MGT TEST #2

Patterns of innovation over time that can create sustainable competitive advantage are called:
a. innovation maps
b. innovation streams
c. organization development
d. cyclical inventions
e. results-driven change

B)innovation streams

The __________ approach to managing innovation assumes that innovation is a predictable process made up of a series of steps and that compressing the time it takes to complete those steps can speed up innovation.
a. compression
b. prototypical
c. generational
d. dialectical
e. milestones

A)compression

Patterns of innovation over time that can create sustainable competitive advantage are called:
a. innovation streams
b. organization development
c. cyclical inventions
d. innovation maps
e. results-driven change

A)innovation streams

The first stage of organizational decline is:
a. blinded
b. dissolution
c. inaction
d. faulty action
e. crisis

A)blinded

Which of the following is one of the three steps in the basic process of managing organizational change outlined by Kurt Lewin?
a. change mentoring
b. unfreezing
c. incremental change
d. change definition
e. organizational dialogue

B)unfreezing

According to John Kotter's analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and potentially most serious of these errors is:
a. not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
b. not removing obstacles to the new vision
c. a poorly designed organizational mission
d. not anchoring changes in the corporation's culture
e. declaring victory too soon

A)not establishing a great enough sense of urgency

Organizational ____ is the successful implementation of creative ideas in organizations.
a. development
b. deployment
c. change
d. innovation
e. creativity

D)innovation

Creativity was needed to improve efficiency without raising costs at one automobile maker. Over the last few years, the company has successfully implemented a creative engineering program that allows its plants to produce more than one type of car from the same assembly line. This successful change to a flexible manufacturing system is an example of ____.
a. corporate synergy
b. organizational networking
c. organizational innovation
d. assembly networking
e. reverse engineering

C)Organizational innovation

The development of the DVD player was a source of ____ to companies in the movie industry just as VHS tapes had once been.
a. creativity reengineering
b. technological replacement
c. a sustainable competitive advantage
d. planned shrinkage
e. technological discontinuity

E) technological discontinuity

A technology ____ begins with the birth of a new technology and ends when that technology reaches its limits and dies as it is replaced by a newer, substantially better technology.
a. process
b. hierarchy
c. cycle
d. continuum
e. pattern

C)cycle

Nearly all technology cycles follow the typical ____ pattern of innovation.
a. W-curve
b. V-shaped
c. U-curve
d. S-curve
e. bell-shaped

D)S-Curve

In the typical S-curve pattern of innovation, increased effort (i.e., money, research and development) brings only small improvements in technological performance ____,
a. early in the cycle
b. in the maturity stage of the cycle
c. at the end of the cycle
d. at both the beginning and end of the cycle
e. throughout the cycle

D)at both the beginning and end of the cycle

When significant improvements in performance can ONLY be gained through radical new designs or new performance-enhancing materials, it is likely that a company is ____ in the S-curve pattern of innovation.
a. at the problem identification stage of the innovation cycle
b. at its breakeven point
c. at either the beginning or end of the innovation cycle
d. at the end of its maturity stage
e. at the end of the innovation cycle

E) at the end of the innovation cycle

Patterns of innovation over time that can create sustainable competitive advantage are called ____.
a. innovation maps
b. innovation streams
c. results-driven change
d. cyclical inventions
e. organization development

B)innovation steams

A technology cycle occurs whenever there are major advances or changes in the ____ in a field or discipline.
a. structure or personnel requirements
b. internal resource environment
c. knowledge, tools, and techniques
d. way information is integrated
e. human, technical, and conceptual skills needed

C)knowdledge,tools, and techniques

____ is the phase of a technology cycle characterized by technological substitution and design competition.
a. Change substitution
b. The technological growth stage
c. The era of dominant design
d. Technological adaptation
e. Discontinuous change

E)Discontinuous change

The purchase of new technologies to replace older ones is an example of ___.
a. technological substitution
b. design replacement
c. innovative exchange
d. dominant design
e. adaptive change

A)technological substitution

Discontinuous change in an innovation stream is characterized by ____.
a. technological substitution
b. empathetic design
c. incremental change
d. synergy
e. innovative reciprocity

A)Technological substitution

In order from beginning to end, the phases of a technology cycle within an innovation stream consist of ____.
a. discontinuous change, incremental change, technological discontinuity, and dominant design
b. incremental change, discontinuous change, dominant design, and technological discontinuity
c. technological discontinuity, incremental change, discontinuous change, and technological continuity
d. dominant design, discontinuous change, era of incremental change, and technological discontinuity
e. technological discontinuity, discontinuous change, dominant design, and incremental change

e. technological discontinuity, discontinuous change, dominant design, and incremental change

____ are workplace cultures in which workers perceive that new ideas are welcomed, valued, and encouraged.
a. Homogeneous work environments
b. Innovative societies
c. Empathetic work stations
d. Creative work environments
e. Participative work teams

D)Creative work enviroments

Organizational development ____.
a. assumes that top management support is not necessary for change
b. is accurately described by all of these
c. requires a steering committee
d. takes a short-term approach to change
e. is a philosophy and collection of planned change interventions

e. is a philosophy and collection of planned change interventions

Which of the following statements describes an advantage of the results-driven change approach to managing change?
a. It supplants the sole emphasis on activity with a focus on quickly measuring and improving results.
b. Managers introduce changes in policies, procedures, rules, and regulations only when they will improve measured performance.
c. Managers actually test to see if changes make a difference.
d. Quick, visible improvements motivate employees to continue to make additional changes.
e. All of these were cited as advantages of the results-driven change approach.

e. All of these were cited as advantages of the results-driven change approach.

A(n) ____ is the individual who is formally in charge of guiding a change effort.
a. change ombudsman
b. intrapreneur
c. change mentor
d. change agent
e. staff moderator

D)Change agent

Which of the following methods for managing resistance to change should only be used as a last resort or under crisis conditions?
a. coercion
b. arbitration
c. reinforcement modification
d. negotiation
e. mentoring

A)coercion

Which of the following statements about resistance to change is true?
a. Resistance to change will not occur when those affected by the change participate in its planning and implementation.
b. Resistance to change will always occur; it is inevitable.
c. Resistance to change will not occur when change efforts receive significant managerial support.
d. Resistance to change will not occur when employees are educated about the need for change.
e. Resistance to change disappears when the organization operates in conditions of certainty.

b. Resistance to change will always occur; it is inevitable.

According to social psychologist Kurt Lewin, ____ lead to differences in the form, quality, or condition of an organization over time, while ____ support the status quo, or the existing state of conditions in an organization.
a. change forces; inertial forces
b. change forces; resistance forces
c. generational changes; inertial changes
d. generational forces; resistance forces
e. compressed changes; generational changes

B)change forces;resistance forces

It is appropriate to use a(n) ____ approach to manage innovation in more certain environments during periods of incremental change, in which the goals are lower costs and incremental improvements in the performance and function of the existing technological design.
a. reinforcement
b. prototypical
c. milestones
d. experiential
e. compression

E)compression

When incremental improvements are made to a dominant technological design such that the improved version of the technology is fully backward compatible with the older version, ____ is said to have occurred.
a. coercive change
b. intuitive change
c. generational change
d. a milestone
e. discontinuous innovation

C)generational change

The ____ approach to managing innovation assumes that innovation is a predictable process made up of a series of steps and that compressing the time it takes to complete those steps can speed up innovation.
a. generational
b. dialectical
c. prototypical
d. milestones
e. compression

E)compression

Which of the following is a component of a creative work environment that encourages creativity?
a. all of these
b. the removal of organizational impediments
c. organizational encouragement
d. the granting of autonomy
e. the development of challenging work

A)all of these

The two general kinds of trade barriers are:
a. voluntary and involuntary barriers
b. nationalistic and geocentric barriers
c. qualitative and quantitative barriers
d. tariff barriers and nontariff barriers
e. government import standards and industry import standards

D)tariff barriers and nontarrif barriers

The trade agreement that represented the most significant change to the regulations governing global trade during the 1990s was the:
a. Mercosur
b. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
c. Maastricht Treaty of Europe
d. Asian Free Trade Arrangement
e. North American Free Trade Agreement

B)General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

Which of the following represents the correct sequence for the phase model of globalization?
a. exporting; wholly owned affiliates; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances
b. home country sales; exporting; job ventures; strategic alliances, and direct investment
c. exporting; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances; wholly owned affiliates
d. exporting; cooperative contracts; wholly owned affiliates; strategic alliances
e. exporting; strategic alliances; cooperative contracts; wholly owned affiliates

c. exporting; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances; wholly owned affiliates

Two factors help determine the growth potential of foreign markets. They are foreign competition and:
a. purchasing power
b. communications and transportation systems
c. product diffusion rate
d. creative differences
e. political stability

A)purchasing power

Hofstede's research has shown there are:
a. direct relationships existing between type of infrastructures and growth potential
b. two distinct methods for dealing with cultural differences--adaptation and continuation
c. four factors upon which a company should base its decision to globalize
d. five consistent dimensions of cultural differences across countries
e. no cultural differences among nations in which Spanish is the national language

d. five consistent dimensions of cultural differences across countries

An expatriate is someone who:
a. lives and works outside of his or her own country
b. is unhappy with his or her present residence
c. believes strongly in nationalization
d. claims dual citizenship
e. desires to be employed in a country outside of his or her own

A)lives and works outside his or her own country

The evidence clearly shows that __________ is the most important factor in determining the success or failure of an international assignment.
a. the amount of language training provided to the expatriate
b. the similarity of the foreign language to the expatriate's native language
c. how willing the expatriate was to accept the foreign assignment
d. the amount of cross-cultural training provided to the expatriate
e. how well an expatriate's spouse and family adjust to the foreign culture

E)how well an expatriate's spouse and family adjust to the foreign culture

Global business is defined as____.
a. refers to sales made to people from different cultures, different regions, and different nations
b. the buying and selling of goods and services to people from different countries
c. only involves companies with more than 50 employees
d. is unregulated
e. includes any sale of goods and services

B) the buying and selling of goods and services to people from different countries

____ is a method of investment in which a company builds a new business or buys an existing business in a foreign country.
a. A strategic alliance
b. Direct foreign investment
c. Direct exporting
d. A global new venture
e. A joint venture
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B)Direct foreign investment

In 2000, the United States imposed a tax on all steel imports in an effort to protect about 5,000 jobs. This tax is an example of a(n) ____.
a. subsidy
b. tariff
c. voluntary import restraint
d. financial boycott
e. import duty

B)Tariff

____ are long-term, low-interest loans, cash grants, and tax deductions used to develop and protect companies or special industries.
a. Tariffs
b. Quotas
c. Subsidies
d. Cooperative contracts
e. Voluntary export restraints

C)Subsidies

The acronym GATT stands for the ____.
a. Government Aid of Trade and Transactions
b. Governing Agreement on Trade and Transactions
c. Global Agreement on Temporal Trade
d. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
e. Global Arrangement for Trade and Taxes

D)General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

One of the major questions that a company must typically answer about its future, once it has decided to go global is ____.
a. To what extent should the company standardize or adapt business procedures?
b. To what extent should a company abide by global or regional trade agreements?
c. How many additional employees will the company need?
d. Will the organization's mission statement need to be changed?
e. How many new shareholders will be influenced by global activities?

a. To what extent should the company standardize or adapt business procedures?

