Health Science Test 3 (Chs 10,11, 12, 31)

BENIGN TUMOR

A noncancerous tumor that will not spread throughout the body.

CARCINOGEN

Any chemical agent that causes cancer by damaging DNA. Carcinogens are a type of mutagen.

GERM-LINE MUTATION

A mutation occurring in gametes; passed on to offspring.

MALIGNANT TUMOR

A cancerous tumor that spreads throughout the body.

MUTAGEN

Any chemical or physical agent that can damage DNA by changing its nucleotide sequence.

MUTATION

A change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA.

PROTO-ONCOGENES

A gene that codes for a protein that helps cells divide normally.

SOMATIC MUTATION

A mutation that occurs in a body (nongamete) cell; not passed on to offspring.

TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENE

A gene that codes for proteins that monitor and check cell cycle progression. When these genes mutate, tumor suppressor proteins lose normal function.

CARRIER

An individual who is heterozygous for a particular gene of interest, and therefore can pass on the recessive allele without showing any of its effects.

HOMOZYGOUS

Having two identical alleles.

DOMINANT ALLELE

An allele that can mask the presence of a recessive allele

INDEPENDENT ASSORTMENT

The principle that alleles of different genes are distributed independently of one another during meiosis.

GAMETES

Specialized reproductive cells that carry one copy of each chromosome (that is, they are haploid). Sperm are male gametes; eggs are female gametes.

MEIOSIS

A specialized type of nuclear division that generates genetically unique haploid gametes.

HAPLOID

Having only one copy of every chromosome.

HOMOLOGOUS CHROMOSOMES

A pair of chromosomes that both contain the same genes. In a diploid cell, one chromosome in the pair is inherited from the mother, the other from the father.

DIPLOID

Having two copies of every chromosome.

EMBRYO

An early stage of development reached when a zygote undergoes cell division to form a multicellular structure.

GENOTYPE

The particular genetic makeup of an individual.

HETEROZYGOUS

Having two different alleles.

PHENOTYPE

The visible or measurable features of an individual.

PUNNETT SQUARE

A diagram used to determine probabilities of offspring having particular genotypes, given the genotypes of the parents.

RECESSIVE ALLELE

An allele that reveals itself in the phenotype only if a masking dominant allele is not present.

RECOMBINATION

An event in meiosis during which maternal and paternal chromosomes pair and physically exchange DNA segments.

ZYGOTE

A fertilized egg.

AMNIOCENTESIS

A procedure that removes fluid surrounding the fetus to obtain and analyze fetal cells to diagnose genetic disorders.

MULTIFACTORIAL INHERITANCE

An interaction between genes and the environment that contributes to a phenotype or trait.

AUTOSOMES

Paired chromosomes present in both males and females; all chromosomes except the X and Y chromosomes.

NONDISJUNCTION

The failure of chromosomes to separate accurately during cell division; nondisjunction in meiosis leads to aneuploid gametes.

CONTINUOUS VARIATION

Variation in a population showing an unbroken range of phenotypes rather than discrete categories.

PEDIGREE

A visual representation of the occurrence of phenotypes across generations.

INCOMPLETE DOMINANCE

A form of inheritance in which heterozygotes have a phenotype that is intermediate between homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive.

ANEUPLOIDY

An abnormal number of one or more chromosomes (either extra or missing copies).

CODOMINANCE

A form of inheritance in which both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype.

GONADS

Sex organs: ovaries in females, testes in males.

POLYGENIC TRAITS

A trait whose phenotype is determined by the interaction among alleles of more than one gene.

SEX CHROMOSOMES

Paired chromosomes that differ between males and females, XX in females, XY in males.

TRISOMY 21

Carrying an extra copy of chromosome 21; also known as Down syndrome.

X-LINKED TRAITS

A phenotype determined by an allele on an X chromosome.

Y-CHROMOSOME ANALYSIS

Comparing sequences on the Y chromosome to examine paternity and paternal ancestry.

ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY

A protective response, mediated by lymphocytes, that confers long-lasting immunity against specific pathogens.

INNATE IMMUNITY

Nonspecific defenses, such as physical and chemical barriers and phagocytic cells that are present from birth and are always active.

ANTIBODY

A protein produced by B cells that binds to antigens and either neutralizes them or flags other cells to destroy pathogens.

INTERFERON

Antiviral proteins produced by virally infected cells to help protect adjacent cells from becoming infected.

ANTIGENIC DRIFT

Changes in viral antigens caused by genetic mutation during normal viral replication.

LYMPH MODES

Small organs in the lymphatic system where B and T cells may encounter pathogens.

AUTO IMMUNE DISEASE

A misdirected immune response in which the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells.

LYMPHATIC SYSTEM

The organ system of vessels and organs where B and T lymphocytes develop and that works with the immune system, allowing B and T cells to respond to pathogens.

CELL-MEDIATED IMMUNITY

The type of adaptive immunity that rids the body of altered (that is, infected, cancerous, or foreign) cells.

LYMPHOCYTES

A specialized white blood cell of the immune system.

CYTOTOXIC T CELL

A type of T cell that destroys infected, cancerous, or foreign altered cells, including virally infected cells.

MACROPHAGE

A phagocytic cell that resides in tissues and plays an important role in the inflammatory response.

HISTAMINE

A molecule released by damaged tissue and during allergic reactions.

MEMORY CELLS

A long-lived B or T cell that is produced during an immune primary response and that can be activated rapidly in a secondary response.

IMMUNE SYSTEM

A system of cells and tissues that acts to defend the body against foreign cells and infectious agents.

NATURAL KILLER CELLS

A type of white blood cell that acts during the innate immune response to find and destroy virally infected cells and tumor cells.

INFLAMMATION

An innate defense that is activated by infection or local tissue damage; characterized by redness, swelling, and pain.

NEUTROPHIL

A phagocytic cell in the circulation that plays an important role in the inflammatory response.

ANTIGEN

A specific molecule (or part of a molecule) to which specific antibodies can bind, and against which an adaptive response is mounted.

PATHOGEN

Infectious agents including certain viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites. Many pathogens trigger an immune response.

B CELLS

White blood cells that mature in the bone marrow and produce antibodies during the adaptive immune response.

PHAGOCYTE

A type of white blood cell that engulfs and ingests damaged cells and pathogens.

HELPER T CELLS

A type of T cell that helps activate B cells to produce antibodies during humoral responses.

PLASMA CELL

An activated B cell that divides rapidly and secretes an abundance of antibodies.

ALLERGY

A misdirected immune response against environmental substances such as dust, pollen, and foods that causes discomfort in the form of physical symptoms.

ANTIGENIC SHIFT

Changes in antigens that occur when viruses exchange genetic material with other strains.

COMPLEMENT PROTEINS

Proteins in blood that help destroy pathogens by coating or puncturing them.

HUMORAL IMMUNITY

The type of adaptive immunity that fights free-floating pathogens infections and other foreign substances in the circulation and lymph fluid.

IMMUNITY

The resistance to a given pathogen conferred by the activity of the immune system.

PRIMARY RESPONSE

The adaptive response mounted the first time a particular antigen is encountered by the immune system.

T CELLS

White blood cells that mature in the thymus and can destroy infected cells or stimulate B cells to produce antibodies, depending on the type of T cell.

THYMUS

The organ in which T cells mature.

VACCINE

A preparation of killed or weakened microorganisms or viruses that is given to people or animals to generate a memory immune response.

VIRUS

An infectious agent made up of a protein shell that encloses genetic information.

