Immunologic System and Infectious Diseases Level 1

Which type of immunity will clients acquire through immunizations with live or killed vaccines?

1 Natural active immunity Correct2 Artificial active immunity 3 Natural passive immunity 4 Artificial passive immunity Artificial active immunity is acquired through immunization with live or killed vaccines. Natural active immunity is acquired when there is natural contact with antigens through a clinical infection. Natural passive immunity is acquired through the transfer of colostrums from mother to child. Artificial passive immunity is acquired by injecting serum from an immune human.

Why would a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) be prescribed diphenoxylate hydrochloride?

Correct2 To manage diarrhea 3 To manage candidal esophagitis 4 To manage behavioral problems Diphenoxylate hydrochloride is an antidiarrheal drug prescribed to clients with AIDS to manage frequent diarrhea experienced by a client with AIDS. Opioid analgesics such as tramadol are used to manage pain. Ketoconazole can be used to treat candidal esophagitis associated with AIDS. Behavioral problems are managed with psychotropic drugs. Topics

Which leukocyte releases vasoactive amines during a client's allergic reactions?

1 Neutrophil 2 Monocyte Correct3 Eosinophil 4 Macrophage Eosinophils release vasoactive amines during allergic reactions to limit the extent of the allergic reactions. Neutrophils are phagocytes and increase in inflammation and infection. Monocytes are involved in the destruction of bacteria and cellular debris. Macrophages are involved in nonspecific recognition of foreign protein and microorganisms.

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?

Correct1 Cervicitis Incorrect2 Gonorrhea 3 Genital warts 4 Genital herpes Cervicitis is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Genital warts are caused by the Human papillomavirus. Genital herpes is caused by the Herpes simplex virus. Topics

Which drug treats hay fever by preventing leukotriene synthesis?

Correct1 Zileuton 2 Cromolyn sodium 3 Chlorpheniramine 4 Diphenhydramine Zileuton is a leukotriene antagonist drug; this substance prevents the synthesis of leukotrienes and helps in managing and preventing hay fever. Cromolyn sodium stabilizes mast cells and prevents the opening of mast cell membranes in response to allergens binding to immunoglobulin E. Chlorpheniramine and diphenhydramine are antihistamines and prevent the binding of histamine to receptor cells and decrease allergic manifestations.

Which conditions result in humoral immunity? Select all that apply.

1 Tuberculosis Correct2 Atopic diseases Correct3 Bacterial infection Correct4 Anaphylactic shock Incorrect5 Contact dermatitis Atopic diseases, bacterial infections, and anaphylactic shock are disease conditions that trigger humoral immunity. Tuberculosis and contact dermatitis result in cell-mediated immunity.

Which are examples of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? Select all that apply.

Correct1 Poison ivy allergic reaction Correct2 Sarcoidosis Incorrect3 Myasthenia gravis 4 Rheumatoid arthritis Incorrect5 Systemic lupus erythematosus Sarcoidosis and poison ivy reactions are examples of type IV hypersensitivity reactions. In type IV hypersensitivity, the inflammation is caused by a reaction of sensitized T cells with the antigen and the resultant activation of macrophages due to lymphokine release. Myasthenia gravis is an example of a type II or cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction. Rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus are examples of type III immune complex-mediated reactions.

Which organs are affected by Candida albicans? Select all that apply.

1 Ears 2 Lungs Correct3 Vagina Correct4 Mouth Correct5 Intestines Candida albicans causes thrush in the mouth, vaginitis in the vagina, and candidiasis in the intestines. The fungus Aspergillus fumigatus affects the ears. Lungs are affected by Coccidioides immitis.

the echoviruses can cause which diseases in clients? Select all that apply.

Incorrect1 Parotitis Correct2 Gastroenteritis 3 Mononucleosis Correct4 Aseptic meningitis 5 Burkitt's lymphoma Echoviruses cause gastroenteritis and aseptic meningitis. Parotitis is caused by mumps. Burkitt's lymphoma and mononucleosis are caused by the Epstein-Barr virus.

The client is having contact dermatitis of the skin to rubber boots. This is a clinical example of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction, a type IV reaction. This is also called a cell-mediated immune response. Anaphylactic reactions are type I reactions that occur only in susceptible people who are highly sensitized to specific allergens. Hemolytic transfusion reactions are type II reactions that occur when a recipient receives ABO-incompatible blood from a donor. Tissue damage will occur in type III reactions, which are immune-complex reactions that usually occur secondary to antigen-antibody complexes.

...

What causes condylomata acuminate?

1 Chlamydia 2 Gonorrhea 3 Herpes simplex Correct4 Human papillomavirus (HPV) Condylomata acuminate are genital warts which are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). Genital warts are not caused by chlamydia, gonorrhea, or herpes simplex.

Which organism causes smallpo

variola

Which cytokine stimulates the liver to produce fibrinogen and protein C?

