secrete hormones.
A. thyroid
B. adrenal
C. pituitary
D. pineal

C. pituitary

Estrogen is to androgen as
A. sperm is to egg.
B. ovaries are to testes.
C. male is to female.
D. ejaculation is to menarche

B. ovaries are to testes.

Which best describes the typical response to body image during puberty?
A. Females worry more about appearance, but males are more dissatisfied with their appearance.
B. Males worry more about appearance, but females are more dissatisfied with their appearance.
C. Males worry more about appearance and are more dissatisfied with their appearance.
D. Females worry more about appearance and are more dissatisfied with their appearance.

D. Females worry more about appearance and are more dissatisfied with their appearance.

The negative effects associated with being an early-maturing female have been found to be offset by
A. hormone replacement therapy.
B. having supportive parents.
C. possessing a strong personal fable.
D. hanging around with older males.

B. having supportive parents.

A typical teenage girl should consume approximately ____ calories each day.
A. 1,200
B. 1,700
C. 2,200
D. 2,700

C. 2,200

The speed at which the body consumes calories is referred to as
A. menarche.
B. diffusion status.
C. basal metabolic rate.
D. secular growth trends.

C. basal metabolic rate.

Programs that effectively assist obese children in losing weight tend to
A. emphasize the need to follow external cues when deciding when to eat.
B. encourage children to become more sedentary.
C. totally eliminate meat from their diets.
D. have parents serve as good models for proper eating.

D. have parents serve as good models for proper eating.

Carrie exhibits anorexia nervosa. When she looks in a mirror, she is most likely thinking,
A. "I’m really starting to get thin!"
B. "I’m so fat!"
C. "I’m beautiful compared to those ugly women on television!"
D. "I’m going to have to start eating a little more!"

B. "I’m so fat!"

The defining characteristic of bulimia nervosa involves
A. a binge-purge eating pattern.
B. weight loss.
C. a distorted body image.
D. an irrational fear of obesity.

A. a binge-purge eating pattern.

Anabolic steroids are most chemically similar to
A. cocaine.
B. estrogen.
C. testosterone.
D. Ritalin.

C. testosterone.

The illusion of invulnerability is best demonstrated by
A. postconventional thinking about sex.
B. unprotected sex by teens.
C. a girl’s first menstrual cycle.
D. male masturbation.

B. unprotected sex by teens

Which best describes the neurological explanation for risk-taking behavior in teens?
A. Myelination of the temporal lobe results in poor decision-making
B. Due to neuretic pruning, the pleasure centers of the brain become "super-charged"
C. Estrogen and testosterone act like "cocaine" in the brain
D. The pleasure areas develop prior to the areas that control behavior

D. The pleasure areas develop prior to the areas that control behavior

Which statement concerning cognitive development in adolescence is true?
A. Working memory and processing speed are more childlike than adultlike.
B. Working memory becomes adultlike, but processing speed remains childlike.
C. Processing speed becomes adultlike, but working memory remains childlike.
D. Working memory and processing speed are more adultlike than childlike.

D. Working memory and processing speed are more adultlike than childlike.

Heuristics tend to be very
A. sophisticated.
B. fast.
C. accurate.
D. analytical.

B. fast.

What technique did Kohlberg use to assess moral thinking?
A. He presented participants with moral dilemmas.
B. He observed moral behavior in laboratory experiments.
C. He observed moral behavior in real-life experiments.
D. He reviewed newspaper accounts on acts of bravery and acts of violence

A. He presented participants with moral dilemmas.

What basic moral question underlies the Heinz dilemma?
A. Are humans naturally violent or passive?
B. Can stealing be justified?
C. Is there a God?
D. Is the correct term "catsup" or "ketchup?

B. Can stealing be justified?

Kohlberg used the label ____ when referring to the first level of moral reasoning.
A. preoperational
B. prepositional
C. preconventional
D. prepubertal

C. preconventional

The attitudes, behaviors, and values that we believe make us unique individuals are called our
A.self-esteem.
B.self-recognition.
C.self-efficacy.
D.self-concept.

D.self-concept.

According to Erikson, the key adolescent crisis involves
A.generativity versus stagnation.
B.intimacy versus isolation.
C.identity versus role confusion.
D.integrity versus despair.

C.identity versus role confusion.

According to Erikson, a teenager is most likely to achieve his or her identity by
A. becoming more egocentric.
B. using learned helplessness.
C. becoming crystallized.
D. using hypothetical reasoning skills.

D. using hypothetical reasoning skills.

Which best describes how Erikson hypothesized that adolescents achieve an identity?
A. They do only what their parents tell them to do
B. They test a few to see which fits
C. They follow a genetically set plan
D. They just continue to do what they did as preteens

B. They test a few to see which fits

In the ____ stage of identity status, an individual is overwhelmed yet does little to accomplish the task of identity formation.
A. diffusion
B. moratorium
C. foreclosure
D. achievement

A. diffusion

A __________ identity status is based largely on the input of adults (i.e., parents, role models).
A. diffusion
B. moratorium
C. foreclosure
D. achievement

C. foreclosure

While in the _________ identity status stage, a person is examining numerous alternatives but finds none totally satisfactory
A. diffusion
B. moratorium
C. foreclosure
D. achievement

B. moratorium

Juvenile delinquency involves acts that are
A.illegal and destructive.
B.legal and nondestructive.
C.illegal and nondestructive.
D.legal and destructive.

