HESI Fundamentals Practice Test B

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1.What is the rationale for using the nursing process in planning care for clients?
A. As a scientific process to identify nursing diagnoses of a clients’ healthcare problems.
B. To establish nursing theory that incorporates the biopsychosocial nature of humans.
C. As a tool to organize thinking and clinical decision making about clients’ healthcare needs.
D. To promote the management of client care in collaboration with other healthcare professionals.

C (The nursing process is a problem-solving approach that provides an organized, systematic, decision making process to effectively address the client’s needs and problems. The nursing process includes an organized framework using knowledge, judgments, and actions by the nurse as the client’s plan of care is determined, and encompasses assessment, analysis, planning, implementation, and evaluation of client care (C). (A, B, and D) do not support the basis for using the nursing process. Correct Answer: C)

2.What activity should the nurse use in the evaluation phase of the nursing process?
A. Ask a client to evaluate the nursing care provided.
B. Document the nursing care plan in the progress notes.
C. Determine whether a client’s health problems have been alleviated.
D. Examine the effectiveness of nursing interventions toward meeting client outcomes.

In the nursing process, the evaluation component examines the effectiveness of nursing interventions in achieving client outcomes (D). (A) is an evaluation of client satisfaction, not outcomes. (B) is a written record of the plan of care. Although (C) may occur when client outcomes are achieved, evaluation is best determined by attainment of measurable client outcomes. Correct Answer: D

3.Which statement is an example of a correctly written nursing diagnosis statement?
A. Altered tissue perfusion related to congestive heart failure.
B. Altered urinary elimination related to urinary tract infection.
C. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to client’s refusal to turn.
D. Ineffective coping related to response to positive biopsy test results.

The first part of the nursing diagnosis statement is the diagnostic label and is followed by related to the cause, which should direct the nurse to the appropriate interventions. (D) best fits this criteria. (A and B) contain a medical diagnosis. (C) includes an observable cause, but (D) focuses on the client’s response, which the nurse can provide support, reflection, and dialogue. Correct Answer: D

4.What action by the nurse demonstrates culturally sensitive care?
A. Asks permission before touching a client.
B. Avoids questions about male-female relationships.
C. Explains the differences between Western medical care and cultural folk remedies.
D. Applies knowledge of a cultural group unless a client embraces Western customs.

Physical contact, such as touching the head, in some cultures is a sign of respect, whereas in others, it is strictly forbidden. So asking permission before touching a client (A) demonstrates culturally sensitive care. (B, C, and D) do not demonstrate cultural awareness. Correct Answer: A

5.A nurse is becoming increasingly frustrated by the family members’ efforts to participate in the care of a hospitalized client. What action should the nurse implement to cope with these feelings of frustration?
A. Suggest that other cultural practices be substituted by the family members.
B. Examine one’s own culturally based values, beliefs, attitudes, and practices.
C. Explain to the family that multiple visitors are exhausting to the client.
D. Allow the situation to continue until a family member’s action may harm the client.

Acknowledging a client’s beliefs and customs related to sickness and health care are valuable components in the plan of care that prevents conflict between the goals of nursing and the client’s cultural practices. Cultural sensitivity begins with examining one’s own cultural values (B) to compare, recognize, and acknowledge cultural bias. (A and C) do not consider the family’s needs to care for the client and are not the best ways to cope with the nurse’s frustration. Although (D) may be an option, examining one’s cultural differences allows the nurse to cope, empathize, and implement culturally specific interventions pertaining to the needs of the client and the family. Correct Answer: B

6.Which technique is most important for the nurse to implement when performing a physical assessment?
A. A head-to-toe approach.
B. The medical systems model.
C. A consistent, systematic approach.
D. An approach related to a nursing model.

The most important factor in performing a physical assessment is following a consistent and systematic technique (C) each time an assessment is performed to minimize variation in sequence which may increase the likelihood of omitting a step or exam of an isolated area. The method of completing a physical assessment (A, B, and D) may be at the discretion of the examiner, but a consistent sequence by the examiner provides a reliable method to ensure thorough review of the clients’ history, complaints, or body systems. Correct Answer: C

7.A 73-year-old Hispanic client is seen at the community health clinic with a history of protein malnutrition. What information should the nurse obtain first?
A. Amount of liquid protein supplements consumed daily.
B. Foods and liquids consumed during the past 24 hours.
C. Usual weekly intake of milk products and red meats.
D. Grains and legume combinations used by the client.

A client’s dietary habits should be determined first by the client’s dietary recall (B) before suggesting protein sources or supplements (A and C) as options in the client’s diet. Although grains and legumes (D) contain incomplete proteins that reduces the essential amino acid pools inside the cells, the client’s cultural preferences should be illicited after confirming the client’s dietary history. Correct Answer: B

8.The nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of, "Ineffective health maintenance related to lack of motivation" for a client with Type 2 diabetes. Which finding supports this nursing diagnosis?
A. Does not check capillary blood glucose as directed.
B. Occasionally forgets to take daily prescribed medication.
C. Cannot identify signs or symptoms of high and low blood glucose.
D. Eats anything and does not think diet makes a difference in health.

The nursing diagnosis of ineffective health maintenance refers to an inability to identify, manage, and/or seek out help to maintain health, and is best exemplified in the client belief or understanding about diet and health maintenance (D). (A) indicates noncompliance with an action to be done in the management of diabetes. (B) represents inattentiveness. (C) reflects knowledge deficit. Correct Answer: D

9.Which statement correctly identifies a written learning objective for a client with peripheral vascular disease?
A. The nurse will provide client instruction for daily foot care.
B. The client will demonstrate proper trimming toenail technique.
C. Upon discharge, the client will list three ways to protect the feet from injury.
D. After instruction, the nurse will ensure the client understands foot care rationale.

An objective should contain four elements: who will perform the activity or acquire the desired behavior, the actual behavior that the learner will exhibit, the condition under which the behavior is to be demonstrated, and the specific criteria to be used to measure success. (C) is a concise statement that is a learning objective that defines exactly how the client will demonstrate mastery of the content. (A, B, and D) lack one or more of these elements. Correct Answer: C

10.A middle-aged woman who enjoys being a teacher and mentor feels that she should pass down her legacy of knowledge and skills to the younger generation. According to Erikson, she is involved in what developmental stage?
A. Generativity.
B. Ego integrity.
C. Identification.
D. Valuing wisdom.

Healthy middle-aged adults focus on establishing the next generation by nurturing and guiding, which is describe by Erikson as the developmental stage of generativity (A), and is characteristic of middle adulthood. (B, C and D) are not stages of this age group according to Erickson’s psychosocial developmental theory. Correct Answer: A

11.Which statement best describes durable power of attorney for health care?
A. The client signs a document that designates another person to make legally binding healthcare decisions if client is unable to do so.
B. The healthcare decisions made by another person designated by the client are not legally binding.
C. Instructions about actions to be taken in the event of a client’s terminal or irreversible condition are not legally binding.
D. Directions regarding care in the event of a terminal or irreversible condition must be documented to ensure that they are legally binding.

The durable power of attorney is a legal document or a form of advance directive that designates another person to voice healthcare decisions when the client is unable to do so. A durable power of attorney for health directives is legally binding (A). (B, C and D) do not include the legal parameters that must be determined by the client in the event the client is unable to make a healthcare decision, which can be changed by the client at any time. Correct Answer: A

12.A male client with an infected wound tells the nurse that he follows a macrobiotic diet. Which type of foods should the nurse recommend that the client select from the hospital menu?
A. Low fat and low sodium foods.
B. Combination of plant proteins to provide essential amino acids.
C. Limited complex carbohydrates and fiber.
D. Increased amount of vitamin C and beta carotene rich foods.

