Health 1100-Walsh

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Chronic disease

A disease that begins slowly, progresses over a period of time, and that may resist treatment is a(n)

False

A disabled person can never achieve the highest level of wellness.

Genetic Diseases

All the following causes of death are linked to modifiable lifestyle behaviors EXCEPT

perceived susceptibility

An adolescent smoker might think lung cancer happens only to old people. This is an example of which factor of the health belief model?

A

An example of an enabling factor is: A. living near a hiking trail to encourage walking. B. nagging your parents to stop smoking. C. gaining weight after you stop smoking. D. having friends who say they hate to exercise.

D

A person whose parents smoke is more likely to smoke based on this being a(n) A. enabling factor. B. contributing factor. C. reinforcing factor. D. predisposing factor.

B

A sedentary lifestyle, overuse of caffeine, and risky sexual practices are examples of A. voluntary determinants of health. B. modifiable determinants of health. C. involuntary determinants of health. D. nonmodifiable determinants of health

C

Differences in health conditions among specific populations are A. risk behaviors. B. health promotions. C. health disparities. D. medical treatments.

False

True or False Emotional health is the same as intellectual health.

D

Eve is always upset about something, and it seems that she is never really happy. Her mental outlook is likely to adversely affect A.mainly her social health. B.mainly her emotional health. C.mainly her physical health. D.all six dimensions of her health.

A

Having unprotected sex is considered a A. risk behavior. B. health promotion. C. health disparities. D. medical treatment.

C

Health promotion A. involves social justice efforts aimed at achieving health care for all Americans. B. refers to fundraising campaigns for health-related organizations. C. includes policies, programs, and financial support for initiatives that promote health. D. focuses on curing the most prevalent diseases.

A

Healthy People 2020 is a plan designed to A. improve health-related quality of life and years of life for all Americans. B. update FDA regulations on the manufacture and sale of drugs in the United States. C. extend health insurance coverage to millions more Americans. D. increase payments to doctors who serve Medicaid and Medicare patients.

C

Jane is sedentary and obese. What effect, if any, do these factors have on her health? A. They affect her physical health only. B. They affect her physical and emotional health only. C. They impede her progress toward high-level wellness. D. They affect her health only if she has a family history of health problems related to obesity

D

Jason has three projects due next week. He is frustrated because everything is due at the same time and he doesn’t believe it’s possible to get all three projects finished. His solution is to forget about the projects and meet up with friends for a night out. Jason has A. self-confidence. B. self-efficacy. C. an internal locus of control. D. an external locus of control.

A

Jill has many friends, is respected by her coworkers, and maintains a great relationship with her boyfriend. Her ability to interact with others is an example of which dimension of health? A.social B.intellectual C.emotional D.physical

B

Life expectancy in the early 1900s was largely determined by a person’s A.hygiene habits. B.susceptibility to infectious disease. C.occupation and location. D.family history.

B

Lower health insurance rates for nonsmokers is an example of a(n) A.possessional reinforcer. B.manipulative reinforcer. C.social reinforcer. D.activity reinforcer.

D

Observing a friend’s successful attempt to quit smoking and trying some of the same tactics to quit yourself is an example of A.conforming. B.shaping. C.envy. D.modeling.

True

True or False Social factors, biology and genetics, individual behavior, health services, and policymaking all combine to determine a person’s health status.

C

Spiritual health can best be described as A. holding to religious beliefs learned in childhood. B. not as important as other factors to overall wellness. C. having a sense of meaning and purpose in one’s life. D. establishing and maintaining fulfilling relationships.

B

The achievement of the highest level of health possible in each of several dimensions is A.recovery. B.wellness. C.fitness. D.motivation.

D

The contemporary definition of wellness is A.the ability to move about freely without pain. B. the absence of ongoing symptoms or chronic disease. C. living longer than one’s parents. D. the achievement of the highest level of health possible in each of several dimensions.

B

The thought, "I don’t have enough time!" is an example of A.shaping. B.self-talk. C.punishment. D.enabling.

D

To successfully change a behavior, a person must recognize that change is a(n) A.stressful situation. B.chance to wipe out past mistakes. C.isolated event. D.process that occurs in stages.

C

When applying the strategy of shaping to behavior change, one should A.set very demanding goals for oneself. B.only reward oneself when reaching the main goal. C.use small achievable steps to reach goals. D.expect this strategy to provide immediate success

D

Which health model views treating disease through medications and surgery as the surest way to improve health? A.environmental model B.public health model C.social model D.medical model

C

Which of the following factors plays a significant role in health disparities? A.procrastination B.laziness C.economic status D.poor choices

C

Young adults (ages 15-24) are most likely to die from A.heart disease. B.cancer. C.accidents. D.homicide.

B

A pop quiz in class is an example of A. chronic stress. B. a stressor. C. a frustration. D. eustress.

C

A sense of being overwhelmed by perceived obligations to stay connected online is A. distress. B. acute stress. C. technostress. D. chronic stress.

D

Brian is considered a Type A personality by his friends because of his history of "road rage" and extreme competitiveness. All the following put him at increased risk for cardiovascular disease EXCEPT A. his negative beliefs and hostile attitudes toward others. B. bouts of anger ranging from irritation to rage. C. his actions that often harm others verbally or physically. D. his upbeat, glass-half-full approach to life.

B

Catrina just missed hitting a deer as she was driving along a dark, curving road. She felt her racing heart finally slow down after she pulled off the road and took a few deep breaths. This is an example of a(n) A. challenge. B. adaptive response. C. fight-or-flight response. D. state of overload

B

College freshmen living away from home for the first time may face a variety of conflicts due to differences between their own values and beliefs and those of A. their professors. B. their parents and new people they encounter. C. their parents and long-time friends. D. celebrities they admire.

B

Cortisol contributes to weight gain by A. increasing testosterone production. B. increasing hunger and activating fat storage enzymes. C. increasing thirst for sweet beverages. D. stimulating cravings for healthy foods such as vegetables.

B

David woke up in the middle of the night because he smelled smoke. This most likely caused him to experience A. insomnia. B. the flight-or-fight response. C. the adaptation syndrome. D. the resistance response.

B

Downshifting refers to the process of A. using meditation to combat the stress response. B. taking steps to simplify one’s life. C. deliberately completing tasks at a slower pace. D. allowing passivity to take over as a result of stress.

B

Exercise reduces stress primarily by A. suppressing endocrine function. B. increasing endorphins and reducing levels of stress hormones. C. providing a therapeutic way to reduce or eliminate pain. D. expanding aerobic capacity.

D

Hearing a piercing scream late at night while walking on a campus path would likely trigger which phase of the general adaptation syndrome? A. resistance B. exhaustion C. recovery D. alarm

B

Jade’s heart races and she cannot think of anything to say when the cute guy in class sits next to her. This is an example of A. the overreactive response. B. the stress response. C. homeostasis. D. hyperventilation.

A

Meditation has been proven effective in managing stress. Which of the following is NOT true about meditation? A. There is only one meditation style that is considered effective. B. Meditation allows the body to relax while the mind is focused. C. Meditation involves some method of calming and focusing the mind. D. It usually takes some effort and patience to learn to meditate.

D

Research has shown that laughter results in all of the following EXCEPT A. decreased stress levels. B. increased levels of oxygen in the blood. C. pain reduction. D. increased risk of heart disease.

A

Research on stress and body function have found that prolonged stress A. impairs the immune response. B. increases adaptive energy stores. C. increases B cell function. D. affects a limited number of body systems.

True

True or False Stress can have positive health effects.

A

Stress has been associated with increased blood pressure and inflammatory responses. These are most closely associated with an increased risk for A. cardiovascular disease. B. blood cancers such as leukemia. C. mood disorders. D. insomnia.

A

Stress management consists of A. finding balance and developing coping strategies. B. eliminating all sources of stress. C. learning to juggle as many tasks as possible. D. firmly controlling reactions to stress.

D

The part of the brain involved in controlling the body’s overall reaction to stress is the A. pituitary gland. B. cerebral cortex. C. frontal lobe. D. hypothalamus.

A

The primary hormone responsible for physiological stress responses such as increased heart and breathing rates is A. epinephrine. B. cortisol. C. thyroxin. D. insulin.

C

The stress hormone cortisol plays a major role during the stress response in A. increasing heart and respiratory rates. B. decreasing appetite and thirst. C. mobilizing nutrients to meet energy needs. D. relieving pain.

D

To manage stress, the first step is to A. control your emotional responses. B. choose to ignore the stressors in your life. C. determine which stressors can be reduced or eliminated. D. identify and assess the stressors in your life.

D

When acute stress bombards your brain with stress chemicals, A. you are more likely to be able to concentrate in class. B. your ability to make sound decisions is enhanced. C. you are likely to experience euphoria. D. your memory may be impaired.

D

When we are forced to choose between two or more competing desires, motives, behaviors, or impulses, which process is occurring? A. doubt B. control C. adaptation D. conflict

D

Which of the following statements BEST describes self-esteem? A. Self-esteem is inherited and can rarely change. B. Self-esteem is established during childhood. C. Self-esteem has to do with the ability to follow the lead of others. D. Self-esteem has to do with one’s confidence and self-satisfaction.

D

Which of the following characteristics of a Type A personality have been determined to most increase the risk for heart disease? A. being time-driven and perfectionistic B. having a hard-driving approach to tasks and life in general C. being highly competitive D. having a tendency toward anger, distrust, and cynicism

D

Which of the following is most likely to cause eustress instead of distress? A. failing a test B. losing your job C. the death of a grandparent D. an impending promotion

C

Which of the following hormones might contribute to the "Freshman 15"—the tendency to gain about 15 pounds during the first year of college? A. testosterone B. estrogen C. cortisol D. epinephrine

B

Which of the following forms of stress management originated as a form of self-defense? A. yoga B. tai chi C. qigong D. Taekwondo

C

Which of the following BEST describes a Type C personality? A. relaxed B. hostile C. stoic D. distressed

A

You eat an entire box of cookies the night before you attend a Weight Watchers meeting. This is an example of A. inconsistent goals and behavior. B. goals defined by parental expectations. C. conflict due to feeling overwhelmed by obligations. D. the general adaptation syndrome.

B

After breaking up with his girlfriend, Lucas has been unable to move on. He is afraid of rejection and doesn’t think that women find him attractive. He is probably suffering from A. low self-efficacy. B. low self-esteem. C. failure to self-regulate. D. a victim complex.

D

An acute anxiety attack that brings on intense physical symptoms is a(n) A. flashback. B. generalized anxiety disorder. C. obsessive-compulsive symptom. D. panic attack.

A

Anxiety disorders have become the A. most common mental health problem in the United States. B. least costly of mental health disorders to treat. C. acceptable condition of the majority of employees in the workplace. D. main type of disorder affecting adults over the age of 65.