How do the two alleles of the CFTR gene in a lung cell differ?

a. They are inherited from different parents.
b. One is on chromosome 7 and one is on chromosome 3.
c. Only one is expressed.
d. a, b, and c
e. There is no difference because they are both the same gene.

a

Which of the following is(are) TRUE of a single human liver cell?

a. There are 46 chromosomes present.
b. There are two alleles for each gene.
c. There is one allele on each chromosome.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

e

Which of the following is(are) TRUE of a single human gamete?

a. There are 46 chromosomes present.
b. There are two alleles for each gene.
c. There is one allele on each chromosome.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

c

What is the genotype of a person with cystic fibrosis?

a. The genotype includes two mutant CFTR genes, one each on the homologous chromosomes for chromosome 7.
b. The genotype includes one mutant CFTR gene and one normal gene, one each on the homologous chromosomes for chromosome 7
c. The genotype includes two mutant CFTR genes, both on a single homologous chromosome 7; the other homologous chromosome 7 is normal.
d. The genotype includes only one homologous chromosome 7; the second chromosome 7 is missing.
e. The genotype includes 2 additional chromosomes with the mutant CFTR gene, making a total of 25 chromosomes.

a

A diploid cell of baker's yeast has 32 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in each of its haploid spores?

a. 32
b. 16
c. 8
d. 64

b

In diploid organisms, having two homologues of each chromosome can be beneficial if one allele of a gene encodes a nonfunctional protein. Can haploid organisms survive the presence of nonfunctional alleles?

a. No, because there is only one allele for the gene in each cell, and the nonfunctional allele has no other allele to mask it.
b. No, because there are two chromosomes each with a single allele that is always the same, and one cannot compensate for one being nonfunctional.
c. Yes, because there is only one allele for the gene in each cell, and the nonfunctional allele will be masked by another allele of a different kind.
d. Yes, because there are two chromosomes each with a single allele that is always the same, and one can compensate for the other being nonfunctional.
e. Yes, because there are always other alleles for other genes that will compensate for a nonfunctional allele.

a

Why is it possible for two healthy parents to give birth to a child with a genetic defect such as cystic fibrosis?

a. CF is normally caused by a mutation that occurs only in the sperm and eggs of the parents, so their bodies are not affected.
b. CF is normally caused by a mutation that occurs in the fetus during pregnancy, and does not affect the mother.
c. CF is only evident in individuals with two mutant alleles; a healthy parent could carry both a defective allele and a normal copy and be healthy.
d. CF is not passed to children from their parents; it comes from their grandparents.
e. CF is caused by the inheritance of too many "normal" genes; the parents would be unaffected.

c

A human female has _____ chromosomes in each skin cell and ______ chromosomes in each egg.

a. 46; 46
b. 23; 46
c. 46; 23
d. 23; 23
e. 92; 46

c

A woman is heterozygous for the CF-associated gene (the alleles are represented here by the letters A and a). Assuming that meiosis occurs normally, which of the following represent eggs that she can produce?

a. A
b. a
c. Aa
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

d

Which of the following accurately describes meiosis?

a. contains two rounds of division (meiosis I and meiosis II)
b. ends with four gametes that are not the same genetically
c. takes two diploid cells to make four haploid cells
d. a and b
e. b and c

d

Meiosis differs from mitosis in the __________.

a. way in which sister chromatids separate
b. number of cells produced immediately after the starting cells divide
c. number of chromosomes in the starting cells
d. number of sister chromatids in the starting cells
e. number of chromosomes in each ending cell

e

One of the purposes of meiosis is to __________.

a. produce four zygotes instead of only two (as produced in mitosis)
b. reduce the chromosome number in each cell by half
c. increase genetic diversity in the diploid-starting cells
d. increase the number of embryos per fertilization
e. double the number of chromosomes per gamete

b

Besides recombination, what other event in meiosis increases the genetic diversity of the gametes?

a. the way in which chromosomes are replicated in meiosis II
b. the random line-up and separation of maternal and paternal chromosomes
c. the random exchange of DNA segments between paternal chromosomes
d. the random exchange of DNA segments between maternal chromosomes
e. the random way in which gametes fuse together to make uniquely different sperm and eggs

b

An alien has 82 total chromosomes in each of its body cells. The chromosomes are paired, making 41 pairs. If the alien's gametes undergo meiosis, what are the number and arrangement (paired or not) of chromosomes in one of its gametes?

a. 41 paired chromosomes
b. 41 unpaired chromosomes
c. 82 unpaired chromosomes
d. 82 paired chromosomes
e. 164 paired chromosomes

b

If meiosis were to fail and a cell skipped meiosis I, so that meiosis II was the only meiotic division, how would you describe the resulting gametes?

a. haploid cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes
b. diploid cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes
c. haploid cells with 23 unpaired chromosomes
d. diploid cells with 23 unpaired chromosomes
e. b and d are both valid results

b

Children often have many of the phenotypes of their parents because __________.

a. they have the exact same genotypes as their parents
b. they inherit half of their genetic material from each parent
c. they carry the same combinations of alleles that their parents have
d. they inherit mutations that make their bodies appear identical to one or both parents
e. the cells of embryos divide by meiosis, a process that yields genetic duplicates

b

Women can inherit alleles of a gene called BRCA1 that puts them at higher risk for breast cancer. The alleles associated with elevated cancer risk are dominant. Of the genotypes listed below, which carries the lowest genetic risk of developing breast cancer?

a. BB
b. Bb
c. bb
d. BB and Bb carry less risk than bb.
e. All carry equal risk.

c

In order for a child to develop cystic fibrosis,

a. a sperm carrying a CF allele must fertilize an egg that also has that allele.
b. genetic recombination must occur in the father but not the mother.
c. genetic recombination must occur in the mother but not the father.
d. more than one sperm in the father must carry the CF allele.
e. more than one egg in the mother must carry the CF allele.

a

Assume that Emily (who has CF, a recessive disease (aa)) decides to have children with a man who does not have CF and who has no family history of CF. What combination of gametes can each of them produce, and what is the probability that they will have a child who is a carrier for CF?

a. Emily: aa and man: Aa; 100% probability
b. Emily: Aa and man: AA; 50% probability
c. Emily: aa and man: AA; 100% probability
d. Emily: aa and man: AA; 50% probability
e. Emily: Aa and man: Aa; 100% probability

c

What does it mean to say that a person is a heterozygous carrier for a genetic disease?

a. That person has two copies of the disease allele.
b. That person has two copies of the normal allele.
c. That person exhibits the symptoms of the disease if the disease allele is recessive.
d. That person does not show symptoms of the disease if the disease allele is recessive.
e. A carrier is a person who has already sired children who show symptoms of the disease.

d

What does it mean to say that a person has a heterozygous genotype for a disease gene and no disease phenotype?

a. This disease has a recessive inheritance pattern.
b. This disease has a dominant inheritance pattern.
c. This person is a carrier of the disease because the dominate allele masks the recessive phenotype.
d. a and c
e. a, b, and c

d

Which of the following most influences the development of a female fetus?

a. the presence of any two sex chromosomes
b. the presence of two X chromosomes
c. the absence of a Y chromosome
d. the presence of a Y chromosome
e. either b or c

e

Why are more males than females affected by X-linked recessive genetic diseases?

a. because males have a Y chromosome that does not represent the same alleles as the X chromosomes and cannot mask the X-linked recessive allele
b. because females have an additional Y chromosome to mask the X-linked recessive allele
c. because females have an additional X chromosome to mask the X-linked recessive allele
d. Females are affected more by X-linked recessive genetic diseases because they have two X chromosomes.
e. a and c

e

If a man has an X-linked recessive disease, can his sons inherit that disease from him?

a. Yes, all his sons have one X chromosome.
b. No, all his sons inherit their X chromosomes maternally.
c. Yes, all his sons inherit their Y chromosomes maternally.
d. No, all his sons have one X chromosome.
e. Yes, all his sons inherit their X chromosomes maternally.

b

Which of the following is TRUE about Y chromosome analysis?

a. It is commonly used to determine whether a woman is really a man.
b. It is commonly used to determine paternity and ancestry.
c. It can be used to determine whether a man is carrying traits such as hemophilia and Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
d. It can be used to determine whether a man is likely to pass on traits such as hemophilia and Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
e. It can be used to determine whether a person has a genetic disease caused by a mutant allele on an autosome.

b

Why do some people have unusual chromosome combinations, such as XYY and XXX?