Historically, most companies have used the ____ to successfully enter foreign markets.
a. global new venture approach
b. guerrilla approach
c. market echo approach
d. ripple approach
e. phase model of globalization

E)Phase model of globalization

Fran Wilson Creative Cosmetics is a medium-sized U.S. company that sells 1.5 million tubes of its lipstick annually in Japan. It has no physical presence within the country beyond the fact its products are sold there. Fran Wilson Creative Cosmetics uses ____ to reach the Japanese market.
a. direct investment
b. licensing
c. franchising
d. exporting
e. a strategic alliance

D)Exporting

____ occurs when a company sells domestically produced products to customers in foreign countries.
a. Exporting
b. A joint venture
c. Licensing
d. Franchising
e. Direct foreign investment

A)Exporting

A(n) ____ is an agreement in which a foreign business owner pays a company a fee for the right to conduct that business in his or her country.
a. cooperative contract
b. strategic alliance
c. joint venture
d. exporting agreement
e. direct investment

A)cooperative contract

____ are both examples of cooperative contracts.
a. Licensing and joint ventures
b. Franchising and licensing
c. Direct investment and indirect investment
d. Direct exporting and indirect exporting
e. Joint ventures and strategies alliances

B)Franchising and Licensing

In terms of Hofstede's cultural differences, the people who are described as happy-go-lucky and are people who are comfortable with an unstructured life and deal well with sudden changes. In terms of Hofstede's cultural differences, these people have a ____.
a. high degree of uncertainty avoidance
b. low degree of uncertainty avoidance
c. culture based on equity
d. feminine culture
e. masculine culture

B)low degree of uncertainty avoidance

Starbucks is expanding its global operations into South America in spite of the real probability of civil wars and terrorist activities in many of the continent's nations. As Starbucks expands into South America, it must deal with ____.
a. economic uncertainty
b. political uncertainty
c. nationalistic equity
d. strategy risk
e. infrastructure regulation

B)political uncertainty

All global new ventures share two common factors. One is the bringing of a good or service to several different foreign markets at the same time. The other is ____.
a. the use of local adaptation strategy
b. a mechanistic organizational culture
c. the ability to respond quickly and efficiently to any changes in the external environment
d. none of these
e. the development of culturally-specific implementation policies

D)none of these

The evidence clearly shows that ____ is the most important factor in determining the success or failure of an international assignment.
a. the amount of cross-cultural training provided to the expatriate
b. how well an expatriate's spouse and family adjust to the foreign culture
c. the similarity of the foreign language to the expatriate's native language
d. how willing the expatriate was to accept the foreign assignment
e. the amount of language training provided to the expatriate

B)how well an expatriate's spouse and family adjust to the foreign culture

The term ____ is used by Hofstede to describe the degree to which people in a country are uncomfortable with unstructured, ambiguous, unpredictable situations.
a. power distance
b. masculinity
c. short-term/long-term orientation
d. risk aversion
e. uncertainty avoidance

E)uncertainty avoidance

According to Hofstede, when people in a culture are oriented to the present and seek immediate gratification, that culture is described as ____.
a. feminine
b. having a short-term orientation
c. individualistic
d. masculine
e. having a long-term orientation

B)having a short-term orientation

The ____ strategy of minimizing or adapting to the political risk inherent to global business makes use of joint ventures and collaborative contracts.
a. defensive
b. control
c. avoidance
d. offensive
e. cooperation

E)cooperation

____ is the set of shared values and beliefs that affects the perceptions, decisions, and behavior of people from a particular country.
a. National diversity
b. National culture
c. Cultural nationalization
d. National mindset
e. Cultural diversity

B)National culture

What are the two types of political risk that affect companies conducting global business?
a. nationalism and economic uncertainty
b. cultural strength and political risks
c. policy uncertainty and expropriation potential
d. infrastructure dynamism and political uncertainty
e. political uncertainty and policy uncertainty

E)political uncertainty and policy uncertainty

A country or region that has an attractive business climate for companies that want to go global has ____.
a. a small youth population
b. all of these
c. natural boundaries
d. a large population of unskilled workers
e. an effective but cost-efficient place to build an office or manufacturing site

E) an effective but cost-efficient place to build an office or manufacturing site Hide

Which of the following factors helps a company determine the growth potential of a foreign market?
a. political uncertainty
b. type of infrastructure
c. land availability
d. natural boundaries
e. purchasing power

E)Purchasing power

Which of the following factors should be considered when choosing an office/manufacturing location in the Brazilian market for a U.S. company that operates cinemas and wants to open a chain of movie theatres there?
a. tariff and nontariff barriers
b. work force quality
c. exchange rates
d. all of these
e. the strategy of the movie theater chain

D)all of these

Organizational authority is traditionally characterized by:
a. chain of command
b. all of these
c. behavioral informality
d. empowerment
e. reengineering

A)chain of command

A(n) __________ function is an activity that contributes directly to creating or selling the company's products.
a. line
b. charted
c. staff
d. organic
e. mechanistic

A)line

__________ means increasing the number of tasks in a particular job and giving workers the power to make decisions about their own work.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job enlargement
d. Job specialization
e. Job design

B)Job enrichment

A(n) __________ organization is an organization that is characterized by specialized jobs and responsibilities, precisely defined, unchanging roles, and a rigid chain of command based on centralized authority and vertical communication.
a. modular
b. mechanistic
c. organic
d. departmentalized
e. standardized

B)mechanistic

__________ is a fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in critical measures of performance, such as cost, quality, service, and speed.
a. Repositioning
b. Manufacturing conversion
c. Reciprocating interdependence
d. Pooling interdependence
e. Reengineering

E)reengineering

Except for the core business activities that they can perform better, faster, and cheaper than others, __________ outsource all remaining business activities to outside companies, suppliers, specialists, or consultants.
a. modular organizations
b. hierarchical organizations
c. boundaryless organizations
d. virtual organizations
e. organizational networks

A)modular organizations

The organizational process ____.
a. uses vertical and horizontal departmentalization
b. limits the adaptivity of an organization
c. defines roles not activities
d. is a traditional method for establishing organizational structures
e. is the collection of activities that transform inputs into outputs that customers value

e. is the collection of activities that transform inputs into outputs that customers value

While ____ emphasizes jobs and their authority relationships, ____ emphasizes the activities through which work gets done in the organization.
a. departmentalization; functionalization
b. organizational structure; organizational process
c. interorganizational process; intraorganizational process
d. organizational process; organizational structure
e. intraorganizational process; interorganizational process

B)organizational structure; organizational process

____ departmentalization is defined as organizing work and workers into separate units responsible for particular business functions or areas of expertise.
a. Customer
b. Product
c. Functional
d. Hierarchical
e. Matrix
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C)Functional

____ is a general term that refers to subdividing work and workers into separate organizational units that are responsible for completing particular tasks.
a. Departmentalization
b. Organizational layout
c. Organizational process
d. Functionalization
e. Job formatting

A)Departmentalization

Which of the following statements about functional departmentalization is true?
a. Functional departmentalization complicates communication and coordination for departmental managers.
b. Functional departmentalization is also called free-form specialization.
c. Functional departmentalization allows work to be done by highly qualified specialists.
d. Functional departmentalization increases costs by reducing duplication.
e. Functional departmentalization requires the same kinds of functional departments in any company.

c. Functional departmentalization allows work to be done by highly qualified specialists.

Hallmark has four departments. These departments are (1) Flowers and Gifts, (2) Cards and E-cards, (3) Hallmark Collectibles, and (4) Photo Albums and Scrapbooks. Hallmark uses ____ departmentalization.
a. customer
b. geographic
c. product
d. functional
e. matrix

C)product

With divisions that focus on business clients and consumer clients, companies like Sprint, American Express, and others are examples of ____ departmentalization.
a. matrix
b. product
c. boundaryless
d. functional
e. customer

E)customer

Procter & Gamble has divisions for personal and beauty, house and home, health and wellness, baby and family, and pet nutrition and care. These divisions indicate that the company uses ____ departmentalization.
a. product
b. geographic
c. customer
d. functional
e. strategic business unit (SBU)
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A)product

With ____ departmentalization, most employees report to two bosses.
a. functional
b. matrix
c. product
d. customer
e. geographic

B)matrix

The chain of command ____.
a. is only relevant in mechanistic organizations
b. acts at cross-purposes to the unity of command principle
c. does not permit delegation of authority
d. is the horizontal line of authority that indicates at which level of management an individual belongs
e. is described by none of these

E)is described by none of these

____ involves assigning direct authority and responsibility to a subordinate to complete tasks for which the manager is normally responsible.
a. Staff functionality
b. Delegation of authority
c. An organization chart
d. A job description
e. Decentralization

B)Delegation of authority

When managers delegate work, three transfers occur. The three transfers are responsibility, authority, and ____.
a. utility
b. synergy
c. accountability
d. reciprocity
e. empathy

C)reciprocity

____ is the process of solving problems by consistently applying the same rules, procedures, and processes.
a. Standardization
b. Procedural planning
c. Problem empowerment
d. Organizational autonomy
e. Consistency planning

A)Standardization

Decentralization ____.
a. leads to faster decision making and more satisfied customers and employees
b. is accurately described by all of these
c. is more appropriate where standardization is important
d. is characteristic of large companies
e. tends to stymie employee capabilities

a. leads to faster decision making and more satisfied customers and employees

Job specialization can result in ____.
a. complicated job designs
b. low employee turnover
c. low absenteeism
d. high job satisfaction
e. employee boredom

E)employee boredom

____ determines the number, kind, and variety of tasks that individual workers perform in their jobs.
a. Standardization
b. Job design
c. Job specialization
d. An organizational chart
e. Task mapping

B)job design

An organization that has increased the number of different tasks that a worker performs within one particular job has engaged in ____.
a. job enlargement
b. employee specialization
c. job specialization
d. job rotation
e. task aggregation

A)job enlargement

he central concern of the job characteristics model (JCM) is ____.
a. task identification
b. time-motion studies
c. synergy
d. a value-added measure
e. internal motivation

E)internal motivation

____ is the degree to which a job gives workers the discretion, freedom, and independence to decide how and when to accomplish their jobs.
a. Autonomy
b. Skill variety
c. Skill feedback
d. Task significance
e. Task identity

A)Autonomy

____ is the degree to which a job is perceived to have a substantial impact on others inside or outside the organization.
a. Skill feedback
b. Task significance
c. Task identity
d. Skill variety
e. Autonomy

B)Task Significance

A(n) ____ organization is one that is characterized by broadly defined jobs and responsibilities; loosely defined, frequently changing roles; and decentralized authority and horizontal communication based on task knowledge.
a. mechanistic
b. departmentalized
c. modular
d. organic
e. centralized

D)organic

A(n) ____ organization is an organization that is characterized by specialized jobs and responsibilities; precisely defined, unchanging roles; and a rigid chain of command based on centralized authority and vertical communication.
a. organic
b. departmentalized
c. mechanistic
d. standardized
e. modular

C)mechanistic

The three types of task interdependence are
a. sequential, delegated, and pooled
b. delegated, integrated, and combined
c. integrated, reciprocal, and synergistic
d. reciprocal, pooled, and sequential
e. pooled, delegated, and systematic
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d. reciprocal, pooled, and sequential

Team rewards that depend on __________ are the key to rewarding team behaviors and efforts.
a. the elimination of social loafing
b. team performance rather than individual performance
c. someone taking the role of group leader
d. individual efforts rather than team performance
e. the use of groupthink

B)team performance rather than individual performance

Which of the following types of teams have the authority to change their composition as well as all of their tasks and work methods?
a. self-managing teams
b. sequentially interdependent teams
c. self-autonomous teams
d. self-designing teams
e. semi-autonomous work groups
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D)self-designing team

Which of the following size teams usually provides the best performance?
a. 15 to 20
b. 6 to 9
c. 2 to 3
d. All sizes tend to perform equally well.
e. more than 20

B) 6 to 9

According to the text, a(n) ____ is a small number of people with complementary skills who hold themselves mutually accountable for pursuing a common purpose, achieving performance goals, and improving interdependent work processes.
a. ad hoc team
b. semi-structured team
c. venture group
d. work team
e. autonomous unit

D)work team

How are organizations using teams to help increase customer satisfaction?
a. by creating problem-solving teams to study ways to improve customer satisfaction and make recommendations for improvements
b. by instituting a system of increased formalization throughout the organization
c. by taking direct responsibility for service quality
d. by creating outsourcing opportunities that improve organizational effectiveness and efficiency by creating economies of scale
e. by developing ideal solutions to organizational problems through the use of information management systems (most notably expert systems)

a. by creating problem-solving teams to study ways to improve customer satisfaction and make recommendations for improvements

Which of the following is a reason teamwork can be more satisfying than traditional work?
a. Teamwork often allows teams to receive proprietary business information that is only available to managers.
b. Teamwork gives workers a chance to improve their skills.
c. All of these are reasons why teamwork can be more satisfying than traditional work.
d. Teamwork provides team members with unique work opportunities.
e. Teamwork gives workers unique leadership responsibilities which enable them to build individual leadership skills.

