PM CHAPTER 8

1. The quality assurance process involves taking responsibility for quality throughout the project's life cycle.

TRUE Performing quality assurance involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. The quality assurance process involves taking responsibility for quality throughout the project's life cycle.

2. Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the quality assurance process.

FALSE Controlling quality involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality. Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the quality control process.

3. The design of experiments technique cannot be applied to project management issues such as cost and schedule trade-offs.

FALSE Design of experiments is a technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process. You can also apply design of experiments to project management issues such as cost and schedule trade-offs.

4. Customer requirements are an important aspect of the quality planning process.

FALSE Quality planning also involves communicating the correct actions for ensuring quality in a format that is understandable and complete. In quality planning for projects, it is important to describe key factors that directly contribute to meeting the customer's requirements.

5. Reliability is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under deviant conditions.

FALSE Reliability is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions.

6. Project managers are ultimately responsible for quality management on their projects.

TRUE It is important for all project stakeholders to work together to balance the quality, scope, time, and cost dimensions of the project. Project managers, however, are ultimately responsible for quality management on their projects.

7. Only in-house auditors can perform quality audits.

FALSE In-house auditors or third parties with expertise in specific areas can perform quality audits; these quality audits can be scheduled or random.

8. Products that are accepted by project stakeholders are considered to be validated deliverables.

TRUE Acceptance decisions determine if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected. If they are accepted, they are considered to be validated deliverables.

9. A run chart is a bar graph that depicts data points and their order of occurrence.

FALSE A run chart displays the history and pattern of variation of a process over time. It is a line chart that shows data points plotted in the order of occurrence.

10. Using Six Sigma principles is an organization-wide commitment and all employees must embrace its principles.

TRUE Using Six Sigma principles is an organization-wide commitment. CEOs, top managers, and all levels of employees in an organization that embraces Six Sigma principles have seen remarkable improvements due to its use.

11. The Six Sigma approach works best for a project where a quality problem is identified between the current and desired performance.

TRUE The Six Sigma approach works best for a project where a quality problem is identified between the current and desired performance.

12. The term sigma means median.

FALSE An important concept in Six Sigma is improving quality by reducing variation. The term sigma means standard deviation.

13. Testing as a stage is important only at the end of an information technology product development.

FALSE Testing needs to be done during almost every phase of the systems development life cycle, not just before the organization ships or hands over a product to the customer.

14. Integration testing involves testing of each individual component to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible.

FALSE Integration testing occurs between unit and system testing to test functionally grouped components. It ensures that a subset or subsets of the entire system work together.

15. In TQC, product quality is more important than production rates, and workers are allowed to stop production whenever a quality problem occurs

TRUE In Total Quality Control, product quality is more important than production rates, and workers are allowed to stop production whenever a quality problem occurs.

16. DeMarco and Lister's study on organizations and productivity found direct correlations between productivity and programming language, years of experience, and salary.

FALSE DeMarco and Lister also found no correlation between productivity and programming language, years of experience, or salary. Furthermore, the study showed that providing a dedicated workspace and a quiet work environment were key factors in improving productivity.

17. Gantt charts cannot be used to aid project quality management.

FALSE Gantt charts can be created using project management software to help plan and track work related to project quality management.

1. _____ means the project's processes and products meet written specifications.
a. Conformance to requirements
b. Fitness for use
c. Project feasibility
d. Benchmarking

A Conformance to requirements means that the project's processes and products meet written specifications. For example, if the project scope statement requires delivery of 100 computers with specific processors and memory, you could easily check whether suitable computers had been delivered.

2. _____ means that a product can be used as it was intended.
a. Conformance to requirements
b. Fitness for use
c. Critical chain scheduling
d. Free slack

B Fitness for use means that a product can be used as it was intended.

3. Process improvement plan, quality metrics, and quality checklists are the outputs of the _____ process of project quality management.
a. controlling quality
b. planning quality management
c. quality certification
d. performing quality assurance

B The main outputs of planning quality management are a quality management plan, a process improvement plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, and project documents updates.

