Microbiology ch. 5 and 6

Protists include
A. Yeasts and molds
B. Algae and protozoa
C. Helminths
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct

B. Algae and protozoa

The eukaryotic cell organelle that most resembles a bacterial cell is the
A. Nucleus
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria
D. Lysosome
E. Ribosome

C. Mitochondria

The endosymbiotic theory says that precursor eukaryotic cells acquired flagella by endosymbiosis with a _____ ancestor and others gained photosynthetic ability from endosymbiosis with a _____ ancestor.
A. Protozoan, algae
B. Archaea, cyanobacteria
C. Spirochete, cyanobacteria
D. Helminth, algae
E. None of the choices are correct

C. Spirochete, cyanobacteria

The endosymbiotic theory has been developed to explain the emergence of
A. Archea
B. Bacteria
C. Prokaryotes
D. Eukaryotes
E. None of the choices are correct

D. Eukaryotes

Biologists have found evidence that eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic organisms by a process of intracellular
A. Symbiosis
B. Parasitisim
C. Communalism
D. None of the choices are correct

A. Symbiosis

Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells?
A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Lysosomes
E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

Eukaryotic flagella differ from prokaryotic flagella because only eukaryotic flagella
A. Are used for cell motility
B. Facilitate chemo taxis
C. Facilitate photo taxis
D. Are long whip-like structures
E. Contain microtubules

E. Contain microtubules

Cilia are found in certain
A. Protozoa
B. Algae
C. Fungi
D. Bacteria
E. All of the choices are correct

A. Protozoa

There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _____ found inside eukaryotic flagella and cilia.
A. Filaments
B. Microtubules
C. Flagella
D. Cilia
E. None of the choices are correct

B. Microtubules

Cell walls are not found on typical cells of
A. Protozoa
B. Algae
C. Fungi
D. Bacteria
E. All of the choices are correct

A. Protozoa

The eukaryotic cell’s glycocalyx is
A. Mostly polysaccharide
B. The site where many metabolic reactions occur
C. Also called the cell wall
D. Composed of many diverse proteins
E. Protection against osmotic lysis

A. Mostly polysaccharide

Which of the following is not a function of the eukaryote glycocalyx?
A. Protection
B. Adherence
C. Movement
D. Reception of chemical signals
E. All of the choices are functions

C. Movement

Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of
A. Protozoa
B. Algae
C. Fungi
D. Bacteria
E. All of the choices are correct

C. Fungi

The eukaryote cell membrane is composed of
A. Sterols
B. Proteins
C. Phospholipids
D. All of these
E. Only sterols and phospholipids

D. All of these

The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is the
A. Ribosome
B. Nucleolus
C. Nucleus
D. Golgi apparatus
E. Lysosome

B. Nucleolus

When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible thread-like mass called the
A. Nuclear envelope
B. Nucleosome
C. Nucleolus
D. Nucleoplasm
E. Chromatin

E. Chromatin

Histones are
A. Found in polyribosomes
B. Enzymes found in lysosomes
C. Proteins of the cytoskeleton
D. Proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus
E. On the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum

D. Proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus

The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances to and from the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear
A. His tones
B. Chromatin
C. Pores
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
E. Inclusions

C. Pores

The cell’s series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the
A. Mitochondria
B. Iysosomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Chloroplasts
E. Endoplasmic reticulum

E. Endoplasmic reticulum

An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify and package proteins for cell secretion is the
A. Mitochondria
B. Lysosomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Chloroplasts
E. Endoplasmic reticulum

C. Golgi apparatus

Protists with contractile vacuoles
A. Are algae
B. Use them to expel excess water from the cell
C. Typically live in salty seawater
D. Use them for motility
E. All of the choices are correct

B. Use them to expel excess water from the cell

A _____ originates from the golgi apparatus as one type of vesicle that contains a variety of enzymes for intracellular digestion.
A. Perixosome
B. Lysosome
C. Magneto some
D. Inclusion
E. Ribosome

B. Lysosome

Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found?
A. Mitochondria
B. Lysosomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Chloroplasts
E. Endoplasmic reticulum

A. Mitochondria

Mitochondria possess all of the following except
A. Enzymes for metabolism
B. Cristae
C. Electron transport chain proteins
D. Enzymes for photosynthesis
E. 70S ribosomes (prokaryote)