1 Interleukin-1 Correct2 Interleukin-6 3 Thrombopoietin 4 Tumor necrosis factor Interleukin-6 stimulates the liver to produce fibrinogen and protein C. Interleukin-1 stimulates the production of prostaglandins. Thrombopoietin increases the growth and differentiation of platelets. Tumor necrosis factor stimulates delayed hypersensitivity reactions and allergies.

Which sexually transmitted disease is caused by the human papilloma virus?

1 Gonorrhea Incorrect2 Genital herpes 3 Chlamydia infection Correct4 Condylomata acuminata Condylomata acuminata is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the human papilloma virus. Gonorrhea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Genital herpes is causes by the herpes simplex virus. Chlamydia infection is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.

The nurse suspects that a client with inhalation anthrax is in the fulminant stage of the disease. Which symptom supports the nurse's conclusion?

1 Fever 2 Dry cough Correct3 Hematemesis 4 Mild chest pain Inhalation anthrax is a bacterial infection caused by Bacillus anthracis. This disease has two stages of illness, the prodromal stage and the fulminant stage. The symptom of the fulminant stage is hematemesis. The symptoms of the prodromal stage are fever, dry cough, and mild chest pain.

A client's laboratory report reveals a CD4+ T-cell count of 520 cells/mm3. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which stage of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease is present in the client?

Correct1 Stage 1 2 Stage 2 3 Stage 3 4 Stage 4 According to the CDC, HIV disease is divided into four stages. A client with a CD4+ T-cell count of greater than 500 cells/mm3 is in the first stage of HIV disease. A client with a CD4+ T-cell count between 200 and 499 cells/mm3 is in the second stage of HIV disease. A client with a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3 is in the third stage of HIV disease. The fourth stage of HIV disease indicates a confirmed HIV infection with no information regarding the CD4+ T-cell counts.

The nurse is educating a client about protease inhibitors. What statement about protease inhibitors is true?

Correct1 Protease inhibitors prevent viral replication. 2 Protease inhibitors prevent the interaction between viral material and the CD4+ T-cell. 3 Protease inhibitors prevent viral and host genetic material integration. Incorrect4 Protease inhibitors prevent the clipping of the viral strands into small functional pieces. Protease inhibitors act by preventing viral replication and release of viral particles. NRTIs inhibits the transformation of viral single-stranded ribonucleic acid into host double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) by the action of the enzyme reverse transcriptase. Entry inhibitor drugs prevent the binding of the virus to the CD4 receptors. Integrase inhibitor drugs prevent the integration of viral material into the host's DNA by the action of the enzyme integrase.

Which is the first antibody formed after exposure to an antigen?

1 IgA 2 IgE 3 IgG Correct4 IgM IgM (immunoglobulin M) is the first antibody formed by a newly sensitized B-lymphocyte plasma cell. IgA has very low circulating levels and is responsible for preventing infection in the upper and lower respiratory tracts, and the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts. IgE has variable concentrations in the blood and is associated with antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reactions. IgG is heavily expressed on second and subsequent exposures to antigens to provide sustained, long-term immunity against invading MO.

Which diseased condition associated with the client's heart is an example of an autoimmune disease?

1 Uveitis Correct2 Rheumatic fever 3 Myasthenia gravis 4 Graves' disease Rheumatic fever is a heart disorder that is an example of an autoimmune disease. Uveitis is an eye disorder that is an example of an autoimmune disease. Myasthenia gravis is a muscle disorder that is an example of an autoimmune disease. Graves' disease is an endocrine disorder that is an example of an autoimmune disease.

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction will occur when the client's T cytotoxic cells are involved as the mediators of injury?

1 Type I Incorrect2 Type II 3 Type III Correct4 Type IV Type IV hypersensitivity reaction will occur when the T cytotoxic cells are involved as the mediators of injury. Type I IgE-mediated reaction will occur when histamine is involved as the mediators of injury. Type II cytotoxic reaction will occur when complement lysis is the mediator of injury. Type III immune complex reaction will occur when neutrophils are involved as the mediators of injury.

A nurse is planning to provide discharge teaching to the family of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Correct1 "Wash used dishes in hot, soapy water." 2 "Let dishes soak in hot water for 24 hours before washing." 3 "You should boil the client's dishes for 30 minutes after use." 4 "Have the client eat from paper plates so they can be discarded." A person cannot contract human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) by eating from dishes previously used by an individual with AIDS; routine care is adequate. Washing used dishes in hot, soapy water is sufficient care for dishes used by the AIDS client. Dishes do not need to soak for 24 hours before being washed. The client's dishes do not need to be boiled for 30 minutes after use. Paper plates are fine to use but are not indicated to prevent the spread of AIDS.

