MicroBiology Chapter 18

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1) All of the following are generally used in vaccines EXCEPT
A) toxoids.
B) inactivated viruses.
C) antibodies.
D) parts of bacterial cells.
E) live, attenuated bacteria.

C) antibodies.

2) Patient’s serum, influenza virus, and red blood cells are mixed in a tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies against influenza virus?
A) agglutination
B) hemolysis
C) hemagglutination
D) complement fixation
E) hemagglutination-inhibition

A) agglutination

3) A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) The patient may have had the disease and has recovered.
B) The patient may have the disease.
C) The patient may have been vaccinated.
D) The patient was near someone who had the disease.
E) A recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies.

D) The patient was near someone who had the disease.

4) In an agglutination test, eight serial dilutions to determine antibody titer were set up. Tube #1 contained a 1:2 dilution; tube #2, a 1:4, etc. If tube #6 is the last tube showing agglutination, what is the antibody titer?
A) 32
B) 6
C) 1:6
D) 64
E) 1:32

D) 64

5) An ELISA for Hepatitis C has 95 percent sensitivity and 90 percent specificity. This means that the test
A) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
B) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 90 percent false positive results.
C) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
D) detects 5 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.
E) detects 90 percent of the true positive samples and has 5 percent false positive results.

C) detects 95 percent of the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results.

6) Which of the following are sources of antibodies for serological testing?
A) vaccinated animals
B) monoclonal antibodies
C) viral cultures
D) vaccinated animals and monoclonal antibodies
E) vaccinated animals, monoclonal antibodies, and viral cultures

D) vaccinated animals and monoclonal antibodies

7) A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called a(n)
A) complement fixation.
B) agglutination reaction.
C) precipitation reaction.
D) neutralization reaction.
E) immunofluorescence.

C) precipitation reaction.

8) A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called a(n)
A) precipitation reaction.
B) agglutination reaction.
C) complement fixation.
D) immunofluorescence.
E) neutralization reaction.

B) agglutination reaction.

9) A reaction that uses the absence of hemolysis of red blood cells to indicate an antigenantibody reaction is called a(n)
A) immunofluorescence.
B) agglutination reaction.
C) precipitation reaction.
D) complement fixation.
E) neutralization reaction.

D) complement fixation.

10) A DNA plasmid encoding a protein antigen from West Nile virus is injected into muscle cells of a horse. This is an example of a(n)
A) live whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) nucleic acid vaccine.
E) subunit vaccine.

D) nucleic acid vaccine.

11) Toxoid vaccines, such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus, elicit a(n)
A) dendritic cell proliferation.
B) TC cell response.
C) antibody response against gram-positive bacteria.
D) antibody response against these bacterial toxins.
E) immune complex.

D) antibody response against these bacterial toxins.

12) The clumping of test cells indicates a negative test result in the
A) viral hemagglutination inhibition test.
B) precipitation test.
C) indirect agglutination test.
D) complement-fixation test.
E) direct agglutination test.

A) viral hemagglutination inhibition test.

13) What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?
A) attenuated whole-agent vaccine
B) subunit vaccine
C) nucleic acid vaccine
D) conjugated vaccine
E) toxoid vaccine

C) nucleic acid vaccine

14) Purified protein from Bordetella pertussis is used in a(n)
A) toxoid vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
E) conjugated vaccine.

B) subunit vaccine.

15) What type of vaccine is the live measles virus?
A) toxoid vaccine
B) nucleic acid vaccine
C) attenuated whole-agent vaccine
D) conjugated vaccine
E) subunit vaccine

C) attenuated whole-agent vaccine

16) A test used to identify antibodies against Treponema pallidum in a patient’s serum is the
A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
B) direct ELISA test.
C) hemagglutination-inhibition test.
D) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
E) direct agglutination test.

D) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.

17) A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient’s throat swab is the
A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
B) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.
C) hemagglutination test.
D) indirect ELISA test.
E) hemagglutination-inhibition test.

A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.

18) A test used to detect anti-Rickettsia antibodies in a patient’s serum is the
A) direct fluorescent-antibody test.
B) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.

B) indirect fluorescent-antibody test.

19) Which of the following is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a woman’s urine using anti-HCG and latex spheres?
A) direct agglutination reaction
B) indirect agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction

B) indirect agglutination reaction

20) Which of the following is a test to determine a patient’s blood type by mixing the patient’s red blood cells with antisera?
A) direct agglutination reaction
B) passive agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction

A) direct agglutination reaction

21) Which of the following is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in a patient’s saliva?
A) direct agglutination reaction
B) passive agglutination reaction
C) immunofluorescence
D) neutralization reaction
E) precipitation reaction

E) precipitation reaction

22) A patient’s serum, Mycobacterium, guinea pig complement, sheep red blood cells, and anti-sheep red blood cell antibodies are mixed in a test tube. What happens if the patient has antibodies to Mycobacterium?
A) No hemolysis occurs.
B) Hemagglutination occurs.
C) Hemolysis occurs.
D) Bacteria fluoresce.
E) Hemagglutination-inhibition occurs.