D. Enzymes for photosyntesis

Which organelle is found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi?
A. Mitochondria
B. Lysosomes
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Chloroplasts
E. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Chloroplasts

In eukaryotic cells, which of the following contains DNA?
A. Nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus
B. Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus
C. Nucleus, nucleolus, Golgi apparatus
D. Nucleus, chloroplast, mitochondria
E. Nucleus, chloroplast, peroxisome

D. Nucleus, chloroplast, mitochondria

Chloroplasts are composed of membranous sacs called _____ that carry chlorophyll. Surrounding these sacs is a ground substance called _____.
A. Thylakoids, stroma
B. Granna, stroma
C. Cristae, stroma
D. Cristae, matrix
E. Thylakoid, matrix

A. Thylakoids, stroma

The size of a eukaryotic cell ribosome is
A. 30S
B. 40S
C. 50S
D. 70S
E. 80S

E. 80S

Which of the following is not true of the cytoskeleton?
A. Structural framework for the cell
B. Anchor points for organelles
C. Made up of microfilaments
D. Made up of microtubules
E. Made up of cilia

E. Made up of cilia

In eukaryotic cells, ribosomes have two locations: scattered in the _____ and on the surface of _____.
A. Cytoplasm, golgi apparatus
B. Nucleus, golgi apparatus
C. Cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum
D. Cytoplasm, golgi apparatus
E. Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum

C. Cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum

The cytoskeleton
A. Anchors organelles
B. Provides support
C. Functions in movements of the cytoplasm
D. Helps maintain cell shape
E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

Filamentous fungi are called
A. Pseudohyphae
B. Septa
C. Molds
D. Dimorphic
E. Mycelium

C. Molds

When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called
A. Pseudohyphae
B. Septa
C. Molds
D. Dimorphic
E. Mycelium

A. Pseudohyphae

Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called
A. Dimorphic
B. Saprobes
C. Pseudohyphae
D. Spores
E. Parasites

A. Dimorphic

Which is not a characteristic of fungi?
A. Cells have cell walls
B. Photosynthetic
C. Include single-celled and filamentous forms
D. Heterotrophic nutrition
E. Can use a wide variety of nutrients

B. Photosynthetic

The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called
A. Conidiophores
B. Pseudohyphae
C. Hyphae
D. Septate
E. Ascus

C. Hyphae

Most fungi obtain nutrients from dead plants and animals. These fungi are called
A. Saprobes
B. Parasites
C. Substrates
D. Nonseptate
E. Dimorphic

A. Saprobes

The woven, intertwining mass of hyphae that makes up the body of a mold is a/an
A. Septum
B. Rhizoid
C. Spore
D. Bud
E. Mycelium

E. Mycellum

Fungal asexual spores
A. Are only produced under harmful environmental conditions
B. Are only asexually produced
C. Cannot be seen in a light microscope
D. Are produced by molds but not by yeasts
E. Are used to identify fungi

E. Are used to identify fungi

What two categories of fungi cause human diseases?
A. Primary and secondary
B. Primary and vegetative
C. Opportunistic and primary
D. Secondary and opportunistic
E. Vegetative and reproductive

C. Opportunistic and primary

Blooms of certain alga are associated with all of the following except
A. Paralytic shellfish poisoning
B. Red tides
C. Ciguatera
D. Pfiesteria piscicida
E. Amoebic dysentery

E. Amoebic dysentery

Pfiesteria is a/an
A. Toxic fungus
B. Toxic algae
C. Toxic heminth
D. Toxic protozoan
E. Bacterial endospore

B. Toxic algae

During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a/an
A. Endospore
B. Cyst
C. Seed
D. Trophozoite
E. Sporozoa

B. Cyst

All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except
A. Motility
B. Ectoplasm and endoplasm
C. Heterotrophic nutrition
D. Formation of a cyst stage
E. Cell wall

E. Cell wall

The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the
A. Trophozoite
B. Cyst
C. Sporozoite
D. Oocyst
E. Food vacuole

A. Trophozoite

The group of protozoa that have flagella are the
A. Sarcodina
B. Ciliophora
C. Mastigophora
D. Apicomplexa
E. None of the choices are correct

C. Mastigophora

The group of protozoa that are not mobile are the
A. Sarcodina
B. Ciliophora
C. Mastigophora
D. Apicomplexa
E. None of the choices are correct

D Apicomplexa

The group of protozoa that use pseudopodia to move are the
A. Sarcodina
B. Ciliophora
C. Mastigophora
D. Apicomplexa
E. None of the choices are correct