B

A person who experiences flashbacks after a violent mugging might be suffering from A. a phobia. B. post-traumatic stress disorder. C. obsessive-compulsive disorder. D. schizophrenia

D

A psychologically healthy person is A. cynical. B. introverted. C. athletic. D. resilient.

C

At the end of each day, Anne writes down five positive affirmations about herself to block out any negative thoughts. Anne is demonstrating A. magical thinking. B. optimism. C. learned optimism. D. brainwashing.

C

Evan washes his hands more than 50 times a day because of an ongoing fixation on germs; he is most likely suffering from A. a phobia. B. post-traumatic stress disorder. C. obsessive-compulsive disorder. D. schizophrenia.

True

True or False: Happiness derived from helping your grandmother learn to use her new iPad can boost your health more than happiness derived from watching your favorite TV show.

A

Jake is being treated for depression by a medical doctor who provides talk therapy and has also prescribed medication for his condition. Which type of mental health professional is Jake seeing? A. psychiatrist B. social worker C. psychologist D. licensed marriage and family therapist

B

Keisha has a negative attitude about life and puts herself down all the time. Keisha is displaying A. a dysfunctional response. B. low self-esteem. C. poor self-control. D. clinical depression

A

Lisa has a strong sense of purpose and meaning to her life. Lisa is demonstrating A. spiritual health. B. social support. C. religiosity. D. emotional health.

C

Melody has been experiencing severe mood swings, feeling highly energized for a period and then experiencing extreme depression. These symptoms are most closely associated with A. borderline personality disorder. B. generalized anxiety disorder. C. bipolar disorder. D. seasonal affective disorder.

D

Mental illnesses characterized by ongoing worry and a sense of threat are A. substance-abuse disorders. B. compulsive disorders. C. mood disorders. D. anxiety disorders.

B

Most commonly, a person diagnosed with social anxiety disorder has a fear of A. leaving his or her room. B. public events and gatherings. C. spending time alone. D. contracting an infection from others.

B

People who have experienced repeated failures may develop a pattern of response in which they give up and fail to take any positive action. This is called A. resistance. B. learned helplessness. C. learned optimism. D. laziness.

False

True or False: People with bipolar disorder display a limited range of emotions.

D

Psychologically healthy people A. engage in vengeful acts. B. never think a negative thought. C. make time for others but not themselves. D. feel comfortable interacting with others.

B

Recently, Kevin has been spending a lot of time playing online poker. Last weekend, he decided on a whim to fly to Las Vegas to try his hand at "the real thing." He lost over $5,000. This behavior indicates that Kevin may have A. bipolar disorder. B. borderline personality disorder. C. schizophrenia. D. generalized anxiety disorder.

False

True or False: Studies have found no evidence of a genetic basis for happiness.

B

Suicide prevention techniques include A. downplaying a person’s statement that they’d like to die. B. asking directly if the person intends to hurt himself or herself. C. reassuring a person that nothing could be so bad as to make suicide an option. D. keeping all conversations with the person confidential.

B

The general term for a disorder that disrupts thoughts, feelings, moods, and behavior to the extent that it interferes with daily life is A. neuroticism. B. mental illness. C. neurological impairment. D. cognitive disorder.

B

Together, self-awareness, self-management, internal motivation, empathy, and social skills are MOST closely associated with A. intellectual health. B. emotional intelligence. C. psychoneuroimmunology. D. happiness.

A

Treatment for schizophrenia includes hospitalization and a combination of A. medication and psychotherapy. B. medication and light therapy. C. Light therapy and electroconvulsive therapy. D. psychotherapy and electroconvulsive therapy.

D

Warning signs of suicide include all of the following EXCEPT A. unexplained demonstration of happiness following a period of depression. B. preoccupation with themes of death. C. giving away prized possessions. D. compulsion to repeatedly perform rituals.

C

Which of the following is TRUE of psychologically healthy people? A. They frequently experience guilt. B. They avoid new experiences. C. They value human diversity. D. They are uncomfortable when put in new social situations.

A

Which of the following living environments would likely increase your chances of suffering from seasonal affective disorder (SAD)? A. a northern state that experiences long winter nights B. a desert region in California C. a region close to the equator with little seasonal variation D. a southern state that experiences hot, humid summers

D

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning an individual’s emotional health? A. Emotional trauma can affect a student’s academic performance. B. An emotionally healthy person responds appropriately to upsetting events most of the time. C. Emotional health interacts with other aspects of an individual’s health. D. An emotionally healthy person keeps feelings inside to avoid burdening others.

A

Which of the following is TRUE of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs? A. Failure to meet a lower-level need will interfere with fulfilling higher-level needs. B. Social needs are the most basic and essential needs. C. A self-actualized person has met basic needs but has not fully reached his or her potential. D. Esteem needs are more basic than survival needs.

D

Which of the following is NOT a common sign of major depression? A. memory lapses B. sleeping too much C. weight loss or gain D. feeling highly energetic

D

Which of the following is TRUE about laughter? A. It increases anxiety in people under stress. B. It is characteristic of serious or studious people. C. It has no effect on everyday experiences. D. It reduces levels of stress hormones.

D

According to attraction theory, A. chemical processes determine who a person falls in love with. B. psychological processes determine who a person falls in love with. C. physical attraction actually plays no role in who a person falls in love with. D. proximity and similarities influence who a person falls in love with.

A

A hormone referred to as a "cuddle chemical" that boosts feelings of satisfaction and attachment is A. oxytocin. B. adrenaline. C. cortisol. D. dopamine.

C

A likely reason that people may be meaner online than in person is that A.rudeness on social media sites is common and acceptable. B. their name is attached to the messages they post. C. users cannot see the person with whom they are communicating. D. they would like to increase their number of followers.

D

Angel broke up with her boyfriend of two years. In order to cope with the failed relationship, she should A. spend a lot of time analyzing the negative aspects of the relationship. B. seek another relationship as soon as possible to get over the failed one. C. put a positive spin on the breakup and act as if nothing is wrong. D. reach out to trusted friends and share her feelings with them.

D

A relationship in which the partners are sexually involved only with each other is A. consensual. B. open. C. intimate. D. monogamous.

C

Brett and Melissa have a very strong relationship in which they are able to give and receive emotionally without a fear of rejection or being hurt. This example demonstrates that they A. have strong intimate bonds. B. are dependent on each other’s emotions and feelings. C. are emotionally available in their relationship. D. have an ability to remain emotionally detached.

B

Emily and Rosa are close friends who are able to share their feelings freely, providing support and reassurance. This example demonstrates their A. codependence. B. emotional availability. C. ability to provide objective feedback. D. low self-esteem.

C

Family consists of A. people related by blood who share a few main characteristics. B. a group of people who share the same interests. C. a network of people that provides support, security, and a sense of belonging. D. blood relatives with whom we grew up.

A

In face-to-face conversations, A. men frown more often than women, and women smile more often than men. B. women interrupt more often than men. C. women provide less feedback via body language than men. D. men are more likely to ask for help than women, but men and women are equally likely to offer help

B

In relationships, the process of resolving differences peacefully and creatively is A. anger management. B. conflict resolution. C. self-disclosure. D. intimacy.

B

Jealousy is more common in A. people who have a high sense of self-esteem. B. people who feel the need for a high level of control. C. people over the age of 65. D. women than men.

A

Our neighbors and coworkers are members of our A. social network. B. social capital. C. constellation of confidants. D. support team.

D

People who frequently use social networking sites A. score lower in social support than people who have never used them. B. become more and more isolated the longer they use them. C. don’t need to be concerned about self-disclosure. D. have larger social networks than non-users, including offline.

A

Predictability is a fundamental element of A. trust. B. faith. C. power. D. jealousy.

B

Relational connectedness is MOST likely to be enhanced by A. sending a friend a birthday card. B. meeting a friend for lunch. C. texting a friend to say you’re running late. D. phoning a friend to invite him to a party.

B

Self-disclosure can be a double-edged sword because A. you risk hurting the other person. B. you risk the possibility that the other person will reject you. C. you might find out more about the other person than you really wish to know. D. it allows you to tell stories about others without their knowledge or consent.

B

Steve and Janelle are friends. When they meet weekly for coffee, they greet each other with a hug. This is an example of A. betrayal of their partners. B. nonverbal communication. C. physical compatibility. D. sexual intimacy.

B

The definition of the term family A. doesn’t change over time. B. changes over time. C. is determined by the local community. D. is determined by the family’s religious beliefs.

A

The first hint that a relationship may be in trouble is A. a change in communication. B. that one partner stops respecting the other’s sexual boundaries. C. an escalation in the frequency of arguments. D. physical assault.

A

Through our relationships with others, we fulfill our needs for A. intimacy, social integration, and nurturance. B. independence, social integration, and self-actualization. C. autonomy, intimacy, and connection. D. communication, nurturance, and achievement.

C

What is social capital? A. the value of all of the cash, savings, investments, and equity owned by every member of your family, yourself included B. a collective term for all of the people you know, including distant acquaintances and even people you don’t like C. the collective value of all of the people in your social network and the likelihood of them providing social support D. built not by strengthening existing ties, but by seeking out new relationships

A

What is social media screening? A. something practiced by some U.S. employers in order to find information about job applicants B. a technique in which you compare the quality of a variety of social networking sites C. a course you can take to help you learn about managing your privacy settings D. an illegal practice

C

When Hiro confessed to Mina that he was attracted to her intelligence, sense of humor, and concern for others, Mina told him that she admired the same qualities in him. This is an example of A. companionship. B. infatuation. C. reciprocity. D. "opposites attract."

B

When romance lasts beyond the four-year mark, what natural opiates give partners a sense of security, peace, and calm? A. amphetamines B. endorphins C. dopamine and norepinephrine D. oxytocin and PEA

B

Which of the following statements about intimate relationships is TRUE? A. The only intimate relationship known to be good for our health is marriage. B. Supportive intimate relationships are associated with a longer life span. C. People in supportive intimate relationships tend to have higher than normal blood pressure. D. Having strong intimate ties increases the risk for depressi

B

Which of the following is the BEST example of emotional support? A. Eduardo hands his sister a tissue as she tearfully informs their mother that she and her boyfriend have broken up. B. Eduardo listens to his sister as she describes to him how her boyfriend broke up with her. C. Eduardo tells his sister that a majority of relationships don’t work out. D. Eduardo reminds his sister how quickly she bounced back from her last break-up.

A

Which of the following is TRUE about communication patterns between men and women? A. Women tend to be more expressive. B. Men often believe that it is acceptable to show emotion. C. Men are more likely to share their innermost thoughts. D. Women tend to be more task-oriented.