A) No hemolysis occurs.

23) A vaccine against HIV proteins made by vaccinia virus is a(n)
A) conjugated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

B) subunit vaccine.

24) Inactivated tetanus toxin is a(n)
A) conjugated vaccine.
B) subunit vaccine.
C) nucleic acid vaccine.
D) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

E) toxoid vaccine.

25) A hybridoma results from the fusion of a(an)
A) myeloma cell with a virus.
B) antigen with a B cell.
C) B cell with a T cell.
D) antigen with an antibody.
E) B cell with a myeloma cell.

E) B cell with a myeloma cell.

Antibody Titer
Day 1 Day 7 Day 14 Day 21
Patient A 0 0 256 512
Patient B 128 256 512 1024
Patient C 0 0 0 0
Patient D 128 128 128 128
26) In Table 18.1, who probably has the disease?
A) Patients A and C
B) Patients A and D
C) Patients C and D
D) Patients A and B
E) Patients B and C

D) Patients A and B

27) In Table 18.1, who is most likely protected from the disease?
A) Patient A
B) Patient B
C) Patient C
D) Patient D

D) Patient D

28) In Table 18.1, who showed seroconversion during these observations?
A) Patient A
B) Patient B
C) Patient C
D) Patient D

A) Patient A

29) Which component in Figure 18.1 came from the patient in this ELISA test?
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) d
E) e

B) b

30) Figure 18.1 is an illustration of a(an)
A) hemagglutination test.
B) complement fixation test.
C) direct ELISA test.
D) indirect ELISA test.
E) precipitation test.

D) indirect ELISA test.

31) Monoclonal antibodies are used in diagnostic tests and disease treatments because they
A) are highly specific.
B) can be produced in large quantities.
C) contain a mixture of antibodies.
D) are highly specific and they can be produced in large quantities.
E) are highly specific, they can be produced in large quantities, and they contain a mixture of antibodies.

D) are highly specific and they can be produced in large quantities.

32) The following steps are used to produce monoclonal antibodies. What is the fourth step?
A) Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell.
B) Vaccinate a mouse.
C) A B cell is activated to produce antibodies.
D) Culture the hybridoma.
E) Isolate antibody-producing B cells.

A) Fuse a B cell to a myeloma cell.

33) Palivizumab is used to treat respiratory syncytial virus disease. This antiviral drug is a(n)
A) toxoid.
B) vaccine.
C) immunosuppressive.
D) monoclonal antibody.
E) nucleoside analog.

D) monoclonal antibody.

34) Live polio virus can be used in a(n)
A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.

35) Haemophilus capsule polysaccharide plus diphtheria toxoid is a(n)
A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

C) conjugated vaccine.

36) Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in a(n)
A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.

37) Hepatitis B virus surface antigen can be used in a(n)
A) inactivated whole-agent vaccine.
B) attenuated whole-agent vaccine.
C) conjugated vaccine.
D) subunit vaccine.
E) toxoid vaccine.

D) subunit vaccine.

38) In a direct ELISA test to screen for drugs in a patient’s urine, what is the third step in the test process?
A) substrate for the enzyme
B) antibody against the drug being tested
C) the patient’s urine sample
D) enzyme-labeled antibodies against the drug being tested

D) enzyme-labeled antibodies against the drug being tested

39) Which item is from the patient in a direct ELISA test?
A) antihuman immune serum
B) antibodies against the antigen
C) antigen
D) substrate for the enzyme

C) antigen

40) Which of the following tests is MOST useful in determining the presence of AIDS antibodies?
A) agglutination
B) complement fixation
C) indirect ELISA
D) neutralization
E) direct fluorescent-antibody

C) indirect ELISA

41) Which of the following uses fluorescent-labeled antibodies?
A) flow cytometry
B) neutralization
C) complement fixation
D) precipitation
E) agglutination

A) flow cytometry

42) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of live attenuated vaccine agents?
A) They occasionally revert to virulent forms.
B) They require few or no booster immunizations.
C) The immune response generated by the vaccine closely mimics a real infection.
D) They stimulate by cell-mediated and humoral immune responses.
E) They elicit lifelong immunity.

A) They occasionally revert to virulent forms.

43) In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patient’s serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a precipitate forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well. In this test process, what is in the second well?
A) antibodies
B) mycelia
C) red blood cells
D) a fungal antigen
E) fungal cells

D) a fungal antigen

44) In an immunodiffusion test to diagnose histoplasmosis, a patient’s serum is placed in a well in an agar plate. In a positive test, a line forms as the serum diffuses from the well and meets material diffusing from a second well. What type of test is this?
A) a precipitation reaction
B) an ELISA test
C) a direct test
D) a complement-fixation test
E) an agglutination reaction

A) a precipitation reaction

45) Which of the following statements about measles is FALSE?
A) Complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, and death.
B) Annually, it kills thousands of children worldwide.
C) It is a serious disease.
D) The disease has been eradicated in the United States.
E) It is preventable by vaccination.

D) The disease has been eradicated in the United States.

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