A. Sarcodina

Which is mismatched?
A. Giardia-transmitted by feces in drinking water
B. Histoplasma-causes Ohio Valley fever
C. Trichomonas-sexually transmitted
D. Plasmodium-causes Chagas disease
E. Trypanosomes -causes African sleeping sickness

D. Plasmodium-causes Chagas disease

Protozoan endoplasm contains
A. Ectoplasm
B. Mitochondria
C. Flagella
D. Oral groves
E. None of the choices are correct

B. Mitochondria

Protozoan cysts
A. Are part of all protozoan life cycles
B. Are necessary for transmission to a new host
C. Are analogous to bacterial endospores
D. Are the primary form of replication
E. All of the choices are correct

C. Are analogous to bacterial endospores

Amoebic dysentery is most commonly contracted through the
A. Fecal oral route from contaminated food or water
B. Direct transmission from one host to another
C. Puncture wounds
D. Insect bites
E. None of the choices are correct

A. Fecal oral route from contaminated food or water

The vector for the trypanosome of Chagas disease is the
A. Mosquito
B. Deer tick
C. Tse-tse fly
D. Reduviid bug
E. Nematode

D. Reduviid bug

All of the following are helminths except
A. Pinworms
B. Flukes
C. Trypanosomes
D. Roundworms
E. Tapeworms

C. Trypanosomes

Which of the following does not pertain to helminths?
A. In kingdom Protista
B. Parasitic worms
C. Eggs and sperm used for reproduction
D. Often alternate hosts in complex life cycles
E. Have various organ systems

A. In kingdom Protista

Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of
A. Protozoa
B. Algae
C. Helminthes
D. Fungi
E. None of the choices are correct

C. Helminthes

All of the following are helminths except
A. Tapeworms
B. Flukes
C. Flatworms
D. Round worms
E. All of the choices are helminthes

E. All of choices are helminthes

Adulthood and mating of helminths occur in which host?
A. Primary host
B. Secondary host
C. Definitive host
D. Transport host
E. Mating takes place in all hosts

D. Definitive host

Larval development of helminths occurs in which host?
A. Primary host
B. Secondary host
C. Definitive host
D. Transport host
E. Mating takes place in all hosts

B. Secondary host

Parasitic worms have a highly developed ______ system.
A. Digestive
B. Nervous
C. Respiratory
D. Muscular
E. Reproductive

E. Reproductive

In humans, helminthes generally infect the
A. Digestive tract
B. Urinary tract
C. Nervous system
D. Muscular system
E. Skin

A. Digestive tract

After returning from a trip to Africa, Tom begins to feel very tired and weak. He has severe anemia. A blood smear reveals a protozoan is present in his blood. The health care provider tells Tom he has malaria. Which of the following could be the causative agent of his disease?
A. HIV
B. T. solium
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Trichophyton

C. Plasmodium malariae

Eating undercooked meat can lead to food poisoning and helminthic infection. What is the common host for Taenia solium?
A. Geese
B. Ducks
C. Pigs
D. Cows

C. Pigs

Under extreme conditions some bacilli go into a dormant, non-vegetative state called__ formation.
A. ciliated
B. cytoplasmic streaming
C. ameobiod
D. endospore

D. endospore

The eukaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols.
True or False.

False

The cell wall of fungi and algae are chemically identical to the prokaryotic cell wall.
True or False.

False

Chromosomes are generally not visible in the nucleus unless the cell is undergoing nuclear division.
True or False

True

The nuclear envelope is a single layer.
True or False.

False

Rough endoplasmic reticulum is studded with ribosomes.
True or False.

True

Eukaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA.
True or False.

True

Algae are classified into Divisions based principally on their type of motility.
True or False.

False

Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses.
True or False.

True

All fungi have hyphae. True or False.

False

In humans, fungi can only infect the skin.
True or False

False

All fungi cause some kind of disease in plants and animals.
True or False.

False

Fungi can reproduce both sexually and asexually.
True or False.

True

All algae have chloroplasts.
True or False.

True

Plankton are floating communities of helminths.
True or False.

False

There are no algae that can cause human disease.
True or False.