A.illegal and destructive.

Programs to prevent adolescent violence and antisocial behavior target
A.character development in elementary-school children.
B.academic and social skills in elementary-school children.
C.academic and social skills in middle-school children.
D.character development in middle-school children

B.academic and social skills in elementary-school children.

____ identity status occurs after an individual has explored several options and has made a deliberate decision.
A.Diffusion
B.Moratorium
C.Foreclosure
D.Achievement

D.Achievement

Sixteen-year-old Paris’s motto is, "It’s all about me!" This belief fits well with the concept of adolescent
A. egocentrism.
B. learned helplessness.
C. secular growth.
D. foreclosure

A. egocentrism.

The phenomenon whereby an individual believes that he or she is like an actor on a stage, who is under constant watch by others, is referred to as
A. the personal fable.
B. the imaginary audience.
C. learned helplessness.
D. diffusion status

B. the imaginary audience.

The defining feature of the personal fable is a feeling of
A. superiority.
B. uniqueness.
C. helplessness.
D. diffusion.

B. uniqueness.

The belief that misfortunes only happen to others is referred to as the illusion of
A. foreclosure.
B. helplessness.
C. crystallization.
D. invulnerability.

D. invulnerability.

Learning about one’s culture and heritage sets the foundation for a person’s ____ identity.
A. ethnic
B. crystallized
C. index
D. imaginary

A. ethnic

Which statement would indicate that a teenager is in the third stage of ethnic identity development?
A. "I am curious about where my ancestors lived."
B. "I’ll think about my ethnicity when I am older."
C. "I see myself as a Dutch-Asian American."
D. "I need to match my identity to that of all others in my ethnic group.

C. "I see myself as a Dutch-Asian American."

Who is most likely to have the highest self-esteem?
A. A 4-year-old
B. A 8-year-old
C. A 12-year-old
D. A 16-year-old

A. A 4-year-old

The drop in self-esteem often found when children first enter middle school appears to be due to
A. the acquisition of concrete operational thinking.
B. peer comparisons.
C. changes in ethnic identity.
D. the illusion of invulnerability.

B. peer comparisons.

Which statement concerning self-esteem is true?
A. Adolescents’ levels of self-esteem do not vary by context.
B. Parental rules lead to lower levels of self-esteem in adolescents.
C. Levels of parental affection are inversely related to self-esteem levels in adolescents.
D. A harmonious child-parent relationship tends to lead to higher levels of self- esteem in adolescents.

D. A harmonious child-parent relationship tends to lead to higher levels of self- esteem in adolescents.

How many of the following can contribute to an adolescent’s level of self-esteem: doing well in school, having parents who discipline, being liked by one’s peers?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

D. 3

James is a typical adolescent. You would expect that he
A. does not feel loved by his parents.
B. relies on his parents for advice.
C. has low self-esteem.
D. is conflicted with regard to gender identity.

B. relies on his parents for advice.

Teenagers are less likely to engage in sexual activity when parents
A. actively encourage sexual activity.
B. monitor their activities.
C. remain emotionally detached.
D. encourage independence.

B. monitor their activities.

Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a viral infection?
A. Herpes
B. Chlamydia
C. Syphilis
D. Gonorrhea

A. Herpes

Which statement is true?
A. HIV typically leads to AIDS
B. AIDS typically leads to HIV
C. HIV and AIDS are the same disorder
D. AIDS and HIV are unrelated

A. HIV typically leads to AIDS

Research has indicated that when a high school student begins to work over ____ hours a week at a part-time job during the school year, academic problems may arise.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

D. 20

Which drug do high school seniors use most?
A. Marijuana
B. Cocaine
C. Alcohol
D. LSD

C. Alcohol

Fifteen-year-old Otis’s parents are social drinkers who often stop at a bar after work. Research suggests that Otis is
A. likely to become an alcoholic.
B. unlikely to begin drinking (teens tend to avoid mimicking parents).
C. more likely to start drinking than his friend whose parents do not drink.
D. unlikely to be influenced by this behavior

C. more likely to start drinking than his friend whose parents do not drink.

Effective interventions for teenage smoking include all of the following components, except
A. telling students, staff, and school visitors they cannot smoke on school grounds.
B. providing information on the health and social consequences of smoking.
C. enforcing a strict discipline system throughout the school.
D. teaching skills to respond to peer pressure.

C. enforcing a strict discipline system throughout the school.

Some teenagers experience negative life events and do not become depressed. Which of the following teenagers is least likely to become depressed when she experiences a negative life event?
A. Crystal, who does not regulate her emotions effectively
B. Cameron, who tends to blame herself when things go wrong
C. Celia, whose parents are distant and uninvolved with her
D. Carmine, who has high levels of certain neurotransmitters

D. Carmine, who has high levels of certain neurotransmitters

The most effective non-drug interventions for teenage depression focus on
A. instilling a sense of learned helplessness.
B. suppressing adolescents’ feelings toward their parents.
C. mapping the genetic history of the adolescent.
D. teaching social skills.