C) All of these are reasons why teamwork can be more satisfying than traditional work

____ occurs when workers withhold their efforts and fail to perform their share of the work.
a. De-forming
b. Mental atrophy
c. Stonewalling
d. Self-limiting behavior
e. Social loafing

E)Social loafing

Which of the following statements describe an advantage teams have over individuals in the decision-making process?
a. Teams generate more commitment to making the decisions work.
b. Teams generate more alternative solutions.
c. All of these describe advantages teams have over individuals in the decision-making process.
d. Teams are able to view problems from multiple perspectives.
e. Teams can identify problems more efficiently and more quickly.

c. All of these describe advantages teams have over individuals in the decision-making process.

Teams are typically required when ____.
a. tasks require multiple perspectives
b. synergy will complicate the problem solution process
c. any of these conditions are met
d. tasks are simple
e. the company has very limited resources

A)Tasks require multiple perspectives

In the autonomy continuum (which shows how five kinds of teams differ in terms of autonomy), the correct sequence, from low team autonomy to high team autonomy, is ____.
a. traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, self-designing teams, and self-managing teams
b. employee involvement teams, traditional work groups, semi-autonomous work groups, self-managing teams, and self-designing teams
c. traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, self-managing teams, semi-autonomous work groups, and self-designing teams
d. employer-mandated teams, traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, project teams, and self-managing teams
e. traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, semi-autonomous work groups, self-managing teams, and self-designing teams

e. traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, semi-autonomous work groups, self-managing teams, and self-designing teams

The ____ is purposefully composed of employees from different functional areas of the organization.
a. semi-autonomous team
b. ad hoc team
c. horizontally organized team
d. self-managing team
e. cross-functional team

E)Cross-Functional team

A(n) ____ is defined as a team composed of geographically and/or organizationally dispersed coworkers who use telecommunications and information technologies to accomplish an organizational task.
a. cross-functional team
b. project team
c. virtual team
d. international group
e. self-managing team

C)virtual team

The ____ is created to complete specific, one-time projects or tasks within a limited time.
a. cross-functional team
b. project team
c. self-managing team
d. virtual team
e. standing committee

B)project team

____ are informally agreed-on standards that regulate team behavior.
a. Behavioral policies
b. Operational guides
c. Norms
d. Codes of ethics
e. Heuristics

C)Norms

____ is the extent to which team members are attracted to a team and motivated to remain with it.
a. Synergy
b. Cohesiveness
c. Empathy
d. Accommodation
e. Autonomy

B)Cohesiveness

Team norms in an organization can create ____.
a. increased job satisfaction
b. more trust in management
c. negative behaviors, such as breaking rules
d. all of these

D)all of these

Which of the following statements regarding cohesiveness is true?
a. High group cohesiveness equates to low team motivation.
b. Cohesive groups are always better-performing groups.
c. Cohesive groups engage in less cooperative behavior.
d. Cohesive groups have lower turnover.
e. Cohesive groups have trouble retaining their members.

D)Cohesive groups have lower turnover

____ undermines team effectiveness by preventing teams from engaging in the kinds of activities that are critical to team effectiveness.
a. Affective conflict
b. Behavioral conflict
c. Development of team norms
d. Low cohesiveness
e. Cognitive conflict

A)Affective conflict

Affective conflict ____.
a. typically decreases team cohesiveness
b. is accurately described by all of these
c. can make people more comfortable with their relationships with group peers
d. usually precedes cognitive conflict
e. is strongly associated with improvements in team performance

A)Typically decreases team cohesiveness

Minority domination tends to be a particular problem in ____.
a. project teams because they are temporary
b. groups of ten or larger
c. groups of less than five
d. cross-functional teams of any size
e. virtual teams because of the nature of the communication medium

B)groups of ten or larger

Which of the following statements about team development is true?
a. None of these statements about team development is true.
b. Group cohesion is relatively strong at the informing stage.
c. Decline will inevitably occur in every team.
d. The growth stages are forming, norming, and performing.
e. Team performance begins to decline at the de-norming stage.

D) The growth stages are forming, norming, and performing

Which of the following is one of the stages that teams pass through as they develop and grow, rather than decline?
a. de-storming
b. reforming
c. de-norming
d. de-forming
e. performing

E)Performing

Group cohesion tends to be relatively strong at the ____ stage of team development.
a. conforming
b. norming
c. forming
d. storming
e. informing

B)norming

A team has finally matured into a fully-functioning team at the ____ stage of development.
a. conforming
b. de-norming
c. informing
d. performing
e. norming

D)performing

With ____, teams no longer have to go through the frustratingly slow process of multilevel reviews and signoffs to get management approval before making changes.
a. structural accommodation
b. administrative reciprocity
c. virtual accommodation
d. bureaucratic immunity
e. fast-track approval

D)bureaucratic immunity

____ is the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps teams meet their stretch goals.
a. Bureaucratic accommodation
b. Structural accommodation
c. Structural immunity
d. Administrative reciprocity
e. Bureaucratic immunity

B)Structural Accomodation

____ describes the average level of ability, experience, personality, or any other factor on a team.
a. Team level
b. Team diversity
c. Team performance
d. Group synergy
e. Team conformity

A)Team level

Which of the following statements about team training is true?
a. Organizations often overestimate the amount of training required to make teams effective.
b. Cross-training is less appropriate for teams of highly skilled workers.
c. Team leaders typically do not require training.
d. The most common type of training provided is training in technical skills.
e. The most common type of training provided is training in conceptual skills.

b. Cross-training is less appropriate for teams of highly skilled workers.

Which of the following is a method used for compensating employees for team participation and accomplishments?
a. retained earnings
b. piecework pay
c. hourly wages
d. gainsharing
e. all of these

D)gainsharing

An organization that rewards its team members through gainsharing is ____.
a. sharing the financial value of performance gains
b. using a nonfinancial reward
c. paying employees to gain new skills
d. paying hourly wages
e. engaging in cross training

A)sharing the financial value of performance gains

To which of the following aspects of the human resource management process does federal employment law apply?
a. training and development activities
b. compensation decisions
c. all of these
d. selection decisions
e. performance appraisals

C)all of these

A __________ is a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related aspects of a job.
a. job description
b. job specification
c. job validation
d. job analysis
e. task evaluation

E)Task evaluation

The __________ interview uses only standardized, job-related interview questions that are prepared ahead of time and asked of all candidates
a. scripted
b. structured
c. canned
d. formalized
e. semi-structured
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B)structured

A __________ is a performance appraisal process in which feedback is obtained from the boss, subordinates, peers and co-workers, and the employees themselves.
a. grapevine appraisal
b. reciprocal appraisal
c. 360-degree feedback
d. circular feedback program
e. performance appraisal iteration

C)360-degree feedback

An ESOP is an:
a. employee stock ownership plan
b. equity in salary organizational plan
c. employer/subordinate organizational profit
d. equitable stock ownership plan
e. employee salary option program

A)employee stock ownership plan

____ is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people for the company.
a. Recruiting
b. Human resource implementation
c. Functional resource planning
d. Work force forecasting
e. Human resource management

E)Human resource management

The fact that a 98-pound job candidate is not hired as a dock worker to move 60-pound boxes of produce is legal as a result of ____.
a. adverse impact rulings
b. gender selectivity
c. benefits and features for occupational quality (BFOQs)
d. bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs)
e. the four-fifths rule

d. bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs)

____ is intentional discrimination that occurs when people are purposefully not given the same hiring, promotion, or membership opportunities because of their race, sex, age, ethnic group, national origin, or religious beliefs.
a. Adverse harassment
b. The four-fifths rule
c. Disparate treatment
d. Deliberate negative reinforcement
e. Inequitable discrimination

C)Disparate treatment

When a CEO opened the nationwide sales force meeting with a crude sexually explicit joke it was an example of ____.
a. disparate treatment
b. demographic discrimination
c. sexual harassment
d. an unwelcome sexual advance
e. adverse impact discrimination

C)Sexual harrament

The ____ is a rule of thumb used by the courts and the EEOC to determine whether there is evidence of adverse impact. A violation of this rule occurs when the selection rate for a protected group is less than a specified level of the selection rate for a nonprotected group.
a. dysfunctional turnover rule
b. two-fifths rule
c. 80 percent rule
d. principle of adverse impact
e. disparate treatment rule

C)80 percent rule

From a legal perspective, there are two kinds of sexual harassment. They are ____.
a. quid pro quo and bona fide
b. hostile work environment and bona fide
c. adverse impact and disparate treatment
d. quid pro quo and hostile work environment
e. adverse impact and bona fide

D)quid pro quo and hostile work enviroment

Which of the following statements about sexual harassment is true?
a. Nonemployees cannot be guilty of sexual harassment.
b. None of these statements about sexual harassment is true.
c. Only people who have themselves been harassed can file complaints or lawsuits.
d. The three kinds of sexual harassment are quid pro quo, bona fide, and disparate treatment.
e. Sexual harassment can occur between people of the same sex.

E)Sexual harassment can occur between people of the same sex

Former female employees of a national real estate brokerage firm claimed that they were subjected to lewd remarks, unwanted groping, and sexual propositions by male co-workers. According to their attorney, "The firm created a frat-house culture and then failed to do anything about it." Their suit claims the women were victims of ____.
a. adverse treatment
b. gender discrimination
c. disparate treatment
d. quid pro quo sexual harassment
e. a hostile work environment

E)a hostile work enviroment

To ensure that sexual harassment laws are followed and not violated, companies should ____.
a. respect the privacy of the accused and the accusers
b. make sure they are acting in compliance with not only federal but also local laws
c. write a clear, understandable, strongly worded policy that is well publicized within the company
d. respond immediately when sexual harassment is reported
e. do all of these

E)do all of these

Two of the most important results of a job analysis are ____.
a. job descriptions and job specifications
b. employee-needs assessment and job mapping
c. rater training and selection validation
d. employee-needs assessment and performance appraisal evaluation
e. recruiting guidelines and selection boundaries

A) job descriptions and job specifications

Two of the most important results of a job analysis are ____.
a. job descriptions and job specifications
b. employee-needs assessment and job mapping
c. rater training and selection validation
d. employee-needs assessment and performance appraisal evaluation
e. recruiting guidelines and selection boundaries

A)job descriptions and job specifications

help companies meet the legal requirement that their human resource decisions be job-related.
a. Internal environments, external environments, and job descriptions
b. Job analyses, task specializations, and external environments
c. Job analyses, task evaluations, and employee-needs assessment
d. Job specifications, job analyses, and job descriptions
e. Job descriptions, external environments, and employee mapping

D)Job specifications,job analyses, and job descriptions

Which of the following types of information would typically be collected as part of a job analysis?
a. tools and equipment used
b. all of these
c. work activities
d. knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to do the job
e. job context

B)all of these

Before beginning to recruit, organizations must ____.
a. match salaries to industry averages
b. conduct a job analysis
c. advertise for job candidates
d. create a job specification
e. create a job description

B)conduct a job analysis

In order to be considered ____, recruitment, selection, training, performance appraisals, and employee separations must be valid and be directly related to the important aspects of the job and identified by a careful job analysis.
a. concrete
b. reliable
c. job-related
d. employee related
e. competitive

C)job-related

____ is the process of gathering information about job applicants to decide who should be offered a job.
a. Recruiting
b. Pool enrichment
c. Selection
d. Job inventorying
e. Job validation

C)Selection

Which of the following statements about job validation tests is true?
a. A test is said to be valid when it produces the same results every time it is used.
b. In terms of recruitment, validation is most important in identifying what training prospective employees need.
c. Validation refers to the process of determining how well a selection test or procedure predicts future job performance.
d. None of these statements about validation is true.
e. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures recommend validation only for written tests used as selection procedures.

c. Validation refers to the process of determining how well a selection test or procedure predicts future job performance.