A macrobiotic diet is high in whole-grain cereals, vegetables, sea vegetables, beans, and vegetarian soups, and the client needs essential amino acids to provide complete proteins to heal the infected wound. Although a macrobiotic diet contains no source of animal protein, essential amino acids should be obtained by combining plant (incomplete) proteins to provide complete (all essential amino acids) proteins (B) for anabolic processes. (A, C, and D) do not provide the client with food choices consistent with a macrobiotic diet and protein needs. Correct Answer: B

13.A client with Raynaud’s disease asks the nurse about using biofeedback for self-management of symptoms. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
A. The responses to biofeedback have not been well established and may be a waste of time and money.
B. Biofeedback requires extensive training to retrain voluntary muscles, not involuntary responses.
C. Although biofeedback is easily learned, it is mostly often used to manage exacerbation of symptoms.
D. Biofeedback allows the client to control involuntary responses to promote peripheral vasodilation.

Biofeedback involves the use of various monitoring devices that help people become more aware and able to control their own physiologic responses, such as heart rate, body temperature, muscle tension, and brain waves. (D) is an accurate statement concerning its use for clients with Raynaud’s disease. (A, B, and C) do not provide correct information about biofeedback. Correct Answer: D

14.A female client informs the nurse that she uses herbal therapies to supplement her diet and manage common ailments. What information should the nurse offer the client about general use of herbal supplements?
A. Most herbs are toxic or carcinogenic and should be used only when proven effective.
B. There is no evidence that herbs are safe or effective as compared to conventional supplements in maintaining health.
C. Herbs should be obtained from manufacturers with a history of quality control of their supplements.
D. Herbal therapies may mask the symptoms of serious disease, so frequent medical evaluation is required during use.

The current availability of many herbal supplements lacks federal regulation, research, control and standardization in the manufacture of its purity and dose. Manufacturers that provide evidence of quality control (C), such as labeling that contains scientific generic name, name and address of the manufacturer, batch or lot number, date of manufacture, and expiration date, is the best information to provide. (A, B, and D) are misleading. Correct Answer: C

15.A female client who has breast cancer with metastasis to the liver and spine is admitted with constant, severe pain despite around-the-clock use of oxycodone (Percodan) and amitriptyline (Elavil) for pain control at home. During the admission assessment, which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
A. Sensory pattern, area, intensity, and nature of the pain.
B. Trigger points identified by palpation and manual pressure of painful areas.
C. Schedule and total dosages of drugs currently used for breakthrough pain.
D. Sympathetic responses consistent with onset of acute pain.

The components of every pain assessment should include sensory patterns, area, intensity, and nature (PAIN) of the pain (A) and are essential in identifying appropriate therapy for the client’s specific type and severity of pain, which may indicate the onset of disease progression or complications. Triggers (B), current drug usage (C), and sympathetic responses (D), such as tachycardia, diaphoresis, and elevated blood pressure, are important, but should be obtained after focusing on (A). Correct Answer: A

16.A client who has moderate, persistent, chronic neuropathic pain due to diabetic neuropathy takes gabapentin (Neurontin) and ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil) daily. If Step 2 of the World Health Organization (WHO) pain relief ladder is prescribed, which drug protocol should be implemented?
A. Continue gabapentin.
B. Discontinue ibuprofen.
C. Add aspirin to the protocol.
D. Add oral methadone to the protocol.

Based on the WHO pain relief ladder, adjunct medications, such as gabapentin (Neurontin), an antiseizure medication, may be used at any step for anxiety and pain management, so (A) should be implemented. Nonopiod analgesics, such as ibuprofen (A) and aspirin (C) are Step 1 drugs. Step 2 and 3 include opioid narcotics (D), and to maintain freedom from pain, drugs should be given around the clock rather than by the client s PRN requests. Correct Answer: A

17.To obtain the most complete assessment data for a client with chronic pain, which information should the nurse obtain?
A. Can you describe where your pain is the most severe?
B. What is your pain intensity on a scale of 1 to 10?
C. Is your pain best described as aching, throbbing, or sharp?
D. Which activities during a routine day are impacted by your pain?

A client with chronic pain is more likely to have adapted physiologically to vital sign changes, localization or intensity, so pain assessment should focus on any interference with daily activities (D), sleep, relationships with others, physical activity, and emotional well-being. Exacerbation of acute symptoms, such as pain distribution, patterns, intensity, and descriptors illicit specific assessment findings, whereas (A, B, and C) are limiting, closed-end questions, and can be answered with a yes, no, or a number. Correct Answer: D

18.A male client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops cryptococcal meningitis and tells the nurse he does not want to be resuscitated if his breathing stops. What action should the nurse implement?
A. Document the client’s request in the medical record.
B. Ask the client if this decision has been discussed with his healthcare provider.
C. Inform the client that a written, notarized advance directive, is required to withhold resuscitation efforts.
D. Advise the client to designate a person to make healthcare decisions when the client is unable to do so.

Advance directives are written statements of a person’s wishes regarding medical care, and verbal directives may be given to a healthcare provider with specific instructions in the presence of two witnesses. To obtain this prescription, the client should discuss his choice with the healthcare provider (B). (A) is insufficient to implement the client’s request without legal consequences. Although (C and D) provide legal protection of the client’s wishes, the present request needs additional action. Correct Answer: B

19.The nurse is discussing dietary preferences with a client who adheres to a vegan diet. Which dietary supplement should the nurse encourage the client to include the dietary plan?
A. Fiber.
B. Folate.
C. Ascorbic acid.
D. Vitamin B12.

Vitamin B12 is normally found in liver, kidney, meat, fish and dairy products. A vegan who consumes only vegetables without careful dietary planning and supplementation may develop peripheral neuropathy due to a deficiency in vitamin B12 (D). (A, B, and C) are commonly adequate in vegtables and fruits. Correct Answer: D

20.The nurse is preparing a male client who has an indwelling catheter and an IV infusion to ambulate from the bed to a chair for the first time following abdominal surgery. What action(s) should the nurse implement prior to assisting the client to the chair? (Select all that apply.)
A. Pre-medicate the client with an analgesic.
B. Inform the client of the plan for moving to the chair.
C. Obtain and place a portable commode by the bed.
D. Ask the client to push the IV pole to the chair.
E. Clamp the indwelling catheter.
F. Assess the client’s blood pressure.

The nurse should plan to implement (A, B, D, and F). Pre-medicating the client with an analgesic (A) reduces the client’s pain during mobilization and maximizes compliance. To ensure the client’s cooperation and promote independence, the nurse should inform the client about the plan for moving to the chair (B) and encourage the client to participate by pushing the IV pole when walking to the chair (D). The nurse should assess the client’s blood pressure (F) prior to mobilization, which can cause orthostatic hypotension. (C and E) are not indicated. Correct Answer: A, B, D, F

21.A client is demonstrating a positive Chvostek’s sign. What action should the nurse take?
A. Observe the client’s pupil size and response to light.
B. Ask the client about numbness or tingling in the hands.
C. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.
D. Restrict dietary intake of calcium-rich foods.

A positive Chvostek’s sign is an indication of hypocalcemia, so the client should be assessed for the subjective symptoms of hypocalcemia, such as numbness or tingling of the hands (B) or feet. (A and C) are unrelated assessment data. (D) is contraindicated because the client is hypocalcemic and needs additional dietary calcium. Correct Answer: B

22.When preparing to administer an intravenous medication through a central venous catheter, the nurse aspirates a blood return in one of the lumens of the triple lumen catheter. Which action should the nurse implement?
A. Flush the lumen with the saline solution and administer the medication through the lumen.
B. Determine if a PRN prescription for a thrombolytic agent is listed on the medication record.
C. Clamp the lumen and obtain a syringe of a dilute heparin solution to flush through the tubing.
D. Withdraw the aspirated blood into the syringe and use a new syringe to administer the medication.

Aspiration of a blood return in the lumen of a central venous catheter indicates that the catheter is in place and the medication can be administered. The nurse should flush the tubing with the saline solution, administer the medication (A), then flush the lumen with saline again. (B and C) are not necessary. The aspirated blood can be flushed back through the closed system into the client’s bloodstream, but does not need to be withdrawn (D). Correct Answer: A

23.Which client assessment data is most important for the nurse to consider before ambulating a postoperative client?
A. Respiratory rate.
B. Wound location.
C. Pedal pulses.
D. Pain rating.