D. teaching social skills.

_____ is/are the third leading cause of deaths in U.S. adolescents.
A. Car accidents
B. Homicide
C. Suicide
D. Cancer

C. Suicide

Which is not a common warning sign of suicide?
A. Change in eating habits
B. Increased levels of activity
C. Persistent feelings of helplessness
D. Giving away valued possessions

B. Increased levels of activity

About 1 in _____ adolescent American girls becomes pregnant each year.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

D. 6

The most effective pregnancy prevention programs focus
A. exclusively on abstinence.
B. exclusively on education concerning biological reproduction.
C. exclusively on education concerning responsible sexual behavior.
D. on abstinence, reproductive education, and sexual responsibility.

D. on abstinence, reproductive education, and sexual responsibility.

While there are different types of dating violence, threats always qualify as ____ violence.
A. emotional
B. physical
C. sexual
D. spiritual

A. emotional

Which has been identified as a factor that increases the risk of a female being a victim of date rape?
A. Having a brother
B. Witnessing domestic violence
C. Being friends males
D. Holding traditional gender stereotypes

D. Holding traditional gender stereotypes

____ first linked identity with career choices.
A. Erikson
B. Freud
C. Super
D. Holland

C. Super

According to Super’s theory, what is the correct order of the phases of career development?
A. Specification, crystallization, implementation
B. Crystallization, specification, implementation
C. Implementation, specification, crystallization
D. Crystallization, implementation, specification

B. Crystallization, specification, implementation

The main assumption of Holland’s theory is that people
A. develop career goals at different rates.
B. will be happiest in work environments that match their personalities.
C. should take tests to determine which career is best for them.
D. should choose a career based on economic issues and should not be concerned about choosing a career in order to fulfill their lives.

B. will be happiest in work environments that match their personalities.

When an individual’s personality type and job match, they tend to be
A. more productive in the short run and have more stable career paths in the long run.
B. less productive in the short run but have more stable career paths in the long run.
C. more productive in the short run but have less stable career paths in the long run.
D. less productive in the short run and have less stable career paths in the long run.

A. more productive in the short run and have more stable career paths in the long run.

Since Dr. Kim takes a strong nature position concerning the origins of mental
retardation, she would most likely hypothesize that her son’s mental retardation is due to
A. her parenting style.
B. his genes.
C. his exposure to a toxic chemical prior to birth.
D. random chance.

B. his genes.

Dr. Fletcher is attempting to determine whether adult criminals were rule breakers throughout their childhood, or whether they suddenly turned to a life of crime. Her research is most concerned with which issue of human development?
A. Nature versus nurture
B. Universal versus context-specific development
C. Biological versus sociocultural forces
D. Continuity versus discontinuity

D. Continuity versus discontinuity

When Kayla says "It doesn’t matter if they are French, Swedish, or Chinese, kids are kids," she is espousing a ____ position concerning human development.
A. discontinuous
B. universal
C. nurture
D. context-specific

B. universal

Lotte is listening to a lecture in which her professor states, "Genetic and cultural factors are important, but they alone cannot explain the development of human beings." Lotte’s professor seems to be supporting
A. the biopsychosocial framework.
B. the position that development is continuous.
C. the notion of universality.
D. discontinuity.

A. the biopsychosocial framework.

Which does not constitute a "psychological force?"
A. Perception
B. Intelligence
C.Personality
D.Heredity

D.Heredity

Marcelia has been promoted and is moving her family to a new city in a different part of the country. Though 4-year-old Fernando is very happy and makes the transition easily, 12-year-old Jorge is unhappy and has a very difficult time adjusting to the move. Both children generally adapt well to change. Which single set of factors best explains the different responses of Fernando and Jorge to the move?
A. Biological factors
B. Sociocultural factors
C. Personality factors
D. Life-cycle factors

D. Life-cycle factors

A _________ is an organized set of ideas that is designed to explain development.
A. theory
B. prediction
C. correlation coefficient
D. structured observation

A. theory

The argument that each psychosocial strength has its own special age period of specific importance is the cornerstone of _____ theory of development.
A. Bandura’s
B. Erikson’s
C. Skinner’s
D. Vygotsky’s

B. Erikson’s

After completing his history assignment, Nico is excused from having to wash the dishes, a task he detests. Nico’s parents are attempting to use _________ to increase Nico’s studying.
A. positive reinforcement
B. Punishment
C. extinction
D. negative reinforcement

D. negative reinforcement

If a behavior is effectively being reinforced it will
A. eventually go away.
B. increase in frequency.
C. improve self-esteem.
D. be imitated by others

B. increase in frequency.

Melissa is doing a study where volleyball players are interviewed about their role on the team and perceived capabilities for playing in Saturday’s game. Melissa seems to be assessing the ___________ of the volleyball players.
A. life-cycle forces
B. exosystems
C. internal maturational plans
D. self-efficacy

D. self-efficacy

Brandon’s developmental psychology teacher believes human development is best conceptualized as progressing discontinuously through several qualitatively different stages of thinking. His instructor is likely a(n)
A. Piagetian.
B. social learning theorist.
C. ecological theorist.
D. behaviorist.