Which of the following questions is deemed acceptable (i.e., "legal") for employers to ask applicants during the selection process?
a. None of these
b. Do you smoke or use tobacco products?
c. Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
d. Have you ever filed a lawsuit against an employer?
e. Are you a United States citizen?

C)Have you ever been convicted of a crime?

Which of the following types of tests accurately predicts job performance in almost all kinds of jobs?
a. personality tests
b. cognitive ability tests
c. achievement tests
d. specific ability tests
e. work sample tests

B)cognitive ability tests

____ means providing opportunities for employees to develop the job-specific skills, experience, and knowledge they need to do their jobs or improve their performance.
a. Mentoring
b. Training
c. Mediating
d. Directing
e. Supervising

B)Training

Which of the following training methods is most appropriate for imparting information or knowledge to trainees?
a. role-playing
b. lectures and planned readings
c. case studies
d. coaching and mentoring
e. group discussions

B)lectures and planned readings

Which of the following is one of the ways in which training can be evaluated?
a. how much employees actually modified their on-the- job behavior
b. how job performance improved
c. reactions of employees
d. all of these
e. on how much employees learned

D)all of these

Which of the following statements about performance appraisal is true?
a. All of these statements about performance appraisal are true.
b. Legally, a disgruntled employee cannot sue an employer on the basis of a dissatisfactory performance appraisal.
c. Since performance appraisal is only a marginally important human resource process, any problems associated with it do not affect organizations overall.
d. Performance appraisals can be used as a basis for compensation but not as a basis for determining who needs further training.
e. Most employees and managers intensely dislike the performance appraisal process.

E)Most employees and managers intensely dislike the performance appraisal process.

Which of the following is an example of an objective performance measure?
a. performance analyses
b. all of these
c. cognitive ability scales
d. behavioral observation scales
e. input/output measures

E)input/output measures

To improve traditional performance appraisal feedback sessions, it is recommended that managers ____.
a. combine developmental feedback and administrative feedback
b. use either a halo or a recency measure
c. use outsourcing
d. base performance appraisal feedback sessions on self-appraisals
e. strengthen the grading aspect of performance appraisal

D)base performance appraisal feedback sessions on self-appraisals

The term ____ refers to both the financial and nonfinancial rewards organizations give employees in exchange for their work.
a. fees
b. value-added
c. wages
d. salaries
e. compensation

E)compensation

Which of the following statements explains why diversity actually makes good business sense?
a. Diversity eliminates glass ceilings.
b. Diversity makes individuals whole by returning them to the condition or place they would have been had it not been for discrimination.
c. Diversity helps companies attract and recruit talented employees.
d. Diversity increases an organization's retained earnings.
e. Diversity allows a company to act with economic responsibility.

C)Diversity helps companies attract and recruit talented employees

The two basic types of diversity training programs are ____.
a. mentoring and role-playing
b. computer simulation and role-playing
c. role-playing and computer simulation
d. organizational plurality and individual autonomy
e. awareness training and skills-based diversity training

E)awareness training and skills-based diversity training

The term ____ refers to a work environment where (1) each member is empowered to contribute in a way that maximizes the benefits to the organization, customers, and themselves; and (2) the individuality of each member is respected by not segmenting or polarizing people on the basis of their membership in a particular group.
a. social integration
b. positive affectivity
c. deep-level diversity
d. social internalization
e. organizational plurality

E)organizational plurality

Organizational plurality is consistent with ____.
a. the paradigm of commonality
b. the learning and effectiveness paradigm
c. the access and legitimacy paradigm
d. none of these
e. the determination and fairness paradigm

B)the learning and effectiveness paradigm

Which of the Big Five personality measures has the greatest impact on behavior in organizations?
a. extraversion
b. agreeableness
c. openness to experience
d. conscientiousness
e. emotional stability

D)conscientiousness

Which of the following is the most commonly used paradigm for managing diversity?
a. the personal integration paradigm
b. the discrimination and fairness paradigm
c. the affirmative action paradigm
d. the learning and effectiveness paradigm
e. the access and legitimacy paradigm

B)the discrimination and fairness paradigm

Conscientiousness is ____.
a. defined by none of these
b. the degree to which someone is active and gregarious
c. the degree to which someone is curious
d. the degree to which someone is cooperative, flexible, good-natured, tolerant, and trusting
e. the degree to which someone is organized, hardworking, responsible, and achievement-oriented

E)the degree in which someone is organized,hardworking,responsible, and achievement-oriented

Which of the following jobs would be most likely to require someone who has high degree of extraversion?
a. salesperson
b. computer technician
c. wholesale plant nursery operator
d. bookkeeper
e. market researcher

A)salesperson

Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five personality dimensions?
a. extraversion
b. conscientiousness
c. empathy
d. emotional stability
e. agreeableness

C)empathy

To make sure that people with disabilities have the same opportunities as everyone else, organizations can ____.
a. use job enlargement
b. create a code of ethics
c. centralize their hiring practices
d. make a commitment to reasonable workplace accommodations
e. use a matrix organizational structure

D)make a commitment to reasonable workplace accommodation

An individual's ____ refers to his or her tendency to respond to situations and events in a predetermined manner.
a. locus of control
b. attitude
c. motivation
d. personality
e. disposition

E)disposition

____ is the relatively stable set of behaviors, attitudes, and emotions displayed over time that makes people different from each other.
a. Personality
b. Disposition
c. Cognitive activity
d. Self-concept
e. Motivation

A)Personality

Which of the following might account for the disparities between the percentages of African, Hispanic, and Asian Americans among the general population and their smaller representation in management positions?
a. Federal Trade Commission regulations
b. racial or ethnic discrimination in the workplace
c. affirmative action programs
d. congressional lobbying
e. watchdog advocacy groups

B)racial or ethnic discrimination in the workpalce

Which of the following statements about disabilities is true?
a. None of these statements about disabilities is true.
b. Accommodations for disabilities needn't be expensive.
c. A disability is only covered by discrimination laws when it is physical.
d. A disability must be visible to the average person to be considered a true disability.
e. On average, people with disabilities earn the same amount as those without disabilities.

B)Accommodations for disabilities needn't be expensive

Older workers ____.
a. are accurately described by none of these
b. care less about the quality of their output than younger workers
c. tend to perform less effectively compared to younger workers
d. typically demonstrate poor judgment
e. are more likely to quit, be late, or be absent than younger workers

A)are accurately described by none of these

____ helps companies grow by improving the quality of problem solving and improving marketplace understanding.
a. Cultural satisfaction
b. Acculturation
c. Reaffirmation
d. Diversity
e. A discrimination management department

D)Diversity

____ is the degree to which group members are psychologically attracted to working with each other to accomplish a common objective.
a. Norm cohesiveness
b. Integrative focus
c. Social integration
d. Social attraction
e. Social cohesiveness

C)Social integration

____ within P&G's management has led the company to realize that Hispanic consumers "are more likely to support a company or brand that is active in their community."
a. affirmative action
b. diversity
c. organizational plurality
d. cultural organization
e. acculturation

B)Diversity

Diversity helps companies grow by ____.
a. avoiding conflict between employee groups
b. improving marketplace understanding
c. preventing discrimination
d. complying with federal law
e. creating a homogeneous workplace

B)Improving marketplace understanding

Unlike ____, which punishes companies for not achieving specific gender and race differences in their work forces, ____ programs seek to benefit both organizations and their employees by encouraging organizations to value all kinds of differences.
a. affirmative action; diversity
b. affirmative action; self-monitoring
c. federal agency monitoring; self-monitoring
d. diversity; self-monitoring
e. diversity; affirmative action

A)Affirmative action;diversity

The purposeful steps taken by an organization to create employment opportunities for minorities and women is called ____.
a. acculturation
b. affirmative action
c. discretionary diversity
d. cultural proaction
e. organizational plurality

B)affirmative action

A key difference between affirmative action and diversity is that ____.
a. diversity has a broader focus
b. diversity is legally mandated in all private companies
c. affirmative action does not alter organizational structures, and diversity does
d. diversity requires a wider span of management
e. affirmative action is legally mandated in all private companies

A)Diversity has a broader focus

Affirmative action programs are typically designed to ____.
a. be punitive
b. do all of these
c. compensate for past discrimination
d. protect white, non-Hispanic Americans
e. create homogeneous diversity

C)compensate for past discrimination

____ is a term that describes a situation in organizations when there is a variety of demographic, cultural, and personal differences among the people who work there and the customers who do business there.
a. Affirmative differentiation
b. Diversity
c. Cultural proaction
d. Acculturation
e. Cultural advantage

B)Diversity

Organizational plurality is consistent with:
a. the determination and fairness paradigm
b. the learning and effectiveness paradigm
c. none of these
d. the access and legitimacy paradigm
e. the paradigm of commonality

B)the learning and effectiveness paradigm

Which of the following is a paradigm for managing diversity?
a. the learning and effectiveness paradigm
b. the affirmative action paradigm
c. the sociocultural paradigm
d. the Machiavellian paradigm
e. the paradigm of organizational diversity

A) the learning and effectiveness paradigm

Which of the following diversity practices is a special kind of mentoring?
a. diversity audits
b. the Delphi technique
c. diversity pairing
d. awareness training
e. role-playing

C)Diversity pairing

Which of the following is an example of a diversity principle that will help managers do a better job of managing company diversity programs?
a. Set high but realistic goals.
b. All of these are examples of diversity principles.
c. Tailor opportunities to individuals, not groups.
d. Treat group differences as important, but not special.
e. Find the common ground.