4. A _____ is a standard of measurement in quality management.
a. milestone
b. metric
c. merge
d. matrix

B A metric is a standard of measurement. Examples of common metrics include failure rates of products, availability of goods and services, and customer satisfaction ratings.

5. The _____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling.
a. quality planning
b. quality certification
c. quality assurance
d. quality control

D Controlling quality involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality. This process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling.

6. Performing quality assurance is a subprocess of the _____ process of project quality management.
a. initiating
b. closing
c. monitoring and controlling
d. executing

D Performing quality assurance is a subprocess of the executing process of project quality management.

7. Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the _____ subprocess of project quality management.
a. initiating
b. closing
c. monitoring and controlling
d. executing

C Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the monitoring and controlling subprocess of the quality control process of project quality management.

8. _____ is a technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process.

a. Design of experiments
b. Backward pass
c. Activity-on-arrow
d. Crashing

A Design of experiments is a technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process. Understanding which variables affect outcome is a very important part of quality planning.

9. _____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function.
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Maintainability
d. Functionality

D Functionality is the degree to which a system performs its intended function. Features are the system's special characteristics that appeal to users. It is important to clarify what functions and features the system must perform, and what functions and features are optional.

10. _____ are the system's special characteristics that appeal to users.
a. Features
b. Outputs
c. Yields
d. Metrics

A Features are the system's special characteristics that appeal to users. It is important to clarify what functions and features the system must perform, and what functions and features are optional.

11. _____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer's intended use.
a. Reliability
b. Performance
c. Maintainability
d. Functionality

B Performance addresses how well a product or service performs the customer's intended use.

12. _____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions.
a. Reliability
b. Performance
c. Maintainability
d. Functionality

A Reliability is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under abnormal conditions. In discussing reliability for IT projects, many people use the term IT service management.

13. _____ addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product.
a. Reliability
b. Performance
c. Maintainability
d. Functionality

C Maintainability addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product.

14. _____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization.
a. Prototyping
b. Systems thinking
c. Mind mapping
d. Benchmarking

D Benchmarking generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization.

15. _____ refers to action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations.
a. A process adjustment
b. Rework
c. An acceptance decision
d. Validation

B Rework is action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements, specifications, or other stakeholder expectations. Rework often results in requested changes and validated defect repair, and it results from recommended defect repair or corrective or preventive actions.

16. _____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements.
a. Process adjustments
b. Rework
c. Acceptance decisions
d. Decomposition

A Process adjustments correct or prevent further quality problems based on quality control measurements. Process adjustments often result in updates to the quality baseline, Organization process assets, and the project management plan.

17. A _____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time.
a. statistical sampling chart
b. Pareto chart
c. Six Sigma chart
d. control chart

D A control chart is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time. Control charts allow you to determine whether a process is in control or out of control.

18. _____ help users to identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system.
a. Gantt charts
b. Pareto charts
c. Control charts
d. Tracking Gantt charts

B A Pareto chart is a histogram that can help you identify and prioritize problem areas. The variables described by the histogram are ordered by frequency of occurrence. Pareto charts help you identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system.

19. _____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection.
a. Statistical sampling
b. Conformance
c. System testing
d. Fitness for use

A Statistical sampling is a key concept in project quality management.Statistical sampling involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection.

20. Six Sigma's target for perfection is the achievement of no more than _____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.
a. 1.34
b. 3.4
c. 34
d. 13.4

B Six Sigma's target for perfection is the achievement of no more than 3.4 defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.

21. Projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow a five-phase improvement process called _____.

a. DMAIC
b. weighted scoring model
c. configuration management
d. use case modeling

A Projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow a five-phase improvement process called DMAIC.

22. Important tools used in the _____ phase of the DMAIC process include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data.
a. define
b. measure
c. analyze
d. improve

A Important tools used in define phase include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data.

23. An important tool used in the _____ phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram.
a. define
b. measure
c. analyze
d. improve

C An important tool used in the analyze phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram.