A. Piagetian.

A researcher who wants to study how state welfare programs influence parenting behaviors would be primarily studying
A. microsystems.
B. exosystems.
C. mesosystems.
D. operant conditioning

B. exosystems.

Whose theory is best associated with a life-span perspective emphasizing research on adult development?
A. Bandura
B. Baltes
C. Bronfenbrenner
D. Piaget

B. Baltes

Carrie takes notes on the behaviors exhibited by college students attending a frat party. This study would best be described as
A. longitudinal.
B. systematic observational.
C. experimental.
D. sequential.

B. systematic observational.

Dr. Ims studies how children think about television by asking them to answer several questions related to their television viewing. It is most likely that Dr. Ims’s research involves using a(n) _________ method.
A. naturalistic observation
B. structured observation
C. experiment
D.self-report

D.self-report

Validity is to reliability as
A. study is to experiment.
B. cause is to correlation.
C. positive is to negative.
D. accuracy is to consistency.

D. accuracy is to consistency.

The value of a(n) _________ can range from -1.0 to 1.0.
A. correlation coefficient
B. dependent variable
C. independent variable
D. sample

A. correlation coefficient

Mario is going to do a correlational study dealing with playing video games and intelligence. Because he is using this particular method, he will not be able to
A. measure the variables quantitatively.
B. determine the direction of the relationship between these two variables.
C. determine the magnitude of the relationship between these two variables.
D. determine whether changes in one of these variables causes changes in the other.

D. determine whether changes in one of these variables causes changes in the other.

If Hamid wants to do one study to determine whether or not playing violent video games causes children to act more aggressively, he would be best served by doing a(n)
A. experiment.
B. correlational study.
C. longitudinal study.
D. cross-sectional study.

A. experiment

Dr. Mitchell is very interested in how individual participants’ behaviors change over time. If she wants to study this, she’ll have to do a(n) ________ study.
A. naturalistic observation
B. cross-sectional
C. experimental
D. longitudinal

D. longitudinal

Results from individual research participants should be
A. confidential.
B. public.
C. coded by name.
D. ignored.

A. confidential.

Determining whether a form of measurement is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring is determining its reliability.
True
False

False

Longitudinal studies are more cost-effective than cross-sectional studies.
True
False

False

Outcomes of developmental research can have important implications for social policy.
True
False

True

The threadlike structures in the nucleus of a cell that contain genetic material are called
A. chromosomes.
B. germ discs.
C. ectoderms.
D. phenotypes.

A. chromosomes.

If you were looking through a microscope at a normal sperm cell, you should see ____ chromosomes.
A. 2
B. 22
C. 23
D. 46

C. 23

What combination would result in a boy?
A. A 17th pair of chromosomes with one X and one Y
B. A 23rd pair of chromosomes with one X and one Y
C. A17th pair of chromosomes with two Xs
D. A 23rd pair of chromosomes with two Xs

B. A 23rd pair of chromosomes with one X and one Y

Genes provide the cell with a specific set of _________ instructions.
A. hormonal
B. biochemical
C. in vitro
D. bioelectric

B. biochemical

Genotype is to phenotype as
A. homozygous is to heterozygous.
B. nurture is to nature.
C. DNA is to RNA.
D. chromosome pattern is to physical features.

D. chromosome pattern is to physical features.

If tallness is dominant and designated as "T," and shortness is recessive and designated as "s," who would likely be short?
A. Bing, who is "sT"
B. Crosby, who is "Ts"
C. Danny, who is "ss"
D. Kay, who is "TT"

C. Danny, who is "ss"

Dr. Fry has just been informed that his son has sickle-cell trait. As a knowledgeable physician, Dr. Fry would realize that his son’s body is most likely to experience
A. excess levels of body fat.
B. serious oxygen deprivation.
C. decreased lung capacity.
D. blindness.

B. serious oxygen deprivation.

What should Danko do when he is informed that his newborn son has PKU (phenylketonuria)?
A. Panic, since PKU is an incurable genetic disorder that results in severe mental retardation
B. Don’t panic, since PKU can be cured with drug treatments
C. Don’t panic, since PKU is a sex-linked disorder that affects only females
D. Don’t panic, since despite being a genetic disorder, it can be controlled through proper diet

D. Don’t panic, since despite being a genetic disorder, it can be controlled through proper diet

John and Wayne have the exact same genes. This indicates that they must be
A. dizygotic twins.
B. monozygotic twins.
C. heterozygous.
D. co-dominant.

B. monozygotic twins.

José, who was adopted at birth, is found to have personality characteristics more similar to his biological mom than to his adoptive mom. How should you interpret this data?
A. Personality appears to be a polygenetic characteristic.
B. Personality characteristics are learned.
C. Personality characteristics are influenced by genes.
D. Personality characteristics appear to be recessive.

C. Personality characteristics are influenced by genes.

Genes and environments
A. interact dynamically throughout development.
B. act independently throughout development.
C. interact dynamically in childhood and independently in adulthood.
D. act independently in childhood and interact dynamically in adulthood.