C

Which of the following is TRUE about appropriate self-disclosure? A. It mostly involves story telling. B. It involves sharing secrets and gossip about friends and acquaintances. C. It involves sharing feelings and information as a means of getting to know a person. D. It is a key element in unhealthy communication.

B

Which of the following is TRUE about power in relationships? A. In relationships, power is the ability to make more money than one’s partner. B. In relationships, power is the ability to make and implement decisions. C. Over the last century, the power dynamics between men and women have remained largely the same. D. The increased divorce rate in the past century was largely due to men feeling uncomfortable sharing power.

D

You are most likely to listen BEST when A. you are worried. B. you believe the speaker’s message does not concern you. C. you are distracted by a project that is due the next day. D. you believe the speaker is saying something you can relate to.

B

A common ploy used by rapists is to A. pose as a friend or employee. B. pose as a police officer or other authority figure. C. engage in an initial e-mail exchange. D. offer to purchase an expensive item for the victim.

B

A factor commonly associated with intimate partner violence is A. economic stability. B. low self-esteem. C. tobacco use. D. moving to an unfamiliar area.

True

True or False: Aggression is more likely to occur during times of stress.

B

A growing risk of violent incidents on college campuses has caused colleges to respond by a. enacting more restrictive admissions policies. b. revising prevention and emergency response strategies. c. doing more extensive background checks on students and faculty. d. decreasing ways to notify students and faculty of immediate risk.

D

Allen visits his aunt every month the day after her Social Security check arrives and badgers her until she writes him a check for $100. This is an example of A. intimate partner violence. B. a bias-motivated crime. C. neglect. D. elder abuse.

A

Assault, homicide, and suicide are all examples of A. intentional injuries. B. unintentional injuries. C. reported injuries. D. criminal acts.

D

Breakdowns in the criminal justice system contribute to violence because A. there are too many prisons. B. sentences in various jurisdictions range from lenient to excessive. C. prisoners serve their full sentences and may complete training programs while incarcerated. D. prisons are overcrowded and prisoners may be released early.

False

True or False Child sexual abuse occurs in as many as 2 out of every 100 children.

False

True or False Differences in political beliefs do not appear to be a factor that contributes to violence.

D

Doing some type of activity, such as texting or eating, while driving can cause accidents and is known as A. risky driving. B. careless driving. C. impaired driving. D. distracted driving

True

True or False Emotional and psychological violence can cause as much harm as physical blows or injuries.

B

James lost his job and was unable to pay his rent. His frustration built to the point that he initiated a physical fight with a friend. James is displaying A. primary aggression. B. reactive aggression. C. spontaneous rage. D. negativity.

B

Pearl confides that, at a frat party, she was forced to have sex and did not consent; this is an example of A. abuse. B. sexual assault. C. intimate partner violence. D. neglect.

True

True or False The presence of a gun in the home triples the risk of a homicide occurring in that location

D

The term terrorism is correctly applied to situations in which A. workers organize for political and economic rights. B. one country attacks another in a state of war. C. students demonstrate peacefully against their government. D. violence is used to achieve political aims.

A

The use of force to control and maintain power over another person in the home environment is A. domestic violence. B. spousal violence. C. intentional violence. D. intimate partner violence.

False

True or False The U.S. Public Health Service categorizes injuries resulting from violence as either intentional or accidental.

C

The willful, repeated, and malicious following, harassing, or threatening of another person is a. aggression. b. violence. c. stalking. d. terrorism.

D

What is a common reason that victims of elder abuse do not report it? A. They believe the abuse will stop once their health improves. B. They have limited financial resources. C. They want the caregiver to admit to the abuse first. D. They are afraid that the abuser will retaliate by putting them in a nursing home or increasing the abuse.

B

Which of the following is TRUE about primary aggression? A. It will not result in the bodily harm of others. B. It is goal-directed, hostile self-assertion that is destructive in nature. C. It results from frustration with minor, daily life experiences. D. Aggressive behavior does not necessarily result in violent interactions

A

Which of the following is TRUE about intimate partner violence? A. Homicide by a current or former intimate partner is the leading cause of death among pregnant women in the United States. B. Intimate partner violence includes violence between parent and child. C. Victims of intimate partner violence commonly report the crime. D. Battered woman syndrome is considered to be a type of generalized anxiety disorder.

A

Which of the following is TRUE about reactive aggression? A. It is most often an emotional reaction to frustrating life experiences. B. It is a goal-directed, hostile form of self-assertion. C. It is defined as occasional or rare behavior. D. It is often related to substance abuse.

B

Which of the following is TRUE regarding homicides? A. Homicides rates increase each year in the United States. B. Homicides are the second leading cause of death for persons aged 15 to 24. C. Homicide rates are about the same among white and nonwhite ethnic groups. D. Homicide rates are about the same among males and females.

A

Which of the following is TRUE about ethnoviolence and hate crimes? A. Prejudice and discrimination are always at the base of hate crimes and ethnoviolence. B. Ethnoviolence is always more brutal than hate crimes. C. Ethnoviolence is based on prejudice, but hate crimes are not. D. Hate crimes are based on prejudice, but ethnoviolence is not.

D

Which of the following is TRUE about the cycle of intimate partner violence? A. In the remorse/reconciliation phase, the batterer tries to teach the partner a lesson by inflicting severe pain. B. Most victims can break the cycle without outside intervention. C. The cycle involves a tension-building phase during which the worst battering occurs. D. The cycle explains predictable patterns of abuse.

D

Which of the following is TRUE about marital rape? A. It is not a crime. B. Women over the age of 25 are most at risk. C. It is usually an isolated occurrence that happens once. D. Several states may treat marital rape as a lesser crime.

C

Which phase of the cycle of violence is called the "honeymoon period" because the batterer may act apologetic and promise to change? A. acute battering B. tension building C. remorse/reconciliation D. retaliation

D

Young people tend to join gangs for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A. to gain a sense of self-worth. B. to obtain economic security. C. to have companionship, excitement, and a sense of belonging. D. to impress friends who are not gang members.

C

Your friend confides that her coworker is always making sexually explicit comments to her and telling lewd jokes. You explain to her that this is A. sexual assault. B. sexual coercion. C. sexual harassment. D. sexual invasion.

B

Research examining the relationship between substance abuse and violence indicates that A. chronic drinkers are less likely than others to have histories of violent behavior. B. alcohol consumption is a major factor in domestic violence at all levels. C. substance abuse can elevate a person’s mood and thereby prevent a potential crime. D. substance abuse markedly decreases the risk of both homicide and suicide.

C

A birth defect caused by the mother’s alcohol intake during pregnancy is A. rubella. B. spina bifida. C. FAS. D. Down syndrome.

D

A birth defect that occurs more frequently in babies born to mothers over the age of 35 is A. blindness. B. deafness. C. spina bifida. D. Down syndrom

B

A cause of infertility in which uterine tissue is implanted outside the uterus and blocks the fallopian tubes is A. toxoplasmosis. B. endometriosis. C. pelvic inflammatory disease. D. ovarian cancer.

C

A fetus is the term used to describe an embryo as of A. the first month of pregnancy. B. 6 weeks of pregnancy. C. the third month of pregnancy. D. 10 weeks of pregnancy

C

An IUD A. is highly unlikely to cause either discomfort or complications. B. is nearly 95% effective with typical use. C. offers long-term protection from pregnancy. D. causes a long delay in the return of fertility.

A

By federal law, when can women elect to have an abortion without legal restrictions? A. in the first trimester B. through the second trimester C. through the third trimester D. at no time without restrictions

D

Drugs, chemicals, and radiation that can cause birth defects are known as A. progestins. B. carcinogens. C. toxoplasmosis. D. teratogens.

D

During pregnancy, a woman could increase her folic acid intake by eating A. steak and pork. B. chicken and turkey. C. low-fat milk and yogurt. D. dark leafy greens, citrus fruits, and beans.

C

Gestational surrogacy occurs when A. a couple adopts a child. B. a woman uses artificial insemination. C. a woman carries another woman’s and man’s embryo to term. D. a couple raise another person’s child through the foster system.

C

Jade is pregnant. During a regular medical check-up, her physician discusses alcohol consumption.. The physician will likely advise that she A. limit her intake to one glass per day. B. limit her intake to two glasses per day. C. abstain from alcohol during pregnancy. D. have only an occasional glass of wine with dinner.

D

Leaving a diaphragm, tampon, or cervical cap in for an extended period of time increases the risk for A. AIDS. B. hypertension. C. HPV. D. toxic shock syndrome

D

Many men are reluctant to have a vasectomy because of the A. major surgery involved. B. general anesthetic used. C. long recovery period required. D. fear of decreased sexual performance.

False

True or False One advantage of the female condom is that it can be used multiple times.

B

Oral contraceptive pills are A. an effective barrier contraceptive method. B. about 91 percent effective at preventing pregnancy with typical use. C. most commonly used by women who have had at least one child. D. effective protection against STIs

C

Postpartum depression A. frequently occurs just before childbirth. B. can lead to bipolar disorder. C. is characterized by fatigue, depression, and mood swings. D. is caused by the nutritional demands of breast-feeding.

True

True or False Some intrauterine contraceptives release small amounts of hormones.

C

The first widely used birth control method for women was A. the pill. B. spermicidal foams and jellies. C. the diaphragm. D. the IUD.

B

The implantation of a fertilized egg outside the uterus, usually in a fallopian tube, is called A. ambiguous pregnancy. B. ectopic pregnancy. C. miscarriage. D. preeclampsia.

True

True or False The most common cause of male infertility is low sperm count.

A

The transition stage of birth is characterized by A. the baby’s head moving into the birth canal. B. the baby exiting from the birth canal. C. the initial dilation of the cervix. D. the placenta detaching from the uterus.

B

The two contraceptive methods most commonly used by college students are A. birth control pills and withdrawal. B. birth control pills and male condoms. C. birth control pills and Depo-Provera shots. D. male condoms and withdrawal.

A

To reduce the risk of her child having spina bifida, a pregnant woman should consume an adequate amount of which nutrient? A. folic acid B. vitamin D C. vitamin B12 D. biotin

D

Which of the following is NOT an example of a barrier method of birth control? A. diaphragms B. spermicides C. condoms D. oral contraceptives

D

Which of the following is not a reason cesarean sections may be performed? A. Labor lasts too long. B. The baby is in physiological distress. C. The baby is about the exit the uterus any way but headfirst. D. The mother has diabetes.

B

Which of the following procedures performed during pregnancy can determine the size and position of the fetus and detect birth defects in the central nervous and digestive systems? A. amniocentesis B. ultrasound C. triple marker screen D. chorionic villus sampling

A

Which of the following is a female sterilization procedure that involves tying off or cauterizing certain structures of the reproductive system? A. tubal ligation B. vasectomy C. hysterectomy D. suction curettage

A

Which of the following is NOT true about male condoms? A. They can be used with baby oil and body lotions as lubricants. B. They can be purchased with a spermicide. C. They help prevent the spread of some sexually transmitted infections. D. They are reliable against pregnancy when used consistently.