a. They have a genetic disease that causes an increase in the number of sex chromosomes.
b. Errors occurred in chromosome segregation during meiosis in their fathers or mothers.
c. People who inherit large numbers of short tandem repeats (STRs) also inherit extra sex chromosomes.
d. A mistake in cell division (mitosis) during embryonic development leads to extra sex chromosomes in every cell.
e. It is not known why these unusual chromosome combinations occur.

b

Which of the following couples could have a boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)?

a. a male with DMD and a homozygous dominant female
b. a male without DMD and a homozygous dominant female
c. a male without DMD and a carrier female
d. a and c
e. none of the above

c

Predict the sex of a baby with an XX pair of sex chromosomes.

a. male
b. female
c. cannot determine with the chromosome information given

b

Predict the sex of a baby with an XXY pair of sex chromosomes.

a. male
b. female
c. cannot determine with the chromosome information given

a

Predict the sex of a baby with an X sex chromosome.

a. male
b. female
c. cannot determine with the chromosome information given

c

Consider your brother and your son. If you are male, which will have essentially identical Y chromosomes?

a. You and your brother inherited different Y chromosomes from your dad, and you passed your Y chromosome on to your son.
b. You and your brother inherited the same Y chromosome from your dad, and you passed a different Y chromosome on to your son.
c. You and your brother inherited the same Y chromosome from your dad, and you passed the same Y chromosome on to your son.
d. You cannot tell the inheritance pattern with the information given.
e. The inheritance of the Y chromosome is dependent on which X chromosome is inherited.

c

Which of the following inheritance patterns includes an environmental contribution?

a. polygenic
b. X-linked recessive
c. X-linked dominant
d. multifactorial
e. none of the above

d

How are polygenic and multifactorial traits different?

a. Polygenic traits are influenced by nutrition and diet, whereas multifactorial traits are not.
b. Polygenic traits are genetically based, whereas multifactorial traits have both genetic and environmental influences.
c. Polygenic traits are influenced by the number of traumatic life events, whereas multifactorial traits are influenced by the levels of brain chemicals.
d. Polygenic traits show a continuous range of phenotypic variation, whereas multifactorial traits show several distinct phenotypes.
e. There are more kinds of polygenic traits than multifactorial traits.

b

How is codominant inheritance different from incomplete dominant inheritance?

a. In codominance, one gene is recessive to two dominant genes; in incomplete dominance, all genes are recessive.
b. In codominance, all genes are recessive; in incomplete dominance, one gene is recessive to two dominant genes.
c. In codominance, two alleles are expressed equally; in incomplete dominance, there is only one allele in the system.
d. In codominance, two alleles are expressed equally; in incomplete dominance, neither the dominant or recessive phenotype is seen in heterozygotes.
e. In codominance, the two alleles cooperate to make an intermediate phenotype; in incomplete dominance, the heterozygote shows the recessive phenotype.

d

Human skin color ranges from very light to dark black, with many distinct skin tones in between. Neglecting for a moment that skin color can be affected by sun exposure, what type of inheritance pattern probably governs skin color?

a. incomplete dominance
b. codominance
c. polygenic inheritance
d. multifactorial inheritance
e. X-linked inheritance

c

What are the chances that a curly-haired father and a straight-haired mother can give birth to a child with curly hair?

a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 100%

b

If two women have identical alleles of the suspected 20 height-associated genes, why might one of those women be 5 feet 5 inches tall and the other 5 feet 8 inches tall?

a. because the identical 20 alleles cause variation in the phenotype
b. because phenotype dictates genotype
c. because environmental factors also play a role in the phenotype of this trait
d. b and c
e. a, b, and c

c

Why is type O Rh-negative the "universal donor"?

a. No surface markers are present on the O Rh-negative blood cells to react with the recipient's immune system.
b. Three surface markers are present on the donor blood cells (A, B, and O) that are recognized as compatible in all recipients.
c. Three surface markers are present on the donor blood cells (A, B, and O), which block immune reactions in the recipient.
d. The O and Rh surface markers on the donor red blood cells block immune reactions in the recipient.
e. More people have type O blood than any other blood type.

a

What is different about red blood cells from a person with type AB blood, compared to those from other blood types?

a. They carry Rh markers, whereas other blood types have none.
b. They carry A and B type surface markers, so they are universal acceptors of blood.
c. They carry A and B type surface markers, so they are universal donors of blood.
d. They carry A and B type surface markers, so they cannot receive or donate blood.
e. They have no surface markers from the ABO blood type alleles.

b

Which of the following is a likely result of nondisjunction in human meiosis?

a. an increased risk of clinical depression
b. aneuploid eggs and sperm
c. a genetic disorder (such as hemophilia or color blindness) caused by a faulty allele
d. an egg that can develop into a child without fertilization by a sperm
e. a sperm that can develop into a child without fertilization with an egg

b

A gamete is aneuploid if __________.

a. one or more homologous chromosomes fail to separate in meiosis I
b. one or more sister chromatids fail to separate in meiosis II
c. there are more than 23 chromosomes in the cell
d. there are fewer than 23 chromosomes in the cell
e. All of the above are true.

e

Which of the following contain the normal chromosome number?

a. a human egg - 46; a human sperm - 23; a human zygote - 23
b. a human egg - 46; a human sperm - 46; a human zygote - 23
c. a human egg - 46; a human sperm - 46; a human zygote - 46
d. a human egg - 23; a human sperm - 23; a human zygote - 46
e. a human egg - 23; a human sperm - 23; a human zygote - 23

d

Which of the following can be determined by amniocentesis and karyotyping?

a. gender
b. blood type
c. trisomy 21
d. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
e. c and d

c

Which of the following can result in a trisomy such as Down syndrome?

a. an egg with 23 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 22 chromosomes
b. an egg with 22 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes
c. an egg with 24 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes
d. an egg with 22 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 24 chromosomes
e. b and d

c

In an otherwise normal cell, what happens if one mistake is made during DNA replication?

a. Nothing; mistakes just happen.
b. A cell cycle checkpoint detects the error and pauses the cell cycle so the error can be corrected.
c. The cell will begin to divide out of control, forming a malignant tumor.
d. A checkpoint will force the cell to perform apoptosis, a form of cellular suicide.
e. The mutation will be inherited by the individual's offspring.

b

Why does wearing sunscreen reduce cancer risk?

a. Sunscreen can repair damaged DNA.
b. Sunscreen can activate checkpoints in skin cells.
c. Sunscreen can reduce the chance of mutations caused by exposure to UV radiation present in sunlight.
d. It does not reduce cancer risk; sunscreen causes mutation and actually increases cancer risk.
e. Sunscreen can prevent cells with mutations from being destroyed.

c

A mutation can cause a change __________.

a. in the amino acid sequence of a protein
b. in the shape of a protein
c. in the way the cell cycle is regulated
d. that is beneficial to the cell
e. all of the above

e

At which of the following points does a mutation exert its potentially dysfunctional effects in a cell?

a. during DNA replication
b. during protein translation
c. after a protein is produced
d. during DNA transcription
e. only during cell division

c

DNA mutations can arise from uncorrected errors in DNA replication, inheritance, and __________.

a. a poor diet lacking in vitamins and minerals
b. chronic sleep deprivation
c. environmental insults
d. catching an influenza virus from a person with mutated genes
e. abnormal cell division

c

If an individual has a germline mutation, which of the following are possible sources of that mutation?

a. excessive sun exposure
b. a maternal allele
c. a paternal allele
d. b and c are possible
e. a, b, and c are all possible

d

How does a somatic mutation in a gene alter the function of a cell?

a. Base pair changes in the gene are passed directly into altered amino acids by a ribosome.
b. Base pair mutations in a gene are passed directly into mRNA via translation.
c. Base pair mutations in mRNA are passed directly into a protein via transcription.
d. Base pair mutations in a gene are passed directly into mRNA via transcription.
e. Base pair mutations in a gene are passed from mRNA into a protein via transcription.

d

A potential cancer-causing gene coding for a protein with cell cycle control responsibilities is a ___________, and a gene coding for a protein that stimulates cell division is a ___________.