False

Viruses have all the following except
A. Definite shape
B. Metabolism
C. Genes
D. Ability to infect host cells
E. Ultramicroscopic size

B. Metabolism

Host cells of viruses include
A. Human and other animals
B. Plants and fungi
C. Bacteria
D. Protozoa and algae
E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

Viruses
A. Cannot be seen in a light microscope
B. Are prokaryotic
C. Contain 70S ribosomes
D. Undergo binary fission
E. All of the choices are correct

A. Cannot be seen in a light microscope

Virus capsids are made from subunits called
A. Envelopes
B. Spikes
C. Capsomeres
D. Prophages
E. Peplomers

C. Capsomeres

Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus
A. Spike
B. Capsomere
C. Envelope
D. Capsid
E. Core

D. Capsid

A _____ is the protein shell around the nucleic acid core of a virus.
A. Capsomere
B. Capsid
C. Spike
D. Envelope
E. Monolayer

B. Capsid

One of the principal capsid shapes is a 20-sided figure with 12 evenly spaced corners referred to as a(n) _____ capsid.
A. Spiked
B. Complex
C. Icosahedral
D. Helical
E. Buckeyball

C. Icosahedral

A naked virus only has a(n)
A. Capsid
B. Capsomere
C. Nucleocapsid
D. Envelope
E. Antigenic surface

C. Nucleocapsid

Which of the following is not a typical capsid shape?
A. Tetrahedral
B. Complex
C. Helical
D. Icosahedron
E. All of the choices are capsid shapes

A. Tetrahedral

All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except
A. Gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane
B. Gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane
C. Contain special virus proteins
D. Help the virus particle attach to host cells
E. Located between the capsid and nucleic acid

E. Located between the capsid and nucleic acid

Viral spikes
A. Are always present on enveloped viruses
B. Bind viral capsid and envelope together
C. Allow bacteria to evade host defenses
D. Are derived from host proteins
E. All of the choices are correct

B. Bind viral capsid and envelope together

The core of every virus particle always contains
A. DNA
B. Capsomeres
C. Enzymes
D. DNA and RNA
E. Either DNA or RNA

E. Either DNA or RNA

Which of the following is not associated with every virus?
A. Envelope
B. Capsomeres
C. Capsid
D. Nucleic acid
E. Genome

A. Envelope

Viral nucleic acids include which of the following
A. Double stranded DNA
B. Single stranded DNA
C. Double stranded RNA
D. Single stranded RNA
E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

Reverse transcriptase synthesizes
A. The positive RNA strand from a negative RNA strand
B. A negative RNA strand from a positive RNA strand
C. Viral RNA from DNA
D. Viral DNA from RNA
E. None of the choices are correct

E. None of the choices are correct

A negative RNA virus must first
A. Synthesize a DNA copy of its genome
B. Synthesize a negative RNA copy of its genome
C. Synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome
D. Transcribe reverse transcriptase
E. Transcribe RNA polymerase

C. Synthesize a positive RNA copy of its genome.

Viruses with _____ sense RNA contain the correct message for translation, while viruses with _____ sense RNA must first be converted into a correct message.
A. Positive, negative
B. Negative, positive
C. Primary, secondary
D. Secondary, primary
E. None of the choices are correct

A. Positive, negative

Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except
A. Type of nucleic acid
B. Type of capsid
C. Presence of an envelope
D. Biochemical reactions
E. Number of strands in the nucleic acid

D. Biochemical reactions

Which of the following represents a virus family name?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Herpesviridae
C. Picornavirus
D. Enterovirus
E. Hepatitis B virus

B. Herpesviridae

Which of the following is not a viral order in the classification system?
A. Caudovirales
B. Vaccinia virus
C. Nidovirales
D. Mononegavirales
E. All of the choices are viral orders

B. Vaccinia virus

The correct sequence of events in viral multiplication is
A. Penetration, uncoating, synthesis, adsorption, assembly, release
B. Uncoating, penetration, synthesis, assembly, absorption, release
C. Adsorption, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, release
D. Assembly, synthesis, uncoating, release, penetration, adsorption
E. Adsorption, release, synthesis, uncoating, assembly, penetration

C. Adsorption, penetration, uncoating, synthesis, assembly, release

Viruses acquire envelopes around their nucleocapsids during
A. Replication
B. Assembly
C. Adsorption
D. Release
E. Penetration

D. Release

In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell’s _____, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell’s _____.
A. Nucleus, cytoplasm
B. Cytoplasm, cell membrane
C. Cell membrane, cytoplasm
D. Cytoplasm, nucleus
E. Nucleus, endoplasmic reticulum