B)All of these are examples of diversity principles

A(n) ____ is a formal assessment that measures employee and management attitudes, investigates the extent to which people are advantaged or disadvantaged with respect to hiring and promotions, and reviews companies' diversity-related policies and procedures.
a. stereotypical audit
b. individual SWOT analysis
c. employee-oriented attitudinal review
d. diversity comparison
e. diversity audit

E)Diversity audit

People with the Big Five dimension of ____ respond well under stress.
a. openness to experience
b. emotional stability
c. conscientiousness
d. agreeableness
e. empathy

B)emotional stability

MGT TEST #2 - Subjecto.com

MGT TEST #2

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Patterns of innovation over time that can create sustainable competitive advantage are called:
a. innovation maps
b. innovation streams
c. organization development
d. cyclical inventions
e. results-driven change

B)innovation streams

The __________ approach to managing innovation assumes that innovation is a predictable process made up of a series of steps and that compressing the time it takes to complete those steps can speed up innovation.
a. compression
b. prototypical
c. generational
d. dialectical
e. milestones

A)compression

Patterns of innovation over time that can create sustainable competitive advantage are called:
a. innovation streams
b. organization development
c. cyclical inventions
d. innovation maps
e. results-driven change

A)innovation streams

The first stage of organizational decline is:
a. blinded
b. dissolution
c. inaction
d. faulty action
e. crisis

A)blinded

Which of the following is one of the three steps in the basic process of managing organizational change outlined by Kurt Lewin?
a. change mentoring
b. unfreezing
c. incremental change
d. change definition
e. organizational dialogue

B)unfreezing

According to John Kotter’s analysis of the errors managers make when leading change, the first and potentially most serious of these errors is:
a. not establishing a great enough sense of urgency
b. not removing obstacles to the new vision
c. a poorly designed organizational mission
d. not anchoring changes in the corporation’s culture
e. declaring victory too soon

A)not establishing a great enough sense of urgency

Organizational ____ is the successful implementation of creative ideas in organizations.
a. development
b. deployment
c. change
d. innovation
e. creativity

D)innovation

Creativity was needed to improve efficiency without raising costs at one automobile maker. Over the last few years, the company has successfully implemented a creative engineering program that allows its plants to produce more than one type of car from the same assembly line. This successful change to a flexible manufacturing system is an example of ____.
a. corporate synergy
b. organizational networking
c. organizational innovation
d. assembly networking
e. reverse engineering

C)Organizational innovation

The development of the DVD player was a source of ____ to companies in the movie industry just as VHS tapes had once been.
a. creativity reengineering
b. technological replacement
c. a sustainable competitive advantage
d. planned shrinkage
e. technological discontinuity

E) technological discontinuity

A technology ____ begins with the birth of a new technology and ends when that technology reaches its limits and dies as it is replaced by a newer, substantially better technology.
a. process
b. hierarchy
c. cycle
d. continuum
e. pattern

C)cycle

Nearly all technology cycles follow the typical ____ pattern of innovation.
a. W-curve
b. V-shaped
c. U-curve
d. S-curve
e. bell-shaped

D)S-Curve

In the typical S-curve pattern of innovation, increased effort (i.e., money, research and development) brings only small improvements in technological performance ____,
a. early in the cycle
b. in the maturity stage of the cycle
c. at the end of the cycle
d. at both the beginning and end of the cycle
e. throughout the cycle

D)at both the beginning and end of the cycle

When significant improvements in performance can ONLY be gained through radical new designs or new performance-enhancing materials, it is likely that a company is ____ in the S-curve pattern of innovation.
a. at the problem identification stage of the innovation cycle
b. at its breakeven point
c. at either the beginning or end of the innovation cycle
d. at the end of its maturity stage
e. at the end of the innovation cycle

E) at the end of the innovation cycle

Patterns of innovation over time that can create sustainable competitive advantage are called ____.
a. innovation maps
b. innovation streams
c. results-driven change
d. cyclical inventions
e. organization development

B)innovation steams

A technology cycle occurs whenever there are major advances or changes in the ____ in a field or discipline.
a. structure or personnel requirements
b. internal resource environment
c. knowledge, tools, and techniques
d. way information is integrated
e. human, technical, and conceptual skills needed

C)knowdledge,tools, and techniques

____ is the phase of a technology cycle characterized by technological substitution and design competition.
a. Change substitution
b. The technological growth stage
c. The era of dominant design
d. Technological adaptation
e. Discontinuous change

E)Discontinuous change

The purchase of new technologies to replace older ones is an example of ___.
a. technological substitution
b. design replacement
c. innovative exchange
d. dominant design
e. adaptive change

A)technological substitution

Discontinuous change in an innovation stream is characterized by ____.
a. technological substitution
b. empathetic design
c. incremental change
d. synergy
e. innovative reciprocity

A)Technological substitution

In order from beginning to end, the phases of a technology cycle within an innovation stream consist of ____.
a. discontinuous change, incremental change, technological discontinuity, and dominant design
b. incremental change, discontinuous change, dominant design, and technological discontinuity
c. technological discontinuity, incremental change, discontinuous change, and technological continuity
d. dominant design, discontinuous change, era of incremental change, and technological discontinuity
e. technological discontinuity, discontinuous change, dominant design, and incremental change

e. technological discontinuity, discontinuous change, dominant design, and incremental change

____ are workplace cultures in which workers perceive that new ideas are welcomed, valued, and encouraged.
a. Homogeneous work environments
b. Innovative societies
c. Empathetic work stations
d. Creative work environments
e. Participative work teams

D)Creative work enviroments

Organizational development ____.
a. assumes that top management support is not necessary for change
b. is accurately described by all of these
c. requires a steering committee
d. takes a short-term approach to change
e. is a philosophy and collection of planned change interventions

e. is a philosophy and collection of planned change interventions

Which of the following statements describes an advantage of the results-driven change approach to managing change?
a. It supplants the sole emphasis on activity with a focus on quickly measuring and improving results.
b. Managers introduce changes in policies, procedures, rules, and regulations only when they will improve measured performance.
c. Managers actually test to see if changes make a difference.
d. Quick, visible improvements motivate employees to continue to make additional changes.
e. All of these were cited as advantages of the results-driven change approach.

e. All of these were cited as advantages of the results-driven change approach.

A(n) ____ is the individual who is formally in charge of guiding a change effort.
a. change ombudsman
b. intrapreneur
c. change mentor
d. change agent
e. staff moderator

D)Change agent

Which of the following methods for managing resistance to change should only be used as a last resort or under crisis conditions?
a. coercion
b. arbitration
c. reinforcement modification
d. negotiation
e. mentoring

A)coercion

Which of the following statements about resistance to change is true?
a. Resistance to change will not occur when those affected by the change participate in its planning and implementation.
b. Resistance to change will always occur; it is inevitable.
c. Resistance to change will not occur when change efforts receive significant managerial support.
d. Resistance to change will not occur when employees are educated about the need for change.
e. Resistance to change disappears when the organization operates in conditions of certainty.

b. Resistance to change will always occur; it is inevitable.

According to social psychologist Kurt Lewin, ____ lead to differences in the form, quality, or condition of an organization over time, while ____ support the status quo, or the existing state of conditions in an organization.
a. change forces; inertial forces
b. change forces; resistance forces
c. generational changes; inertial changes
d. generational forces; resistance forces
e. compressed changes; generational changes

B)change forces;resistance forces

It is appropriate to use a(n) ____ approach to manage innovation in more certain environments during periods of incremental change, in which the goals are lower costs and incremental improvements in the performance and function of the existing technological design.
a. reinforcement
b. prototypical
c. milestones
d. experiential
e. compression

E)compression

When incremental improvements are made to a dominant technological design such that the improved version of the technology is fully backward compatible with the older version, ____ is said to have occurred.
a. coercive change
b. intuitive change
c. generational change
d. a milestone
e. discontinuous innovation

C)generational change

The ____ approach to managing innovation assumes that innovation is a predictable process made up of a series of steps and that compressing the time it takes to complete those steps can speed up innovation.
a. generational
b. dialectical
c. prototypical
d. milestones
e. compression

E)compression

Which of the following is a component of a creative work environment that encourages creativity?
a. all of these
b. the removal of organizational impediments
c. organizational encouragement
d. the granting of autonomy
e. the development of challenging work

A)all of these

The two general kinds of trade barriers are:
a. voluntary and involuntary barriers
b. nationalistic and geocentric barriers
c. qualitative and quantitative barriers
d. tariff barriers and nontariff barriers
e. government import standards and industry import standards

D)tariff barriers and nontarrif barriers

The trade agreement that represented the most significant change to the regulations governing global trade during the 1990s was the:
a. Mercosur
b. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
c. Maastricht Treaty of Europe
d. Asian Free Trade Arrangement
e. North American Free Trade Agreement

B)General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

Which of the following represents the correct sequence for the phase model of globalization?
a. exporting; wholly owned affiliates; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances
b. home country sales; exporting; job ventures; strategic alliances, and direct investment
c. exporting; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances; wholly owned affiliates
d. exporting; cooperative contracts; wholly owned affiliates; strategic alliances
e. exporting; strategic alliances; cooperative contracts; wholly owned affiliates

c. exporting; cooperative contracts; strategic alliances; wholly owned affiliates

Two factors help determine the growth potential of foreign markets. They are foreign competition and:
a. purchasing power
b. communications and transportation systems
c. product diffusion rate
d. creative differences
e. political stability

A)purchasing power

Hofstede’s research has shown there are:
a. direct relationships existing between type of infrastructures and growth potential
b. two distinct methods for dealing with cultural differences–adaptation and continuation
c. four factors upon which a company should base its decision to globalize
d. five consistent dimensions of cultural differences across countries
e. no cultural differences among nations in which Spanish is the national language

d. five consistent dimensions of cultural differences across countries

An expatriate is someone who:
a. lives and works outside of his or her own country
b. is unhappy with his or her present residence
c. believes strongly in nationalization
d. claims dual citizenship
e. desires to be employed in a country outside of his or her own

A)lives and works outside his or her own country

The evidence clearly shows that __________ is the most important factor in determining the success or failure of an international assignment.
a. the amount of language training provided to the expatriate
b. the similarity of the foreign language to the expatriate’s native language
c. how willing the expatriate was to accept the foreign assignment
d. the amount of cross-cultural training provided to the expatriate
e. how well an expatriate’s spouse and family adjust to the foreign culture

E)how well an expatriate’s spouse and family adjust to the foreign culture

Global business is defined as____.
a. refers to sales made to people from different cultures, different regions, and different nations
b. the buying and selling of goods and services to people from different countries
c. only involves companies with more than 50 employees
d. is unregulated
e. includes any sale of goods and services

B) the buying and selling of goods and services to people from different countries

____ is a method of investment in which a company builds a new business or buys an existing business in a foreign country.
a. A strategic alliance
b. Direct foreign investment
c. Direct exporting
d. A global new venture
e. A joint venture
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B)Direct foreign investment

In 2000, the United States imposed a tax on all steel imports in an effort to protect about 5,000 jobs. This tax is an example of a(n) ____.
a. subsidy
b. tariff
c. voluntary import restraint
d. financial boycott
e. import duty

B)Tariff

____ are long-term, low-interest loans, cash grants, and tax deductions used to develop and protect companies or special industries.
a. Tariffs
b. Quotas
c. Subsidies
d. Cooperative contracts
e. Voluntary export restraints

C)Subsidies

The acronym GATT stands for the ____.
a. Government Aid of Trade and Transactions
b. Governing Agreement on Trade and Transactions
c. Global Agreement on Temporal Trade
d. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
e. Global Arrangement for Trade and Taxes

D)General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

One of the major questions that a company must typically answer about its future, once it has decided to go global is ____.
a. To what extent should the company standardize or adapt business procedures?
b. To what extent should a company abide by global or regional trade agreements?
c. How many additional employees will the company need?
d. Will the organization’s mission statement need to be changed?
e. How many new shareholders will be influenced by global activities?

a. To what extent should the company standardize or adapt business procedures?