a. oncogene; mutagen
b. oncogene; proto-oncogene
c. tumor suppressor; proto-oncogene
d. tumor suppressor; oncogene
e. oncogene; tumor suppressor

c

What is the role of BRCA1 in normal cells?

a. BRCA1 acts as a proto-oncogene.
b. BRCA1 acts as an oncogene.
c. BRCA1 acts as a tumor suppressor.
d. BRCA1 acts as a mutagen.
e. BRCA1 acts as a carcinogen.

c

Which of the following does not cause cancer to develop and progress?

a. a proto-oncogene
b. an oncogene
c. a tumor suppressor gene
d. a and c
e. b and c

e

A chemical that causes alterations in DNA is a ______________, and if this chemical causes cancer it is called a _______________.

a. mutagen; carcinogen
b. carcinogen; mutagen
c. tumor suppressor; oncogene
d. tumor suppressor; proto-oncogene
e. tumor suppressor; mutagen

a

Tumors that will not spread throughout the body are _________________, and those that do spread are termed ______________.

a. malignant; benign
b. benign; malignant
c. mutagen; carcinogen
d. tumor suppressor; proto-oncogene
e. benign; mutagen

b

Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer development?

a. It is a one-step process by which a mutation drives cancer development.
b. It is inherited and is independent of environmental factors.
c. It is a caused by carcinogens that act on inherited alleles that cause cancer.
d. It is a multistep process by which multiple mutations cause a series of events that lead to cancer.
e. It is a multistep process by which multiple mutagens cause a series of cancer-causing alleles.

d

What would you say to a niece if she asked you how she could reduce her risk of breast cancer? (Assume there is no family history of breast cancer.)

a. Reduce sun exposure.
b. Reduce alcohol consumption.
c. Avoid tobacco.
d. Utilize early screening.
e. all of the above

e

Why is age a risk factor for cancer?

a. Age provides the time for the cancer cells to undergo the cell cycle.
b. Age extends the amount of exposures to environmental factors, which can lead to the progression of cancer.
c. Age causes additional alleles to be acquired that can predispose one to cancer.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

b

We would all have many more mutations in our genes if not for the __________.

a. activity of proofreading enzymes
b. death of all mutant cells, removing them from our bodies
c. fact that everybody carries a "good" allele to counter every "bad" allele
d. fact that dividing cells remove all their mutations when they replicate their DNA
e. fact that mutations tend to cancel each other out, leaving mostly functional genes

a

Which is the correct order of events in which breast cancer might develop?

a. inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > mutation of p53 > additional mutations permit spreading > replication errors create an oncogene
b. mutation of p53 > inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > additional mutations permit spreading > replication errors create an oncogene
c. replication errors create an oncogene > mutation of p53 > inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > additional mutations permit spreading
d. inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > replication errors create an oncogene > mutation of p53 > additional mutations permit spreading
e. inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > additional mutations permit spreading > replication errors create an oncogene > mutation of p53

d

Which of these statements about decreasing a woman's breast cancer risk if she inherits one of the mutant BRCA genes is TRUE?

a. Diet and lifestyle changes will effectively decrease her risk to near zero.
b. She can take several medications that make it almost impossible to get breast cancer, even if she inherits the BRCA gene.
c. Surgical removal of the breasts will decrease a woman's cancer risk to near zero.
d. A woman cannot decrease her cancer risk, so she might as well live life to its fullest.
e. None of the above is true.

e

A woman with a BRCA1 mutation __________.

a. will definitely develop breast cancer
b. is at increased risk of developing breast cancer
c. must have inherited it from her mother because of the link to breast cancer
d. will also have a mutation in BRCA2.
e. b and c

b

Which of the following family histories most strongly suggests a risk of inherited breast cancer due to BRCA1 mutations?

a. many female relatives who were diagnosed with breast cancer in their 70s
b. many relatives with skin cancer
c. many relatives diagnosed with skin cancer at an early age
d. many female relatives diagnosed with breast cancer at an early age
e. many female relatives with both early breast cancer and ovarian cancer

d

Why do people with "inherited cancer" often develop cancer at a relatively young age?

a. Predisposition increases the chances that other risk factors will lead to the progression of cancer.
b. All inherited alleles that are associated with cancer cause childhood cancers.
c. Cancer cannot be truly inherited, but certain alleles weaken the normal control points that prevent cancer, and this causes cancer to appear earlier in life.
d. a and c
e. b and c

d

Which of the following women would be most likely to benefit from genetic testing for breast cancer?

a. a 25-year-old woman whose mother, aunt, and grandmother had breast cancer
b. a healthy 75-year-old woman with no family history of breast cancer
c. a 40-year-old woman who has a cousin with breast cancer
d. a 55-year-old woman whose older sister was just diagnosed with breast cancer
e. All women can benefit from genetic testing for breast cancer.

a

Are beneficial mutations found often?

no

What do mutations lead to?

dysfunctional proteins

Why do people suffer from cystic fibrosis?

Thick mucus in the lungs, pancreas, etc. there is improper movement of ions because chlorine is trapped inside the cell and the mucus is thick outside and affects the lungs and other organs. because of disturbance in ion movement throughout the cellular membrane

When do you have a recessive disorder?

when each parent has at least one recessive allele to pass onto the child

What kind of genes decide about how strong the immune response will be?

Modifying genes. TGFB1 is an example.

What determines a person's sex?

On the Y chromosome: SRY genes determine bisexual genes into testes or ovaries

What is analyzed in a pedigree?

Y chromosome

Short Tandem Repeats

microsatellite, consisting of a unit of two to thirteen nucleotides repeated hundreds of times in a row on the DNA strand. STR analysis measures the exact number of repeating units.

AA or AO

Type A markers, can donate to type A or AB , can receive from type A or O donor

BB or BO

Type B markers, can donate to Type B or AB recipient, can receive from type B or O donor

AB

Type A and B markers, can donate to type AB recipient, can receive from type A, B, AB, or O donor (universal recipient)

OO

No blood markers, can donate to type A, B, AB or O recipient (universal donor), can receive from type O donor

What is RH?

an antigen that if you have it your blood type is positive and if you do not your blood type is negative

When your blood type is positive who can you receive blood from? (positive or negative)

when you are positive you can accept blood that is negative but not the other way around

What are viruses composed of?

nucleic acid and proteins

How do viruses leave the host cell?

cells are being damaged and cells burst and viruses can get out. the cell does not always burst though it depends on the virus

What does the pathogen do in a cell to become a pathogen?

the main feature is it has to cause damage. if it does not cause damage it is not considered a pathogen

How long does it take for the primary response to occur?

7-10 days

What happened to the 1918 flu virus that was so deadly?

ANTIGENIC DRIFT: mutations in the antigens in viruses change every year because of antigenic drift so we need a new flu shot every year. it is mimicking primary response instead of being sick mimics being sick so that your body will make antibodies

Why are viruses not alive?

they cannot replicate on their own. they need host cells to help them replicate

What are the main 2 symptoms of inflammation?

redness and swelling are caused by blood and blood causes redness because red blood cells leak out of capillaries and causes swelling

Who won the Nobel Prize for discovering reverse transcriptase?

David Hamilton

What is an equilibrium virus?

not lethal and spread quickly

What is a nonequilibrium virus?

they do not spread quickly but if they infect a person they can be lethal: HIV, ebola

How is it possible to change a lethal virus?

genetic shift is two viruses infecting the same cell and they exchange antigens. Bird flu antigenic shift between bird virus and human viruses cause pandemics

Why is HIV an RNA virus?

because it uses reverse transcriptase to transcribe into DNA

What is cyanobacteria?

the first photosynthesizing bacteria

What are the three main shapes of bacteria?

circle, oval, and spiral

Are most bacteria autotrophs or heterotrophs?

heterotrophs

Are cyanobacteria aerobs or anaerobs?

they can be both

Health Science Test 3 (Chs 10,11, 12, 31) - Subjecto.com

Health Science Test 3 (Chs 10,11, 12, 31)

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BENIGN TUMOR

A noncancerous tumor that will not spread throughout the body.