C

Which of the following is TRUE about nutrition and exercise during pregnancy? A. Vitamin supplements can make up for a less-than-balanced diet. B. Weight gain during pregnancy is unhealthy for the baby. C. Exercise can be beneficial, but the woman should consult with her physician first. D. All exercise should be avoided because it is harmful to the developing fetus.

D

Which U.S. Supreme Court decision in 1973 gave women the legal right to an abortion? A. Wade v. Thomas B. Roe v. Smith C. Smith v. Thomas D. Roe v. Wade

B

Women who use oral contraceptives and also smoke are at a higher risk of A. weight gain. B. blood clots and hypertension. C. pneumonia and lung cancer. D. pregnancy.

C

According to research, each of the following factors increases the risk of substance abuse among students EXCEPT A. genetics and family history of addiction. B. substance use in high school. C. participation in college sports. D. mental health problems.

D

Among American adults, the second most commonly abused type of drug, after marijuana, is A. inhalants. B. ergogenic drugs. C. over-the-counter drugs. D. prescription drugs.

True

True or False A synergistic drug interaction can be dangerous or even deadly

A

Chelsea occasionally takes aspirin to relieve a headache. Chelsea is A. using an over-the-counter (OTC) drug. B. engaging in drug abuse. C. likely to develop cross-tolerance. D. using a transdermal drug.

C

David spends four hours a day lifting weights and is at the point of obsession about his fitness routine to the extent that he will miss classes and outings with friends so he can go to the gym. He most likely suffers from which of the following disorders? A. bipolar disorder B. anorexia nervosa C. exercise addiction D. bulimia

True

True or False: Endorphins are hormones that act as "the body’s own opioids" in their ability to reduce pain and produce feelings of well-being.

True

True or False: Exercise addicts turn to exercise in an attempt to meet needs for nurturance, self-esteem, etc.

B

Heroin has a A. high potential for addiction and limited medical use. B. high potential for addiction and no accepted medical use. C. low potential for addiction and no accepted medical use. D. high potential for addiction and accepted medical use.

D

Jason doesn’t see that his addiction to heroin is self-destructive. He is experiencing A. obsession. B. compulsion. C. loss of control. D. denial.

C

Long-term effects of marijuana include all the following EXCEPT A. increased risk of testicular cancer in males. B. increased risk of lung disorders. C. increased production of testosterone in males. D. increased risk of developing serious mental health problems.

D

Marijuana smoke and tobacco smoke both contain dangerous substances known as A. hallucinogens. B. depressants. C. stimulants. D. carcinogens.

B

Marijuana use presents clear dangers to those driving motor vehicles (as well as others on the road) because it A. negatively affects night vision. B. slows reaction time and impedes decision making. C. alters color and depth perception. D. may cause seizures.

A

Mescaline A. is derived from a cactus. B. takes effect very fast. C. is a depressant. D. has a pleasant, sweet taste.

True

True or False Mescaline, in the form of dried peyote buttons, has long been used for religious purposes by people native to the southwestern United States and Latin America.

C

Opioids are also called A. depressants. B. stimulants. C. narcotics. D. hallucinogens.

D

People with a physiological dependence on a substance, such as an addictive drug, will experience A. withdrawal but not tolerance. B. tolerance but not withdrawal. C. neither tolerance nor withdrawal. D. both tolerance and withdrawal.

True

True or False: Prescription drug abuse has increased dramatically among college students over the past 10 years.

B

Psychoactive drugs have which type of effect on the body? A. They potentiate the effect of other drugs on the nervous system. B. They enhance, suppress, or interfere with the actions of neurotransmitters. C. They speed up energy metabolism and body movements. D. They depress or slow all body functions.

False

True or False: Psychological dependence, which involves feelings of well-being or euphoria, is completely separate from physiological dependence on a substance.

B

Stimulants such as Ritalin or Adderall are commonly prescribed to treat A. insomnia. B. ADHD. C. hypertension. D. anxiety.

D

The development of a tolerance to one drug that reduces the effects of another similar drug is A. antagonism. B. synergism. C. intolerance. D. cross-tolerance.

A

The interaction of two or more drugs at the same receptor site in which one blocks the action of the other is A. antagonism. B. synergism. C. intolerance. D. cross-tolerance.

B

The interaction of two or more drugs in which the effects of the individual drugs are compounded or multiplied is A. antagonism. B. synergism. C. intolerance. D. cross-tolerance.

B

The most popular form of LSD is A. a powder that is snorted. B. blotter acid that is swallowed or chewed. C. a pill that is swallowed. D. a liquid that is injected into the veins.

C

The process of freeing the body from an addictive substance is known as A. mainlining. B. counseling. C. detoxification. D. rehabilitation

C

Using a drug for a purpose other than that for which it is intended is A. drug abuse. B. drug use. C. drug misuse. D. drug tolerance.

A

When drugs activate the brain’s pleasure circuit, what neurotransmitter is involved? A. dopamine B. ketamine C. melamine D. amphetamine

C

Which of the following is TRUE about psilocybin? A. It is the active chemical in a type of grass. B. Its physical effects wear off in 1-2 hours. C. It can cause hallucinations. D. It is similar to marijuana in its physical effects.

True

True of False: Withdrawal and tolerance are key aspects of addiction.

C

Long-term effects of marijuana include all the following EXCEPT A. increased risk of testicular cancer in males. B.increased risk of lung disorders. C. increased production of testosterone in males. D. increased risk of developing serious mental health problems.

C

A driver is always impaired when he or she has a blood alcohol concentration of A. 0.03 percent or higher. B. 0.05 percent or higher. C. 0.08 percent or higher. D. 0.10 percent or higher.

C

After a night of heavy drinking, John still appears sober while his friends are obviously intoxicated. It is likely that John has developed A. alcoholic acceptance. B. nonalcoholic personality. C. learned behavioral tolerance. D. alcohol consumption tolerance.

A

An addictive drug produced by fermentation is A. ethyl alcohol. B. congener. C. acetaldehyde. D. dehydrogenase.

D

Drinking games result in the consumption of large quantities of alcohol in a short period of time and have been associated with A. paranoid behavior. B. developing respiratory problems. C. muscle and joint disorders. D. death from alcohol poisoning.

A

Eating food when drinking alcohol A. slows alcohol absorption. B. speeds up alcohol absorption. C. decreases the absorption of nutrients in food. D. increases the absorption of nutrients in food.

C

How many Americans suffer from health disorders caused by tobacco each year? A. half a million B. 2 million C. 10 million D. 16 million

D

If you know you will be at an event where alcohol will be served, what can you do to drink responsibly? A. Attend with friends who drink more than you do. B. Make sure that someone else has volunteered to be a designated driver. C. Don’t eat for several hours before the event. D. Eat shortly before you go and alternate alcoholic and nonalcoholic drinks

D

Marketing of tobacco products currently targets all of the following EXCEPT A. ethnic and minority groups through sponsorship of community events. B. women through ads implying social acceptance. C. men through ads implying masculinity and ruggedness. D. affluent citizens in high-income areas.

Fasle

True or False:Mixing alcohol with energy drinks reduces the level of alcohol impairment.

C

Nicotine paralyzes the cilia on the surfaces of upper respiratory passages and prevents them from A. enhancing ventilation. B. producing mucus. C. cleaning out foreign matter. D. stimulating the cough reflex

C

Smokeless tobacco users A. generally take longer to develop cancer after first use than smokers. B. are 10 times more likely to develop oral cancers than nonusers. C. are 50 times more likely to develop oral cancers than nonusers. D. have an easier time quitting than cigarette smokers.

D

Smoking contributes to heart disease by doing all of the following EXCEPT A. weakening tissues. B. increasing platelet adhesiveness. C. decreasing HDL cholesterol. D. thinning the plaque in the major blood vessels.

B

Symptoms of nicotine withdrawal include all of the following EXCEPT A. irritability. B. weakness in the limbs. C. nausea and vomiting. D. restlessness.

B

The effects of alcohol are different for women and men because A. women have lower levels of body fat than men. B. women have lower levels of alcohol dehydrogenase than men. C. women are not affected by congeners. D. men are not affected by congeners.

A

The effects of fetal alcohol syndrome include A. mental retardation. B. abnormally large head size. C. Down’s syndrome. D. passive and calm behavior.

D

The last stage of liver disease that can result from years of heavy drinking is A. alcoholic hepatitis. B. hepatic amyloidosis. C. fibrosis. D. cirrhosis.

C

The ratio of alcohol to total blood volume is the A. complete blood count. B. red blood cell volume. C. blood alcohol concentration. D. ethyl alcohol density.

B

The reduction in alcohol-related driving fatalities since the 1980s is due to A. an increased number of rehabilitation facilities. B. zero tolerance laws and increased drinking age. C. less restrictive enforcement of laws in some states. D. a decreased drinking age in many states.

A

The toxic chemical byproduct of alcohol metabolism that causes nausea and vomiting is called A. acetaldehyde. B. acetate. C. alcohol dehydrogenase. D. transacetate.

B

What effect does carbon monoxide have on the body? A. It impairs the cilia’s cleansing function. B. It diminishes the oxygen-carrying capacity of the red blood cells. C. It diminishes hormone production. D. It irritates nasal passages and lung tissue.

C

What is the percentage of alcohol in 100 proof whiskey? A. 80 percent B. 40 percent C. 50 percent D. 20 percent

C

What substance in cigarettes decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells? A. menthol B. tar C. carbon monoxide D. nicotine

D

When personal and health problems related to alcohol use have become severe and a person suffers withdrawal symptoms if they don’t drink, they have reached the point of alcoholism or A. tolerance. B. binge drinking. C. inebriation. D. alcohol dependence.

D

Which of the following statements about college drinking is TRUE? A. Three-quarters of college students are classified as heavy episodic drinkers. B. The majority of college students drink alcohol on a daily basis. C. Few students experience negative consequences as a result of alcohol consumption. D. Female college students’ alcohol consumption is now close to that of male college students.

D

Which of the following is FALSE about smokeless tobacco? A. It is just as addictive as smoking. B. It contains more nicotine than cigarettes. C. Dental problems are common among smokeless tobacco users. D. It does not contain cancer-causing substances.

A

Which of the following occurs within 24 hours of quitting smoking? A. Chance of heart attack decreases. B. Coughing and shortness of breath decrease. C. Circulation improves. D. Cilia regrow in the lungs

B

Which of the following is TRUE with respect to women and smoking? A. Women have less chance of developing smoking-related diseases than men. B. Women who smoke are more likely to have fertility problems than non-smokers. C. Women smoke at about half the rate that men do. D. Women can smoke occasionally during pregnancy without ill effects.

