Which of the following methods most governs geography? – location analysis |
spatial analysis |
Which of the following statements is correct? -Vancouver, B.C. is in the midlatitude latitudinal zone. |
Vancouver, B.C. is in the midlatitude latitudinal zone. |
In 2005, Hurricane Wilma moved from 16° N to 42° N as a hurricane. Which latitudinal zones did it travel through? -equatorial, subtropical, and midlatitude |
equatorial, subtropical, and midlatitude |
The major decision in selecting a map projection is deciding between ___________. -spherical shape and planar shape |
equal area and true shape |
A scale of 1:24,000 is regarded as – a small scale compared to a scale of 1:20,900,000. |
a large scale. |
If you wanted a map with a lot of detail of a small area you would want a – a small scale map. |
a large scale map. |
The globe is the only map that accurately portrays all spatial relationships characteristic of Earth’s surface. True |
True |
Areas that display a degree of uniformity are called regions. True |
True |
The massive oil spill from the Deepwater Horizon falls within which of the five themes? -location |
human-Earth relationships |
A great circle is – a circle of circumference whose center coincides with the center of Earth. |
a circle of circumference whose center coincides with the center of Earth. |
Passive remote sensing platforms include all but _____. – aerial photography |
Radarsat-1 |
The larger the scale of a map, the __________ the area covered by the map and the __________ detail it provides. – larger; more |
smaller; more |
The meridian opposite of Earth’s prime meridian (0° longitude) is called – secondary meridian. |
the International Date Line. |
If a clock on a ship indicates that it is 2:00 P.M. in its home port, while another clock on the ship indicates that it is 12:00 noon at the ship’s present location, what is the difference in longitude between the ship’s position and its home port? – The ship is 2° east of its home port. |
The ship is 30° west of its home port. |
A physical geographer would study – the eruption of the Eyjafjallajokull volcano in Iceland. |
All of the above. |
If it is July 3rd in Tokyo (139° E), it is July 4th in Los Angeles (118° W) True |
False |
When did our Solar System begin to form? – 5 trillion years ago |
5 billion years ago |
How did our Solar System begin to form? – A large cloud of dust and gas began to contract under the force of gravity. |
A large cloud of dust and gas began to contract under the force of gravity. |
What is a nebula? – a large, diffuse cloud of dust and gas in space |
a large, diffuse cloud of dust and gas in space |
Where did the energy of the Sun come from originally? – thermal energy that was converted from the gravitational energy of the original nebula collapse |
thermal energy that was converted from the gravitational energy of the original nebula collapse |
The planets in the solar system are believed to have formed as a result of a process known as __________ which is caused by __________. – acceleration; centrifugal force |
accretion; gravity |
Light travels at a speed of approximately – 80,500 kilometers per hour (50,000 mph). |
300,000 kilometers per second (186,333 miles per second). |
Earth is farthest from the Sun at perihelion and closest at aphelion. True |
False |
Which of the following statements regarding solar wind is correct? – Sunspot activity varies randomly, but the total number in any year is roughly constant. |
The solar wind consists of electrically charged particles. |
During the process by which energy is produced inside of stars, – helium is fused together to form hydrogen. |
hydrogen is fused together to form helium. |
Radio waves have a __________ wavelength than visible light and are therefore __________ energetic. – longer; more |
longer; less |
Which of the following is true of the Sun’s electromagnetic spectrum? – It consists exclusively of radiant energy made of gamma ray, X-ray, and ultraviolet wavelengths. |
It is capable of sustaining life on Earth even though some portions of the spectrum are actually harmful to living organisms. |
Which of the following sequences is arranged in order from shorter wavelength to longer wavelength? – X-rays, ultraviolet, visible, infrared |
X-rays, ultraviolet, visible, infrared |
The June solstice is ______________. – the time of the year when Earth’s geographic North Pole is leaning most directly toward the Sun |
the time of the year when Earth’s geographic North Pole is leaning most directly toward the Sun |
How does the inclination of Earth’s axis (relative to the plane of its orbit) change over the course of a year? – The inclination of Earth’s axis does not change. |
The inclination of Earth’s axis does not change. |
The December solstice is ____________. – the time of the year when Earth’s geographic North Pole is leaning most directly away from the Sun |
the time of the year when Earth’s geographic North Pole is leaning most directly away from the Sun |
Which of the following statements about Earth’s solstices is correct? – The December solstice is the time of year when Earth’s geographic South Pole is leaning most directly toward the Sun. |
The December solstice is the time of year when Earth’s geographic South Pole is leaning most directly toward the Sun. |