A. Nucleus, cytoplasm

Host range is limited by
A. Type of nucleic acid in the virus
B. Age of the host cell
C. Type of host cell receptors on cell membrane
D. Size of the host cell
E. All of the choices are correct

C. Type of host cell receptors on cell membrane

Oncogenic viruses include all the following except
A. Hepatitis B virus
B. Measles virus
C. Papillomavirus
D. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses
E. Epstein-Barr virus

B. Measles virus

Which of the following is a type of cytopathic effect?
A. Inclusions in the nucleus
B. Multinucleated giant cells
C. Inclusions in the cytoplasm
D. Cells round up
E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

The envelope of enveloped viruses is
A. Identical to the host plasma membrane
B. Only compose of host endomembrane
C. Always includes spikes
D. Is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis
E. None of the choices are correct

D. Is obtained by viral budding or exocytosis

Viruses attach to their hosts via
A. Host glycoproteins
B. Host phospholipids
C. Viral phospholipids
D. Viral flagella
E. All of the choices are correct

A. Host glycoproteins

Viral tissue specificities are called
A. Ranges
B. Virions
C. Receptacles
D. Tropisms
E. Uncoating

D. Tropisms

The process of dissolving the envelope and capsid to release the viral nucleic acid is
A. Adsorption
B. Penetration
C. Uncoating
D. Synthesis
E. Assembly

C. Uncoating

Which of the following occurs during assembly?
A. Nucleocapsid is formed
B. New viral nucleic acid is formed
C. Viral spikes insert in host cell membrane
D. All of the choices occur
E. Only choices A and C occur

E. Only choices A and C occur

Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are
A. Chronic latent viruses
B. Oncoviruses
C. Syncytia
D. Inclusion bodies
E. Cytiopathic

B. Oncoviruses

Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are
A. Chronic latent viruses
B. Oncoviruses
C. Syncytia
D. Inclusion bodies
E. Cytiopathic

A. Chronic latent viruses

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transformed cell?
A. Viral nucleic acid integrated into host DNA
B. Decreased growth rate
C. Alterations in chromosomes
D. Changes in cell surface molecules
E. Capacity to divide indefinitely

B. Decreased growth rate

New, nonenveloped virus release occurs by
A. Lysis
B. Budding
C. Exocytosis
D. Both lysis and budding
E. Both budding and exocytosis

A. Lysis

What structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors?
A. Sheath
B. Tail fibers
C. Nucleic acid
D. Capsid head
E. None of the choices are correct

B. Tail fibers

Which of the following is incorrect about prophages?
A. Present when the virus is in lysogeny
B. Formed when viral DNA enters the bacterial chromosome
C. Replicated with host DNA and passed on to progeny
D. Cause lysis of host cells
E. Occur when temperate phages enter host cells

D. Cause lysis of host cells

T-even phages
A. Include the poxviruses
B. Infect Escherichia coli cells
C. Enter host cells by engulfment
D. Have helical capsids
E. All of the choices are correct

B. Infect Esherichia coli cells

The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is
A. Adsorption to the host cells
B. Injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell
C. Host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins
D. Assembly of nucleocapsids
E. Replication of viral nucleic acid

B. Injection of only the viral nucleic acid into the host cell

Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called
A. Latent
B. Oncogenic
C. Prions
D. Viroids
E. Delta agents

A. Latent

Uncoating of viral nucleic acid
A. Does not occur in bacteriophage multiplication
B. Involves enzymatic destruction of the capsid
C. Occurs during penetration in the multiplication cycle
D. Occurs before replication
E. All of the choices are correct

E. All of the choices are correct

In transduction, the viral genome
A. Initiates lysis of the host
B. Includes DNA from the previous host
C. Is replicated in the cytoplasm
D. Is replicated in the nucleus
E. None of the choices are correct

B. Includes DNA from the previous host

Lysogeny refers to
A. Altering the host range of a virus
B. Latent state of herpes infections
C. Virion exiting host cell
D. Viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome
E. None of the choices are correct

D. Viral genome inserting into bacterial host chromosome

Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called
A. Viroids
B. Prions
C. Bacteriophages
D. Satellite viruses
E. All of the choices infect bacteria

C. Bacteriophages

During lysogeny, an inactive prophage state occurs when the viral DNA is inserted into the
A. Host cytoplasm
B. Host nucleus
C. Host nucleolus
D. Host DNA
E. Host cell membrane