D

Which of the following is NOT true about alcohol absorption? A. Alcohol can be diffused from the stomach lining into the bloodstream. B. Almost 80 percent of alcohol is absorbed in the small intestine. C. Alcohol can be absorbed throughout the entire gastrointestinal system. D. Carbonated alcoholic beverages are absorbed less rapidly than those containing no sparkling additives.

C

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of alcohol poisoning? A. inability to be roused B. weak, rapid pulse C. yellowish tint to the skin D. irregular breathing patterns

A

Which of the following statements about nicotine is TRUE? A. It is a powerful central nervous system stimulant. B. It is mildly addictive. C. It causes a drop in blood pressure. D. It decreases production of adrenaline.

B

Alicia doesn’t eat meat, cheese, or eggs. She is making her shopping list for the week and wants to make sure that she buys beans, nuts, grains, and seeds to meet her protein needs. Combining two or more of these plant sources in a meal will provide her with A. simple carbohydrates. B. complementary proteins. C. resistant proteins. D. omega-3 fats.

D

All the following are good sources of complex carbohydrates EXCEPT A. oatmeal. B. spinach. C. carrots. D. milk.

B

An increase in the spread of foodborne illness could be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT A. the globalization of the food supply. B. increased consumption of locally grown or raised food. C. the inadvertent introduction of pathogens into new geographic regions. D. insufficient education about food safety.

A

Calories from saturated fats and/or sugar in foods that have little or no nutritional value, such as ice cream and soda, are called A. empty calories. B. non-nutritive calories. C. soluble calories. D. nutrient-dense calories.

C

Dietary fats that are solid at room temperature are made up mostly of A. essential fatty acids. B. polyunsaturated fatty acids. C. saturated fatty acids. D. monounsaturated fatty acids.

Fasle

True or False:Fats should make up less than 10 percent of daily calories consumed.

B

Foods believed to have additional health benefits beyond the basic nutrition they provide are known as A. health foods. B. functional foods. C. curative foods. D. organic foods.

B

High levels of this type of cholesterol appear to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis, or cholesterol-clogged arteries. A. LDL B. HDL C. Triglycerides D. ADL

True

True or False: Individuals need more protein if they are pregnant, fighting off a serious infection, or recovering from surgery or burns.

True

True or False: Many processed foods contain added sodium and sugar.

C

Molecules that are the building blocks of protein are A. minerals. B. starches. C. amino acids. D. fatty acids.

C

On a food product label, the amount shown as % Daily Value shows A. how many servings are in the package. B. the number of calories in a serving. C. how much of an average adult’s allowance for a nutrient is in one serving. D. the food’s nutrient-density score.

A

One of the keys to eating well in college is to A. eat a complete breakfast. B. never eat meals out. C. only eat salad. D. avoid all fats.

B

The body converts all forms of simple sugars into which of the following substances to provide energy to cells? A. maltose B. glucose C. starch D. glycogen

B

The chief function of this mineral in the body is to make teeth resistant to decay and bones resistant to mineral loss. A. calcium B. fluoride C. magnesium D. phosphorus

D

The complex carbohydrate form of a sugar that is stored in the liver and muscles is A. glucagon. B. galactose. C. glucose. D. glycogen.

A

The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is A. iron deficiency. B. sodium deficiency. C. calcium deficiency. D. potassium deficiency

B

The psychological desire to eat is A. craving. B. appetite. C. nutrition. D. hunger.

C

What percentage of a person’s body weight is water? A. 10 to 30 percent B. 30 to 50 percent C. 50 to 70 percent D. 70 to 90 percent

B

What proportion of people avoid a particular food because they think they are allergic to it? A. about one-tenth B. about one-third C. about one-half D. about one-fourth

B

What type of proteins contain all nine essential amino acids? A. incomplete B. complete C. plant-source D. complementary

B

When liquid oils are hydrogenated, A. LDLs are produced. B. trans fatty acids are produced. C. HDLs are produced. D. cholesterol is produced.

D

Which form of fat poses high risks for heart disease and cardiac-related death? A. omega-3 fats B. omega-6 fats C. monounsaturated fats D. trans fats

B

Which of the following foods is an example of an incomplete protein? A. steak B. kidney beans C. eggs D. fish

D

Which of the following is essential for life and is the major component of blood? A. carbohydrates B. proteins C. fats D. water

D

Which of the following is a good tip for simple, healthy eating while going to college? A. Buy packaged foods to save money. B. Make sure half of what you eat is protein. C. Eat as much as possible when you can to avoid getting hungry later. D. Eat snacks such as dried fruit, nuts, and yogurt without added sugar.

B

Which of the following statements is TRUE about organic foods as compared to traditionally grown foods? A. They have better nutrient quality. B. They are likely to have lower pesticide residues. C. They are declining in sales and market share. D. They are always locally grown and produced.

B

Which of the following vitamins is readily excreted from the body in urine and unlikely to develop to toxic levels? A. vitamin A B. vitamin C C. vitamin D D. vitamin E

D

Which of the following could be included in a vegan diet? A. eggs B. raw milk C. fish D. apples

D

Which substances protect against oxidative stress and the resultant cell damage? A. hormones B. enzymes C. proteins D. antioxidants

C

A 20-year-old female with a BMI of 34 would be categorized as A. athletic. B. healthy. C. obese. D. morbidly obese.

A

A 26-year-old male would be considered obese if he A. has a body mass index of 30 or higher. B. is 15 percent heavier than his ideal weight. C. has a body fat percentage of 20 percent. D. has a body mass index of 22-24.

True

True of False: About one-third of people who undergo gastric surgery for weight loss relapse within five years.

B

A good way to control portion sizes when you eat at home is to A. serve the food buffet style to reduce trips to the kitchen. B. serve meals on smaller plates. C. eat more frozen and convenience foods. D. eat restaurant leftovers several times a week.

A

All of the following are scientific methods for determining body composition EXCEPT A. height and weight tables. B. bioelectrical impedance analysis. C. skinfold measures. D. hydrostatic measures.

True

True or False: A mother’s decision to bottle-feed her baby, as opposed to breast-feeding, would increase the child’s chances of becoming obese.

C

Annie had a long day at work and has an overwhelming craving for pasta. She decides to ask her friend Nicole to meet her at their favorite Italian restaurant. Annie is experiencing A. adaptive thermogenesis. B. hunger. C. appetite. D. satiety.

A

Emotions or situations that cause a person to make unhealthy eating choices are A. triggers. B. pressures. C. behaviors. D. feelings.

True

True or False: Extremely low body fat can contribute to loss of menstrual period.

A

Foods consumed to meet emotional needs or reduce emotional insecurities are called A. comfort foods. B. social foods. C. junk foods. D. convenience foods.

C

Glenna is trying to determine her healthy weight. She should assess A. how her weight compares to that of her friends. B. how often her weight fluctuates up and down and in what increments. C. her percentage of body fat and how her weight is distributed. D. how her clothes fit.

C

In planning a weight management program that has the BEST chance of success you must A. decide to eliminate all fat from the diet. B. think of weight management as a temporary phase. C. establish short- and long-term plans. D. follow a formal plan such as Weight Watchers

B

In working to improve your eating habits, one important step to take is to A. hire a nutritional life coach. B. eat more slowly and stop when you begin to feel full. C. read the best-selling diet books and choose a diet to follow. D. go on an all-liquid diet for the first two weeks to cleanse your system.

B

Liposuction is used to A. restrict the calories absorbed by the body. B. spot reduce or contour body shape. C. decrease levels of leptin. D. reroute the passage of food through the body.

B

One dangerous consequence of very-low-calorie diets is that they increase the individual’s risk for a condition in which the blood levels become acidic. This is known as A. anemia. B. ketoacidosis. C. hypertension. D. stenosis.

A

One problem with the BMI measurement is that it A. is an indirect estimate of body fat. B. requires the use of special laboratory equipment. C. takes too long to calculate. D. cannot be used for children

A

Over-the-counter weight loss aids and supplements typically contain A. diuretics. B. vitamins. C. antidepressants. D. minerals.

C

The body naturally experiences an increased metabolic rate A. when we adopt a reduced-calorie diet. B. as we age. C. during pregnancy. D. during sleep

B

The concept of adaptive thermogenesis attempts to explain how A. genetics influences childhood obesity. B. thin people can consume large amounts of calories without gaining weight. C. people’s bodies conserve calories in very hot and very cold environments. D. metabolic rate slows down as we age.

True

True or False: The exercise metabolic rate would be lower for walking versus jogging.

D

The measure of energy expended while a person is engaged in sedentary activities, such as sitting on a sofa or digesting food, is the A. calorie intake. B. basal metabolic rate. C. exercise metabolic rate. D. resting metabolic rate.

B

The method of body composition measurement that sends a small current through the body to measure the resistance based on percentage of body water is A. electrical conductivity test. B. bioelectrical impedance analysis. C. soft tissue roentgenogram. D. dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry.

B

The minimum amount of energy the body uses at complete rest is known as the A. resting metabolic rate. B. basal metabolic rate. C. metabolic balance. D. energy balance.

False

True or False: The prevalence of obesity is consistent across all subpopulations in the United States.

False

True or False:Two males of equal size and leanness but different ages will burn the same amount of calories at rest.

C

When eating a very-low-calorie diet for prolonged periods, the body may begin to obtain fuel from A. minerals stored in bone. B. fluid reabsorption by the kidneys. C. protein in lean body tissue. D. glycogen stored in the brain.

C

Which of the following is TRUE with respect to genetics and obesity? A. Adopted children are more likely to be similar in weight to their adopted parents as compared to their biological parents. B. Although genes may influence fat distribution, they do not affect metabolism. C. Studies reveal that identical twins are more likely than fraternal twins to be of similar weight. D. Studies reveal that fraternal twins are more likely than identical twins to be of similar weight.

C

Which of the following is FALSE about weight management? A. Low-calorie diets almost always result in regained weight. B. Careful attention to portions is a key factor in sustained weight loss. C. Short-term diets are as effective as long-term behavior modification. D. Restrictive diets may be both physiologically and psychologically harmful.

B

Which theory holds that our bodies fight to maintain our weight within a particular narrow range? A. hormone adjustment theory B. set point theory C. thrifty gene theory D. adaptive thermogenesis theory

C

Which theory holds that some people have a genetic disposition toward fat storage and retaining weight? A. hormone adjustment theory B. set point theory C. thrifty gene theory D. adaptive thermogenesis theory

B

According to cancer experts, what percentage of cancers could be prevented by being physically active and eating a healthy diet? A. one-quarter B. one-third C. one-half D. three-quarters

C

A muscle’s ability to perform contractions for a length of time is muscle A. flexibility. B. strength. C. endurance. D. extension.