When are the Sun’s rays perpendicular to Earth’s surface at the equator? – during the December and March solstices |
during the March equinox and September equinox |
Where does the length of day remain the same throughout the year? – at the equator |
at the equator |
When do all locations on Earth experience equal lengths of day and night? – March equinox |
March equinox |
Which of the following statements regarding the seasons is correct? – The Sun’s altitude refers to its distance from Earth. |
The five factors that give rise to the seasons are revolution, rotation, tilt, axial parallelism, and sphericity |
The Sun is directly overhead north of 23.5° north latitude twice a year. True |
False |
On June 21, the Sun never sets at Finn’s location. Based on this, it can be concluded that Finn lives – between the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle. |
above the Arctic Circle. |
The equinox – occurs four times during the year. |
has 12 hours of day and 12 hours of night for all locations. |
Which of the following accurately describes Earth’s distance from the Sun? – The Earth-Sun distance averages 150 million kilometers (93 million miles). |
All of these are correct. |
How much of the Sun’s ultraviolet radiation reaches Earth’s surface? – little of the ultraviolet radiation |
little of the ultraviolet radiation |
What is another name for the ozone layer? – ozonosphere |
ozonosphere |
How is ozone formed in the stratosphere? – Ultraviolet radiation breaks apart molecules made up of paired oxygen atoms. Individual oxygen atoms bond with paired oxygen molecules to form ozone. |
Ultraviolet radiation breaks apart molecules made up of paired oxygen atoms. Individual oxygen atoms bond with paired oxygen molecules to form ozone. |
What is ozone? – a molecule made up of three oxygen atoms |
a molecule made up of three oxygen atoms |
How do CFCs cause ozone depletion? – Ultraviolet radiation breaks down CFCs, molecules containing chlorine. Chlorine then breaks one oxygen atom away from ozone, leaving behind a paired oxygen molecule. |
Ultraviolet radiation breaks down CFCs, molecules containing chlorine. Chlorine then breaks one oxygen atom away from ozone, leaving behind a paired oxygen molecule. |
What would happen to the oxygen atoms in ozone if the ozone layer were completely destroyed by ultraviolet radiation? – The oxygen atoms would be bound together in pairs. |
The oxygen atoms would be bound together in pairs. |
When classified by temperature, what are the layers of the atmosphere? – homosphere and heterosphere |
troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, and thermosphere |
Based on composition, the atmosphere is divided into – one continuous region. |
two broad classifications: homosphere and heterosphere. |
The highest temperatures in the atmosphere occur in the __________ because __________. – thermosphere; it is in direct contact with high energy solar radiation |
thermosphere; it is in direct contact with high energy solar radiation |
Which stable (nonvariable) gas in the atmosphere is derived from the radioactive decay of potassium-40 (40K)? – argon |
argon |
Temperatures decrease with increasing altitude in what two atmospheric layers? – troposphere and stratosphere |
troposphere and mesosphere |
Which of the following is not true of the ozone hole? – It is twice as large as the continent of Antarctica. |
The amount of ozone depletion is greatest over the northern polar regions. |
Increased levels of ultraviolet light at Earth’s surface – pose a threat of skin cancer to all races. |
All of these are correct. |
The main ingredients in photochemical smog are – PAN, nitric acid, and carbon monoxide. |
ozone, PAN, and nitric acid. |
Which of the following statements about air pollution is correct? – Anthropogenic sources of air pollution produce a greater quantity of pollutants than natural sources. |
Cross-boundary drift of pollution was an issue that played a role in the formation of the EU. |
Temperature inversions occur – when surface temperatures are higher than overlying layers of air. |
when surface temperatures are lower than warmer overlying air. |
The single major source for photochemical reactants in the United States are – automobiles. |
automobiles |
The atmosphere exerts an average force of approximately 1 kg/cm2 (14.7 lbs/in2) at sea level. True |
True |
Problems with air pollution occurred as far back in time as the Roman period (2000 years ago). True |
True |
The Clean Air Act has not been cost effective. True |
False |
Only some shortwave radiation from the Sun reaches Earth’s surface. What is the leading cause of this radiation loss? – reflection by clouds |
reflection by clouds |
How much of the Sun’s incoming radiation is scattered or reflected back to space before any heating effect is felt on Earth? – 7% |
31% |
How much of the Sun’s incoming radiation is absorbed by Earth’s surface? – 18% |
45% |
What would happen to Earth’s atmospheric temperature if the amount of incoming shortwave radiation from the Sun decreased and was less than the longwave radiation lost to space? – Atmospheric temperature would decrease. |
Atmospheric temperature would decrease. |