24. A ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed).
a. skewed distribution
b. normal distribution
c. bimodal distribution
d. degenerate distribution

B A normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the mean or average value of the population (the data being analyzed).

25. A(n) _____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements.
a. defect
b. yield
c. deliverable
d. variance

A A defect is any instance in which the product or service fails to meet customer requirements. Because most products or services have multiple customer requirements, there can be several opportunities to have a defect.

26. The _____ is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities problems.
a. ISO 9000
b. six 9s of quality rule
c. seven run rule
d. Six Sigma rule

B Six 9s of quality is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities. In the telecommunications industry, it means 99.9999 percent service availability or 30 seconds of downtime a year.

27. A(n) _____ is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible.
a. integration test
b. unit test
c. user acceptance test
d. system test

B A unit test is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible. Unit tests are performed before moving on to the integration test.

28. ____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system.
a. Integration testing
b. Unit testing
c. User acceptance testing
d. System testing

C User acceptance testing is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system. It focuses on the business fit of the system to the organization, rather than technical issues.

29. Which of the following is one of Deming's 14 Points for Management?
a. An organization should increase dependence on inspection to achieve quality.
b. Award business based on price tag alone rather than on other considerations.
c. Minimize total cost by working with multiple suppliers rather than a single supplier.
d. Eliminate the annual rating
or merit system.

D Dr. W. Edwards Deming is known primarily for his work on quality control in Japan. One of Deming's 14 Points for Management states that an organization should remove barriers that rob people of workmanship and eliminate the annual rating or merit system.

30. One of Juran's ten steps to quality improvement states that:
a. an organization should minimize top management involvement in the achievement of individual employee goals.
b. an organization should entrust improvement to individual employees rather than appointing teams or facilitators.
c. an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement.
d. an organization should avoid "keeping score" in order to achieve an overall atmosphere of quality improvement.

C Joseph M. Juran wrote the first edition of the Quality Control Handbook in 1974, stressing the importance of top management commitment to continuous product quality improvement.One of Juran's ten steps states that an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement.

31. _____ wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects.
a. Juran
b. Ishikawa
c. Crosby
d. Deming

C Philip B. Crosby wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects.19 He stressed that the costs of poor quality should include all the costs of not doing the job right the first time, such as scrap, rework, lost labor hours and machine hours, customer ill will and lost sales, and warranty costs.

32. _____, a quality system standard is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization.
a. Seven run rule
b. ISO 9000
c. Six Sigma
d. ASQ

B ISO 9000, a quality system standard developed by the ISO, is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization

33. _____ is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range.
a. Prevention cost
b. Appraisal cost
c. Internal failure cost
d. External failure cost

B Appraisal cost is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range. Activities such as inspection and testing of products, maintenance of inspection and test equipment, and processing and reporting inspection data all contribute to appraisal costs of quality.

34. _____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer.
a. Prevention cost
b. Appraisal cost
c. Internal failure cost
d. External failure cost

D External failure cost is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and corrected before delivery to the customer. Items such as warranty cost, field service personnel training cost, product liability suits, complaint handling, and future business losses are examples of external failure costs.

35. _____ helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes.
a. SQFD
b. MTBI
c. OPM3
d. CMMI

D The Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) is "a process improvement approach that provides organizations with the essential elements of effective processes. It can be used to guide process improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization."

1. The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) defines _____ as "the totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs."

quality

2. The term _____ means a product can be used as it was intended.

fitness for use

3. The purpose of _____ is to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.

project quality management quality management

4. Performing _____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

quality assurance

5. Performing _____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.

quality control

6. _____ is a quality planning technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process.

Design of experiment

7. _____ are the screens and reports the system generates.

System outputs

8. _____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions.

Reliability

9. A(n)_____ is a structured review of specific quality management activities that help identify lessons learned that could improve performance on current or future projects.

quality audit

10. _____ correct or prevent further quality problems based on quality control measurements.