A

An example of an exercise to build core strength would be A. abdominal curl-ups. B. jogging. C. hip stretches. D. toe touches.

D

An example of a SMART goal is A. I want to lose twenty pounds. B. I’m going to get fit by exercising more. C. I plan to get my high blood pressure into the normal range by next month. D. I’ll sign up for the strength-training class and try to increase the weight I can lift by 20% by the end of the term.

A

A potentially fatal condition resulting from abnormally low body core temperature is called A. hypothermia. B. hyperthermia. C. temperature deprivation. D. thermal atrophy.

C

A sprained ankle should be iced A. every two hours for the first 24 hours. B. three times a day for the first 24 to 72 hours. C. for 20 minutes every hour for the first 24 to 72 hours. D. every hour for the first 24 hours

True

True or False:A woman who does weight-bearing exercise will likely have higher bone mass and bone density than a woman who doesn’t.

B

Bryan enjoys going for a 5-mile run as a way to wind down after his last class. Bryan should A. eat a large meal providing carbs, fats, and proteins about an hour before he heads out for his run. B. eat a small carbohydrate-rich snack about an hour before he heads out for his run. C. drink a "performance-enhancing" protein shake immediately before he heads out for his run. D. eat nothing for at least 3 hours before he heads out for his run.

False

True or False: During the initial conditioning stage of a fitness program, it is important to exercise at high intensity to get in shape more quickly.

C

Except for physical education classes in elementary and high school, Jayleen has been sedentary all her life. Motivated by her mother’s recent diagnosis of high blood pressure, Jayleen, now a junior in college, wants to improve her physical fitness. Her first step should be to A. consult a Registered Dietitian Nutritionist. B. hire a personal trainer. C. get her primary healthcare provider’s clearance for exercise. D. sign up for an aerobics class

A

Exercise can improve mental health by A. affecting neurotransmitters associated with mood enhancement. B. decreasing endorphin production after exercise. C. burning off the byproducts of metabolism. D. straining the muscles and joints.

C

For an aerobic exercise such as a Latin dance class, which measurement would you use to confirm that you are working at 64 percent to 96 percent of your maximal heart rate for improved cardiorespiratory fitness? A. number of sets B. number of repetitions C. target heart rate D. target respiratory rate

C

Good advice to someone who wants to exercise in hot weather would include all of the following EXCEPT A. wear appropriate clothing. B. exercise in early morning or evening, when temperatures are cooler. C. restrict the intake of fluids before working out. D. avoid dehydration.

B

If a person working in his yard on a very hot summer day begins to experience nausea, headache, dizziness, faintness, and the chills, he could be suffering from A. heat cramps. B. heat exhaustion. C. heatstroke. D. heat fatigue.

C

In a fitness program, increasing the amount of weight you lift over time is an example of A. the specificity principle. B. overloading. C. repetition. D. endurance exercise.

False

True or False: It is not physiologically possible to drink too much water.

B

It is wise to deal with being outdoors in cold temperatures by A. wearing lightweight clothing to aid air circulation. B. being out on a day with low humidity. C. wearing layered clothing and keeping hydrated. D. restricting the intake of fluids before going out.

B

Regular aerobic exercise can reduce which type of cholesterol, known as "bad cholesterol"? A. HDLs B. LDLs C. triglycerides D. essential fatty acids

C

Regular physical activity has been linked to all of the following EXCEPT A. lower risk for diabetes. B. reduction in hypertension. C. lower life expectancy. D. improved bone mass.

B

The amount of force that a muscle is capable of exerting is referred to as A. muscular endurance. B. muscular strength. C. aerobic capacity. D. overload.

A

The range of motion that a joint or series of joints can achieve is A. flexibility. B. strength. C. endurance. D. extension.

A

What are the components of the FITT principle that apply to all types of exercise? A. frequency, intensity, time, and type B. fitness, intensity, tension, and time C. frequency, information, time, and tempo D. fitness, involvement, time, and type

B

What is the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services’ recommendation for the minimum amount of moderate-intensity exercise for adults? A. 100 minutes per week B. 150 minutes per week C. 200 minutes per week D. 250 minutes per week

D

When developing a strength-training program, if you want to increase muscular strength, you need A. a varied exercise selection. B. a consistent number of repetitions and sets. C. lower intensity and a higher number of repetitions and sets. D. higher intensity and fewer repetitions and sets.

C

When doing some form of aerobic exercise, you are at a moderate level of intensity when you are A. barely able to catch your breath. B. able to sing clearly. C. able to converse with someone. D. able to talk in short fragments only.

D

Which form of exercise combines stretching with movement against resistance and often involves the use of devices such as tension springs or heavy rubber bands? A. weight training B.yoga C. static stretching D. Pilates

B

Which of the following is TRUE about target heart rate? A. It is a measure of the heart rate after 20 minutes of exercise. B. It is a percentage of your maximum heart rate. C. It is the threshold level of exercise at which one cannot talk and exercise comfortably. D. It varies by a person’s body weight.

D

Which of the following statements is TRUE about tai chi? A. Tai chi increases flexibility through the use of sanas (poses). B. Tai chi originated in India about 5,000 years ago. C. Tai chi combines stretching and movement against resistance, which is aided by devices such as tension springs or heavy rubber bands. D. Tai chi is an ancient Chinese form of exercise that promotes balance, coordination, and meditation.

D

Which of the following is the most serious form of heat-stress illness? A. heat cramps B. heat exhaustion C. heat response D. heatstroke

A

Which of the following is an example of a test that assesses muscular endurance? A. partial curl-up test B. maximum repetition test C. sit-and-reach test D.1.5-mile run test

A

A biopsy reveals that a woman who has had breast cancer now has cancer in her lymph nodes. The process of cancer spreading from one organ or body area to others is A. metastasis. B. transference. C. transvergence. D. malignance.

C

A construction company used asbestos on many job sites over the years. Asbestos is a(n) A. widely used dye. B. radioactive material. C. environmental carcinogen. D. pesticide.

False

True or False: A family history of heart disease has a much greater influence on risk than factors such as an unhealthful diet, smoking, a sedentary lifestyle, obesity, and a high stress level.

C

All of the following are warning signs of melanoma EXCEPT A. asymmetrical shape. B. edges that are uneven or scalloped. C. a uniform brown color. D. a diameter larger than a pea.

False

True or False: A majority of Americans who are diagnosed with cancer are dead within five years.

True

True or False: An aneurysm in the brain can cause a stroke.

B

A reduction in the oxygen supply to a part of the body or an organ such as the heart is known as A. angina pectoris. B. ischemia. C. atherosclerosis. D. myocardial infarction.

A

Aspirin is sometimes recommended for treating cardiovascular disease because it A. reduces the risk of clot formation. B. increases the absorption of nutrients in cardiac muscle. C.increases the body’s excretion of sodium. D. is part of thrombolysis therapy.

C

A woman goes to the emergency room. She tells the nurse that after carrying several loads of laundry up a flight of stairs she is having chest pain and a sensation she describes as her heart being crushed. Which condition is she likely experiencing? A. peripheral artery disease B. heart attack C. angina pectoris D. stroke

A

Cardiometabolic risk (CMR) is A. a set of risk factors that affect both cardiovascular health and the body’s metabolic processes. B. a group of metabolic conditions occurring together that increase the risk for cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes. C.the cardiovascular and metabolic factors that together increase the risk for cognitive decline. D. a measurement of a given individual’s risk for coronary artery disease and/or type 2 diabetes.

D

Consistently elevated blood pressure is the condition known as A. arrhythmia. B. angina pectoris. C. ischemia. D. hypertension.

B

Homocysteine is an amino acid that when found at high levels in the blood may indicate an increased risk of A. Alzheimer’s disease. B. cardiovascular disease. C. Parkinson’s disease. D. cancer.

C

How many adult Americans suffer from some type of cardiovascular disease? A. one out of five B. one out of four C. one out of three D. one out of two

B

In the ABCD rule for the warning signs of melanoma, the B stands for A. bleeding. B. border irregularity. C. beyond localized. D. basal carcinoma.

B

"Mini-strokes" that cause only temporary impairment and that can indicate an impending stroke are A. congestive heart failure (CHF). B. transient ischemic attacks (TIAs). C. aneurysms. D. arrhythmias.

B

Of the following lifestyle choices, the MOST helpful for achieving an improved HDL to LDL ratio is to A. reduce the amount of cholesterol in your diet. B. engage in regular exercise. C. increase your intake of dietary protein. D. increase your intake of simple carbohydrates.

B

One reason exercise might decrease breast cancer risk is that A. it increases appetite. B. it typically decreases body fat. C. it involves social support. D. it increases self-esteem.

C

Patrick is going to begin chemotherapy to treat a type of lymphoma. Which of the following side effects is he likely to experience? A. lowered risk of infection B. rapid heartbeat C. nausea, fatigue, and hair loss D. memory loss

D

Prostate cancer risk A. has no correlation to family history. B. is highest among Latino men. C. is not affected by diet. D. increases dramatically with age.

D

The most lethal form of skin cancer is A. metastatic sarcoma. B. squamous cell carcinoma. C. basal cell carcinoma. D. malignant melanoma.

D

To reduce their risk for prostate cancer, men over 40 are encouraged to have A. an annual fecal occult blood test. B. a one-time genetic test. C. an annual PSA test. D. an annual digital rectal examination.

A

Which diagnostic test records the electrical activity of the heart? A. electrocardiogram B. angiogram C. magnetic resonance imaging D. cardiac calcium score

C

Which diagnostic test produces a three-dimensional image of the heart as blood flows through it? A. angiography B. computed tomography C. magnetic resonance imaging D. positron emission tomography

B

Which of the following body shapes represents a higher risk for heart disease? A. pear B. apple C. hourglass D. pencil

D

Which of the following is TRUE with respect to tumors? A. A benign tumor is always harmless, whereas a malignant tumor can be fatal. B. A malignant tumor is usually encapsulated and can metastasize. C. A benign tumor can invade surrounding tissue, producing mutant cells, but it will not metastasize. D. A malignant tumor can invade surrounding tissue, produce mutant cells, and metastasize.

D

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for colorectal cancer? A. obesity B. family history C. low intake of fruits and vegetables D. regular exercise

B

Which of the following strategies may lower the risk for ovarian cancer? A. not having children B. having annual pelvic exams C. having a mother with a history of breast cancer D. taking fertility drugs

C

Which of the following is a cancer that occurs in bones, muscles, and/or connective tissue? A. lymphoma B. carcinoma C. sarcoma D. leukemia

A

Which of the following is TRUE in regard to atherosclerosis? A. It is characterized by a buildup of substances within the arteries that form plaque. B. It is easily reversed with medication and exercise. C. It only starts to develop after the age of 50. D. Males are much more likely to develop it than are women.