CARCINOGEN

Any chemical agent that causes cancer by damaging DNA. Carcinogens are a type of mutagen.

GERM-LINE MUTATION

A mutation occurring in gametes; passed on to offspring.

MALIGNANT TUMOR

A cancerous tumor that spreads throughout the body.

MUTAGEN

Any chemical or physical agent that can damage DNA by changing its nucleotide sequence.

MUTATION

A change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA.

PROTO-ONCOGENES

A gene that codes for a protein that helps cells divide normally.

SOMATIC MUTATION

A mutation that occurs in a body (nongamete) cell; not passed on to offspring.

TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENE

A gene that codes for proteins that monitor and check cell cycle progression. When these genes mutate, tumor suppressor proteins lose normal function.

CARRIER

An individual who is heterozygous for a particular gene of interest, and therefore can pass on the recessive allele without showing any of its effects.

HOMOZYGOUS

Having two identical alleles.

DOMINANT ALLELE

An allele that can mask the presence of a recessive allele

INDEPENDENT ASSORTMENT

The principle that alleles of different genes are distributed independently of one another during meiosis.

GAMETES

Specialized reproductive cells that carry one copy of each chromosome (that is, they are haploid). Sperm are male gametes; eggs are female gametes.

MEIOSIS

A specialized type of nuclear division that generates genetically unique haploid gametes.

HAPLOID

Having only one copy of every chromosome.

HOMOLOGOUS CHROMOSOMES

A pair of chromosomes that both contain the same genes. In a diploid cell, one chromosome in the pair is inherited from the mother, the other from the father.

DIPLOID

Having two copies of every chromosome.

EMBRYO

An early stage of development reached when a zygote undergoes cell division to form a multicellular structure.

GENOTYPE

The particular genetic makeup of an individual.

HETEROZYGOUS

Having two different alleles.

PHENOTYPE

The visible or measurable features of an individual.

PUNNETT SQUARE

A diagram used to determine probabilities of offspring having particular genotypes, given the genotypes of the parents.

RECESSIVE ALLELE

An allele that reveals itself in the phenotype only if a masking dominant allele is not present.

RECOMBINATION

An event in meiosis during which maternal and paternal chromosomes pair and physically exchange DNA segments.

ZYGOTE

A fertilized egg.

AMNIOCENTESIS

A procedure that removes fluid surrounding the fetus to obtain and analyze fetal cells to diagnose genetic disorders.

MULTIFACTORIAL INHERITANCE

An interaction between genes and the environment that contributes to a phenotype or trait.

AUTOSOMES

Paired chromosomes present in both males and females; all chromosomes except the X and Y chromosomes.

NONDISJUNCTION

The failure of chromosomes to separate accurately during cell division; nondisjunction in meiosis leads to aneuploid gametes.

CONTINUOUS VARIATION

Variation in a population showing an unbroken range of phenotypes rather than discrete categories.

PEDIGREE

A visual representation of the occurrence of phenotypes across generations.

INCOMPLETE DOMINANCE

A form of inheritance in which heterozygotes have a phenotype that is intermediate between homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive.

ANEUPLOIDY

An abnormal number of one or more chromosomes (either extra or missing copies).

CODOMINANCE

A form of inheritance in which both alleles contribute equally to the phenotype.

GONADS

Sex organs: ovaries in females, testes in males.

POLYGENIC TRAITS

A trait whose phenotype is determined by the interaction among alleles of more than one gene.

SEX CHROMOSOMES

Paired chromosomes that differ between males and females, XX in females, XY in males.

TRISOMY 21

Carrying an extra copy of chromosome 21; also known as Down syndrome.

X-LINKED TRAITS

A phenotype determined by an allele on an X chromosome.

Y-CHROMOSOME ANALYSIS

Comparing sequences on the Y chromosome to examine paternity and paternal ancestry.

ADAPTIVE IMMUNITY

A protective response, mediated by lymphocytes, that confers long-lasting immunity against specific pathogens.

INNATE IMMUNITY

Nonspecific defenses, such as physical and chemical barriers and phagocytic cells that are present from birth and are always active.

ANTIBODY

A protein produced by B cells that binds to antigens and either neutralizes them or flags other cells to destroy pathogens.

INTERFERON

Antiviral proteins produced by virally infected cells to help protect adjacent cells from becoming infected.

ANTIGENIC DRIFT

Changes in viral antigens caused by genetic mutation during normal viral replication.

LYMPH MODES

Small organs in the lymphatic system where B and T cells may encounter pathogens.

AUTO IMMUNE DISEASE

A misdirected immune response in which the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells.

LYMPHATIC SYSTEM

The organ system of vessels and organs where B and T lymphocytes develop and that works with the immune system, allowing B and T cells to respond to pathogens.

CELL-MEDIATED IMMUNITY

The type of adaptive immunity that rids the body of altered (that is, infected, cancerous, or foreign) cells.

LYMPHOCYTES

A specialized white blood cell of the immune system.

CYTOTOXIC T CELL

A type of T cell that destroys infected, cancerous, or foreign altered cells, including virally infected cells.

MACROPHAGE

A phagocytic cell that resides in tissues and plays an important role in the inflammatory response.

HISTAMINE

A molecule released by damaged tissue and during allergic reactions.

MEMORY CELLS

A long-lived B or T cell that is produced during an immune primary response and that can be activated rapidly in a secondary response.

IMMUNE SYSTEM

A system of cells and tissues that acts to defend the body against foreign cells and infectious agents.

NATURAL KILLER CELLS

A type of white blood cell that acts during the innate immune response to find and destroy virally infected cells and tumor cells.

INFLAMMATION

An innate defense that is activated by infection or local tissue damage; characterized by redness, swelling, and pain.

NEUTROPHIL

A phagocytic cell in the circulation that plays an important role in the inflammatory response.

ANTIGEN

A specific molecule (or part of a molecule) to which specific antibodies can bind, and against which an adaptive response is mounted.

PATHOGEN

Infectious agents including certain viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites. Many pathogens trigger an immune response.

B CELLS

White blood cells that mature in the bone marrow and produce antibodies during the adaptive immune response.

PHAGOCYTE

A type of white blood cell that engulfs and ingests damaged cells and pathogens.

HELPER T CELLS

A type of T cell that helps activate B cells to produce antibodies during humoral responses.

PLASMA CELL

An activated B cell that divides rapidly and secretes an abundance of antibodies.

ALLERGY

A misdirected immune response against environmental substances such as dust, pollen, and foods that causes discomfort in the form of physical symptoms.

ANTIGENIC SHIFT

Changes in antigens that occur when viruses exchange genetic material with other strains.

COMPLEMENT PROTEINS

Proteins in blood that help destroy pathogens by coating or puncturing them.

HUMORAL IMMUNITY

The type of adaptive immunity that fights free-floating pathogens infections and other foreign substances in the circulation and lymph fluid.

IMMUNITY

The resistance to a given pathogen conferred by the activity of the immune system.

PRIMARY RESPONSE

The adaptive response mounted the first time a particular antigen is encountered by the immune system.

T CELLS

White blood cells that mature in the thymus and can destroy infected cells or stimulate B cells to produce antibodies, depending on the type of T cell.

THYMUS

The organ in which T cells mature.

VACCINE

A preparation of killed or weakened microorganisms or viruses that is given to people or animals to generate a memory immune response.

VIRUS

An infectious agent made up of a protein shell that encloses genetic information.