Historically, most companies have used the ____ to successfully enter foreign markets.
a. global new venture approach
b. guerrilla approach
c. market echo approach
d. ripple approach
e. phase model of globalization

E)Phase model of globalization

Fran Wilson Creative Cosmetics is a medium-sized U.S. company that sells 1.5 million tubes of its lipstick annually in Japan. It has no physical presence within the country beyond the fact its products are sold there. Fran Wilson Creative Cosmetics uses ____ to reach the Japanese market.
a. direct investment
b. licensing
c. franchising
d. exporting
e. a strategic alliance

D)Exporting

____ occurs when a company sells domestically produced products to customers in foreign countries.
a. Exporting
b. A joint venture
c. Licensing
d. Franchising
e. Direct foreign investment

A)Exporting

A(n) ____ is an agreement in which a foreign business owner pays a company a fee for the right to conduct that business in his or her country.
a. cooperative contract
b. strategic alliance
c. joint venture
d. exporting agreement
e. direct investment

A)cooperative contract

____ are both examples of cooperative contracts.
a. Licensing and joint ventures
b. Franchising and licensing
c. Direct investment and indirect investment
d. Direct exporting and indirect exporting
e. Joint ventures and strategies alliances

B)Franchising and Licensing

In terms of Hofstede’s cultural differences, the people who are described as happy-go-lucky and are people who are comfortable with an unstructured life and deal well with sudden changes. In terms of Hofstede’s cultural differences, these people have a ____.
a. high degree of uncertainty avoidance
b. low degree of uncertainty avoidance
c. culture based on equity
d. feminine culture
e. masculine culture

B)low degree of uncertainty avoidance

Starbucks is expanding its global operations into South America in spite of the real probability of civil wars and terrorist activities in many of the continent’s nations. As Starbucks expands into South America, it must deal with ____.
a. economic uncertainty
b. political uncertainty
c. nationalistic equity
d. strategy risk
e. infrastructure regulation

B)political uncertainty

All global new ventures share two common factors. One is the bringing of a good or service to several different foreign markets at the same time. The other is ____.
a. the use of local adaptation strategy
b. a mechanistic organizational culture
c. the ability to respond quickly and efficiently to any changes in the external environment
d. none of these
e. the development of culturally-specific implementation policies

D)none of these

The evidence clearly shows that ____ is the most important factor in determining the success or failure of an international assignment.
a. the amount of cross-cultural training provided to the expatriate
b. how well an expatriate’s spouse and family adjust to the foreign culture
c. the similarity of the foreign language to the expatriate’s native language
d. how willing the expatriate was to accept the foreign assignment
e. the amount of language training provided to the expatriate

B)how well an expatriate’s spouse and family adjust to the foreign culture

The term ____ is used by Hofstede to describe the degree to which people in a country are uncomfortable with unstructured, ambiguous, unpredictable situations.
a. power distance
b. masculinity
c. short-term/long-term orientation
d. risk aversion
e. uncertainty avoidance

E)uncertainty avoidance

According to Hofstede, when people in a culture are oriented to the present and seek immediate gratification, that culture is described as ____.
a. feminine
b. having a short-term orientation
c. individualistic
d. masculine
e. having a long-term orientation

B)having a short-term orientation

The ____ strategy of minimizing or adapting to the political risk inherent to global business makes use of joint ventures and collaborative contracts.
a. defensive
b. control
c. avoidance
d. offensive
e. cooperation

E)cooperation

____ is the set of shared values and beliefs that affects the perceptions, decisions, and behavior of people from a particular country.
a. National diversity
b. National culture
c. Cultural nationalization
d. National mindset
e. Cultural diversity

B)National culture

What are the two types of political risk that affect companies conducting global business?
a. nationalism and economic uncertainty
b. cultural strength and political risks
c. policy uncertainty and expropriation potential
d. infrastructure dynamism and political uncertainty
e. political uncertainty and policy uncertainty

E)political uncertainty and policy uncertainty

A country or region that has an attractive business climate for companies that want to go global has ____.
a. a small youth population
b. all of these
c. natural boundaries
d. a large population of unskilled workers
e. an effective but cost-efficient place to build an office or manufacturing site

E) an effective but cost-efficient place to build an office or manufacturing site Hide

Which of the following factors helps a company determine the growth potential of a foreign market?
a. political uncertainty
b. type of infrastructure
c. land availability
d. natural boundaries
e. purchasing power

E)Purchasing power

Which of the following factors should be considered when choosing an office/manufacturing location in the Brazilian market for a U.S. company that operates cinemas and wants to open a chain of movie theatres there?
a. tariff and nontariff barriers
b. work force quality
c. exchange rates
d. all of these
e. the strategy of the movie theater chain

D)all of these

Organizational authority is traditionally characterized by:
a. chain of command
b. all of these
c. behavioral informality
d. empowerment
e. reengineering

A)chain of command

A(n) __________ function is an activity that contributes directly to creating or selling the company’s products.
a. line
b. charted
c. staff
d. organic
e. mechanistic

A)line

__________ means increasing the number of tasks in a particular job and giving workers the power to make decisions about their own work.
a. Job rotation
b. Job enrichment
c. Job enlargement
d. Job specialization
e. Job design

B)Job enrichment

A(n) __________ organization is an organization that is characterized by specialized jobs and responsibilities, precisely defined, unchanging roles, and a rigid chain of command based on centralized authority and vertical communication.
a. modular
b. mechanistic
c. organic
d. departmentalized
e. standardized

B)mechanistic

__________ is a fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvements in critical measures of performance, such as cost, quality, service, and speed.
a. Repositioning
b. Manufacturing conversion
c. Reciprocating interdependence
d. Pooling interdependence
e. Reengineering

E)reengineering

Except for the core business activities that they can perform better, faster, and cheaper than others, __________ outsource all remaining business activities to outside companies, suppliers, specialists, or consultants.
a. modular organizations
b. hierarchical organizations
c. boundaryless organizations
d. virtual organizations
e. organizational networks

A)modular organizations

The organizational process ____.
a. uses vertical and horizontal departmentalization
b. limits the adaptivity of an organization
c. defines roles not activities
d. is a traditional method for establishing organizational structures
e. is the collection of activities that transform inputs into outputs that customers value

e. is the collection of activities that transform inputs into outputs that customers value

While ____ emphasizes jobs and their authority relationships, ____ emphasizes the activities through which work gets done in the organization.
a. departmentalization; functionalization
b. organizational structure; organizational process
c. interorganizational process; intraorganizational process
d. organizational process; organizational structure
e. intraorganizational process; interorganizational process

B)organizational structure; organizational process

____ departmentalization is defined as organizing work and workers into separate units responsible for particular business functions or areas of expertise.
a. Customer
b. Product
c. Functional
d. Hierarchical
e. Matrix
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C)Functional

____ is a general term that refers to subdividing work and workers into separate organizational units that are responsible for completing particular tasks.
a. Departmentalization
b. Organizational layout
c. Organizational process
d. Functionalization
e. Job formatting

A)Departmentalization

Which of the following statements about functional departmentalization is true?
a. Functional departmentalization complicates communication and coordination for departmental managers.
b. Functional departmentalization is also called free-form specialization.
c. Functional departmentalization allows work to be done by highly qualified specialists.
d. Functional departmentalization increases costs by reducing duplication.
e. Functional departmentalization requires the same kinds of functional departments in any company.

c. Functional departmentalization allows work to be done by highly qualified specialists.

Hallmark has four departments. These departments are (1) Flowers and Gifts, (2) Cards and E-cards, (3) Hallmark Collectibles, and (4) Photo Albums and Scrapbooks. Hallmark uses ____ departmentalization.
a. customer
b. geographic
c. product
d. functional
e. matrix

C)product

With divisions that focus on business clients and consumer clients, companies like Sprint, American Express, and others are examples of ____ departmentalization.
a. matrix
b. product
c. boundaryless
d. functional
e. customer

E)customer

Procter & Gamble has divisions for personal and beauty, house and home, health and wellness, baby and family, and pet nutrition and care. These divisions indicate that the company uses ____ departmentalization.
a. product
b. geographic
c. customer
d. functional
e. strategic business unit (SBU)
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A)product

With ____ departmentalization, most employees report to two bosses.
a. functional
b. matrix
c. product
d. customer
e. geographic

B)matrix

The chain of command ____.
a. is only relevant in mechanistic organizations
b. acts at cross-purposes to the unity of command principle
c. does not permit delegation of authority
d. is the horizontal line of authority that indicates at which level of management an individual belongs
e. is described by none of these

E)is described by none of these

____ involves assigning direct authority and responsibility to a subordinate to complete tasks for which the manager is normally responsible.
a. Staff functionality
b. Delegation of authority
c. An organization chart
d. A job description
e. Decentralization

B)Delegation of authority

When managers delegate work, three transfers occur. The three transfers are responsibility, authority, and ____.
a. utility
b. synergy
c. accountability
d. reciprocity
e. empathy

C)reciprocity

____ is the process of solving problems by consistently applying the same rules, procedures, and processes.
a. Standardization
b. Procedural planning
c. Problem empowerment
d. Organizational autonomy
e. Consistency planning

A)Standardization

Decentralization ____.
a. leads to faster decision making and more satisfied customers and employees
b. is accurately described by all of these
c. is more appropriate where standardization is important
d. is characteristic of large companies
e. tends to stymie employee capabilities

a. leads to faster decision making and more satisfied customers and employees

Job specialization can result in ____.
a. complicated job designs
b. low employee turnover
c. low absenteeism
d. high job satisfaction
e. employee boredom

E)employee boredom

____ determines the number, kind, and variety of tasks that individual workers perform in their jobs.
a. Standardization
b. Job design
c. Job specialization
d. An organizational chart
e. Task mapping

B)job design

An organization that has increased the number of different tasks that a worker performs within one particular job has engaged in ____.
a. job enlargement
b. employee specialization
c. job specialization
d. job rotation
e. task aggregation

A)job enlargement

he central concern of the job characteristics model (JCM) is ____.
a. task identification
b. time-motion studies
c. synergy
d. a value-added measure
e. internal motivation

E)internal motivation

____ is the degree to which a job gives workers the discretion, freedom, and independence to decide how and when to accomplish their jobs.
a. Autonomy
b. Skill variety
c. Skill feedback
d. Task significance
e. Task identity

A)Autonomy

____ is the degree to which a job is perceived to have a substantial impact on others inside or outside the organization.
a. Skill feedback
b. Task significance
c. Task identity
d. Skill variety
e. Autonomy

B)Task Significance

A(n) ____ organization is one that is characterized by broadly defined jobs and responsibilities; loosely defined, frequently changing roles; and decentralized authority and horizontal communication based on task knowledge.
a. mechanistic
b. departmentalized
c. modular
d. organic
e. centralized

D)organic

A(n) ____ organization is an organization that is characterized by specialized jobs and responsibilities; precisely defined, unchanging roles; and a rigid chain of command based on centralized authority and vertical communication.
a. organic
b. departmentalized
c. mechanistic
d. standardized
e. modular

C)mechanistic

The three types of task interdependence are
a. sequential, delegated, and pooled
b. delegated, integrated, and combined
c. integrated, reciprocal, and synergistic
d. reciprocal, pooled, and sequential
e. pooled, delegated, and systematic
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d. reciprocal, pooled, and sequential

Team rewards that depend on __________ are the key to rewarding team behaviors and efforts.
a. the elimination of social loafing
b. team performance rather than individual performance
c. someone taking the role of group leader
d. individual efforts rather than team performance
e. the use of groupthink

B)team performance rather than individual performance

Which of the following types of teams have the authority to change their composition as well as all of their tasks and work methods?
a. self-managing teams
b. sequentially interdependent teams
c. self-autonomous teams
d. self-designing teams
e. semi-autonomous work groups
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D)self-designing team

Which of the following size teams usually provides the best performance?
a. 15 to 20
b. 6 to 9
c. 2 to 3
d. All sizes tend to perform equally well.
e. more than 20

B) 6 to 9

According to the text, a(n) ____ is a small number of people with complementary skills who hold themselves mutually accountable for pursuing a common purpose, achieving performance goals, and improving interdependent work processes.
a. ad hoc team
b. semi-structured team
c. venture group
d. work team
e. autonomous unit

D)work team

How are organizations using teams to help increase customer satisfaction?
a. by creating problem-solving teams to study ways to improve customer satisfaction and make recommendations for improvements
b. by instituting a system of increased formalization throughout the organization
c. by taking direct responsibility for service quality
d. by creating outsourcing opportunities that improve organizational effectiveness and efficiency by creating economies of scale
e. by developing ideal solutions to organizational problems through the use of information management systems (most notably expert systems)

a. by creating problem-solving teams to study ways to improve customer satisfaction and make recommendations for improvements

Which of the following is a reason teamwork can be more satisfying than traditional work?
a. Teamwork often allows teams to receive proprietary business information that is only available to managers.
b. Teamwork gives workers a chance to improve their skills.
c. All of these are reasons why teamwork can be more satisfying than traditional work.
d. Teamwork provides team members with unique work opportunities.
e. Teamwork gives workers unique leadership responsibilities which enable them to build individual leadership skills.