Mobilization and ambulation increase oxygen use, so it is most important to assess the client’s respiratory rate (A)before ambulation to determine tolerance for activity. (B, C, and D) are also important, but are of lower priority than (A). Correct Answer: A

24.The nurse is administering an intermittent infusion of an antibiotic to a client whose intravenous (IV) access is an antecubital saline lock. After the nurse opens the roller clamp on the IV tubing, the alarm on the infusion pump indicates an obstruction. What action should the nurse take first?
A. Check for a blood return.
B. Reposition the client’s arm.
C. Remove the IV site dressing.
D. Flush the lock with saline.

If the client’s elbow is bent, the IV may be unable to infuse, resulting in an obstruction alarm, so the nurse should first attempt to reposition the client’s arm to alleviate any obstruction (B). After other sources of occlusion are eliminated, the nurse may need to check for a blood return (A), remove the dressing (C), or flush the saline lock (D) and then resume the intermittent infusion. Correct Answer: B

25.Which nursing intervention is most beneficial in reducing the risk of urosepsis in a hospitalized client with an indwelling urinary catheter?
A. Ensure that the client’s perineal area is cleansed twice a day.
B. Maintain accurate documentation of the fluid intake and output.
C. Encourage frequent ambulation if allowed or regular turning if on bedrest.
D. Obtain a prescription for removal of the catheter as soon as possible.

The best intervention to reduce the risk for urosepsis (spread of an infectious agent from the urinary tract to systemic circulation) is removal of the urinary catheter as quickly as possible (D). (A, B, and C) are helpful to reduce the risk of infection, but are of less priority than (D) in reducing the risk of urosepsis. Correct Answer: D

26.In evaluating client care, which action should the nurse take first?
A. Determine if the expected outcomes of care were achieved.
B. Review the rationales used as the basis of nursing actions.
C. Document the care plan goals that were successfully met.
D. Prioritize interventions to be added to the client’s plan of care.

In evaluating care, the nurse should first determine if the expected outcomes of the plan of care were achieved (A). As indicated, the nurse may then review the initial nursing actions and the rationales for those actions (B), document successful completion of the care plan goals (C), and revise the plan of care (D). Correct Answer: A

27.Prior to administering a newly prescribed medication to a client, the nurse reviews the adverse effects of the medication listed in a drug reference guide and determines the priority risks to the client. While performing this action, the nurse is engaged in which step of the nursing process?
A. Assessment.
B. Analysis.
C. Implementation.
D. Evaluation.

The nurse is analyzing (B) data to establish an individualized nursing diagnosis, such as, "Risk for injury related to side effects of drugs." This analysis is based on assessment (A) and guides the planning and implementation (C) of care, such as the decision to monitor the client frequently. (D) provides the nurse with information about the effectiveness of the plan of care. Correct Answer: B

28.The nurses determines a client’s IV solution is infusing at 250 ml/hr. The prescribed rate is 125 ml/hr. What action should the nurse take first?
A. Determine when the IV solution was started.
B. Slow the IV infusion to keep vein open rate.
C. Assess the IV insertion site for swelling.
D. Report the finding to the healthcare provider.

The nurse should first slow the IV flow rate to keep vein open (KVO) rate (B) to prevent further risk of fluid volume overload, then gather additional assessment data, such as when the IV solution was started (A) and the appearance of the IV insertion site (C) before contacting the healthcare provider (D) for further instructions. Correct Answer: B

29.A male nurse is assigned to care for a female Muslim client. When the nurse offers to bathe the client, the client requests that a female nurse perform this task. How should the male nurse respond?
A. May I ask your daughter to help you with your personal hygiene?
B. I will ask one of the female nurses to bathe you.
C. A staff member on the next shift will help you.
D. I will keep you draped and hand you the supplies as you need them.

Many female Muslim clients are very modest and prefer to receive personal care from another female because of their religious and cultural beliefs. The most culturally sensitive response is for the male nurse to ask a female colleague to perform this task (B). (A and D) are less respectful of the client’s cultural and spiritual preferences. (C) delays the client’s care. Correct Answer: B

30.As the nurse prepares the equipment to be used to start an IV on a 4-year-old boy in the treatment room, he cries continuously. What intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Take the child back to his room.
B. Recruit others to restrain the child.
C. Ask the mother to be present to soothe the child.
D. Show the child how to manipulate the equipment.

A 4-year-old typically has a vivid imagination and lacks concrete thinking abilities. The mother’s assistance (C) can provide a stabilizing presence to help soothe the preschooler, who may perceive the invasive procedure as mutilating. To preserve the child’s sense of security associated with the hospital room, it is best to perform difficult or painful procedures in another area (A). (B) may be necessary to prevent injury if the child is unable to cooperate with the mother’s coaxing. (D) is best done before going to the treatment room when the child feels less threatened. Correct Answer: C

31.When making the bed of a client who needs a bed cradle, which action should the nurse include?
A. Teach the client to call for help before getting out of bed.
B. Keep both the upper and lower side rails in a raised position.
C. Keep the bed in the lowest position while changing the sheets.
D. Drape the top sheet and covers loosely over the bed cradle.

A bed cradle is used to keep the top bedclothes off the client, so the nurse should drape the top sheet and covers loosely over the cradle (D). A client using a bed cradle may still be able to ambulate independently (A) and does not require raised side rails (B). (C) causes the nurse to use poor body mechanics. Correct Answer: D

32.A male client has a nursing diagnosis of "spiritual distress." What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client?
A. Use distraction techniques during times of spiritual stress and crisis.
B. Reassure the client that his faith will be regained with time and support.
C. Consult with the staff chaplain and ask that the chaplain visit with the client.
D. Use reflective listening techniques when the client expresses spiritual doubts.

The most beneficial nursing intervention is to use nonjudgmental reflective listening techniques, to allow the client to feel comfortable expressing his concerns (D). (A and B) are not therapeutic. The client should be consulted before implementing (C). Correct Answer: D

33.A client has a nursing diagnosis of, "Spiritual distress related to a loss of hope, secondary to impending death." What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client?
A. Help the client to accept the final stage of life.
B. Assist and support the client in establishing short-term goals.
C. Encourage the client to make future plans, even if they are unrealistic.
D. Instruct the client’s family to focus on positive aspects of the client’s life.

Hopefulness is necessary to sustain a meaningful existence, even close to death. The nurse should help the client set short-term goals, and recognize the achievement of immediate goals (B), such as seeing a family member, or listening to music. (A) is too vague to be a helpful intervention. (C) does not help the client deal with this nursing diagnosis. (D) might be implemented, but does not have the priority of (B). Correct Answer: B

34.The nurse overhears the healthcare provider explaining to the client that the tumor removed was non-malignant and that the client will be fine. However, the nurse has read in the pathology report that the tumor was malignant and that there is extensive metastasis. Who should the nurse consult with first regarding the situation?
A. Healthcare provider.
B. Client’s family.
C. Case manager.
D. Chief of staff.

The nurse should address the healthcare provider with the written report and discuss why he/she did not tell the client the truth–this may be at the family’s request (A). (B, C, and D) may be indicated, but first the nurse should confer with the healthcare provider to obtain all needed information. Correct Answer: A

35.A single mother of two teenagers, ages 16 and 18, was just told that she has advanced cancer. She is devastated by the news, and expresses her concern about who will care for her children. Which statement by the nurse is likely to be most helpful at this time?
A. Your children are old enough to help you make decisions about their futures.
B. The social worker can tell you about placement alternatives for your children.
C. Tell me what you would like to see happen with your children in the future.
D. You have just received bad news, and you need some time to adjust to it.