C

Which of the following would NOT be a contributing cause of congestive heart failure? A. rheumatic fever B. radiation or chemotherapy C. reaction to a tetanus vaccination D. pneumonia

C

After a relaxing week of backpacking and camping in the woods, during which you enjoyed drinking cool water from a creek, you have returned to school. Since you got back, you are experiencing abdominal cramps that won’t go away. This condition is probably not the result of schoolwork overload, but rather something you picked up during your camping trip. You likely have A. malaria. B. trichomoniasis. C. giardiasis. D. fungi.

B

A key reason for the resurgence of measles and mumps infections is A. an increased mosquito population. B. a public backlash against vaccinations. C. the rise of the HIV/AIDS epidemic. D. poor sanitation and hygiene in certain areas.

False

True or False: All bacteria can cause disease in humans.

D

All of the following must happen for a disease to occur EXCEPT A. the host must be susceptible. B. an agent must transmit a disease. C. the environment must promote it. D. the host must never have had the disease before.

D

All of the following behaviors will compromise your immune system’s ability to fight infections EXCEPT A. not getting enough sleep. B. eating junk food. C.excessive alcohol consumption. D. exercising regularly.

D

All of the following are recommended for avoiding contracting or spreading a respiratory infection EXCEPT A. coughing or sneezing into a tissue or your sleeve. B. washing hands often with hot, soapy water. C. keeping your hands away from your face. D. going to work while sick as long as you take medication.

B

A substance that triggers an immune response is a(n) A. pathogen. B. antigen. C. antibody. D. toxin.

A

Delay in seeking medical care for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) increases the risk of permanent damage and scarring that can lead to A. infertility and other complications. B. bleeding between periods. C. painful urination. D. painful intercourse.

A

Disease-causing agents are called A. pathogens. B. antibodies. C. carcinogens. D. infectious microorganisms.

Fasle

True or False: Herpes can be cured in its early stages with proper antibiotic treatment.

D

HIV can potentially be transmitted through all of the following EXCEPT A. a condom breaking during vaginal intercourse. B. sharing a razor with an infected person. C. receiving a blood transfusion prior to 1985. D. sharing food utensils with an infected person.

Fasle

True or False: Interspecies transmission of infectious disease does not occur.

B

Last summer, Mallory began a sexual relationship with a man she later discovered was a user of IV drugs. Now Mallory has hepatitis. Which type is she most likely to have? A. hepatitis A B. hepatitis B C. hepatitis C D. hepatitis D

Fasle

True or False: Oral sex carries no risk for STIs.

True

True or False: Proper use of a condom during sexual activity does not guarantee protection against STIs.

C

Sierra, now 31, has been trying to get pregnant since she got married 4 years ago. Her doctor suspects that their infertility problem was likely caused by her history of PID from the most commonly reported STI. During her early 20s, Sierra had contracted A. herpes simplex. B. gonorrhea. C. chlamydia. D. HIV/AIDS.

C

The CDC recommends HPV vaccination for A. girls beginning at age 13. B. boys beginning at age 13. C. both boys and girls beginning at age 11. D. all teens and adults, within six months of becoming sexually active

C

The common cold is always present in the population, meaning that it is A. pandemic. B. virulent. C. endemic. D. epidemic.

B

The common cold is which type of infection? A. fungal B. viral C. protozoan D. staphylococcal

True

True or False: Two high-risk behaviors associated with the development of HIV/AIDS are having unprotected sex and injecting drugs.

B

Two weeks ago your nephew came down with the chickenpox while visiting. Now you have itchy, crusted spots on your arms and you feel terrible. You probably were infected with the chickenpox virus when your nephew was there but did not get sick until now because of the A. immune response. B. incubation period. C. inoculation period. D. antibody activity.

A

When the body is invaded by antigens, the immune system forms substances called A. antibodies. B. macrophages. C. lymphocytes. D. helper cells.

C

Which bacterial infection affects the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord and for which college students living in dormitories are at a higher risk than other populations? A. tuberculosis B. pneumonia C. meningitis D. influenza

C

Which of the following is typically due to a staphylococcal infection? A. scarlet fever B. pneumonia C. acne D. lyme disease

B

Which of the following is a small form of toxin-producing bacteria carried by ticks that causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? A. ehrlichiosis B. rickettsia C. Lyme disease D. tuberculosis

D

Which STI occurs in stages over a period of years? A. chlamydia B. gonorrhea C. HPV D. syphilis

D

Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies develop in response to a vaccine? A. naturally acquired passive immunity B. naturally acquired active immunity C. artificially acquired passive immunity D. artificially acquired active immunity

A

Which type of immunity occurs when antibodies pass from mother to fetus via placenta or from mother to baby via breast milk? A. naturally acquired passive immunity B. naturally acquired active immunity C. artificially acquired passive immunity D. artificially acquired active immunity

B

While in the hospital, Daniel’s grandmother developed an inflammatory condition that involved a build-up of fluid in her lungs. His grandmother was suffering from A. tuberculosis. B. pneumonia. C. emphysema. D. influenza.

B

You want to decrease your risk of developing an infectious disease. Which of the following factors is within your individual control? A. heredity B. nutritional status C. environmental conditions D. age

C

A degenerative bone disease characterized by porous bones is A. fibromyalgia. B. rheumatoid arthritis. C. osteoporosis. D. osteoarthritis.

B

A document that stipulates a person’s wishes about medical care that is used to make treatment decisions when the individual becomes unable to communicate his or her preferences is a(n) A. advance notice. B. advance directive. C. health care power of attorney. D. legal medical record.

B

After his stroke at the age of 80, Austin developed urinary incontinence, meaning he has A. kidney failure. B. less control over elimination of urine from his bladder. C. slowing of the urinary stream flow. D. recurring urinary tract infections.

C

Aging is BEST defined as the A. degeneration of body structures and processes that occurs over time. B. individual and collective ways people cope with life’s changes. C. patterns of life changes that occur in members of all species as they grow older. D. progressive and irreversible decline in body functioning.

D

A joint condition that is characterized by the breakdown of cartilage is A. osteonecrosis. B. rheumatoid arthritis. C. osteoporosis. D. osteoarthritis.

C

All of the following sexual changes occur in aging men EXCEPT A. diminished ability to obtain an erection. B. longer refractory period between orgasms. C. extended duration of orgasm. D. decline in the angle of the erection

A

All of the following are strategies for healthy aging EXCEPT A. developing a strong sense of social independence. B. appreciating the spiritual side of life. C. improving fitness. D. eating well.

C

Among elderly persons, disorientation caused by drug interactions may at first be confused with which more serious condition? A. drug addiction B. diabetes C. dementia D. depression

True

True or False:Anger is a normal part of the grief process.

A

Care that focuses on relieving the pain and other symptoms of a serious illness to improve quality of life for patients and families is A. palliative care. B. skilled nursing care. C. grief counseling. D. end-of-life care

C

Jean’s hearing has diminished over the years. She probably has the most difficulty hearing A. conversation at the dinner table. B. the sermon at church. C. the birds chirping in her garden. D. a conversation over the telephone.

D

Lawrence is 47 years old and has become frustrated because his vision is no longer sharp enough to do crossword puzzles unless he wears magnifying eyeglasses he purchased at his local drug store. He probably has A. cataracts. B. glaucoma. C. macular degeneration. D. normal age-related vision loss.

C

Miles is 75 and he has been diagnosed with presbycusis. What can he do to help him cope with this problem? A. Take daily showers to prevent infection. B. Use special eye drops in his eyes to relieve pressure in his eyes. C. Wear hearing aids. D. Inject insulin twice a day to keep his pancreas functioning properly.

C

Monica was president of the local chapter of Future Business Leaders of America during her senior year. After Monica was diagnosed with an aggressive form of lymphoma, her classmates stopped talking about their career plans in front of her. Monica was experiencing A. bereavement. B. depression. C. social death. D. peer rejection.

False

True or False:Most older people end up living in a nursing home.

A

Nutrients considered especially important for healthy aging include A. calcium, vitamin D, and protein. B. sodium, chloride, and magnesium. C. vitamins A, C, and E. D. red wine, lean proteins, and fatty fish.

A

Osteoporosis would most likely result in A. a wrist fracture as the result of a fall. B. arthritis in the lower back and knees. C. redistribution of body fat in the trunk region. D. a high bone density

C

People 65 and older make up what percentage of the U.S. population? A. around 5 percent B. around 9 percent C. around 14 percent D. around 21 percent

A

Phillip was involved in a car crash and placed on a respirator. After his family had the respirator removed, he was nonresponsive, with no reflexes and a flat EEG. These vital signs indicate Phillip has experienced A. brain death. B. hyperthermic death. C. myocardial death. D. hypothermic death.

B

Progressive brain impairments that interfere with memory and normal intellectual functioning are A. Alzheimer’s disease. B. dementias. C. brain tumors. D. Parkinson’s disease.

C

Successful aging involves all of the following EXCEPT A. avoiding debilitating diseases and disability by eating a healthy diet, exercising, and not smoking. B. maintaining cognitive function and engaging in mentally challenging tasks. C. refusing to accept physical, emotional, and social changes associated with growing older. D. participating in meaningful activities, including social, family, and volunteer activities.

D

Which of the following statements about the baby boomer generation is TRUE? A. As baby boomers retire, more funds will enter the Social Security system. B. There are about 3 million baby boomers in the U.S. today. C. Baby boomers are an unusually small segment of the population born in the aftermath of World War II. D. Baby boomers are people born between the late 1940s and the early 1960s

A

Which of the following is TRUE about hospice care? A. It provides care for a terminally ill patient and his or her family. B. It is based on the patient’s or family’s ability to pay for the care. C. It lacks the counselors and clergy that a hospital would have on staff. D. It is only provided in a nursing home setting.

D

Which of the following statements about aging is TRUE? A. The number of Americans age 65 and up is growing, but the number of Americans age 85 and up is not. B. Over 60% of Americans age 65 and older have hypertension. C. Nearly one-third of Americans over age 85 live in a nursing home. D. Nearly 10% of America’s senior citizens live in poverty.

D

Which of the following BEST describes vision changes related to aging? A. The lens of the eye softens. B. The ability to see objects at a distance is lost. C. The lens becomes thinner and more transparent. D. The ability to see close objects diminishes.

B

Which of the following changes occurs as a result of aging? A. Hair turns grey and becomes thicker. B. The heart’s stroke volume diminishes. C. Bones become denser. D. The lungs’ vital capacity increases.

B

Which of the following statements about Alzheimer’s disease is FALSE? A. Nerve cells in the brain stop communicating with each other. B. If caught early, its progression can be stopped. C. It is a disease in which brain cells die. D. It affects personality as well as memory.