What would happen to Earth’s atmospheric temperature if the amount of outgoing longwave radiation decreased so that it was less than incoming shortwave radiation from the Sun? – Atmospheric temperature would increase. |
Atmospheric temperature would increase. |
What would happen to Earth’s atmospheric temperature if the amount of incoming shortwave radiation from the Sun was the same as the longwave radiation lost to space? – Atmospheric temperature would remain the same. |
Atmospheric temperature would remain the same. |
What would happen to Earth’s atmospheric temperature if the amount of shortwave radiation reflected at Earth’s surface increased significantly? – Atmospheric temperature would decrease. |
Atmospheric temperature would decrease. |
What would happen to Earth’s atmospheric temperature if the amount of shortwave radiation reflected by clouds decreased significantly? – Atmospheric temperature would increase. |
Atmospheric temperature would increase. |
Mirages (such as the appearance of "water" on a dry, hot road) are caused by – differences in the air temperature of layers near the surface. |
all of the above. |
The albedo of a surface is a measure of which of the following processes? – transmission |
reflection |
An increase in the amount of high altitude, thin clouds would – cool the planet in a process called cloud-albedo forcing. |
warm the planet in a process called cloud-greenhouse forcing. |
A vertical air current that is generated by temperature-induced density differences is an example of heat transfer by – advection. |
convection |
The Earth-atmosphere energy budget __________. – shows a 31% imbalance between incoming and outgoing energy |
shows net surpluses at the equator and net deficits at the poles |
The analogy of a greenhouse is – a useful, but inaccurate model since atmospheric gases do not trap, but absorb heat. |
a useful, but inaccurate model since atmospheric gases do not trap, but absorb heat. |
On the average, which of the following is true regarding the distribution of shortwave and longwave energy at Earth’s surface by latitude? – The equatorial zone is a region of net deficits. |
The distribution shows an imbalance of net radiation from equator to poles. |
Which of the following statements regarding clouds and Earth’s "greenhouse" is correct? – High-altitude cirrus clouds act to cool the troposphere. |
Cloud-albedo forcing is caused by lower, thicker clouds. |
Areas with high sensible heat and high latent heat __________. – have high temperatures and high humidity |
have high temperatures and high humidity |
Which of the following climatic factors decreases as a result of urbanization? – clouds and fog |
relative humidity |
Which of the following would be true for the net radiation balance in a midlatitude location? – Net R is constant throughout the year. |
There is a surplus of Net R during the summer and a deficit during the winter. |
When water evaporates, the energy that was used to evaporate the water – is stored as sensible heat in the evaporated water. |
is stored as latent heat in the evaporated water. |
The daily temperature curve exhibits a lag of about three hours relative to the insolation curve. True |
True |
Which of the following is true regarding global temperatures? – While temperatures are increasing, the rate of change is decreasing. |
Human society appears to be causing short-term changes in global temperatures and temperature patterns. |
As the kinetic energy of the air increases, – its temperature increases. |
its temperature increases. |
The Celsius and Fahrenheit scales only coincide at: – -40°. |
-40°. |
Monthly mean temperatures are made by taking the average of the highest and lowest temperatures of the month. True |
False |
Official temperature measurements are made in white, sealed boxes with an albedo of 31%. True |
False |
The principal controls and influences of temperature patterns include – Earth’s tilt, rotation, revolution, and sphericity. |
latitude, altitude, land-water heating differences, cloud cover, ocean currents, and surface conditions. |
The single most important control on temperature is – altitude. |
latitude |
In general, as distance from the subsolar point increases, the average annual insolation __________ and the average annual temperature __________. – increases; increases |
decreases; decreases |
Which of the following is true regarding clouds? – They increase temperature minimums and temperature maximums. |
They have a moderating influence on temperatures. |
Which of the following statements regarding the effects of elevation on temperature is correct? – Higher elevations experience higher temperatures during the day because they are closer to the Sun. |
Higher elevations have higher daily temperature ranges. |
Our individual perception of temperature is termed – the heat index. |
apparent temperature, or sensible temperature. |
As reported by the National Weather Service, the heat index – gives you an indication of the effect of wind on the skin. |
relates temperature and relative humidity. |
The thermal equator refers to the unchanging warm temperatures at the equator. True |
False |
Air pressure at 5500 m (18,000 ft.) is __________ (percent) of that at sea level. – 0 |
50 |
Which of the following regions would have the greatest range of temperatures? – Orlando, Florida |