The nurse should first assess what the client desires (C). (A) is somewhat judgmental and attempts to solve the problem for the client without eliciting the client’s feelings. Though a referral to the social worker (B) may be indicated, the nurse should first offer support. Time is likely to help the client cope with this news (D), but the nurse should first provide support and assess what the client wants to see happen with her children. Correct Answer: C

36.In providing care for a terminally ill resident of a long-term care facility, the nurse determines that the resident is exhibiting signs of impending death and has a "do not resuscitate" or DNR status. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Request hospice care for the client.
B. Report the client’s acuity level to the nursing supervisor.
C. Notify family members of the client’s condition.
D. Inform the chaplain that the client’s death is imminent.

The nurse’s first priority is to notify the family of the resident’s impending death (C). The family may request that hospice care is initiated (A). Reporting the client’s acuity level (B) does not have the priority of informing the family of the client’s condition. Once the family is contacted, the nurse can also contact the chaplain (D). Correct Answer: C

37.When the nurse enters a client’s room to do an initial assessment, the client shouts, "Get out of my room! I’m tired of being bothered!" How should the nurse respond?
A. There is no reason to be so angry.
B. Why do I need to leave your room?
C. What is concerning you this morning?
D. Let me call the client advocate for you.

(C) is an open-ended question that encourages the client to discuss personal feelings. (A) devalues the client and hinders further communication. Acting defensively and asking why questions such as (B) are likely to elicit more anger and block communication. By deferring to the client advocate (D), the nurse fails to even address the client’s feelings of anger and exasperation. Correct Answer: C

38.The nurse encounters resistance when inserting the tubing into a client’s rectum for a tap water enema. What action should the nurse implement?
A. Withdraw the tube and apply additional lubricant to the tube.
B. Encourage the client to bear down and continue to insert the tube.
C. Remove the tube and check the client for a fecal impaction.
D. Ask the client to relax and run a small amount of fluid into the rectum.

If resistance is encountered during the initial insertion of an enema tube, the client should be instructed to relax while a small amount of solution runs through the tube into the rectum (D) to promote dilation. (A) is unlikely to resolve the problem. (B) may cause injury. (C) should not be implemented until other, less invasive actions, such as (D) have been taken. Correct Answer: D

39.When assessing a client with a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit, the nurse notes that the client’s skin over the sternum "tents" when gently pinched. Which action should the nurse implement?
A. Confirm the finding by further assessing the client for jugular vein distention.
B. Offer the client high protein snacks between regularly scheduled mealtimes.
C. Continue the planned nursing interventions to restore the client’s fluid volume.
D. Change the plan of care to include a nursing diagnosis of impaired skin integrity.

Skin turgor is assessed by pinching the skin and observing for tenting. This finding confirms the diagnosis of fluid volume deficit, so the nurse should continue interventions to restore the client’s fluid volume (C). Jugular vein distention (A) is a sign of fluid volume overload. High protein snacks (B) will not resolve the fluid volume deficit. Changes in the client’s skin integrity are not evident (D). Correct Answer: C

40.When teaching a female client to perform intermittent self-catheterization, the nurse should ensure the client’s ability to perform which action?
A. Locate the perineum.
B. Transfer to a commode.
C. Attach the catheter to a drainage bag.
D. Manipulate a syringe to inflate the balloon.

Adequate visualization or palpation of the perineum (A) is essential to ensure correct placement of the catheter. (B) is not necessary to perform self-catheterization. During a self-catheterization, the client typically allows the urine to drain into an open collection device, rather than a drainage bag (C), and uses a straight catheter without a balloon (D). Correct Answer: A

41.A client in hospice care develops audible gurgling sounds on inspiration. Which nursing action has the highest priority?
A. Ensure cultural customs are observed.
B. Increase oxygen flow to 4L/minute.
C. Auscultate bilateral lung fields.
D. Inform the family that death is imminent.

An audible gurgling sound produced by a dying client is characteristic of ineffective clearance of secretions from the lungs or upper airways, causing a rattling sound as air moves through the accumulated fluid. The nursing priority in this situation is to convey to the family that the client’s death is imminent (D). Although culturally sensitive care should be observed throughout the client’s plan of care (A), this is not the priority at this time. Administration of oxygen may be expected care, but a flow rate greater than 2 L/minute (B) is not palliative care. (C) may provide additional information, but is not necessary as death approaches. Correct Answer: D

42.The nurse notes that a client consistently coughs while eating and drinking. Which nursing diagnosis is most important for the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?
A. Ineffective breathing pattern.
B. Impaired gas exchange.
C. Risk for aspiration.
D. Ineffective airway clearance.

Coughing during or after meals is a manifestation of dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, which places the client at risk for aspiration (C). Dysphagia can lead to aspiration pneumonia, but the client is not currently exhibiting any symptoms of breathing difficulty (A) or impaired gas exchange (B). Although (D) may be related to an ineffective cough, the client’s coughing is an effective response when solids or liquids are taken orally. Correct Answer: C

43.The nurse is digitally removing a fecal impaction for a client. The nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?
A. Temperature increases from 98.8° to 99.0° F.
B. Pulse rate decreases from 78 to 52 beats/min.
C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 24 breaths/min.
D. Blood pressure increases from 110/84 to 118/88 mm/Hg.

Parasympathetic reaction can occur as a result of digital stimulation of the anal sphincter, which should be stopped if the client experiences a vagal response, such as bradycardia (B). (A, C, and D) do not warrant stopping the procedure. Correct Answer: B

44.A client is admitted with a stage four pressure ulcer that has a black, hardened surface and a light-pink wound bed with a malodorous green drainage. Which dressing is best for the nurse to use first?
A. Hydrogel.
B. Exudate absorber.
C. Wet to moist dressing.
D. Transparent adhesive film.

To provide moisture and loosen the necrotic tissue, the eschar should be covered first with wet to moist dressings (C), which are discontinued and then a hydrogel alginate can be placed in the prepared wound bed to prevent further damage of granulating any surrounding tissue. Although a hydrogel (A) liquefies necrotic tissue of slough and rehydrates the wound bed, it does not address wicking the purulent drainage from the wound. Exudate absorbers (B) provide a moist wound surface, absorb exudate, and support debridement, but do not prepare the wound bed for proper healing. Transparent dressings (D) are used to protect against contamination and friction while maintaining a clean moist surface. Correct Answer: C

45.A 35-year-old female client with cancer refuses to allow the nurse to insert an IV for a scheduled chemotherapy treatment, and states that she is ready to go home to die. What intervention should the nurse initiate?
A. Review the client’s medical record for an advance directive.
B. Determine if a do-not-resuscitate prescription has been obtained.
C. Document that the client is being discharged against medical advice.
D. Evaluate the client’s mental status for competence to refuse treatment.

Competent clients have the right to refuse treatment, so the nurse should first ensure that the client is competent (D). (A and C) are not necessary for a competent client to refuse treatment. The nurse cannot document (C) until the healthcare provider is notified of the client’s wishes and a discharge prescription is obtained. Correct Answer: D

46.A client with chronic renal disease is admitted to the hospital for evaluation prior to a surgical procedure. Which laboratory test indicates the client’s protein status for the longest length of time?
A. Transferrin.
B. Prealbumin.
C. Serum albumin.
D. Urine urea nitrogen.

Serum albumin has a long half-life and is the best long-term indicator of the body’s entry into a catabolic state following protein depletion from malnutrition or stress of chronic illness (C). While (A) is a good indicator of iron-binding capacity in a healthy adult, it is an unreliable measure in the client with a chronic illness. (B) has a short half-life, and is a sensitive indicator of recent catabolic changes, but it is not as effective as (C) in indicating long-term protein depletion. While (D) is a good indicator of a negative nitrogen balance, it is not as good an indicator of long-term protein catabolism as is (C). Correct Answer: C

47.What client statement indicates to the nurse that the client requires assistance with bathing?
A. I wasn’t able to pack a bag before I left for the hospital.
B. I don’t understand why I’m so weak and tired.
C. I only bathe every other day.
D. I left my eyeglasses at home.