Process adjustments

11. _____ diagrams trace complaints about quality problems back to the responsible production operations.

Cause-and-effect Fishbone Ishikawa

13. _____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection.

Statistical sampling

12. In a _____, the closer data points are to a diagonal line, the more closely the two variables are related.

scatter diagram

14.Complete the formula: sample size = 0.25 * ( _____ /acceptable error)^2

certainty factor

15. In the DMAIC process, the letter "C" stands for _____.

control

16. _____ measures how much variation exists in a distribution of data.

Standard deviation

17. The _____ represents the number of units handled correctly through the process steps.

yield

18. _____ is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities.

Six 9s of quality Six nines of quality

19. Watts S. Humphrey defines a(n) _____ as anything that must be changed before delivery of the program.

software defect

20. _____ are groups of non-supervisors and work leaders in a single company department who volunteer to conduct group studies on how to improve the effectiveness of work in their department.

Quality circles

21. Genichi Taguchi's _____ methods focus on eliminating defects by substituting scientific inquiry for trial-and-error methods.

Robust Design

22. The _____ means taking responsibility for failures or not meeting quality expectations.

cost of nonconformance

23. The _____ model focuses on defining user requirements and planning software projects.

SQFD Software Quality Function Deployment Software Quality Function Deployment (SQFD) SQFD (Software Quality Function Deployment)

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1. The quality assurance process involves taking responsibility for quality throughout the project’s life cycle.

TRUE Performing quality assurance involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. The quality assurance process involves taking responsibility for quality throughout the project’s life cycle.

2. Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the quality assurance process.

FALSE Controlling quality involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality. Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the quality control process.

3. The design of experiments technique cannot be applied to project management issues such as cost and schedule trade-offs.

FALSE Design of experiments is a technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process. You can also apply design of experiments to project management issues such as cost and schedule trade-offs.

4. Customer requirements are an important aspect of the quality planning process.

FALSE Quality planning also involves communicating the correct actions for ensuring quality in a format that is understandable and complete. In quality planning for projects, it is important to describe key factors that directly contribute to meeting the customer’s requirements.

5. Reliability is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under deviant conditions.

FALSE Reliability is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions.

6. Project managers are ultimately responsible for quality management on their projects.

TRUE It is important for all project stakeholders to work together to balance the quality, scope, time, and cost dimensions of the project. Project managers, however, are ultimately responsible for quality management on their projects.

7. Only in-house auditors can perform quality audits.

FALSE In-house auditors or third parties with expertise in specific areas can perform quality audits; these quality audits can be scheduled or random.

8. Products that are accepted by project stakeholders are considered to be validated deliverables.

TRUE Acceptance decisions determine if the products or services produced as part of the project will be accepted or rejected. If they are accepted, they are considered to be validated deliverables.

9. A run chart is a bar graph that depicts data points and their order of occurrence.

FALSE A run chart displays the history and pattern of variation of a process over time. It is a line chart that shows data points plotted in the order of occurrence.

10. Using Six Sigma principles is an organization-wide commitment and all employees must embrace its principles.

TRUE Using Six Sigma principles is an organization-wide commitment. CEOs, top managers, and all levels of employees in an organization that embraces Six Sigma principles have seen remarkable improvements due to its use.

11. The Six Sigma approach works best for a project where a quality problem is identified between the current and desired performance.

TRUE The Six Sigma approach works best for a project where a quality problem is identified between the current and desired performance.

12. The term sigma means median.

FALSE An important concept in Six Sigma is improving quality by reducing variation. The term sigma means standard deviation.

13. Testing as a stage is important only at the end of an information technology product development.

FALSE Testing needs to be done during almost every phase of the systems development life cycle, not just before the organization ships or hands over a product to the customer.

14. Integration testing involves testing of each individual component to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible.

FALSE Integration testing occurs between unit and system testing to test functionally grouped components. It ensures that a subset or subsets of the entire system work together.