C

Which of the following is NOT one of the psychological stages of dying according to the Kübler-Ross model? A. denial B. depression C. resistance D. bargaining

B

William is 36 years old. Since his diagnosis of terminal cancer, he has been enraged—at his physicians, at his friends and family members, and at "the universe." Which stage of the Kübler-Ross model is William experiencing? A. denial B. anger C. bargaining D. depression

A

Your grandfather is having blurred vision in his right eye due to clouding of the lens. To improve his vision, he would need which type of surgery? A. cataract B. retinal C. glaucoma D. macular regeneration

D

A colorless gas that dissolves in water vapor to form acid and is emitted from coal-fired power plants is A. nitrogen dioxide. B. carbon monoxide. C. carbon dioxide. D. sulfur dioxide.

D

All of the following are examples of resources that reduce carbon emissions EXCEPT A. solar. B. wind. C. bioenergy. D. coal.

D

A measure of how clean or polluted the air in a given region is on a particular day is the A. smog level. B. carbon level. C. carbon footprint. D. air quality index.

D

As compared to today, by the year 2050, the world’s population is expected to A. decline by about 100 million people. B. stay about the same. C. increase by about 1 billion people. D. increase by about 2 billion people.

C

Chemicals used to kill insects and rodents are A. dioxins. B. solvents. C. pesticides. D. herbicides.

B

Economic development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the needs of future generations is called A. environmental development. B. sustainable development. C. progressive development. D. ecological development.

True

True or False: Evidence suggests that pollution levels within homes and other buildings can be 2 to 5 times higher than in outdoor air.

C

Experts analyze the carrying capacity of the earth to figure out A. how to increase available resources. B. the earth’s population over the next century. C. the maximum population the earth can support. D. how to ration resources for the existing population.

B

Gases that accumulate in the atmosphere and contribute to global warming by trapping heat near Earth’s surface are A. ionizing gases. B. greenhouse gases. C. stratospheric gases. D. hydrocarbons.

B

Marta collects kitchen scraps and yard clippings in a bin outside of her home to use in her garden. She is A. recycling. B. composting. C. combusting. D. source reducing.

B

Most experts agree that a key step in slowing climate change is to A. repeal all industrial waste laws. B. reduce consumption of fossil fuels. C. make cars larger and more efficient. D. eliminate mass transportation.

A

Motor vehicle exhaust is a source of which odorless, colorless gas that also contributes to the formation of smog? A. carbon monoxide B. lead C. carbon dioxide D. sulfur dioxide

B

Radiation exposure is measured in which of the following units (also called roentgens)? A. radiation ionized units B. radiation absorbed doses C.radiation exposed doses D. radiation frequency units

C

Reasons for continued population growth in many developing nations include all of the following circumstances for women EXCEPT A. lack of education. B. no access to birth control. C. rising economic status. D. little control over reproductive choices.

True

True or False: Runoff from a parking lot is considered nonpoint source pollution.

D

Seth has a sensitivity to mold. When he visits his grandparents and spends time in their damp basement, he likely experiences all of the following EXCEPT A. nasal congestion. B. eye and skin irritation. C. difficulty breathing. D. migraine headaches.

D

Smog tends to form in areas that experience A. high rainfall. B. dry conditions. C. a climate shift. D. a temperature inversion.

C

The average number of births a female in a given population has during her reproductive years is the A. conception rate. B. birth rate. C. fertility rate. D. reproductive rate.

B

The average person in the United States generates how many pounds of municipal solid waste each day? A. about 1.5 B. more than 4 C. more than 6 D. more than 8

B

The chemical originally contained in aerosol propellants that is thought to have contributed to the depletion of the ozone layer is A. carbon oxides. B. chlorofluorocarbons. C. fluorohydrochlorides. D. nitrous oxide.

B

The country projected to have the largest population by 2050 is A. China. B. India. C. Nigeria. D. Indonesia.

C

The greenhouse effect is A. the shift in seasonal temperatures and patterns of rainfall that has occurred in the last century. B. responsible for increasing the average temperature of the earth by about 8°F over the last century C. a natural phenomenon. D. an essential mechanism for keeping the planet cool enough to sustain life

C

The human body does not excrete polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) but instead stores them in the A. lungs. B. kidneys. C. liver. D. muscles.

A

The two general types of water pollution are described as A. point source and nonpoint source. B. toxic and nontoxic. C. runoff and nonrunoff. D. acid and nonacid.

Fasle

True or False: Toxic waste (hazardous waste) in landfills and dump sites can harm the environment but has little impact on human health.

D

When trying to ensure clean air in your home, sources of pollution to look for include all of the following EXCEPT A. radon. B. asbestos. C. formaldehyde. D. nitroglycerine.

B

Which inexpensive device can be attached to faucets and showerheads to reduce water consumption? A. filter B. aerator C. pump D. gasket

A

Which naturally occurring odorless, colorless gas seeps into homes and is a leading cause of lung cancer? A. radon B. asbestos C. lead D. mold

C

Which of the six major outdoor air pollutants is a metallic element that is also a significant concern indoors? A. dioxin B. formaldehyde C. lead D. sulfur

C

You have been looking at numerous new homes. The nausea and fatigue you are attributing to the stress of buying a new house may actually be due to exposure to A. asbestos. B. carbon monoxide. C. formaldehyde. D. radon.

C

A 70-year-old retired person would be eligible for health insurance coverage through A. COBRA. B. Medicaid. C. Medicare. D. Social Security.

D

An optometrist A. treats skeletal and muscular problems. B. prescribes medications to treat eye illnesses. C. fits individuals for prosthetic limbs. D. performs eye exams and prescribes and fits lenses.

B

A payment made to an insurance company, usually on a monthly basis, to cover the cost of an insurance policy is the A. deductible. B. premium. C. waiting period. D. lifetime limit.

B

A set fee that an insurance plan requires that patients pay at the time of service (per office visit or prescription) is the A. coinsurance. B. copayment. C. deductible. D. premium.

A

Before receiving any care, patients must be made aware of the treatment plan and any potential risks involved. This is known as the right A. of informed consent. B. to receive care. C. to privacy. D. to access medical records.

A

Categories established by the federal government to determine how much a hospital will be reimbursed for the care of a patient with a particular condition or multiple conditions are A. diagnosis-related groups. B. fee schedules. C. formulary tiers. D. diagnostic codes.

B

Conventional Western medical practice is known as A. naturopathic medicine. B. allopathic medicine. C. holistic medicine. D. homeopathic medicine.

A

Drugs that can be purchased without a prescription as part of self-care are A. over-the-counter drugs. B. generic drugs. C. brand-name drugs. D. formulary drugs.

A

Due to the differences in training, an osteopathic physician would probably have more experience dealing with which condition than a medical doctor? A. low back pain B. heart disease C. cancer D. kidney failure

A

If an insurance policy covers 90 percent of your total medical bills, the remaining 10 percent that you must pay is your A. coinsurance amount. B. copayment amount. C. deductible amount. D. premium amount.

D

If you are concerned about the costs of health care, which of the following practices should you avoid? A. obtaining recommended health screenings B. maintaining a healthy weight C. exercising regularly D. using the emergency room for your routine health care

D

If you have moved to a new town and want to find a physician you can see for annual wellness exams and the treatment of routine ailments, you are seeking a(n) A. in-network practitioner. B. allopathic practitioner. C. internal medicine practitioner. D. primary care practitioner.

A

In a 2014 survey, approximately what percentage of college students said they had no health insurance? A. 5 percent B. 10 percent C. 15 percent D. 20 percent

B

In a clinical trial for a new pain medication, Hayden was given an inactive substance instead of an actual drug. After taking it, however, his headache improved. This resulted from the A. analgesic effect. B. placebo effect. C. ingredients in the inactive pills. D. passage of time.

B

Medical decision making based on clinical expertise, patient values, and data from scientific research is known as A. allopathic medicine. B. evidence-based practice. C. conventional medical care. D. primary practice.

C

Most private health insurance plans require the patient to a pay a certain amount each year toward health care expenses before the plan benefits begin; this amount is the A. copayment. B. coinsurance. C. deductible. D. premium.

B

Physician assistants A. are competently able to treat 100 percent of those seeking primary care. B. can provide treatment and write prescriptions when supervised by a physician. C. are not licensed by state boards of medicine. D. are the same as physicians, but with fewer years of experience.

D

Self-care involves all of the following EXCEPT A. knowing your body. B. paying attention to body signals. C. taking appropriate action to stop the progression of illness. D. avoiding medication and taking a "tough it out" approach to illness.

A

The 2010 Affordable Care Act (ACA) was designed to do all of the following EXCEPT A. deny health care coverage to those with preexisting conditions. B. improve the overall quality of health care. C. address the cost of health care. D. improve access to health care.

C

The ACA is intended to improve the quality of health care by emphasizing A. emergency care. B. surgical care. C. preventative care. D. rationed care.

A

The federally funded health insurance program that covers 99 percent of the U.S. population age 65 and older is A. Medicare. B. Medicaid. C. Social Security. D. COBRA

B

The health insurance program jointly funded by the states and the federal government that provides coverage for low-income individuals and families is A. Medicare. B. Medicaid. C. Social Security. D. COBRA.

B

The legal term for improper or negligent treatment of a patient by a health care provider that results in loss or harm to the patient is A. incompetence. B. malpractice. C. malfunction. D. abandonment.

A

The term defensive medicine refers to actions taken to A. avoid malpractice claims. B. protect against infectious disease. C. slow the progress of chronic diseases. D. ensure that patients are informed about medical choices.

D

When choosing a health care provider, you should examine all of the following EXCEPT A. their educational training. B. their affiliations with accredited medical facilities. C. how their methods of treatment compare to established medical practices. D. their membership in local organizations such as country clubs or service clubs.

C

Which of the following symptoms probably does NOT warrant professional medical advice? A. You notice that your lips are bluish in color. B. You get a tingling sensation in your arm and your speech is slurred. C. You develop a low-grade fever and sore throat. D. Your throat is swelling after taking a new medication.

C

Which of the following statements is NOT true about costs in the U.S. health care system? A. The U.S. spends more on health care than any other nation. B. Growing rates of obesity are pushing costs higher. C. New technologies are lowering costs. D. Overtreatment is an issue.

A

Your father was laid off six months ago but recently started a new job. He was able to keep his health insurance during the transition through A. COBRA. B. Medicaid. C. Medicare. D. Social Security.

B

Your mom’s doctor works at a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission. This type of accreditation indicates that A. only specialists can practice there. B. all practitioner education, licensing, and training qualifications have been verified. C. all physicians must be trained in both traditional and alternative medicine. D. only generalists can practice there.

D

Your primary care provider suspects that you may have an unusual infection in your eyes. To whom would he or she refer you? A. physician assistant B. optician C. optometrist D. ophthalmologist

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