C) All of these are reasons why teamwork can be more satisfying than traditional work

____ occurs when workers withhold their efforts and fail to perform their share of the work.
a. De-forming
b. Mental atrophy
c. Stonewalling
d. Self-limiting behavior
e. Social loafing

E)Social loafing

Which of the following statements describe an advantage teams have over individuals in the decision-making process?
a. Teams generate more commitment to making the decisions work.
b. Teams generate more alternative solutions.
c. All of these describe advantages teams have over individuals in the decision-making process.
d. Teams are able to view problems from multiple perspectives.
e. Teams can identify problems more efficiently and more quickly.

c. All of these describe advantages teams have over individuals in the decision-making process.

Teams are typically required when ____.
a. tasks require multiple perspectives
b. synergy will complicate the problem solution process
c. any of these conditions are met
d. tasks are simple
e. the company has very limited resources

A)Tasks require multiple perspectives

In the autonomy continuum (which shows how five kinds of teams differ in terms of autonomy), the correct sequence, from low team autonomy to high team autonomy, is ____.
a. traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, self-designing teams, and self-managing teams
b. employee involvement teams, traditional work groups, semi-autonomous work groups, self-managing teams, and self-designing teams
c. traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, self-managing teams, semi-autonomous work groups, and self-designing teams
d. employer-mandated teams, traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, project teams, and self-managing teams
e. traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, semi-autonomous work groups, self-managing teams, and self-designing teams

e. traditional work groups, employee involvement teams, semi-autonomous work groups, self-managing teams, and self-designing teams

The ____ is purposefully composed of employees from different functional areas of the organization.
a. semi-autonomous team
b. ad hoc team
c. horizontally organized team
d. self-managing team
e. cross-functional team

E)Cross-Functional team

A(n) ____ is defined as a team composed of geographically and/or organizationally dispersed coworkers who use telecommunications and information technologies to accomplish an organizational task.
a. cross-functional team
b. project team
c. virtual team
d. international group
e. self-managing team

C)virtual team

The ____ is created to complete specific, one-time projects or tasks within a limited time.
a. cross-functional team
b. project team
c. self-managing team
d. virtual team
e. standing committee

B)project team

____ are informally agreed-on standards that regulate team behavior.
a. Behavioral policies
b. Operational guides
c. Norms
d. Codes of ethics
e. Heuristics

C)Norms

____ is the extent to which team members are attracted to a team and motivated to remain with it.
a. Synergy
b. Cohesiveness
c. Empathy
d. Accommodation
e. Autonomy

B)Cohesiveness

Team norms in an organization can create ____.
a. increased job satisfaction
b. more trust in management
c. negative behaviors, such as breaking rules
d. all of these

D)all of these

Which of the following statements regarding cohesiveness is true?
a. High group cohesiveness equates to low team motivation.
b. Cohesive groups are always better-performing groups.
c. Cohesive groups engage in less cooperative behavior.
d. Cohesive groups have lower turnover.
e. Cohesive groups have trouble retaining their members.

D)Cohesive groups have lower turnover

____ undermines team effectiveness by preventing teams from engaging in the kinds of activities that are critical to team effectiveness.
a. Affective conflict
b. Behavioral conflict
c. Development of team norms
d. Low cohesiveness
e. Cognitive conflict

A)Affective conflict

Affective conflict ____.
a. typically decreases team cohesiveness
b. is accurately described by all of these
c. can make people more comfortable with their relationships with group peers
d. usually precedes cognitive conflict
e. is strongly associated with improvements in team performance

A)Typically decreases team cohesiveness

Minority domination tends to be a particular problem in ____.
a. project teams because they are temporary
b. groups of ten or larger
c. groups of less than five
d. cross-functional teams of any size
e. virtual teams because of the nature of the communication medium

B)groups of ten or larger

Which of the following statements about team development is true?
a. None of these statements about team development is true.
b. Group cohesion is relatively strong at the informing stage.
c. Decline will inevitably occur in every team.
d. The growth stages are forming, norming, and performing.
e. Team performance begins to decline at the de-norming stage.

D) The growth stages are forming, norming, and performing

Which of the following is one of the stages that teams pass through as they develop and grow, rather than decline?
a. de-storming
b. reforming
c. de-norming
d. de-forming
e. performing

E)Performing

Group cohesion tends to be relatively strong at the ____ stage of team development.
a. conforming
b. norming
c. forming
d. storming
e. informing

B)norming

A team has finally matured into a fully-functioning team at the ____ stage of development.
a. conforming
b. de-norming
c. informing
d. performing
e. norming

D)performing

With ____, teams no longer have to go through the frustratingly slow process of multilevel reviews and signoffs to get management approval before making changes.
a. structural accommodation
b. administrative reciprocity
c. virtual accommodation
d. bureaucratic immunity
e. fast-track approval

D)bureaucratic immunity

____ is the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps teams meet their stretch goals.
a. Bureaucratic accommodation
b. Structural accommodation
c. Structural immunity
d. Administrative reciprocity
e. Bureaucratic immunity

B)Structural Accomodation

____ describes the average level of ability, experience, personality, or any other factor on a team.
a. Team level
b. Team diversity
c. Team performance
d. Group synergy
e. Team conformity

A)Team level

Which of the following statements about team training is true?
a. Organizations often overestimate the amount of training required to make teams effective.
b. Cross-training is less appropriate for teams of highly skilled workers.
c. Team leaders typically do not require training.
d. The most common type of training provided is training in technical skills.
e. The most common type of training provided is training in conceptual skills.

b. Cross-training is less appropriate for teams of highly skilled workers.

Which of the following is a method used for compensating employees for team participation and accomplishments?
a. retained earnings
b. piecework pay
c. hourly wages
d. gainsharing
e. all of these

D)gainsharing

An organization that rewards its team members through gainsharing is ____.
a. sharing the financial value of performance gains
b. using a nonfinancial reward
c. paying employees to gain new skills
d. paying hourly wages
e. engaging in cross training

A)sharing the financial value of performance gains

To which of the following aspects of the human resource management process does federal employment law apply?
a. training and development activities
b. compensation decisions
c. all of these
d. selection decisions
e. performance appraisals

C)all of these

A __________ is a purposeful, systematic process for collecting information on the important work-related aspects of a job.
a. job description
b. job specification
c. job validation
d. job analysis
e. task evaluation

E)Task evaluation

The __________ interview uses only standardized, job-related interview questions that are prepared ahead of time and asked of all candidates
a. scripted
b. structured
c. canned
d. formalized
e. semi-structured
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B)structured

A __________ is a performance appraisal process in which feedback is obtained from the boss, subordinates, peers and co-workers, and the employees themselves.
a. grapevine appraisal
b. reciprocal appraisal
c. 360-degree feedback
d. circular feedback program
e. performance appraisal iteration

C)360-degree feedback

An ESOP is an:
a. employee stock ownership plan
b. equity in salary organizational plan
c. employer/subordinate organizational profit
d. equitable stock ownership plan
e. employee salary option program

A)employee stock ownership plan

____ is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people for the company.
a. Recruiting
b. Human resource implementation
c. Functional resource planning
d. Work force forecasting
e. Human resource management

E)Human resource management

The fact that a 98-pound job candidate is not hired as a dock worker to move 60-pound boxes of produce is legal as a result of ____.
a. adverse impact rulings
b. gender selectivity
c. benefits and features for occupational quality (BFOQs)
d. bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs)
e. the four-fifths rule

d. bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs)

____ is intentional discrimination that occurs when people are purposefully not given the same hiring, promotion, or membership opportunities because of their race, sex, age, ethnic group, national origin, or religious beliefs.
a. Adverse harassment
b. The four-fifths rule
c. Disparate treatment
d. Deliberate negative reinforcement
e. Inequitable discrimination

C)Disparate treatment

When a CEO opened the nationwide sales force meeting with a crude sexually explicit joke it was an example of ____.
a. disparate treatment
b. demographic discrimination
c. sexual harassment
d. an unwelcome sexual advance
e. adverse impact discrimination

C)Sexual harrament

The ____ is a rule of thumb used by the courts and the EEOC to determine whether there is evidence of adverse impact. A violation of this rule occurs when the selection rate for a protected group is less than a specified level of the selection rate for a nonprotected group.
a. dysfunctional turnover rule
b. two-fifths rule
c. 80 percent rule
d. principle of adverse impact
e. disparate treatment rule

C)80 percent rule

From a legal perspective, there are two kinds of sexual harassment. They are ____.
a. quid pro quo and bona fide
b. hostile work environment and bona fide
c. adverse impact and disparate treatment
d. quid pro quo and hostile work environment
e. adverse impact and bona fide

D)quid pro quo and hostile work enviroment

Which of the following statements about sexual harassment is true?
a. Nonemployees cannot be guilty of sexual harassment.
b. None of these statements about sexual harassment is true.
c. Only people who have themselves been harassed can file complaints or lawsuits.
d. The three kinds of sexual harassment are quid pro quo, bona fide, and disparate treatment.
e. Sexual harassment can occur between people of the same sex.