15. In TQC, product quality is more important than production rates, and workers are allowed to stop production whenever a quality problem occurs

TRUE In Total Quality Control, product quality is more important than production rates, and workers are allowed to stop production whenever a quality problem occurs.

16. DeMarco and Lister’s study on organizations and productivity found direct correlations between productivity and programming language, years of experience, and salary.

FALSE DeMarco and Lister also found no correlation between productivity and programming language, years of experience, or salary. Furthermore, the study showed that providing a dedicated workspace and a quiet work environment were key factors in improving productivity.

17. Gantt charts cannot be used to aid project quality management.

FALSE Gantt charts can be created using project management software to help plan and track work related to project quality management.

1. _____ means the project’s processes and products meet written specifications.
a. Conformance to requirements
b. Fitness for use
c. Project feasibility
d. Benchmarking

A Conformance to requirements means that the project’s processes and products meet written specifications. For example, if the project scope statement requires delivery of 100 computers with specific processors and memory, you could easily check whether suitable computers had been delivered.

2. _____ means that a product can be used as it was intended.
a. Conformance to requirements
b. Fitness for use
c. Critical chain scheduling
d. Free slack

B Fitness for use means that a product can be used as it was intended.

3. Process improvement plan, quality metrics, and quality checklists are the outputs of the _____ process of project quality management.
a. controlling quality
b. planning quality management
c. quality certification
d. performing quality assurance

B The main outputs of planning quality management are a quality management plan, a process improvement plan, quality metrics, quality checklists, and project documents updates.

4. A _____ is a standard of measurement in quality management.
a. milestone
b. metric
c. merge
d. matrix

B A metric is a standard of measurement. Examples of common metrics include failure rates of products, availability of goods and services, and customer satisfaction ratings.

5. The _____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling.
a. quality planning
b. quality certification
c. quality assurance
d. quality control

D Controlling quality involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality. This process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling.

6. Performing quality assurance is a subprocess of the _____ process of project quality management.
a. initiating
b. closing
c. monitoring and controlling
d. executing

D Performing quality assurance is a subprocess of the executing process of project quality management.

7. Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the _____ subprocess of project quality management.
a. initiating
b. closing
c. monitoring and controlling
d. executing

C Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the monitoring and controlling subprocess of the quality control process of project quality management.

8. _____ is a technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process.

a. Design of experiments
b. Backward pass
c. Activity-on-arrow
d. Crashing

A Design of experiments is a technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process. Understanding which variables affect outcome is a very important part of quality planning.

9. _____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function.
a. Reliability
b. Validity
c. Maintainability
d. Functionality

D Functionality is the degree to which a system performs its intended function. Features are the system’s special characteristics that appeal to users. It is important to clarify what functions and features the system must perform, and what functions and features are optional.

10. _____ are the system’s special characteristics that appeal to users.
a. Features
b. Outputs
c. Yields
d. Metrics

A Features are the system’s special characteristics that appeal to users. It is important to clarify what functions and features the system must perform, and what functions and features are optional.

11. _____ addresses how well a product or service performs the customer’s intended use.
a. Reliability
b. Performance
c. Maintainability
d. Functionality

B Performance addresses how well a product or service performs the customer’s intended use.

12. _____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions.
a. Reliability
b. Performance
c. Maintainability
d. Functionality

A Reliability is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under abnormal conditions. In discussing reliability for IT projects, many people use the term IT service management.

13. _____ addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product.
a. Reliability
b. Performance
c. Maintainability
d. Functionality

C Maintainability addresses the ease of performing maintenance on a product.

14. _____ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization.
a. Prototyping
b. Systems thinking
c. Mind mapping
d. Benchmarking

D Benchmarking generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization.

15. _____ refers to action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements or specifications or other stakeholder expectations.
a. A process adjustment
b. Rework
c. An acceptance decision
d. Validation

B Rework is action taken to bring rejected items into compliance with product requirements, specifications, or other stakeholder expectations. Rework often results in requested changes and validated defect repair, and it results from recommended defect repair or corrective or preventive actions.