Siberia, Russia |
Normal sea-level air pressure is _____. – 760 millibars |
1013.2 millibars |
Air flow is initiated by the – Coriolis force. |
pressure gradient force. |
An increase in air pressure will cause the mercury in a barometer to __________. – rise |
rise |
Which of the following does not cause the height of the column of mercury in a barometer to change? – changes in the weight of the air |
changes in the force exerted by the vacuum inside the top of the barometer’s tube |
How would a moving object in Earth’s atmosphere be deflected as a result of Earth’s rotation? – to the right in the Northern Hemisphere, and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere |
to the right in the Northern Hemisphere, and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere |
What is the Coriolis Effect? – the deflection of moving objects to the right in the Northern Hemisphere, and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere |
the deflection of moving objects to the right in the Northern Hemisphere, and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere |
Which way would an airplane deflect if flying from the North Pole toward the equator? – toward the right |
toward the right |
Which way would an airplane deflect if flying from the South Pole toward the equator? – toward the left |
toward the left |
Which way would an airplane deflect if flying from the North Pole toward the equator? – toward the west |
toward the west |
Which way would an airplane deflect if flying from the West Coast of the United States toward the East Coast of the United States? – toward the south |
toward the south |
Which way would an airplane deflect if flying from the East Coast of the United States toward the West Coast of the United States? – toward the north |
toward the north |
Which way would an airplane deflect if flying from the east coast of South Africa toward the west coast of South Africa? – toward the south |
toward the south |
Which direction would an airplane deflect if flying across South Africa from the west coast to the east coast? – toward the north |
toward the north |
How does wind generally move? – From areas of higher atmospheric pressure toward areas of lower atmospheric pressure |
From areas of higher atmospheric pressure toward areas of lower atmospheric pressure |
What causes the pressure gradient force? – The difference in atmospheric pressure from one location to another |
The difference in atmospheric pressure from one location to another |
What causes the Coriolis force? – The earth’s rotation |
The earth’s rotation |
How does the Coriolis force deflect objects in the atmosphere, relative to their original paths? – To the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere |
To the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere |
What causes friction forces? – Interaction between wind and surrounding atmosphere |
Interaction between wind and surrounding atmosphere |
How would wind move if Coriolis and friction forces did not exist? – Wind would move directly from areas of high atmospheric pressure to areas of low atmospheric pressure. |
Wind would move directly from areas of high atmospheric pressure to areas of low atmospheric pressure. |
How would wind move if pressure gradient and friction forces did not exist? – Wind would curve to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. |
Wind would not move. |
How would wind move if pressure gradient and Coriolis forces did not exist? – Wind would not move. |
Wind would not move. |
A isoline of equal pressure plotted on a weather map is known as – an isotherm. |
an isobar. |
Air flows __________ a surface high pressure area because the density of the air in the high pressure zone is __________ than that of the surrounding air. – into; more dense |
out of; more dense |
What is a cyclone? – a center of low atmospheric pressure |
a center of low atmospheric pressure |
Which way does air converge on a cyclone in the Northern Hemisphere? – in a counterclockwise direction |
in a counterclockwise direction |
Which way does air converge on a cyclone in the Southern Hemisphere? – in a clockwise direction |
in a clockwise direction |
How does air move near the top of a cyclone? – in the same direction as air in the upper atmosphere |
in the same direction as air in the upper atmosphere |
Why are cyclones generally associated with clouds and rain? – Air in cyclones undergoes cooling as it rises. |
Air in cyclones undergoes cooling as it rises. |
What is an anticylone? – a center of high atmospheric pressure |
a center of high atmospheric pressure |
Which way does air move in an anticyclone in the Northern Hemisphere? – down, and in a clockwise direction |
down, and in a clockwise direction |
Which way does air move in an anticyclone in the Southern Hemisphere? – down, and in a counterclockwise direction |
down, and in a counterclockwise direction |
Why are anticyclones not generally associated with clouds and rain? – Air in anticyclones undergoes warming as the air descends. |
Air in anticyclones undergoes warming as the air descends. |
Where are Hadley cells found? – in the atmosphere near the equator |
in the atmosphere near the equator |