D. act independently in childhood and interact dynamically in adulthood.

The period of the _______ lasts for approximately two weeks.
A. Embryo
B. Zygote
C. Fetus
D. Neonate

B. Zygote

The uniting of the egg and sperm (conception) typically takes place in the
A. uterus.
B. testes.
C. fallopian tube.
D. ovary.

C. fallopian tube.

The point at which a zygote burrows into the uterine wall is referred to as
A. fertilization.
B. implantation.
C. niche-picking.
D. dilation.

B. implantation.

A knowledgeable nutritionist would tell a pregnant mother that in order to reduce the risk of having a baby born with spina bifida, mom needs to make sure that she is ingesting an adequate amount of
A. vitamin A.
B. iron.
C. vitamin E.
D. folic acid.

D. folic acid.

A teratogen is any agent that
A. results in abnormal prenatal development.
B. enhances the flow of oxygen across the placental barrier.
C. decreases the chances of having a child with a genetic disorder.
D. inhibits the impact of drugs on the developing embryo.

A. results in abnormal prenatal development.

A woman who consumes alcohol ________ has the greatest risk of giving birth to a baby with fetal alcohol syndrome.
A. lightly and sporadically
B. moderately and sporadically
C. lightly and consistently
D. moderately and consistently

D. moderately and consistently

Which prenatal assessment technique results in a picture of the fetus?
A. Genetic screening
B. Ultrasound
C. Chorionic villus sampling
D. Amniocentesis

B. Ultrasound

Regan is a medical student who is learning a procedure in which a long needle is inserted into the abdomen of a pregnant woman. What technique is he most likely learning?
A. Genetic counseling
B. Amniocentesis
C. Chorionic villus sampling
D. Ultrasound

B. Amniocentesis

Because it involves prolonged physical effort, the process of childbirth is often referred to as involving stages of
A. labor.
B. parturition.
C. travail.
D. pursuit

A. labor

When her physician mentions the term "crowning," Erica, who is giving birth, should realize that means that her
A. cervix has just fully dilated.
B. uterine contractions are about to start.
C. baby’s head has just reached the vaginal opening.
D. placenta is about to be delivered.

C. baby’s head has just reached the vaginal opening.

Which is expelled during afterbirth?
A. Fetus
B. Placenta
C. Cervix
D. Ova

B. Placenta

Postpartum depression
A. occurs in about 50 percent of new mothers.
B. is more common following planned pregnancies than unplanned pregnancies.
C. is a purely psychological phenomenon (i.e., has no physiological basis).
D. may be reduced via breast-feeding.

C. is a purely psychological phenomenon (i.e., has no physiological basis).

By definition, premature infants are born prior to ____ weeks after conception.
A. 42
B. 40
C. 38
D. 36

D. 36

Born 39 weeks after conception, Sasha weighs in at around 2 pounds. Given this information, Sasha is best defined as
A. full-term and normal birth weight.
B. preterm and normal birth weight.
C. preterm and very low birth weight.
D. full-term and extremely low birth weight.

D. full-term and extremely low birth weight.

A _____ is best described as any unlearned response triggered by a specific form of stimulation.
A. reflex
B. thought
C. theory of mind
D. memory

A. reflex

Donnie slipped his little finger into the hand of his newborn infant, who immediately grasped onto it. The infant was exhibiting the ____ reflex.
A. moro
B. stepping
C. rooting
D. palmar

D. palmar

Gina has just given birth and hears that the Apgar score for her newborn son is a 3. As a person who understands the scoring system, she would most likely
A. panic, as this may indicate that her child is in a life-threatening state.
B. be somewhat concerned, as this score would indicate at least some minor distress.
C. be very happy, as a 3 is the top score on this test.
D. be confused, as Apgar scores must fall between -1.0 and +1.0.

B. be somewhat concerned, as this score would indicate at least some minor distress.

If you were going to check for the Babinski reflex in a newborn, which part of the newborn’s body would you be observing?
A. Eyes
B. Arms
C. Mouth
D. Toes

D. Toes

Two-month-old Joanne is lying quietly with her eyes wide open and appears very interested in a toy dangling in front of her face. Joanne is exhibiting
A. alert inactivity.
B. crying.
C. waking activity.
D. non-REM sleep.

A. alert inactivity

Amanda’s baby is awake and squirming around, oblivious to anything happening around her. Amanda’s baby is most likely in the ____ state.
A. alert inactivity
B. crying
C. waking activity
D. REM

C. waking activity

Newborn crying typically involves
A. agitation and coordinated movements.
B. calm and coordinated movement.
C. agitation and uncoordinated movements.
D. calm and uncoordinated movement.

C. agitation and uncoordinated movements.

What differentiates a basic cry from a mad cry?
A. Mad cries are more intense.
B. Basic cries are more intense.
C. Mad cries have a more sudden onset.
D. Basic cries have a more sudden onset.

A. Mad cries are more intense.

The "Back to Sleep" campaign was aimed at reducing
A. SIDS.
B. nightmares.
C. co-sleeping.
D. malnutrition.

A. SIDS.

Even though he is only 20 days old, Cherokee appears to be very happy and vocal around other people. How would a theorist use the concept of temperament to explain his behavior?
A. A temperament theorist would argue that Cherokee is high in activity level.
B. A temperament theorist would argue that Cherokee is high in negative affect.
C. A temperament theorist would argue that Cherokee is high in surgency/extraversion.
D. Temperament theory cannot explain his behavior.