Bathing often makes a client feel weak, and if a client is already feeling weak (B), assistance is required during the bathing process to ensure the client’s safety. (A and C) do not pose safety issues. Although (D) may pose a safety issue, further assessment is needed to determine if this in fact poses a safety issue for the client. Correct Answer: B

48.How should the nurse handle linens that are soiled with incontinent feces?
A. Put the soiled linens in an isolation bag, then place it in the dirty linen hamper.
B. Place an isolation hamper in the client’s room and discard the linens in it.
C. Place the soiled linens in a pillow case and deposit them in the dirty linen hamper.
D. Ask the housekeeping staff to pick up the soiled linen from the dirty utility room.

The nurse should be careful to keep the soiled linens from contaminating the fresh linens, and should handle the soiled linens like any other dirty linen (C). (A, B, and D) are not indicated. Correct Answer: C

49.When caring for an immobile client, what nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
A. Risk for fluid volume deficit.
B. Impaired gas exchange.
C. Risk for impaired skin integrity.
D. Altered tissue perfusion.

The ABCs of caring for clients are airway, breathing, and circulation. Impaired gas exchange (B) implies that the client is having trouble with breathing, which has the highest priority of the nursing diagnoses listed. Though an immobilized client presents a multitude of nursing care challenges, (A, C, and D) do not have the priority of (B). Correct Answer: B

50.The nurse assesses an immobile, elderly male client and determines that his blood pressure is 138/60, his temperature is 95.8° F, and his output is 100 ml of concentrated urine during the last hour. He has wet-sounding lung sounds, and increased respiratory secretions. Based on these assessment findings, what nursing action is most important for the nurse to implement?
A. Administer a PRN antihypertensive prescription.
B. Provide the client with an additional blanket.
C. Encourage additional fluid intake.
D. Turn the client q2h.

(D) will help to move and drain respiratory secretions and prevent pneumonia from occurring, so this intervention has the highest priority. Older adults often have an increased BP, and a PRN antihypertensive medication is usually prescribed for a BP over 140 systolic and 90 diastolic (A). Older adults often run a lower temperature, particularly in the morning, and (B) does not have the priority of (D). Even though the client has adequate output, (C) might be encouraged because the urine is concentrated, but this intervention does not have the priority of (D). Correct Answer: D

51.The home health nurse visits an elderly female client who had a brain attack three months ago and is now able to ambulate with the assistance of a quad cane. Which assessment finding has the greatest implications for this client’s care?
A. The husband, who is the caregiver, begins to weep when the nurse asks how he is doing.
B. The client tells the nurse that she does not have much of an appetite today.
C. The nurse notes that there are numerous scatter rugs throughout the house.
D. The client’s pulse rate is 10 beats higher than it was at the last visit one week ago.

Scatter rugs (C) pose a safety hazard because the client can trip on them when ambulating, so this finding has the greatest significance in planning this client’s care. Psychological support of the caregiver (A) is a less acute need than that of client safety. The nurse needs to obtain more information about (B), but this is not a safety issue. (D) is not a significant increase, and additional assessment might provide information about the reason for the increase (anxiety, exercise, etc.). Correct Answer: C

52.The nurse removes the dressing on a client’s heel that is covering a pressure sore one-inch in diameter and finds that there is straw-colored drainage seeping from the wound. What description of this finding should the nurse include in the client’s record?
A. Stage 1 pressure sore draining sero-sanguineous drainage.
B. Pressure sore at bony prominence with exudate noted.
C. One-inch pressure sore draining serous fluid.
D. Pressure sore on heel with a small amount of purulent drainage.

Serous drainage is clear watery plasma, so (C) provides accurate documentation based on the information provided. Information to stage this pressure score (A) is not provided, and sero-sanguineous drainage is pale and watery with a combination of plasma and red cells, and may be blood-streaked. Exudate (B) is fluid such as pus and serum. Purulent drainage (D) is thick, yellow, green, or brown indicating the presence of dead or living organisms and white blood cells. Correct Answer: C

53.A medication is prescribed to be given QID. What schedule should the nurse use to administer this prescription?
A. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000.
B. 800.
C. Every other day at 0800.
D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000, 0000, 0400.

(A) provides the best schedule, because QID means four times per day. (B, C, and D) provide incorrect dosages. Correct Answer: A

54.The nurse working in the emergency department is assessing four clients’ ability to tolerate pain. Which client is likely to tolerate a higher level of pain?
A. A 10-year-old who was burned by a camp fire earlier today.
B. A 70-year-old who has a postoperative infection from a surgery one week ago.
C. A 23-year-old woman who sprained her knee while bicycling.
D. A 55-year-old woman who has had moderate low back pain for three months.

Experiences with the same type of pain that has successfully been relieved makes it easier for a client to interpret the pain sensation, and as a result, the client is better prepared to take steps to relieve the pain (D). (A, B, and C) are having new experiences with pain. Correct Answer: D

55.A 4-year-old boy who is scheduled for a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy asks the nurse, Will it hurt to have my tonsils and adenoids taken out? Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
A. It may hurt a little because of the incision made in your throat.
B. It won’t hurt because you’re such a big boy.
C. It won’t hurt because we put you to sleep.
D. It may hurt but we’ll give you medicine to help you feel better.

Answering questions simply and directly provides comfort for the preschool-age child and builds confidence in the health care team (D). (A) uses language (i.e. ‘incision’) that could create anxiety for the child. Four-year-olds are in the Initiative vs. Guilt stage (Erikson’s psychosocial development), and (B) contributes to guilt when the child hurts. (C) is not helpful because the child may associate being put to sleep with the postoperative throat pain and then become fearful of going to sleep. Correct Answer: D

56.A female nurse who sometimes tries to save time by putting medications in her uniform pocket to deliver to clients, confides that after arriving home she found a hydrocodone (Vicoden) tablet in her pocket. Which possible outcome of this situation should be the nurse’s greatest concern?
A. Accused of diversion.
B. Reported for stealing.
C. Reported for a HIPAA violation.
D. Accused of unprofessional conduct.

Even if this is only one incident, the nurse may be suspected of taking medications on a regular basis and the incident could be interpreted as diversion (A), or diverting narcotics for her own use, which should be reported to the peer review committee and to the State Board of Nursing. (B, C, and D) are also of concern, but (A) is the most serious possible outcome. Correct Answer: A

57.A signed consent form indicated a client should have an electromyogram, but a myelogram was performed instead. Though the myelogram revealed the cause of the client’s back pain, which was subsequently treated, the client filed a lawsuit against the nurse and healthcare provider for performing the incorrect procedure. The court is likely to rule in favor of the plaintiff because these events represent what infraction?
A. A quasi-intentional tort because a similar mistake can happen to anyone.
B. Failure to respect client autonomy to choose based on intentional tort law.
C. Assault and battery with deliberate intent to deviate from the consent form.
D. An unintentional tort because the client benefited from having the myelogram.

The client was not properly informed of the procedure, and failure to obtain informed consent constitutes assault and battery (C). (A) is injury to economics and dignity, such as invasion of privacy or defamation of character. This is not an incident of failure to respect the client’s autonomy (B). An unintentional tort (D) is an act in which the outcome was not expected, such as negligence or malpractice. Correct Answer: C

58.A nurse observes a student nurse taking a copy of a client’s medication administration record. When questioned, the student states, Another student is scheduled to administer medications for this client tomorrow, so I am going to make a copy to help my friend prepare for tomorrow’s clinical. What response should the nurse provide first?
A. Ask the nursing supervisor to meet with the students.
B. Notify the student’s clinical instructor of the situation.
C. Ask the student if permission was obtained from the client.
D. Explain that the records are hospital property and may not be removed.