How do the two alleles of the CFTR gene in a lung cell differ?

a. They are inherited from different parents.
b. One is on chromosome 7 and one is on chromosome 3.
c. Only one is expressed.
d. a, b, and c
e. There is no difference because they are both the same gene.

a

Which of the following is(are) TRUE of a single human liver cell?

a. There are 46 chromosomes present.
b. There are two alleles for each gene.
c. There is one allele on each chromosome.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

e

Which of the following is(are) TRUE of a single human gamete?

a. There are 46 chromosomes present.
b. There are two alleles for each gene.
c. There is one allele on each chromosome.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

c

What is the genotype of a person with cystic fibrosis?

a. The genotype includes two mutant CFTR genes, one each on the homologous chromosomes for chromosome 7.
b. The genotype includes one mutant CFTR gene and one normal gene, one each on the homologous chromosomes for chromosome 7
c. The genotype includes two mutant CFTR genes, both on a single homologous chromosome 7; the other homologous chromosome 7 is normal.
d. The genotype includes only one homologous chromosome 7; the second chromosome 7 is missing.
e. The genotype includes 2 additional chromosomes with the mutant CFTR gene, making a total of 25 chromosomes.

a

A diploid cell of baker’s yeast has 32 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in each of its haploid spores?

a. 32
b. 16
c. 8
d. 64

b

In diploid organisms, having two homologues of each chromosome can be beneficial if one allele of a gene encodes a nonfunctional protein. Can haploid organisms survive the presence of nonfunctional alleles?

a. No, because there is only one allele for the gene in each cell, and the nonfunctional allele has no other allele to mask it.
b. No, because there are two chromosomes each with a single allele that is always the same, and one cannot compensate for one being nonfunctional.
c. Yes, because there is only one allele for the gene in each cell, and the nonfunctional allele will be masked by another allele of a different kind.
d. Yes, because there are two chromosomes each with a single allele that is always the same, and one can compensate for the other being nonfunctional.
e. Yes, because there are always other alleles for other genes that will compensate for a nonfunctional allele.

a

Why is it possible for two healthy parents to give birth to a child with a genetic defect such as cystic fibrosis?

a. CF is normally caused by a mutation that occurs only in the sperm and eggs of the parents, so their bodies are not affected.
b. CF is normally caused by a mutation that occurs in the fetus during pregnancy, and does not affect the mother.
c. CF is only evident in individuals with two mutant alleles; a healthy parent could carry both a defective allele and a normal copy and be healthy.
d. CF is not passed to children from their parents; it comes from their grandparents.
e. CF is caused by the inheritance of too many "normal" genes; the parents would be unaffected.

c

A human female has _____ chromosomes in each skin cell and ______ chromosomes in each egg.

a. 46; 46
b. 23; 46
c. 46; 23
d. 23; 23
e. 92; 46

c

A woman is heterozygous for the CF-associated gene (the alleles are represented here by the letters A and a). Assuming that meiosis occurs normally, which of the following represent eggs that she can produce?

a. A
b. a
c. Aa
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

d

Which of the following accurately describes meiosis?

a. contains two rounds of division (meiosis I and meiosis II)
b. ends with four gametes that are not the same genetically
c. takes two diploid cells to make four haploid cells
d. a and b
e. b and c

d

Meiosis differs from mitosis in the __________.

a. way in which sister chromatids separate
b. number of cells produced immediately after the starting cells divide
c. number of chromosomes in the starting cells
d. number of sister chromatids in the starting cells
e. number of chromosomes in each ending cell

e

One of the purposes of meiosis is to __________.

a. produce four zygotes instead of only two (as produced in mitosis)
b. reduce the chromosome number in each cell by half
c. increase genetic diversity in the diploid-starting cells
d. increase the number of embryos per fertilization
e. double the number of chromosomes per gamete

b

Besides recombination, what other event in meiosis increases the genetic diversity of the gametes?

a. the way in which chromosomes are replicated in meiosis II
b. the random line-up and separation of maternal and paternal chromosomes
c. the random exchange of DNA segments between paternal chromosomes
d. the random exchange of DNA segments between maternal chromosomes
e. the random way in which gametes fuse together to make uniquely different sperm and eggs

b

An alien has 82 total chromosomes in each of its body cells. The chromosomes are paired, making 41 pairs. If the alien’s gametes undergo meiosis, what are the number and arrangement (paired or not) of chromosomes in one of its gametes?

a. 41 paired chromosomes
b. 41 unpaired chromosomes
c. 82 unpaired chromosomes
d. 82 paired chromosomes
e. 164 paired chromosomes

b

If meiosis were to fail and a cell skipped meiosis I, so that meiosis II was the only meiotic division, how would you describe the resulting gametes?

a. haploid cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes
b. diploid cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes
c. haploid cells with 23 unpaired chromosomes
d. diploid cells with 23 unpaired chromosomes
e. b and d are both valid results

b

Children often have many of the phenotypes of their parents because __________.

a. they have the exact same genotypes as their parents
b. they inherit half of their genetic material from each parent
c. they carry the same combinations of alleles that their parents have
d. they inherit mutations that make their bodies appear identical to one or both parents
e. the cells of embryos divide by meiosis, a process that yields genetic duplicates

b

Women can inherit alleles of a gene called BRCA1 that puts them at higher risk for breast cancer. The alleles associated with elevated cancer risk are dominant. Of the genotypes listed below, which carries the lowest genetic risk of developing breast cancer?

a. BB
b. Bb
c. bb
d. BB and Bb carry less risk than bb.
e. All carry equal risk.

c

In order for a child to develop cystic fibrosis,

a. a sperm carrying a CF allele must fertilize an egg that also has that allele.
b. genetic recombination must occur in the father but not the mother.
c. genetic recombination must occur in the mother but not the father.
d. more than one sperm in the father must carry the CF allele.
e. more than one egg in the mother must carry the CF allele.

a

Assume that Emily (who has CF, a recessive disease (aa)) decides to have children with a man who does not have CF and who has no family history of CF. What combination of gametes can each of them produce, and what is the probability that they will have a child who is a carrier for CF?

a. Emily: aa and man: Aa; 100% probability
b. Emily: Aa and man: AA; 50% probability
c. Emily: aa and man: AA; 100% probability
d. Emily: aa and man: AA; 50% probability
e. Emily: Aa and man: Aa; 100% probability

c

What does it mean to say that a person is a heterozygous carrier for a genetic disease?

a. That person has two copies of the disease allele.
b. That person has two copies of the normal allele.
c. That person exhibits the symptoms of the disease if the disease allele is recessive.
d. That person does not show symptoms of the disease if the disease allele is recessive.
e. A carrier is a person who has already sired children who show symptoms of the disease.

d

What does it mean to say that a person has a heterozygous genotype for a disease gene and no disease phenotype?

a. This disease has a recessive inheritance pattern.
b. This disease has a dominant inheritance pattern.
c. This person is a carrier of the disease because the dominate allele masks the recessive phenotype.
d. a and c
e. a, b, and c

d

Which of the following most influences the development of a female fetus?

a. the presence of any two sex chromosomes
b. the presence of two X chromosomes
c. the absence of a Y chromosome
d. the presence of a Y chromosome
e. either b or c

e

Why are more males than females affected by X-linked recessive genetic diseases?

a. because males have a Y chromosome that does not represent the same alleles as the X chromosomes and cannot mask the X-linked recessive allele
b. because females have an additional Y chromosome to mask the X-linked recessive allele
c. because females have an additional X chromosome to mask the X-linked recessive allele
d. Females are affected more by X-linked recessive genetic diseases because they have two X chromosomes.
e. a and c

e

If a man has an X-linked recessive disease, can his sons inherit that disease from him?

a. Yes, all his sons have one X chromosome.
b. No, all his sons inherit their X chromosomes maternally.
c. Yes, all his sons inherit their Y chromosomes maternally.
d. No, all his sons have one X chromosome.
e. Yes, all his sons inherit their X chromosomes maternally.

b

Which of the following is TRUE about Y chromosome analysis?

a. It is commonly used to determine whether a woman is really a man.
b. It is commonly used to determine paternity and ancestry.
c. It can be used to determine whether a man is carrying traits such as hemophilia and Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
d. It can be used to determine whether a man is likely to pass on traits such as hemophilia and Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
e. It can be used to determine whether a person has a genetic disease caused by a mutant allele on an autosome.

b

Why do some people have unusual chromosome combinations, such as XYY and XXX?