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Immunologic System and Infectious Diseases Level 1

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Which type of immunity will clients acquire through immunizations with live or killed vaccines?

1 Natural active immunity Correct2 Artificial active immunity 3 Natural passive immunity 4 Artificial passive immunity Artificial active immunity is acquired through immunization with live or killed vaccines. Natural active immunity is acquired when there is natural contact with antigens through a clinical infection. Natural passive immunity is acquired through the transfer of colostrums from mother to child. Artificial passive immunity is acquired by injecting serum from an immune human.

Why would a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) be prescribed diphenoxylate hydrochloride?

Correct2 To manage diarrhea 3 To manage candidal esophagitis 4 To manage behavioral problems Diphenoxylate hydrochloride is an antidiarrheal drug prescribed to clients with AIDS to manage frequent diarrhea experienced by a client with AIDS. Opioid analgesics such as tramadol are used to manage pain. Ketoconazole can be used to treat candidal esophagitis associated with AIDS. Behavioral problems are managed with psychotropic drugs. Topics

Which leukocyte releases vasoactive amines during a client’s allergic reactions?

1 Neutrophil 2 Monocyte Correct3 Eosinophil 4 Macrophage Eosinophils release vasoactive amines during allergic reactions to limit the extent of the allergic reactions. Neutrophils are phagocytes and increase in inflammation and infection. Monocytes are involved in the destruction of bacteria and cellular debris. Macrophages are involved in nonspecific recognition of foreign protein and microorganisms.

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis?

Correct1 Cervicitis Incorrect2 Gonorrhea 3 Genital warts 4 Genital herpes Cervicitis is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Genital warts are caused by the Human papillomavirus. Genital herpes is caused by the Herpes simplex virus. Topics

Which drug treats hay fever by preventing leukotriene synthesis?

Correct1 Zileuton 2 Cromolyn sodium 3 Chlorpheniramine 4 Diphenhydramine Zileuton [1] [2] is a leukotriene antagonist drug; this substance prevents the synthesis of leukotrienes and helps in managing and preventing hay fever. Cromolyn sodium stabilizes mast cells and prevents the opening of mast cell membranes in response to allergens binding to immunoglobulin E. Chlorpheniramine and diphenhydramine are antihistamines and prevent the binding of histamine to receptor cells and decrease allergic manifestations.

Which conditions result in humoral immunity? Select all that apply.

1 Tuberculosis Correct2 Atopic diseases Correct3 Bacterial infection Correct4 Anaphylactic shock Incorrect5 Contact dermatitis Atopic diseases, bacterial infections, and anaphylactic shock are disease conditions that trigger humoral immunity. Tuberculosis and contact dermatitis result in cell-mediated immunity.

Which are examples of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? Select all that apply.

Correct1 Poison ivy allergic reaction Correct2 Sarcoidosis Incorrect3 Myasthenia gravis 4 Rheumatoid arthritis Incorrect5 Systemic lupus erythematosus Sarcoidosis and poison ivy reactions are examples of type IV hypersensitivity reactions. In type IV hypersensitivity, the inflammation is caused by a reaction of sensitized T cells with the antigen and the resultant activation of macrophages due to lymphokine release. Myasthenia gravis is an example of a type II or cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction. Rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus are examples of type III immune complex-mediated reactions.

Which organs are affected by Candida albicans? Select all that apply.

1 Ears 2 Lungs Correct3 Vagina Correct4 Mouth Correct5 Intestines Candida albicans causes thrush in the mouth, vaginitis in the vagina, and candidiasis in the intestines. The fungus Aspergillus fumigatus affects the ears. Lungs are affected by Coccidioides immitis.

the echoviruses can cause which diseases in clients? Select all that apply.

Incorrect1 Parotitis Correct2 Gastroenteritis 3 Mononucleosis Correct4 Aseptic meningitis 5 Burkitt’s lymphoma Echoviruses cause gastroenteritis and aseptic meningitis. Parotitis is caused by mumps. Burkitt’s lymphoma and mononucleosis are caused by the Epstein-Barr virus.

The client is having contact dermatitis [1] [2] of the skin to rubber boots. This is a clinical example of a delayed hypersensitivity reaction, a type IV reaction. This is also called a cell-mediated immune response. Anaphylactic reactions are type I reactions that occur only in susceptible people who are highly sensitized to specific allergens. Hemolytic transfusion reactions are type II reactions that occur when a recipient receives ABO-incompatible blood from a donor. Tissue damage will occur in type III reactions, which are immune-complex reactions that usually occur secondary to antigen-antibody complexes.

What causes condylomata acuminate?

1 Chlamydia 2 Gonorrhea 3 Herpes simplex Correct4 Human papillomavirus (HPV) Condylomata acuminate are genital warts which are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). Genital warts are not caused by chlamydia, gonorrhea, or herpes simplex.