D. Host DNA

What type of phage enters an inactive prophage stage?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Temperate
D. Temporary
E. Transformed

C. Temperate

The activation of a prophage is called
A. Activation
B. Lysogeny
C. Transformation
D. Induction
E. Adsorption

D. Induction

When a bacterium acquires a trait from its temperate phage, it is called
A. Transformation
B. Lysogenic conversion
C. Viral persistence
D. Transcription
E. Translation

B. Lysogenic conversion

In which stage of the multiplication cycle of T-even phages are the phages developing and are not yet infectious?
A. Virion
B. Induction
C. Eclipse
D. Conversion
E. None of the choices are correct

C. Eclipse

Which of the following will not support viral cultivation?
A. Live lab animals
B. Embryonated bird eggs
C. Primary cell cultures
D. Continuous cell cultures
E. All of the choices will support viral cultivation

E. All of the choices will support viral cultivation

Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called
A. Lysogeny
B. Budding
C. Plaques
D. Cytopathic effects
E. Pocks

C. Plaques

Viral growth in bird embryos can cause discrete, opaque spots in the embryonic membranes called
A. Lysogeny
B. Budding
C. Plaques
D. Cytopathic effects
E. Pocks

E. Pocks

Cells grown in culture form a(n)
A. Monolayer
B. Bilayer
C. Aggregate
D. Plaque
E. None of the choices are correct

A. Monolayer

Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient’s blood for specific _____ that the immune system produced against the virus.
A. Glycoproteins
B. Antibodies
C. Complement proteins
D. Antigens
E. None of the choices are correct

B. Antibodies

Freshly isolated animal tissue that is placed in a growth medium and allowed to produce a cell monolayer is referred to as a _____ cell culture.
A. Initial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Continuous
E. Positive

B. Primary

A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems called _____ cultures.
A. Embryo
B. Cell
C. Plaque
D. Bacteriophage
E. Egg

B. Cell

Infectious protein particles are called
A. Viroids
B. Phages
C. Prions
D. Oncogenic viruses
E. Spikes

C. Prions

Infectious naked strands of RNA that affect plants are called
A. Viroids
B. Phages
C. Prions
D. Oncogenic viruses
E. Spikes

A. Viroids

Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is
A. Caused by a chronic latent virus
B. Initiated by an oncogenic virus
C. Caused by a viroid
D. A spongiform encephalopathy of humans
E. Also called "mad cow disease"

D. A spongiform encephalopathy of humans

Satellite viruses are
A. Also called viroids
B. Dependent on other viruses for replication
C. The cause of spongiform encephalopathies
D. Significant pathogens of plants
E. All of the choices are correct

B. Dependent on other viruses for replication

Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are the infectious proteins called _____ and the infectious RNA strands called _____.
A. Prions, capsomeres
B. Virions, prions
C. Viroids, phages
D. Prions, phages
E. Prions, viroids

E. Prions, viroids

Who developed a rabies vaccine by separating bacteria from virus using a filter?
A. Leewonhoek
B. Koch
C. Pasteur
D. Cohn

C. Pasteur

The primary purposes of viral cultivation are:
A. to isolate and identify viruses in clinical specimens
B. to prepare viruses for vaccines
C. to do detailed research on viral structure, lifestyle, genetics and effects on host cells
D. All of these

D. All of these

When a virus enters a host cell, the viral genes redirect the genetic and metabolic activities of the host cell. True or False

True

Viruses are used to produce vaccines for prevention of certain viral infections. True or False

True

Viruses are ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm. True or False

False

A fully formed virus that can cause an infection in a host cell is called a virion. True or False

True

Spikes are glycoproteins of the virus capsid. True or False

True

Each virus is assigned to genus status based on its host, target tissue and type of disease it causes. True or False

False

A specific animal virus has the ability to attach to and enter almost any animal host cell. True or False

False

Viral spikes are inserted into the host cell membrane before budding or exocytosis. True or False

True

Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle. True or False

True

Bacteriophages do not undergo adsorption to specific host cell receptors prior to penetration. True or False

False

Viruses are the most common cause of acute infections that do not result in hospitalization. True or False

True

The adeno-associated virus (AAV) and the delta agent are prions. True or False

False

Viruses are simple, non-cellular and lack mRNA. True or False

True

Viruses mutate and some have not been discovered. True or False

True

Viruses are not filterable. True or False

False

Viruses are unable to multiple outside of a host cell. True or False

True