E)Sexual harassment can occur between people of the same sex

Former female employees of a national real estate brokerage firm claimed that they were subjected to lewd remarks, unwanted groping, and sexual propositions by male co-workers. According to their attorney, "The firm created a frat-house culture and then failed to do anything about it." Their suit claims the women were victims of ____.
a. adverse treatment
b. gender discrimination
c. disparate treatment
d. quid pro quo sexual harassment
e. a hostile work environment

E)a hostile work enviroment

To ensure that sexual harassment laws are followed and not violated, companies should ____.
a. respect the privacy of the accused and the accusers
b. make sure they are acting in compliance with not only federal but also local laws
c. write a clear, understandable, strongly worded policy that is well publicized within the company
d. respond immediately when sexual harassment is reported
e. do all of these

E)do all of these

Two of the most important results of a job analysis are ____.
a. job descriptions and job specifications
b. employee-needs assessment and job mapping
c. rater training and selection validation
d. employee-needs assessment and performance appraisal evaluation
e. recruiting guidelines and selection boundaries

A) job descriptions and job specifications

Two of the most important results of a job analysis are ____.
a. job descriptions and job specifications
b. employee-needs assessment and job mapping
c. rater training and selection validation
d. employee-needs assessment and performance appraisal evaluation
e. recruiting guidelines and selection boundaries

A)job descriptions and job specifications

help companies meet the legal requirement that their human resource decisions be job-related.
a. Internal environments, external environments, and job descriptions
b. Job analyses, task specializations, and external environments
c. Job analyses, task evaluations, and employee-needs assessment
d. Job specifications, job analyses, and job descriptions
e. Job descriptions, external environments, and employee mapping

D)Job specifications,job analyses, and job descriptions

Which of the following types of information would typically be collected as part of a job analysis?
a. tools and equipment used
b. all of these
c. work activities
d. knowledge, skills, and abilities needed to do the job
e. job context

B)all of these

Before beginning to recruit, organizations must ____.
a. match salaries to industry averages
b. conduct a job analysis
c. advertise for job candidates
d. create a job specification
e. create a job description

B)conduct a job analysis

In order to be considered ____, recruitment, selection, training, performance appraisals, and employee separations must be valid and be directly related to the important aspects of the job and identified by a careful job analysis.
a. concrete
b. reliable
c. job-related
d. employee related
e. competitive

C)job-related

____ is the process of gathering information about job applicants to decide who should be offered a job.
a. Recruiting
b. Pool enrichment
c. Selection
d. Job inventorying
e. Job validation

C)Selection

Which of the following statements about job validation tests is true?
a. A test is said to be valid when it produces the same results every time it is used.
b. In terms of recruitment, validation is most important in identifying what training prospective employees need.
c. Validation refers to the process of determining how well a selection test or procedure predicts future job performance.
d. None of these statements about validation is true.
e. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures recommend validation only for written tests used as selection procedures.

c. Validation refers to the process of determining how well a selection test or procedure predicts future job performance.

Which of the following questions is deemed acceptable (i.e., "legal") for employers to ask applicants during the selection process?
a. None of these
b. Do you smoke or use tobacco products?
c. Have you ever been convicted of a crime?
d. Have you ever filed a lawsuit against an employer?
e. Are you a United States citizen?

C)Have you ever been convicted of a crime?

Which of the following types of tests accurately predicts job performance in almost all kinds of jobs?
a. personality tests
b. cognitive ability tests
c. achievement tests
d. specific ability tests
e. work sample tests

B)cognitive ability tests

____ means providing opportunities for employees to develop the job-specific skills, experience, and knowledge they need to do their jobs or improve their performance.
a. Mentoring
b. Training
c. Mediating
d. Directing
e. Supervising

B)Training

Which of the following training methods is most appropriate for imparting information or knowledge to trainees?
a. role-playing
b. lectures and planned readings
c. case studies
d. coaching and mentoring
e. group discussions

B)lectures and planned readings

Which of the following is one of the ways in which training can be evaluated?
a. how much employees actually modified their on-the- job behavior
b. how job performance improved
c. reactions of employees
d. all of these
e. on how much employees learned

D)all of these

Which of the following statements about performance appraisal is true?
a. All of these statements about performance appraisal are true.
b. Legally, a disgruntled employee cannot sue an employer on the basis of a dissatisfactory performance appraisal.
c. Since performance appraisal is only a marginally important human resource process, any problems associated with it do not affect organizations overall.
d. Performance appraisals can be used as a basis for compensation but not as a basis for determining who needs further training.
e. Most employees and managers intensely dislike the performance appraisal process.

E)Most employees and managers intensely dislike the performance appraisal process.

Which of the following is an example of an objective performance measure?
a. performance analyses
b. all of these
c. cognitive ability scales
d. behavioral observation scales
e. input/output measures

E)input/output measures

To improve traditional performance appraisal feedback sessions, it is recommended that managers ____.
a. combine developmental feedback and administrative feedback
b. use either a halo or a recency measure
c. use outsourcing
d. base performance appraisal feedback sessions on self-appraisals
e. strengthen the grading aspect of performance appraisal

D)base performance appraisal feedback sessions on self-appraisals

The term ____ refers to both the financial and nonfinancial rewards organizations give employees in exchange for their work.
a. fees
b. value-added
c. wages
d. salaries
e. compensation

E)compensation

Which of the following statements explains why diversity actually makes good business sense?
a. Diversity eliminates glass ceilings.
b. Diversity makes individuals whole by returning them to the condition or place they would have been had it not been for discrimination.
c. Diversity helps companies attract and recruit talented employees.
d. Diversity increases an organization’s retained earnings.
e. Diversity allows a company to act with economic responsibility.

C)Diversity helps companies attract and recruit talented employees

The two basic types of diversity training programs are ____.
a. mentoring and role-playing
b. computer simulation and role-playing
c. role-playing and computer simulation
d. organizational plurality and individual autonomy
e. awareness training and skills-based diversity training

E)awareness training and skills-based diversity training

The term ____ refers to a work environment where (1) each member is empowered to contribute in a way that maximizes the benefits to the organization, customers, and themselves; and (2) the individuality of each member is respected by not segmenting or polarizing people on the basis of their membership in a particular group.
a. social integration
b. positive affectivity
c. deep-level diversity
d. social internalization
e. organizational plurality

E)organizational plurality

Organizational plurality is consistent with ____.
a. the paradigm of commonality
b. the learning and effectiveness paradigm
c. the access and legitimacy paradigm
d. none of these
e. the determination and fairness paradigm

B)the learning and effectiveness paradigm

Which of the Big Five personality measures has the greatest impact on behavior in organizations?
a. extraversion
b. agreeableness
c. openness to experience
d. conscientiousness
e. emotional stability

D)conscientiousness

Which of the following is the most commonly used paradigm for managing diversity?
a. the personal integration paradigm
b. the discrimination and fairness paradigm
c. the affirmative action paradigm
d. the learning and effectiveness paradigm
e. the access and legitimacy paradigm

B)the discrimination and fairness paradigm

Conscientiousness is ____.
a. defined by none of these
b. the degree to which someone is active and gregarious
c. the degree to which someone is curious
d. the degree to which someone is cooperative, flexible, good-natured, tolerant, and trusting
e. the degree to which someone is organized, hardworking, responsible, and achievement-oriented

E)the degree in which someone is organized,hardworking,responsible, and achievement-oriented

Which of the following jobs would be most likely to require someone who has high degree of extraversion?
a. salesperson
b. computer technician
c. wholesale plant nursery operator
d. bookkeeper
e. market researcher

A)salesperson

Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five personality dimensions?
a. extraversion
b. conscientiousness
c. empathy
d. emotional stability
e. agreeableness

C)empathy

To make sure that people with disabilities have the same opportunities as everyone else, organizations can ____.
a. use job enlargement
b. create a code of ethics
c. centralize their hiring practices
d. make a commitment to reasonable workplace accommodations
e. use a matrix organizational structure

D)make a commitment to reasonable workplace accommodation

An individual’s ____ refers to his or her tendency to respond to situations and events in a predetermined manner.
a. locus of control
b. attitude
c. motivation
d. personality
e. disposition

E)disposition

____ is the relatively stable set of behaviors, attitudes, and emotions displayed over time that makes people different from each other.
a. Personality
b. Disposition
c. Cognitive activity
d. Self-concept
e. Motivation

A)Personality

Which of the following might account for the disparities between the percentages of African, Hispanic, and Asian Americans among the general population and their smaller representation in management positions?
a. Federal Trade Commission regulations
b. racial or ethnic discrimination in the workplace
c. affirmative action programs
d. congressional lobbying
e. watchdog advocacy groups

B)racial or ethnic discrimination in the workpalce

Which of the following statements about disabilities is true?
a. None of these statements about disabilities is true.
b. Accommodations for disabilities needn’t be expensive.
c. A disability is only covered by discrimination laws when it is physical.
d. A disability must be visible to the average person to be considered a true disability.
e. On average, people with disabilities earn the same amount as those without disabilities.

B)Accommodations for disabilities needn’t be expensive

Older workers ____.
a. are accurately described by none of these
b. care less about the quality of their output than younger workers
c. tend to perform less effectively compared to younger workers
d. typically demonstrate poor judgment
e. are more likely to quit, be late, or be absent than younger workers

A)are accurately described by none of these

____ helps companies grow by improving the quality of problem solving and improving marketplace understanding.
a. Cultural satisfaction
b. Acculturation
c. Reaffirmation
d. Diversity
e. A discrimination management department

D)Diversity

____ is the degree to which group members are psychologically attracted to working with each other to accomplish a common objective.
a. Norm cohesiveness
b. Integrative focus
c. Social integration
d. Social attraction
e. Social cohesiveness

C)Social integration

____ within P&G’s management has led the company to realize that Hispanic consumers "are more likely to support a company or brand that is active in their community."
a. affirmative action
b. diversity
c. organizational plurality
d. cultural organization
e. acculturation

B)Diversity

Diversity helps companies grow by ____.
a. avoiding conflict between employee groups
b. improving marketplace understanding
c. preventing discrimination
d. complying with federal law
e. creating a homogeneous workplace

B)Improving marketplace understanding

Unlike ____, which punishes companies for not achieving specific gender and race differences in their work forces, ____ programs seek to benefit both organizations and their employees by encouraging organizations to value all kinds of differences.
a. affirmative action; diversity
b. affirmative action; self-monitoring
c. federal agency monitoring; self-monitoring
d. diversity; self-monitoring
e. diversity; affirmative action

A)Affirmative action;diversity

The purposeful steps taken by an organization to create employment opportunities for minorities and women is called ____.
a. acculturation
b. affirmative action
c. discretionary diversity
d. cultural proaction
e. organizational plurality

B)affirmative action

A key difference between affirmative action and diversity is that ____.
a. diversity has a broader focus
b. diversity is legally mandated in all private companies
c. affirmative action does not alter organizational structures, and diversity does
d. diversity requires a wider span of management
e. affirmative action is legally mandated in all private companies

A)Diversity has a broader focus

Affirmative action programs are typically designed to ____.
a. be punitive
b. do all of these
c. compensate for past discrimination
d. protect white, non-Hispanic Americans
e. create homogeneous diversity

C)compensate for past discrimination

____ is a term that describes a situation in organizations when there is a variety of demographic, cultural, and personal differences among the people who work there and the customers who do business there.
a. Affirmative differentiation
b. Diversity
c. Cultural proaction
d. Acculturation
e. Cultural advantage

B)Diversity

Organizational plurality is consistent with:
a. the determination and fairness paradigm
b. the learning and effectiveness paradigm
c. none of these
d. the access and legitimacy paradigm
e. the paradigm of commonality

B)the learning and effectiveness paradigm

Which of the following is a paradigm for managing diversity?
a. the learning and effectiveness paradigm
b. the affirmative action paradigm
c. the sociocultural paradigm
d. the Machiavellian paradigm
e. the paradigm of organizational diversity

A) the learning and effectiveness paradigm

Which of the following diversity practices is a special kind of mentoring?
a. diversity audits
b. the Delphi technique
c. diversity pairing
d. awareness training
e. role-playing

C)Diversity pairing

Which of the following is an example of a diversity principle that will help managers do a better job of managing company diversity programs?
a. Set high but realistic goals.
b. All of these are examples of diversity principles.
c. Tailor opportunities to individuals, not groups.
d. Treat group differences as important, but not special.
e. Find the common ground.

B)All of these are examples of diversity principles

A(n) ____ is a formal assessment that measures employee and management attitudes, investigates the extent to which people are advantaged or disadvantaged with respect to hiring and promotions, and reviews companies’ diversity-related policies and procedures.
a. stereotypical audit
b. individual SWOT analysis
c. employee-oriented attitudinal review
d. diversity comparison
e. diversity audit

E)Diversity audit

People with the Big Five dimension of ____ respond well under stress.
a. openness to experience
b. emotional stability
c. conscientiousness
d. agreeableness
e. empathy

B)emotional stability

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