16. _____ correct(s) or prevent(s) further quality problems based on quality control measurements.
a. Process adjustments
b. Rework
c. Acceptance decisions
d. Decomposition

A Process adjustments correct or prevent further quality problems based on quality control measurements. Process adjustments often result in updates to the quality baseline, Organization process assets, and the project management plan.

17. A _____ is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time.
a. statistical sampling chart
b. Pareto chart
c. Six Sigma chart
d. control chart

D A control chart is a graphic display of data that illustrates the results of a process over time. Control charts allow you to determine whether a process is in control or out of control.

18. _____ help users to identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system.
a. Gantt charts
b. Pareto charts
c. Control charts
d. Tracking Gantt charts

B A Pareto chart is a histogram that can help you identify and prioritize problem areas. The variables described by the histogram are ordered by frequency of occurrence. Pareto charts help you identify the vital few contributors that account for most quality problems in a system.

19. _____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection.
a. Statistical sampling
b. Conformance
c. System testing
d. Fitness for use

A Statistical sampling is a key concept in project quality management.Statistical sampling involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection.

20. Six Sigma’s target for perfection is the achievement of no more than _____ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.
a. 1.34
b. 3.4
c. 34
d. 13.4

B Six Sigma’s target for perfection is the achievement of no more than 3.4 defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.

21. Projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow a five-phase improvement process called _____.

a. DMAIC
b. weighted scoring model
c. configuration management
d. use case modeling

A Projects that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follow a five-phase improvement process called DMAIC.

22. Important tools used in the _____ phase of the DMAIC process include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data.
a. define
b. measure
c. analyze
d. improve

A Important tools used in define phase include a project charter, a description of customer requirements, process maps, and Voice of the Customer (VOC) data.

23. An important tool used in the _____ phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram.
a. define
b. measure
c. analyze
d. improve

C An important tool used in the analyze phase of the DMAIC process is the fishbone or Ishikawa diagram.

24. A ____ is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the average value of the population (the data being analyzed).
a. skewed distribution
b. normal distribution
c. bimodal distribution
d. degenerate distribution

B A normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical regarding the mean or average value of the population (the data being analyzed).

25. A(n) _____ is any instance where the product or service fails to meet customer requirements.
a. defect
b. yield
c. deliverable
d. variance

A A defect is any instance in which the product or service fails to meet customer requirements. Because most products or services have multiple customer requirements, there can be several opportunities to have a defect.

26. The _____ is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities problems.
a. ISO 9000
b. six 9s of quality rule
c. seven run rule
d. Six Sigma rule

B Six 9s of quality is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities. In the telecommunications industry, it means 99.9999 percent service availability or 30 seconds of downtime a year.

27. A(n) _____ is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible.
a. integration test
b. unit test
c. user acceptance test
d. system test

B A unit test is done to test each individual component (often a program) to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible. Unit tests are performed before moving on to the integration test.

28. ____ is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system.
a. Integration testing
b. Unit testing
c. User acceptance testing
d. System testing

C User acceptance testing is an independent test performed by end users prior to accepting the delivered system. It focuses on the business fit of the system to the organization, rather than technical issues.

29. Which of the following is one of Deming’s 14 Points for Management?
a. An organization should increase dependence on inspection to achieve quality.
b. Award business based on price tag alone rather than on other considerations.
c. Minimize total cost by working with multiple suppliers rather than a single supplier.
d. Eliminate the annual rating
or merit system.

D Dr. W. Edwards Deming is known primarily for his work on quality control in Japan. One of Deming’s 14 Points for Management states that an organization should remove barriers that rob people of workmanship and eliminate the annual rating or merit system.

30. One of Juran’s ten steps to quality improvement states that:
a. an organization should minimize top management involvement in the achievement of individual employee goals.
b. an organization should entrust improvement to individual employees rather than appointing teams or facilitators.
c. an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement.
d. an organization should avoid "keeping score" in order to achieve an overall atmosphere of quality improvement.