C. A temperament theorist would argue that Cherokee is high in surgency/extraversion.

Julio and Kari are babies who are the same age but very different from each other. Julio has the ability to focus his attention on a task, while Kari is very easily distracted. Julio and Kari differ on which dimension of temperament?
A. Activity
B. Negative affect
C. Effortful control
D. Surgency

C. Effortful control

If a baby is breast-fed, it is more likely to
A. transition to solid food more easily.
B. be constipated.
C. be ill.
D. be exposed to contaminants.

A. transition to solid food more easily.

What criterion is used to indicate malnourishment in children under age five?
A. Mental retardation
B. Lack of motor skills
C. Small size
D. Large head

C. Small size

Which route most accurately depicts the flow of information from one neuron to another?
A. Axon (neuron 1) to dendrite (neuron 2) to cell body (neuron 2)
B. Dendrite (neuron 1) to axon (neuron 2) to cell body (neuron 2)
C. Cell body (neuron 1) to dendrite (neuron 2) to axon (neuron 2)
D. Dendrite (neuron 1) to dendrite (neuron 2) to cell body (neuron 2)

A. Axon (neuron 1) to dendrite (neuron 2) to cell body (neuron 2)

Terminal buttons are located on which part of a neuron?
A. The end of the dendrite
B. Cell body
C. Neurotransmitter
D. The end of the axon

D. The end of the axon

Each neuron contains many _____ but only one _____.
A. dendrites; terminal button
B. dendrites; cell body
C. terminal buttons; dendrite
D. cell bodies; dendrite

B. dendrites; cell body

____ are chemicals that transmit information from one neuron to another.
A. Axons
B. Neurotransmitters
C. Terminal buttons
D. Dendrites

B. Neurotransmitters

Lotte is recovering from a serious accident that damaged her frontal cortex. Which outcome is most likely?
A. Lotte’s left hemisphere will no longer be able to communicate with her right hemisphere.
B. Lotte will have a difficult time breathing and seeing.
C. Lotte’s personality will be different.
D. Lotte will have no more axons.

C. Lotte’s personality will be different.

Blane deals with people who have suffered some sort of brain damage, helping them try to use different areas of the brain that perform functions that were previously performed by the areas that are now damaged. Blane’s specialty would be best described as
A. neuroplasticity.
B. synaptic pruning.
C. neural plate studies.
D. motor skills.

A. neuroplasticity.

Gina is studying how blood flows through the brain when people listen to different kinds of music. Which sort of research tool is she most likely using in her study?
A. Electroencephalogram
B. Positron emission tomography
C. Functional magnetic resonance imaging
D. Synaptic pruning

C. Functional magnetic resonance imaging

In order to be able to walk, Loretta must first master certain individual skills, like being able to balance herself. What term best describes this process?
A. Retinal disparity
B. Integration
C. Differentiation
D. Fine motor skill development

C. Differentiation

Tomomi has mastered balancing, stepping, and the perceptual skills necessary to negotiate her way around. Putting all these skills together to enable her to walk is a process called
A. integration.
B. differentiation.
C. retinal disparity.
D. perception.

A. integration.

What response would you expect if you attempted to hand toys to a typical 13-month-old infant?
A. They would kick at the object before attempting to grasp it.
B. They would first grasp the object with their left hand.
C. They would first grasp the object with their right hand.
D. They would make no attempt to grasp the object.

C. They would first grasp the object with their right hand.

Nou Ka is putting red marks on the noses of infants and placing them in front of a mirror to see how they respond. What is Nou Ka most likely researching?
A. Visual acuity
B. Motional parallax
C. Self-awareness
D. Retinal disparity

C. Self-awareness

Jeffrey is a three-year-old who is beginning to make connections between people’s thoughts, intentions, and behaviors. According to Wellman (2002), Jeffrey is developing
A. a theory of mind.
B. a temperament.
C. motor skills.
D. retinal disparity.

A. a theory of mind.

Piaget described a scheme as a psychological structure that
A. organizes experience.
B. is used in language but not thought.
C. we lose as we age.
D. is only found in those with a set of personal values.

A. organizes experience.

Piaget used the term ____ to describe the process by which new experiences are easily incorporated into existing schemes.
A. accommodation
B. scaffolding
C. assimilation
D. secondary

C. assimilation

According to Piaget, when a scheme is modified based on some experience, ____ has occurred.
A. assimilation
B. animism
C. accommodation
D. egocentrism

C. accommodation

Piaget saw equilibration as a balance between
A. primary and secondary circular reactions.
B. assimilation and accommodation.
C. thought and language.
D. social and cognitive skills.

B. assimilation and accommodation.

In order to overcome a state of disequilibrium, a child must
A. engage in hypothetical deductive reasoning.
B. become more egocentric.
C. reorganize his or her schemes.
D. develop a strong orienting response.