The nurse should deal with the issue immediately and explain that a client’s records are the property of the hospital and cannot be removed (D), even with the client’s permission (C). Next, the clinical instructor should be notified (B)so that all students can be educated regarding copying and removing clinical records from the healthcare agency. The nursing supervisor (A) should also be alerted to ensure appropriate supervision of students as well as protection of client information. Correct Answer: D

59.An older female client with rheumatoid arthritis is complaining of severe joint pain that is caused by the weight of the linen on her legs. What action should the nurse implement first?
A. Apply flannel pajamas to provide warmth.
B. Administer a PRN dose of ibuprofen.
C. Perform range of motion exercises in a warm tub.
D. Drape the sheets over the footboard of the bed.

The nurse should first provide an immediate comfort measure to address the client’s complaint about the linens and drape the linens over the footboard of the bed (D) instead of tucking them under the mattress, which can add pressure perceived by the client as the source of her pain. (A, B, and C) may be components of the client’s plan of care, but the nurse should first address the client’s complaint. Correct Answer: D

60.A male client with venous incompetence stands up and his blood pressure subsequently drops. Which finding should the nurse identify as a compensatory response?
A. Bradycardia.
B. Increase in pulse rate.
C. Peripheral vasodilation.
D. Increase in cardiac output.

When postural hypotension occurs, the body attempts to restore arterial pressure by stimulating the baro-receptors to increase the heart rate (B), not decrease it (A). Peripheral vasoconstriction, not dilation (C), of the veins and arterioles occurs with venous incompetence through the baro-receptor reflex. A decrease in cardiac output, not an increase (D), occurs when orthostatic hypotension occurs. Correct Answer: B

61.The daughter of an older woman who became depressed following the death of her husband asks, "My mother was always well-adjusted until my father died. Will she tend to be sick from now on?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
A. She is almost sure to be less able to adapt than before.
B. It’s highly likely that she will recover and return to her pre-illness state.
C. If you can interest her in something besides religion, it will help her stay well.
D. Cultural strains contribute to each woman’s tendencies for recurrences of depression.

Analysis of behavior patterns using Erikson’s framework can identify age-appropriate or arrested development of normal interpersonal skills. Erikson describes the successful resolution of a developmental crisis in the later years (older than 65-years) to include the achievement of a sense of integrity and fulfillment, wisdom, and a willingness to face one’s own mortality and accept the death of others (B). Depression is a component of normal grieving, and (A) does not represent susceptible adaptation to the developmental crisis of an older adult, Integrity vs despair. (C and D) are judgmental and not therapeutic. Correct Answer: B

62.A client provides the nurse with information about the reason for seeking care. The nurse realizes that some information about past hospitalizations is missing. How should the nurse obtain this information?
A. Solicit information on hospitalization from the insurance company.
B. Look up previous medical records from archived hospital documents.
C. Ask the client to discuss previous hospitalizations in the last 5 years.
D. Elicit specific facts about past hospitalizations with direct questions.

Direct questions should be used after the client’s opening narrative to fill in any details that have been left out or during the review of systems to elicit specific facts (D) about past health problems. (A and B) are time consuming, and may require the client’s permission to access information about other hospitalizations. (C) may not produce the specific data needed. Correct Answer: D

63.The nurse is preparing to give a client with dehydration IV fluids delivered at a continuous rate of 175 ml/hour. Which infusion device should the nurse use?
A. Portable syringe pump.
B. Cassette infusion pump.
C. Volumetric controller.
D. Nonvolumetric controller.

A cassette pump (B) should be used to accurately deliver large volumes of fluid over longer periods of time with extreme precise, such as ml/hour. A syringe pump (A) is accurate for low-dose continuous infusion of low-dose medication at a basal rate, but not large fluid volume replacement. Volumetric (C) and nonvolumetric (D) controllers count drops/minute to administer fluid volume and are inherently inaccurate because of variation in drop size. Correct Answer: B

64.A low-sodium, low-protein diet is prescribed for a 45-year-old client with renal insufficiency and hypertension, who gained 3 pounds in the last month. The nurse determines that the client has been noncompliant with the diet, based on which report from the 24-hour dietary recall? (Select all that apply.)
A. Snack of potato chips, and diet soda.
B. Lunch of tuna fish sandwich, carrot sticks, fresh fruit, and coffee.
C. Breakfast of eggs, bacon, toast, and coffee.
D. Dinner of vegetable lasagna, tossed salad, sherbet, and iced tea.
E. Bedtime snack of crackers and milk.

Potato chips (A) are high in sodium. Tuna (B) is high in protein. Bacon (C) and crackers (E) are high in sodium. Only (D) is a meal that is in compliance with a low sodium, low protein diet. Correct Answer: A, B, C, E

65.What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who is being treated with an Unna’s paste boot for leg ulcers due to chronic venous insufficiency?
A. Check capillary refill of toes on lower extremity with Unna’s paste boot.
B. Apply dressing to wound area before applying the Unna’s paste boot.
C. Wrap the leg from the knee down towards the foot.
D. Remove the Unna’s paste boot q8h to assess wound healing.

The Unna’s paste boot becomes rigid after it dries, so it is important to check distally for adequate circulation (A). Kerlix is often wrapped around the outside of the boot and an ace bandage may be used to cover both, but no bandage should be put under it (B). The Unna’s paste boot should be applied from the foot and wrapped towards the knee (C). The Unna’s paste boot acts as a sterile dressing, and should not be removed q8h. Weekly removal is reasonable (D). Correct Answer: A

66.A 75-year-old client who has a history of end stage renal failure and advanced lung cancer, recently had a stroke. Two days ago the healthcare provider discontinued the client’s dialysis treatments, stating that death is inevitable, but the client is disoriented and will not sign a DNR directive. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Review the client’s most recent laboratory reports.
B. Refer the client and family members for hospice care.
C. Notify the hospital ethics committee of the client situation.
D. Determine who is legally empowered to make decisions.

When death is impending, it is essential for the nurse to determine who is legally empowered to make decisions regarding the use of life-saving measures for the client (D). (A) will be abnormal and will worsen without dialysis, so are not of immediate concern. (B) may help improve the client’s quality of life prior to death, but is of less immediacy than determining whether actions should be taken to save a client’s life. If the nurse remains unable to determine who is empowered to make decisions in this situation, the nurse may choose to contact the ethics committee (C) for a resolution. Correct Answer: D

67.The charge nurse assigns a nursing procedure to a new staff nurse who has not previously performed the procedure. What action is most important for the new staff nurse to take?
A. Review the steps in the procedure manual.
B. Ask another nurse to assist while implementing the procedure.
C. Follow the agency’s policy and procedure.
D. Refuse to perform the task that is beyond the nurse’s experience.

According to states’ nurse practice acts, it is the responsibility of the nurse to function within the scope of competency (D), and in this case safe nursing practice constitutes refusal to perform the procedure because of a lack of experience. Although state mandates, agency policies, and continued education and experience identify tasks that are within the scope of nursing practice, nurses should first refuse to perform tasks that are beyond their proficiency, and then pursue opportunities to enhance their competency (A, B, and C). Correct Answer: D

68.Before administering a client’s medication, the nurse assesses a change in the client’s condition and decides to withhold the medication until consulting with the healthcare provider. After consultation with the healthcare provider, the dose of the medication is changed and the nurse administers the newly prescribed dose an hour later than the originally scheduled time. What action should the nurse implement in response to this situation?
A. Notify the charge nurse that a medication error occurred.
B. Submit a medication variance report to the supervisor.
C. Document the events that occurred in the nurses’ notes.
D. Discard the original medication administration record.

The nurse took the correct action and should document the events that occurred in the nurses’ notes (C). (A) did not occur and (B) is not indicated. The medication administration record is part of the client’s medical record and should be placed in the chart, (D) when no longer current. Correct Answer: C

69.On the third postoperative day following thoracic surgery, a client reports feeling constipated. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote bowel elimination?
A. Remind the client to turn every two hours while lying in bed.
B. Provide warm prune juice before the client goes to bed at night.
C. Teach the client to splint the incision while walking to the bathroom.
D. Administer an analgesic before the client attempts to defecate.