C Joseph M. Juran wrote the first edition of the Quality Control Handbook in 1974, stressing the importance of top management commitment to continuous product quality improvement.One of Juran’s ten steps states that an organization should build awareness of the need and opportunity for improvement.

31. _____ wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects.
a. Juran
b. Ishikawa
c. Crosby
d. Deming

C Philip B. Crosby wrote Quality Is Free in 1979 and is best known for suggesting that organizations strive for zero defects.19 He stressed that the costs of poor quality should include all the costs of not doing the job right the first time, such as scrap, rework, lost labor hours and machine hours, customer ill will and lost sales, and warranty costs.

32. _____, a quality system standard is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization.
a. Seven run rule
b. ISO 9000
c. Six Sigma
d. ASQ

B ISO 9000, a quality system standard developed by the ISO, is a three-part, continuous cycle of planning, controlling, and documenting quality in an organization

33. _____ is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range.
a. Prevention cost
b. Appraisal cost
c. Internal failure cost
d. External failure cost

B Appraisal cost is the cost of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure that a project is error-free or within an acceptable error range. Activities such as inspection and testing of products, maintenance of inspection and test equipment, and processing and reporting inspection data all contribute to appraisal costs of quality.

34. _____ is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and not corrected before delivery to the customer.
a. Prevention cost
b. Appraisal cost
c. Internal failure cost
d. External failure cost

D External failure cost is a cost that relates to all errors not detected and corrected before delivery to the customer. Items such as warranty cost, field service personnel training cost, product liability suits, complaint handling, and future business losses are examples of external failure costs.

35. _____ helps integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes.
a. SQFD
b. MTBI
c. OPM3
d. CMMI

D The Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) is "a process improvement approach that provides organizations with the essential elements of effective processes. It can be used to guide process improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization."

1. The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) defines _____ as "the totality of characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs."

quality

2. The term _____ means a product can be used as it was intended.

fitness for use

3. The purpose of _____ is to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.

project quality management quality management

4. Performing _____ involves periodically evaluating overall project performance to ensure that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

quality assurance

5. Performing _____ involves monitoring specific project results to ensure that they comply with the relevant quality standards while identifying ways to improve overall quality.

quality control

6. _____ is a quality planning technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process.

Design of experiment

7. _____ are the screens and reports the system generates.

System outputs

8. _____ is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under normal conditions.

Reliability

9. A(n)_____ is a structured review of specific quality management activities that help identify lessons learned that could improve performance on current or future projects.

quality audit

10. _____ correct or prevent further quality problems based on quality control measurements.

Process adjustments

11. _____ diagrams trace complaints about quality problems back to the responsible production operations.

Cause-and-effect Fishbone Ishikawa

13. _____ involves choosing part of a population of interest for inspection.

Statistical sampling

12. In a _____, the closer data points are to a diagonal line, the more closely the two variables are related.

scatter diagram

14.Complete the formula: sample size = 0.25 * ( _____ /acceptable error)^2

certainty factor

15. In the DMAIC process, the letter "C" stands for _____.

control

16. _____ measures how much variation exists in a distribution of data.

Standard deviation

17. The _____ represents the number of units handled correctly through the process steps.

yield

18. _____ is a measure of quality control equal to 1 fault in 1 million opportunities.

Six 9s of quality Six nines of quality

19. Watts S. Humphrey defines a(n) _____ as anything that must be changed before delivery of the program.

software defect

20. _____ are groups of non-supervisors and work leaders in a single company department who volunteer to conduct group studies on how to improve the effectiveness of work in their department.

Quality circles

21. Genichi Taguchi’s _____ methods focus on eliminating defects by substituting scientific inquiry for trial-and-error methods.

Robust Design

22. The _____ means taking responsibility for failures or not meeting quality expectations.

cost of nonconformance

23. The _____ model focuses on defining user requirements and planning software projects.

SQFD Software Quality Function Deployment Software Quality Function Deployment (SQFD) SQFD (Software Quality Function Deployment)

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