a. They have a genetic disease that causes an increase in the number of sex chromosomes.
b. Errors occurred in chromosome segregation during meiosis in their fathers or mothers.
c. People who inherit large numbers of short tandem repeats (STRs) also inherit extra sex chromosomes.
d. A mistake in cell division (mitosis) during embryonic development leads to extra sex chromosomes in every cell.
e. It is not known why these unusual chromosome combinations occur.

b

Which of the following couples could have a boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)?

a. a male with DMD and a homozygous dominant female
b. a male without DMD and a homozygous dominant female
c. a male without DMD and a carrier female
d. a and c
e. none of the above

c

Predict the sex of a baby with an XX pair of sex chromosomes.

a. male
b. female
c. cannot determine with the chromosome information given

b

Predict the sex of a baby with an XXY pair of sex chromosomes.

a. male
b. female
c. cannot determine with the chromosome information given

a

Predict the sex of a baby with an X sex chromosome.

a. male
b. female
c. cannot determine with the chromosome information given

c

Consider your brother and your son. If you are male, which will have essentially identical Y chromosomes?

a. You and your brother inherited different Y chromosomes from your dad, and you passed your Y chromosome on to your son.
b. You and your brother inherited the same Y chromosome from your dad, and you passed a different Y chromosome on to your son.
c. You and your brother inherited the same Y chromosome from your dad, and you passed the same Y chromosome on to your son.
d. You cannot tell the inheritance pattern with the information given.
e. The inheritance of the Y chromosome is dependent on which X chromosome is inherited.

c

Which of the following inheritance patterns includes an environmental contribution?

a. polygenic
b. X-linked recessive
c. X-linked dominant
d. multifactorial
e. none of the above

d

How are polygenic and multifactorial traits different?

a. Polygenic traits are influenced by nutrition and diet, whereas multifactorial traits are not.
b. Polygenic traits are genetically based, whereas multifactorial traits have both genetic and environmental influences.
c. Polygenic traits are influenced by the number of traumatic life events, whereas multifactorial traits are influenced by the levels of brain chemicals.
d. Polygenic traits show a continuous range of phenotypic variation, whereas multifactorial traits show several distinct phenotypes.
e. There are more kinds of polygenic traits than multifactorial traits.

b

How is codominant inheritance different from incomplete dominant inheritance?

a. In codominance, one gene is recessive to two dominant genes; in incomplete dominance, all genes are recessive.
b. In codominance, all genes are recessive; in incomplete dominance, one gene is recessive to two dominant genes.
c. In codominance, two alleles are expressed equally; in incomplete dominance, there is only one allele in the system.
d. In codominance, two alleles are expressed equally; in incomplete dominance, neither the dominant or recessive phenotype is seen in heterozygotes.
e. In codominance, the two alleles cooperate to make an intermediate phenotype; in incomplete dominance, the heterozygote shows the recessive phenotype.

d

Human skin color ranges from very light to dark black, with many distinct skin tones in between. Neglecting for a moment that skin color can be affected by sun exposure, what type of inheritance pattern probably governs skin color?

a. incomplete dominance
b. codominance
c. polygenic inheritance
d. multifactorial inheritance
e. X-linked inheritance

c

What are the chances that a curly-haired father and a straight-haired mother can give birth to a child with curly hair?

a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 100%

b

If two women have identical alleles of the suspected 20 height-associated genes, why might one of those women be 5 feet 5 inches tall and the other 5 feet 8 inches tall?

a. because the identical 20 alleles cause variation in the phenotype
b. because phenotype dictates genotype
c. because environmental factors also play a role in the phenotype of this trait
d. b and c
e. a, b, and c

c

Why is type O Rh-negative the "universal donor"?

a. No surface markers are present on the O Rh-negative blood cells to react with the recipient’s immune system.
b. Three surface markers are present on the donor blood cells (A, B, and O) that are recognized as compatible in all recipients.
c. Three surface markers are present on the donor blood cells (A, B, and O), which block immune reactions in the recipient.
d. The O and Rh surface markers on the donor red blood cells block immune reactions in the recipient.
e. More people have type O blood than any other blood type.

a

What is different about red blood cells from a person with type AB blood, compared to those from other blood types?

a. They carry Rh markers, whereas other blood types have none.
b. They carry A and B type surface markers, so they are universal acceptors of blood.
c. They carry A and B type surface markers, so they are universal donors of blood.
d. They carry A and B type surface markers, so they cannot receive or donate blood.
e. They have no surface markers from the ABO blood type alleles.

b

Which of the following is a likely result of nondisjunction in human meiosis?

a. an increased risk of clinical depression
b. aneuploid eggs and sperm
c. a genetic disorder (such as hemophilia or color blindness) caused by a faulty allele
d. an egg that can develop into a child without fertilization by a sperm
e. a sperm that can develop into a child without fertilization with an egg

b

A gamete is aneuploid if __________.

a. one or more homologous chromosomes fail to separate in meiosis I
b. one or more sister chromatids fail to separate in meiosis II
c. there are more than 23 chromosomes in the cell
d. there are fewer than 23 chromosomes in the cell
e. All of the above are true.

e

Which of the following contain the normal chromosome number?

a. a human egg – 46; a human sperm – 23; a human zygote – 23
b. a human egg – 46; a human sperm – 46; a human zygote – 23
c. a human egg – 46; a human sperm – 46; a human zygote – 46
d. a human egg – 23; a human sperm – 23; a human zygote – 46
e. a human egg – 23; a human sperm – 23; a human zygote – 23

d

Which of the following can be determined by amniocentesis and karyotyping?

a. gender
b. blood type
c. trisomy 21
d. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
e. c and d

c

Which of the following can result in a trisomy such as Down syndrome?

a. an egg with 23 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 22 chromosomes
b. an egg with 22 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes
c. an egg with 24 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes
d. an egg with 22 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 24 chromosomes
e. b and d

c

In an otherwise normal cell, what happens if one mistake is made during DNA replication?

a. Nothing; mistakes just happen.
b. A cell cycle checkpoint detects the error and pauses the cell cycle so the error can be corrected.
c. The cell will begin to divide out of control, forming a malignant tumor.
d. A checkpoint will force the cell to perform apoptosis, a form of cellular suicide.
e. The mutation will be inherited by the individual’s offspring.

b

Why does wearing sunscreen reduce cancer risk?

a. Sunscreen can repair damaged DNA.
b. Sunscreen can activate checkpoints in skin cells.
c. Sunscreen can reduce the chance of mutations caused by exposure to UV radiation present in sunlight.
d. It does not reduce cancer risk; sunscreen causes mutation and actually increases cancer risk.
e. Sunscreen can prevent cells with mutations from being destroyed.

c

A mutation can cause a change __________.

a. in the amino acid sequence of a protein
b. in the shape of a protein
c. in the way the cell cycle is regulated
d. that is beneficial to the cell
e. all of the above

e

At which of the following points does a mutation exert its potentially dysfunctional effects in a cell?

a. during DNA replication
b. during protein translation
c. after a protein is produced
d. during DNA transcription
e. only during cell division

c

DNA mutations can arise from uncorrected errors in DNA replication, inheritance, and __________.

a. a poor diet lacking in vitamins and minerals
b. chronic sleep deprivation
c. environmental insults
d. catching an influenza virus from a person with mutated genes
e. abnormal cell division

c

If an individual has a germline mutation, which of the following are possible sources of that mutation?

a. excessive sun exposure
b. a maternal allele
c. a paternal allele
d. b and c are possible
e. a, b, and c are all possible

d

How does a somatic mutation in a gene alter the function of a cell?

a. Base pair changes in the gene are passed directly into altered amino acids by a ribosome.
b. Base pair mutations in a gene are passed directly into mRNA via translation.
c. Base pair mutations in mRNA are passed directly into a protein via transcription.
d. Base pair mutations in a gene are passed directly into mRNA via transcription.
e. Base pair mutations in a gene are passed from mRNA into a protein via transcription.