C. reorganize his or her schemes.

What is the correct sequence (from first to last) of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?
A. Preoperational, concrete operational, sensorimotor, formal operational
B. Sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational
C. Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational
D. Preoperational, sensorimotor, formal operational, concrete operational

C. Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational

Bob is a normally developing 18-month-old. According to Piaget, Bob is most likely in the ____ period of cognitive development.
A. formal operational
B. sensorimotor
C. concrete operational
D. preoperational

B. sensorimotor

The phrase "out of sight, out of mind" best exemplifies the Piagetian concept of
A. tertiary circular reaction.
B. the one-to-one principle.
C. fast mapping.
D. object permanence.

D. object permanence.

As a Piagetian, Avery would consider ____ the highest accomplishment of the sensorimotor period of development.
A. exercising reflexes
B. egocentrism
C. using symbols
D. experimentation

C. using symbols

Piaget used the term ____ to describe the difficulty children often have in taking another person’s perspective.
A. animism
B. scaffolding
C. a tertiary circular reaction
D. egocentrism

D. egocentrism

Piaget used the three-mountain problem to assess a child’s level of
A. object permanence.
B. scaffolding.
C. animism.
D. egocentrism.

D. egocentrism.

Animism occurs when lifelike properties are attributed to
A. humans.
B. inanimate objects.
C. animals.
D. cartoon characters like Bugs Bunny or Homer Simpson.

C. animals.

The conservation of liquid task directly assesses a child’s level of
A. intelligence.
B. habituation.
C. animism.
D. centration.

D. centration.

Which statement concerning Piaget’s theory is true?
A. Piaget’s theory has been the source of ideas for teachers and stimulated a great deal of research.
B. Piaget’s theory was never useful for teachers but did stimulate a great deal of research.
C. Piaget’s theory has been the source of ideas for teachers but never stimulated research.
D. Piaget’s theory was never useful for teachers and never stimulated research.

A. Piaget’s theory has been the source of ideas for teachers and stimulated a great deal of research.

One criticism of Piaget’s theory is that it
A. overestimates the cognitive abilities of both infants and adolescents.
B. underestimates the cognitive abilities of both infants and adolescents.
C. overestimates the cognitive abilities of infants and underestimates the abilities of adolescents.
D. underestimates the cognitive abilities of infants and overestimates the abilities of adolescents.

D. underestimates the cognitive abilities of infants and overestimates the abilities of adolescents.

Four-week-old Dixie appears to understand that when you push a cup over the edge of a table, the cup will fall to the ground. Such an understanding would provide support for the concept of
A. naive physics.
B. animism.
C. the stable-order principle.
D. overregularization.

A. naive physics.

An information-processing theorist would most likely conceptualize all built-in neural structures that assist the operations of the mind as
A. mental hardware.
B. private speech.
C. mental software.
D. psychodynamic mechanisms.

A. mental hardware.

Pavlov’s research involving a dog, salivation, and a bell is correctly associated with ____ theory.
A. operant conditioning
B. information-processing
C. classical conditioning
D. Piagetian

C. classical conditioning

While visiting a zoo, five-month-old Simba is frightened by a roaring lion and starts to cry. By the time Simba is one year old, he appears to have forgotten this event and actually enjoys movies with lions. Based on memory research, how might you get Simba to exhibit the original fear response?
A. Show him a picture of a lion
B. Bring him back to the zoo
C. Have one of his brothers roar like a lion
D. There is nothing you can do to generate the pervious reaction

B. Bring him back to the zoo

If you believed in the concept of the zone of proximal development, what advice should you give to a child who is attempting to learn how to throw a ball?
A. Tell the child to do it by him- or herself
B. Tell the child to ask a friend who knows how to throw well to help him or her out
C. Tell the child how easy the task is (even if it is hard)
D. You would say nothing, as advice will simply confuse the child

B. Tell the child to ask a friend who knows how to throw well to help him or her out

Preoperational children often think in a manner consistent with the idea that appearance is reality.
True
False

False

An expressive style vocabulary consists of many names for people, objects, and actions.
True
False

False

In English, "-ing" and "-ed" represent grammatical morphemes.
True
False

True

According to the linguist perspective, children are born with some mechanism that simplifies the acquisition of grammar.
True
False

True

Effective oral communication involves taking turns and paying attention to other speakers.
True
False

True

Which child has most successfully resolved the "basic trust versus mistrust" stage of psychosocial development?
A. Cecil, who trusts everyone and everything completely
B. Shane, who mistrusts everyone, including himself
C. Spider, who trusts himself but nobody else
D. Brian, who trusts most people but is still somewhat wary of others

D. Brian, who trusts most people but is still somewhat wary of others

According to Erikson, how would parents establish trust in their six-month-old?
A. Consistently responding to the child’s needs
B. Utilize an authoritarian parenting style
C. Encourage the immediate resolution of the Oedipal complex
D. Avoid excessive displays of affection

A. Consistently responding to the child’s needs

Erikson suggested that a proper balance between trust and mistrust can result in the acquisition of hope.
True
False

False

Who would Erikson predict would have the greatest sense of will?
A. Fiona, who has developed autonomy but experiences some shame and doubt
B. Tara, who has developed autonomy and experiences no shame or doubt
C. Bridget, who has developed autonomy and doubt but experiences no shame
D. Maeve, who has not developed autonomy

C. Bridget, who has developed autonomy and doubt but experiences no shame

Lili has begun to play "teacher," "mommy," "doctor," and "pilot." Lili is probably in which of Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development?
A. Autonomy versus shame and doubt
B. Initiative versus guilt
C. Intimacy versus isolation
D. Basic trust versus mistrust

B. Initiative versus guilt

Four-year-old Luticia pretends to be a doctor and has begun to realize that she needs to be responsible and cooperate with her parents. According to Erikson, this indicates that she is beginning to achieve a sense of
A. trust.
B. will.
C. intimacy.
D. purpose.