Which organism causes smallpo

variola

Which cytokine stimulates the liver to produce fibrinogen and protein C?

1 Interleukin-1 Correct2 Interleukin-6 3 Thrombopoietin 4 Tumor necrosis factor Interleukin-6 stimulates the liver to produce fibrinogen and protein C. Interleukin-1 stimulates the production of prostaglandins. Thrombopoietin increases the growth and differentiation of platelets. Tumor necrosis factor stimulates delayed hypersensitivity reactions and allergies.

Which sexually transmitted disease is caused by the human papilloma virus?

1 Gonorrhea Incorrect2 Genital herpes 3 Chlamydia infection Correct4 Condylomata acuminata Condylomata acuminata is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the human papilloma virus. Gonorrhea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Genital herpes is causes by the herpes simplex virus. Chlamydia infection is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.

The nurse suspects that a client with inhalation anthrax is in the fulminant stage of the disease. Which symptom supports the nurse’s conclusion?

1 Fever 2 Dry cough Correct3 Hematemesis 4 Mild chest pain Inhalation anthrax is a bacterial infection caused by Bacillus anthracis. This disease has two stages of illness, the prodromal stage and the fulminant stage. The symptom of the fulminant stage is hematemesis. The symptoms of the prodromal stage are fever, dry cough, and mild chest pain.

A client’s laboratory report reveals a CD4+ T-cell count of 520 cells/mm3. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which stage of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease is present in the client?

Correct1 Stage 1 2 Stage 2 3 Stage 3 4 Stage 4 According to the CDC, HIV disease is divided into four stages. A client with a CD4+ T-cell count of greater than 500 cells/mm3 is in the first stage of HIV disease. A client with a CD4+ T-cell count between 200 and 499 cells/mm3 is in the second stage of HIV disease. A client with a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3 is in the third stage of HIV disease. The fourth stage of HIV disease indicates a confirmed HIV infection with no information regarding the CD4+ T-cell counts.

The nurse is educating a client about protease inhibitors. What statement about protease inhibitors is true?

Correct1 Protease inhibitors prevent viral replication. 2 Protease inhibitors prevent the interaction between viral material and the CD4+ T-cell. 3 Protease inhibitors prevent viral and host genetic material integration. Incorrect4 Protease inhibitors prevent the clipping of the viral strands into small functional pieces. Protease inhibitors act by preventing viral replication and release of viral particles. NRTIs inhibits the transformation of viral single-stranded ribonucleic acid into host double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) by the action of the enzyme reverse transcriptase. Entry inhibitor drugs prevent the binding of the virus to the CD4 receptors. Integrase inhibitor drugs prevent the integration of viral material into the host’s DNA by the action of the enzyme integrase.

Which is the first antibody formed after exposure to an antigen?

1 IgA 2 IgE 3 IgG Correct4 IgM IgM (immunoglobulin M) is the first antibody formed by a newly sensitized B-lymphocyte plasma cell. IgA has very low circulating levels and is responsible for preventing infection in the upper and lower respiratory tracts, and the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts. IgE has variable concentrations in the blood and is associated with antibody-mediated hypersensitivity reactions. IgG is heavily expressed on second and subsequent exposures to antigens to provide sustained, long-term immunity against invading MO.

Which diseased condition associated with the client’s heart is an example of an autoimmune disease?

1 Uveitis Correct2 Rheumatic fever 3 Myasthenia gravis 4 Graves’ disease Rheumatic fever is a heart disorder that is an example of an autoimmune disease. Uveitis is an eye disorder that is an example of an autoimmune disease. Myasthenia gravis is a muscle disorder that is an example of an autoimmune disease. Graves’ disease is an endocrine disorder that is an example of an autoimmune disease.

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction will occur when the client’s T cytotoxic cells are involved as the mediators of injury?

1 Type I Incorrect2 Type II 3 Type III Correct4 Type IV Type IV hypersensitivity reaction will occur when the T cytotoxic cells are involved as the mediators of injury. Type I IgE-mediated reaction will occur when histamine is involved as the mediators of injury. Type II cytotoxic reaction will occur when complement lysis is the mediator of injury. Type III immune complex reaction will occur when neutrophils are involved as the mediators of injury.

A nurse is planning to provide discharge teaching to the family of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Correct1 "Wash used dishes in hot, soapy water." 2 "Let dishes soak in hot water for 24 hours before washing." 3 "You should boil the client’s dishes for 30 minutes after use." 4 "Have the client eat from paper plates so they can be discarded." A person cannot contract human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) by eating from dishes previously used by an individual with AIDS; routine care is adequate. Washing used dishes in hot, soapy water is sufficient care for dishes used by the AIDS client. Dishes do not need to soak for 24 hours before being washed. The client’s dishes do not need to be boiled for 30 minutes after use. Paper plates are fine to use but are not indicated to prevent the spread of AIDS.

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