Prune juice is a natural laxative that stimulates peristalsis, and warming the prune juice (B) facilitates peristalsis. (A) is also helpful in promoting peristalsis but is less likely to relieve the client’s constipation. (C) reduces discomfort during ambulation, but will not help relieve the client’s constipation. Defecation is not painful following most surgeries, and many analgesics used postoperatively cause constipation, so (D) is contraindicated. Correct Answer: B

70.The home health nurse visits an elderly client who lives at home with her husband. The client is experiencing frequent episodes of diarrhea and bowel incontinence. Which problem, for which the client is at risk, has the greatest priority when planning the client’s care?
A. Disturbed sleep pattern.
B. Caregiver role strain.
C. Impaired skin integrity.
D. Fluid volume imbalance.

Diarrhea can lead to fluid volume loss, which is potentially life-threatening, so the highest priority is to prevent a fluid volume imbalance (D). Diarrhea and bowel incontinence can also lead to (A, B, and C), but these are of less potential harm than a fluid volume deficit. Correct Answer: D

71.After a client has been premedicated for surgery with an opioid analgesic, the nurse discovers that the operative permit has not been signed. What action should the nurse implement?
A. Notify the surgeon that the consent form has not been signed.
B. Read the consent form to the client before witnessing the client’s signature.
C. Determine if the client’s spouse is willing to sign the consent form.
D. Administer an opioid antagonist prior to obtaining the client’s signature.

Once a client has been premedicated for surgery with any type of sedative, legal informed consent is not possible, so the nurse must notify the surgeon (A). (B, C, and D) are not legally viable options for ensuring informed consent. Correct Answer: A

72.A client who has been on bedrest for several days now has a prescription to progress activity as tolerated. When the nurse assists the client out of bed for the first time, the client becomes dizzy. What action should the nurse implement?
A. Encourage the client to take several slow, deep breaths while ambulating.
B. Help the client to remain standing by the bedside until the dizziness is relieved.
C. Instruct the client to remain on bedrest until the healthcare provider is contacted.
D. Advise the client to sit on the side of the bed for a few minutes before standing again.

The nurse should implement (D), because orthostatic hypotension is a common result of immobilization, causing the client to feel dizzy when first getting out of bed following a period of bedrest. To prevent this problem, it is helpful to have the body acclimate to a standing position by sitting upright for a short period (D) before rising to a standing position. (A) is unlikely to alleviate the dizziness. (B) may result in a loss of consciousness. (C) is not indicated and will increase the potential for complications associated with prolonged immobility. Correct Answer: D

73.The charge nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) bending at the waist to lift a 20-pound box of medical supplies off the treatment room floor. What instruction should the charge nurse provide to the UAP?
A. Ask another staff member for assistance.
B. Request that supplies are delivered in smaller containers.
C. Push the box against the wall to provide support while lifting.
D. Bend at the knees when lifting heavy objects.

A 20-pound box is safely lifted by bending the knees (D), holding the box close to the center of gravity, and extending the legs using the quadriceps muscles. (A and B) might be helpful, but the charge nurse should use this opportunity to reinforce proper body mechanics techniques. Pushing the box against the wall (C) does not assist with lifting. Correct Answer: D

74.A client is admitted to the hospital with intractable pain. What instruction should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is preparing to assist this client with a bed bath?
A. Take measures to promote as much comfort as possible.
B. Report any signs of drug addiction to the nurse immediately.
C. Wait until the client’s pain is gone before assisting with personal care.
D. This client’s pain will be difficult to manage, since the cause is unknown.

Intractable pain is highly resistant to pain relief measures, so it is important to promote comfort (A) during all activities. A client with intractable pain may develop drug tolerance and dependence, but (B) is inappropriate for a UAP. Since intractable pain is resistant to relief measures, (C) may not be possible. Psychogenic pain (D) is a painful sensation that is perceived but has no known cause. Correct Answer: A

75.A male client arrives at the outpatient surgery center for a scheduled needle aspiration of the knee. He tells the nurse that he has already given verbal consent for the procedure to the healthcare provider. What action should the nurse implement?
A. Witness the client’s signature on the consent form.
B. Verify the client’s consent with the healthcare provider.
C. Notify the healthcare provider that the client is ready for the procedure.
D. Document that the client has given consent for the needle aspiration.

Written informed consent is required prior to any invasive procedure. The healthcare provider must explain the procedure to the client, but the nurse can witness the client’s signature on a consent form (A). (B) is not necessary since written consent must be obtained. (C) is not correct because written consent has not been obtained. (D) must occur after written consent is obtained. Correct Answer: A

76.In assessing a client’s femoral pulse, the nurse must use deep palpation to feel the pulsation while the client is in a supine position. What action should the nurse implement?
A. Elevate the head of the bed and attempt to palpate the site again.
B. Document the presence and volume of the pulse palpated.
C. Use a thigh cuff to measure the blood pressure in the leg.
D. Record the presence of pitting edema in the inguinal area.

Deep palpation may be required to palpate the femoral pulse; and, when palpated, the nurse should document the presence and volume of the pulse (B). The site is best palpated with the client supine; elevation of the head of the bed requires even deeper palpation (A). The use of deep palpation to feel the femoral pulse does not indicate a problem requiring further assessment, such as (C), and does not reflect the presence of edema (D). Correct Answer: B

77.A nurse is preparing to insert a rectal suppository and observes a small amount of rectal bleeding. What action should the nurse implement?
A. Administer the medication as scheduled after assessing the client’s vital signs.
B. Ask the pharmacist to send an alternate form of the prescribed medication to the unit.
C. Withhold the administration of the suppository until contacting the healthcare provider.
D. Insert the suppository very gently being careful not to further injure the rectal mucosa.

The presence of rectal bleeding is generally a contraindication for the insertion of a rectal suppository, so the nurse should withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider (C). (A and D) may cause increased rectal bleeding. Prior to asking the pharmacist for another form of the medication, the nurse must have a new prescription from the healthcare provider (B). Correct Answer: C

78.The nurse is preparing to irrigate a client’s indwelling urinary catheter using an open technique. What action should the nurse take after applying gloves?
A. Empty the client’s urinary drainage bag.
B. Draw up the irrigating solution into the syringe.
C. Secure the client’s catheter to the drainage tubing.
D. Use aseptic technique to instill the irrigating solution.

To irrigate an indwelling urinary catheter, the nurse should first apply gloves, then draw up the irrigating solution into the syringe (B). The syringe is then attached to the catheter and the fluid instilled, using aseptic technique (D). Once the irrigating solution is instilled, the client’s catheter should be secured to the drainage tubing (C). The urinary drainage bag can be emptied (A) whenever intake and output measurement is indicated, and the instilled irrigating fluid can be subtracted from the output at that time. Correct Answer: B

79.When assessing a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, which observation requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
A. The drainage tubing is secured over the siderail.
B. The clamp on the urinary drainage bag is open.
C. There are no dependent loops in the drainage tubing.
D. The urinary drainage bag is attached to the bed frame.

Maintaining a closed urinary drainage system is important to prevent infection, so the most immediate priority is to close the clamp (B) to reduce the risk for ascending microorganisms. If the drainage tubing is secured over the siderail (A), urine will not be able to flow out of the bladder, so the nurse should next reposition the tubing. (C and D) indicate correct care of the urinary drainage system, so documentation of an intact system is the last intervention needed. Correct Answer: B

80.While preparing to insert a rectal suppository in a male adult client, the nurse observes that the client is holding his breath while bearing down. What action should the nurse implement?
A. Advise the client to continue to bear down without holding his breath.
B. Gently insert the lubricated suppository four inches into the rectum.
C. Perform a digital exam to determine if a fecal impaction is present.
D. Instruct the client to take slow deep breaths and stop bearing down.