d

A potential cancer-causing gene coding for a protein with cell cycle control responsibilities is a ___________, and a gene coding for a protein that stimulates cell division is a ___________.

a. oncogene; mutagen
b. oncogene; proto-oncogene
c. tumor suppressor; proto-oncogene
d. tumor suppressor; oncogene
e. oncogene; tumor suppressor

c

What is the role of BRCA1 in normal cells?

a. BRCA1 acts as a proto-oncogene.
b. BRCA1 acts as an oncogene.
c. BRCA1 acts as a tumor suppressor.
d. BRCA1 acts as a mutagen.
e. BRCA1 acts as a carcinogen.

c

Which of the following does not cause cancer to develop and progress?

a. a proto-oncogene
b. an oncogene
c. a tumor suppressor gene
d. a and c
e. b and c

e

A chemical that causes alterations in DNA is a ______________, and if this chemical causes cancer it is called a _______________.

a. mutagen; carcinogen
b. carcinogen; mutagen
c. tumor suppressor; oncogene
d. tumor suppressor; proto-oncogene
e. tumor suppressor; mutagen

a

Tumors that will not spread throughout the body are _________________, and those that do spread are termed ______________.

a. malignant; benign
b. benign; malignant
c. mutagen; carcinogen
d. tumor suppressor; proto-oncogene
e. benign; mutagen

b

Which of the following statements accurately describes cancer development?

a. It is a one-step process by which a mutation drives cancer development.
b. It is inherited and is independent of environmental factors.
c. It is a caused by carcinogens that act on inherited alleles that cause cancer.
d. It is a multistep process by which multiple mutations cause a series of events that lead to cancer.
e. It is a multistep process by which multiple mutagens cause a series of cancer-causing alleles.

d

What would you say to a niece if she asked you how she could reduce her risk of breast cancer? (Assume there is no family history of breast cancer.)

a. Reduce sun exposure.
b. Reduce alcohol consumption.
c. Avoid tobacco.
d. Utilize early screening.
e. all of the above

e

Why is age a risk factor for cancer?

a. Age provides the time for the cancer cells to undergo the cell cycle.
b. Age extends the amount of exposures to environmental factors, which can lead to the progression of cancer.
c. Age causes additional alleles to be acquired that can predispose one to cancer.
d. a and b
e. a, b, and c

b

We would all have many more mutations in our genes if not for the __________.

a. activity of proofreading enzymes
b. death of all mutant cells, removing them from our bodies
c. fact that everybody carries a "good" allele to counter every "bad" allele
d. fact that dividing cells remove all their mutations when they replicate their DNA
e. fact that mutations tend to cancel each other out, leaving mostly functional genes

a

Which is the correct order of events in which breast cancer might develop?

a. inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > mutation of p53 > additional mutations permit spreading > replication errors create an oncogene
b. mutation of p53 > inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > additional mutations permit spreading > replication errors create an oncogene
c. replication errors create an oncogene > mutation of p53 > inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > additional mutations permit spreading
d. inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > replication errors create an oncogene > mutation of p53 > additional mutations permit spreading
e. inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > additional mutations permit spreading > replication errors create an oncogene > mutation of p53

d

Which of these statements about decreasing a woman’s breast cancer risk if she inherits one of the mutant BRCA genes is TRUE?

a. Diet and lifestyle changes will effectively decrease her risk to near zero.
b. She can take several medications that make it almost impossible to get breast cancer, even if she inherits the BRCA gene.
c. Surgical removal of the breasts will decrease a woman’s cancer risk to near zero.
d. A woman cannot decrease her cancer risk, so she might as well live life to its fullest.
e. None of the above is true.

e

A woman with a BRCA1 mutation __________.

a. will definitely develop breast cancer
b. is at increased risk of developing breast cancer
c. must have inherited it from her mother because of the link to breast cancer
d. will also have a mutation in BRCA2.
e. b and c

b

Which of the following family histories most strongly suggests a risk of inherited breast cancer due to BRCA1 mutations?

a. many female relatives who were diagnosed with breast cancer in their 70s
b. many relatives with skin cancer
c. many relatives diagnosed with skin cancer at an early age
d. many female relatives diagnosed with breast cancer at an early age
e. many female relatives with both early breast cancer and ovarian cancer

d

Why do people with "inherited cancer" often develop cancer at a relatively young age?

a. Predisposition increases the chances that other risk factors will lead to the progression of cancer.
b. All inherited alleles that are associated with cancer cause childhood cancers.
c. Cancer cannot be truly inherited, but certain alleles weaken the normal control points that prevent cancer, and this causes cancer to appear earlier in life.
d. a and c
e. b and c

d

Which of the following women would be most likely to benefit from genetic testing for breast cancer?

a. a 25-year-old woman whose mother, aunt, and grandmother had breast cancer
b. a healthy 75-year-old woman with no family history of breast cancer
c. a 40-year-old woman who has a cousin with breast cancer
d. a 55-year-old woman whose older sister was just diagnosed with breast cancer
e. All women can benefit from genetic testing for breast cancer.

a

Are beneficial mutations found often?

no

What do mutations lead to?

dysfunctional proteins

Why do people suffer from cystic fibrosis?

Thick mucus in the lungs, pancreas, etc. there is improper movement of ions because chlorine is trapped inside the cell and the mucus is thick outside and affects the lungs and other organs. because of disturbance in ion movement throughout the cellular membrane

When do you have a recessive disorder?

when each parent has at least one recessive allele to pass onto the child

What kind of genes decide about how strong the immune response will be?

Modifying genes. TGFB1 is an example.

What determines a person’s sex?

On the Y chromosome: SRY genes determine bisexual genes into testes or ovaries

What is analyzed in a pedigree?

Y chromosome

Short Tandem Repeats

microsatellite, consisting of a unit of two to thirteen nucleotides repeated hundreds of times in a row on the DNA strand. STR analysis measures the exact number of repeating units.

AA or AO

Type A markers, can donate to type A or AB , can receive from type A or O donor

BB or BO

Type B markers, can donate to Type B or AB recipient, can receive from type B or O donor

AB

Type A and B markers, can donate to type AB recipient, can receive from type A, B, AB, or O donor (universal recipient)

OO

No blood markers, can donate to type A, B, AB or O recipient (universal donor), can receive from type O donor

What is RH?

an antigen that if you have it your blood type is positive and if you do not your blood type is negative

When your blood type is positive who can you receive blood from? (positive or negative)

when you are positive you can accept blood that is negative but not the other way around

What are viruses composed of?

nucleic acid and proteins

How do viruses leave the host cell?

cells are being damaged and cells burst and viruses can get out. the cell does not always burst though it depends on the virus

What does the pathogen do in a cell to become a pathogen?

the main feature is it has to cause damage. if it does not cause damage it is not considered a pathogen

How long does it take for the primary response to occur?

7-10 days

What happened to the 1918 flu virus that was so deadly?

ANTIGENIC DRIFT: mutations in the antigens in viruses change every year because of antigenic drift so we need a new flu shot every year. it is mimicking primary response instead of being sick mimics being sick so that your body will make antibodies

Why are viruses not alive?

they cannot replicate on their own. they need host cells to help them replicate

What are the main 2 symptoms of inflammation?

redness and swelling are caused by blood and blood causes redness because red blood cells leak out of capillaries and causes swelling

Who won the Nobel Prize for discovering reverse transcriptase?

David Hamilton

What is an equilibrium virus?

not lethal and spread quickly

What is a nonequilibrium virus?

they do not spread quickly but if they infect a person they can be lethal: HIV, ebola

How is it possible to change a lethal virus?

genetic shift is two viruses infecting the same cell and they exchange antigens. Bird flu antigenic shift between bird virus and human viruses cause pandemics

Why is HIV an RNA virus?

because it uses reverse transcriptase to transcribe into DNA

What is cyanobacteria?

the first photosynthesizing bacteria

What are the three main shapes of bacteria?

circle, oval, and spiral

Are most bacteria autotrophs or heterotrophs?

heterotrophs

Are cyanobacteria aerobs or anaerobs?

they can be both

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