D. purpose.

As an evolutionary theorist, Dr. Zorba is most likely to believe that
A. adaptive behaviors have a hereditary basis.
B. cognitive issues are more important than social issues.
C. an infant can only attach to its biological mother.
D. trust underlies almost all human emotions.

A. adaptive behaviors have a hereditary basis.

Dr. Wilson studies how children form lasting social-emotional relationships with adults. Dr. Wilson is most likely interested in studying
A. gender roles.
B. basic emotions.
C. parallel play.
D. attachment.

D. attachment.

Which is the last of Bowlby’s four phases in the growth of attachment?
A. Reciprocal relationships
B. Attachment in the making
C. True attachment
D. Preattachment

A. Reciprocal relationships

Eight-month-old Claire is able to crawl around a room on her own, looking back at her mother only occasionally. This indicates that Claire
A. is not attached to her mother.
B. has "purpose."
C. is in the "initiative versus guilt" stage.
D. trusts her mother.

D. trusts her mother.

You are the infant’s "playmate." When distressed, this child does not prefer you, but when the child wants to play, she chooses you. You are probably the child’s
A. mother.
B. teacher.
C. father.
D. next-door neighbor.

C. father.

Attachment is most critical to completing which of Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development?
A. Autonomy versus shame and doubt
B. Trust versus mistrust
C. Intimacy versus isolation
D. Initiative versus guilt

B. Trust versus mistrust

Which baby is most likely to be insecurely attached?
A. Isabelle, whose parents play with her frequently
B. Maud, whose parents are very affectionate toward her
C. Jessica, whose parents tend to not respond to her crying
D. Holly, whose parents often express happiness toward her

C. Jessica, whose parents tend to not respond to her crying

What advice should you give to a parent who wants his or her two-month-old to form a secure attachment?
A. "Be responsive and caring."
B. "Avoid discipline."
C. "Just be yourself."
D. "Don’t bottle-feed."

A. "Be responsive and caring."

Elise has been playing alone, upset, by herself in her room. When her mother returns, she is not comforted but seems angry with her mother. Elise is most likely exhibiting a(n) ____ attachment.
A. secure
B. avoidant
C. resistant
D. disoriented

C. resistant

If two-year-old Kelly had an internal working model, she would
A. believe that inanimate objects have the ability to move and breathe.
B. expect her mom to respond when she is upset.
C. talk to herself out loud.
D. form an insecure attachment to her parents.

B. expect her mom to respond when she is upset.

Research indicates that sending a young child to a high-quality daycare has ____ effects on toddler’s attachment to their mothers.
A. slightly negative
B. devastating
C. first adverse and then a positive
D. No

D. No

Which statement is true regarding basic emotions?
A. They are experienced by people in all cultures.
B. They have a self-evaluative component.
C. Most of them begin to develop after 12 months.
D. They are not reflected in facial expressions.

A. They are experienced by people in all cultures.

Pride, embarrassment, and guilt are all examples of
A. insecure attachment.
B. complex emotions.
C. constricting actions.
D. basic emotions.

B. complex emotions.

Seven-month-old Gavin seems very content being held by his mother. When the neighbor from across the street comes over to greet Gavin, he turns his head away from the neighbor and starts to cry. What term best explains Gavin’s response to the neighbor?
A. Social smile
B. Resistant attachment
C. Social referencing
D. Stranger wariness

D. Stranger wariness

One-year-old Kendra looks at her mother before entering a new room in a strange house. When her mother smiles, Kendra proceeds to enter the room. This is an example of
A. a social smile.
B. a complex emotion.
C. social referencing.
D. stranger wariness.

C. social referencing.

Stan is playing with his ball, and Olly is playing with his doll, but they are each watching what the other is doing. Stan and Olly are most likely involved in
A. cooperative play.
B. parallel play.
C. simple social play.
D. prosocial behavior.

B. parallel play.

Bud and Lou are both playing with blocks. Though they are playing, they smile at each other and trade blocks from time to time. It is most likely that Bud and Lou are involved in
A. cooperative play.
B. parallel play.
C. simple social play.
D. prosocial behavior.

C. simple social play.

Michelle and Warren are building a playhouse. Michelle says to Warren, "How about I help you with your part, then you help me with mine?" This offer would be an example of
A. an enabling action.
B. parallel play.
C. a constricting action.
D. altruism.

A. an enabling action.

Gender stereotypes influence behavior by providing
A. an explanation for biological differences between males and females.
B. accurate sex-based information.
C. the world with a set of universal guidelines.
D. a set of behavioral expectations.

D. a set of behavioral expectations.

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