During administration of a rectal suppository, the client is asked to take slow deep breaths through the mouth to relax the anal sphincter (D). Bearing down (A) will push the suppository out of the rectum, so the suppository should not be inserted while the client is bearing down (B). Further data is needed before performing an invasive digital exam to check for fecal impaction (C). Correct Answer: D

81.The nurse is completing the plan of care for a client who is admitted for benign prostatic hypertrophy. Which data should the nurse document as a subjective findings?
A. Complains of inability to empty bladder.
B. Temperature of 99.8° F and pulse of 108.
C. Post-voided residual volume of 750 ml.
D. Specimen collection for culture and sensitivity.

The nurse should document the client’s complaints (A) as subjective data–symptoms only the client can describe. (B) should be documented as objective data, which is collected via the nurse’s observation. (C and D) are documented as intervention results. Correct Answer: A

82.While the nurse is administering a bolus feeding to a client via nasogastric tube, the client begins to vomit. What action should the nurse implement first?
A. Discontinue the administration of the bolus feeding.
B. Auscultate the client’s breath sounds bilaterally.
C. Elevate the head of the bed to a high Fowler’s position.
D. Administer a PRN dose of a prescribed antiemetic.

When a client receiving a tube feeding begins to vomit, the nurse should first stop the feeding (A) to prevent further vomiting. (C) should then be implemented to reduce the risk of aspiration. After that, (B and D) can be implemented as indicated. Correct Answer: A

83.While caring for a child and mother from Cambodia, what action should the nurse implement to accommodate the clients’ cultural needs?
A. Speak initially with the oldest family member to show respect.
B. Realize that Southeast Asians may not take Western medications.
C. Ask the husband to step out during the mother’s pelvic examination.
D. Tell the family that planning health care is provided in private with the client.

Members of the Asian culture have high respect for others, especially those in positions of authority. Extended family members need to be included in the nursing care plan (A). Southeast Asians do not necessarily refuse Western medications (B). Asians also believe that touching strangers is not acceptable, particularly health professionals whom they have not previously known, so the husband should be allowed to remain with his wife during the pelvic exam (C). Provided that the presence of other family members is not harmful to the client’s well-being, (D) is not correct. Correct Answer: A

84.Which client care requires the nurse to wear barrier gloves as required by the protocol for Standard Precautions?
A. Removing the empty food tray from a client with a urinary catheter.
B. Washing and combing the hair of a client with a fractured leg in traction.
C. Administering oral medications to a cooperative client with a wound infection.
D. Emptying the urinary catheter drainage bag for a client with Alzheimer’s disease.

Possible contact with body secretions, excretions, or broken skin is an indication for wearing barrier (nonsterile) gloves. Emptying a urine drainage bag requires the use of gloves (D). (A, B, and C) do not require gloves. Correct Answer: D

85.What action should the nurse implement when adding sterile liquids to a sterile field?
A. Use an outdated sterile liquid if the bottle is sealed and has not been opened.
B. Consider the sterile field contaminated if it becomes wet during the procedure.
C. Remove the container cap and lay it with the inside facing down on the sterile field.
D. Hold the container high and pour the solution into a receptacle at the back of the sterile field.

Wet or damp areas on a sterile field allow organisms to wick from the table surface and permeate into the sterile area, so the field is considered contaminated if it becomes wet (B). Outdated liquids may be contaminated and should be discarded, not used (A). The container’s cap should be removed, placed facing up, and off the sterile field, not (C). To prevent contamination of the sterile field, liquids should be held close (6 inches) to the receptacle when pouring to prevent splashing, and the receptacle should be placed near the front edge to avoid reaching over or across the sterile field (D). Correct Answer: B

86.A healthcare provider is performing a sterile procedure at a client’s bedside. Near the end of the procedure, the nurse observes the healthcare provider contaminate a sterile glove and the sterile field. What is the best action for the nurse to implement?
A. Report the healthcare provider for the violation in aseptic technique.
B. Allow the completion of the procedure.
C. Ask if the glove and sterile field are contaminated.
D. Identify the break in surgical asepsis and provide another set of sterile supplies.

Any possible break in surgical asepsis that is identified when others are unaware should be considered contaminated and new sterile supplies added to maintain the sterile field (D). Reporting the healthcare provider is not indicated (A). When sterility is suspect during aseptic technique, it should not be questioned (C) but all members of the team should move forward with reestablishing a sterile field. Allowing the procedure to progress under unsterile conditions (B) places the client at risk for infection and is an act of omission (negligence) by the nurse and other healthcare team members. Correct Answer: D

87.An older client who is able to stand but not to ambulate receives a prescription to be mobilized into a chair as tolerated during each day. What is the best action for the nurse to implement when assisting the client from the bed to the chair?
A. Use a mechanical lift to transfer from the bed to a chair.
B. Place a roller board under the client who is sitting on the side of the bed and slide the client to the chair.
C. Lift the client out of bed to the chair with another staff member using a coordinated effort on the count of three.
D. Place a transfer belt around the client, assist to stand, and pivot to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed.

A client who can stand can safely be assisted to pivot and transfer with the use of a transfer belt (D). A mechanical lift (A) is usually used for a client who is obese, unable to be weight-bearing, and who is unable to assist. Roller boards (B) placed under a sheet are used to facilitate the transfer of a recumbent client who is being transferred to and from a stretcher. Lifting a client (C) out of bed places the client and nurses at risk for injury and should only be implemented by skilled lift teams. Correct Answer: D

88.What action should the nurse implement to prevent the formation of a sacral ulcer for a client who is immobile?
A. Maintain in a lateral position using protective wrist and vest devices.
B. Position prone with a small pillow below the diaphragm.
C. Raise the head and knee gatch when lying in a supine position.
D. Transfer into a wheelchair close to the nurse’s station for observation.

The prone position (B) using a small pillow below the diaphragm maintains alignment and provides the best pressure relief over the sacral bony prominence. Using protective (restraining) devices (A) is not indicated. Raising the head and bed gatch (C) may reduce shearing forces due to sliding down in bed, but it interferes with venous return from the legs and places pressure on the sacrum, predisposing to ulcer formation. Sitting in a wheelchair (D) places the body weight over the ischial tuberosities and predisposes to a potential pressure point. Correct Answer: B

89.What action is most important for the nurse to implement when placing a client in the Sim’s position?
A. Raise the bed to a waist-high working level.
B. Elevate the head of the bed 45 degrees.
C. Place a pillow behind the client’s back.
D. Bring the client to one edge of the bed.

A waist-high bed height (A) is a comfortable and safe working height to maintain the nurse’s proper body mechanics and prevent back injury. The head should be flat for a Sim’s side-lying position, not raised (B). (C) is implemented after the client is positioned laterally. (D) brings the client closer to the nurse when being turned. Correct Answer: A

90.The nurse is providing passive range of motion (ROM) exercises to the hip and knee for a client who is unconscious. After supporting the client’s knee with one hand, what action should the nurse take next?
A. Raise the bed to a comfortable working level.
B. Bend the client’s knee.
C. Move the knee toward the chest as far as it will go.
D. Cradle the client’s heel.

Passive ROM exercise for the hip and knee is provided by supporting the joints of the knee and ankle (D) and gently moving the limb in a slow, smooth, firm but gentle manner. (A) should be done before the exercises are begun to prevent injury to the nurse and client. (B) is carried out after both joints are supported. After the knee is bent, then the knee is moved toward the chest to the point of resistance (C) two or three times. Correct Answer: D

91.The nurse is caring for a client who is weak from inactivity because of a 2-week hospitalization. In planning care for the client, the nurse should include which range of motion (ROM) exercises?
A. Passive ROM exercises to all joints on all extremities four times a day.
B. Active ROM exercises to both arms and legs two or three times a day.
C. Active ROM exercises with weights twice a day with 20 repetitions each.
D. Passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond.

Active, rather than passive, ROM is best to restore strength and (B) is an effective schedule. Passive ROM 4 times a day (A) is not as beneficial for the client as (B). With weights (C), the client may fatigue quickly and develop muscle soreness. ROM is not performed beyond the point of resistance or pain (D) because of the risk of damage to underlying structures. Correct Answer: B

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