What drives Hadley cell circulation? – heating from the Sun |
heating from the Sun |
How does the location of the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) change over time? – The ITCZ migrates south of the equator in Northern Hemisphere winter and north of the equator in Northern Hemisphere summer. |
The ITCZ migrates south of the equator in Northern Hemisphere winter and north of the equator in Northern Hemisphere summer. |
When would you expect the low-pressure cell over the North Pole to be most developed? – during the Northern Hemisphere winter |
during the Northern Hemisphere winter |
Which areas of Earth experience the most precipitation? – areas near the ITCZ |
areas near the ITCZ |
What two features are many of Earth’s deserts associated with? – the subtropical highs and cool ocean currents found along the west coasts of continents |
the subtropical highs and cool ocean currents found along the west coasts of continents |
What process cools air as it rises above the equator? – adiabatic cooling |
adiabatic cooling |
What is a Hadley cell? – a large convection cell of air that rises near the equator due to heating of air |
a large convection cell of air that rises near the equator due to heating of air |
What is the intertropical convergence zone? – the region of rising air and low pressure near the equator |
the region of rising air and low pressure near the equator |
What type of weather would you expect to encounter along the intertropical convergence zone? – cloudy conditions and high rainfall |
cloudy conditions and high rainfall |
What features are found near the subtropical high-pressure systems? – large desert systems |
large desert systems |
Where on Earth would you find the trade winds and the westerlies? – The trade winds occur between 30º N and 30º S. The westerlies occur in the midlatitude regions of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. |
The trade winds occur between 30º N and 30º S. The westerlies occur in the midlatitude regions of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. |
Where are the antitrade winds located? – above the trade winds |
above the trade winds |
What type of weather would you expect to encounter along the polar front? – cloudy conditions and abundant precipitation |
cloudy conditions and abundant precipitation |
Where are the jet streams located? – The subtropical jet is located above the subtropical high, and the polar jet is located above the Polar Front. |
The subtropical jet is located above the subtropical high, and the polar jet is located above the Polar Front. |
What are jet streams? – bands of high-speed wind found at elevations of 9-15 km |
bands of high-speed wind found at elevations of 9-15 km |
In which direction do jet streams generally travel? – west to east |
west to east |
Where are the two main hemispheric jet streams located? – between 50 and 60 degrees latitude and at about 30 degrees latitude |
between 50 and 60 degrees latitude and at about 30 degrees latitude |
What are Rossby waves? – major undulations in Earth’s orbital parameters |
major undulations in the path of a jet stream |
How can the jet stream return to normal zonal flow after Rossby waves build? – through addition of a mass of cold air to the jet stream |
through separation of a mass of cold air from the jet stream |
Thermohaline circulation – is driven by frictional drag of winds. |
transports greater volumes of water than surface currents. |
The great circulations in the ocean basins occur around the __________ pressure systems and are known as __________. – subpolar low; ocean streams |
subtropical high; gyres |
Ocean currents are produced by – the frictional drag of winds. |
the frictional drag of winds, the Coriolis force, and water density differences. |
How much of Earth’s surface water exists in the oceans? – Almost all of Earth’s surface water exists in the oceans. |
Almost all of Earth’s surface water exists in the oceans. |
Which ocean is Earth’s largest? – the Arctic Ocean |
the Pacific Ocean |
Where is most of Earth’s freshwater found? – as ice at Earth’s surface |
as ice at Earth’s surface |
What does the hydrologic cycle describe? – The hydrologic cycle describes how liquid and gaseous water move between the ocean, atmosphere, and land. |
The hydrologic cycle describes how liquid and gaseous water move between the ocean, atmosphere, and land. |
How does water get from the oceans onto land? – Ocean water evaporates to form gaseous water and moves into the atmosphere, where it condenses into liquid water and falls out of the atmosphere to land as rain. |
Ocean water evaporates to form gaseous water and moves into the atmosphere, where it condenses into liquid water and falls out of the atmosphere to land as rain. |
What would happen to atmospheric water if Earth were mostly covered with land? – The atmosphere would contain less water. |
The atmosphere would contain less water. |
What would happen to the oceans if surface runoff and groundwater flow were reduced (for example, by the growth of ice sheets during an ice age)? – The oceans would become smaller. |
The oceans would become smaller. |
Which of the following is true of the distribution of land and water on Earth? – The Northern Hemisphere is dominated by water. |
The Southern Hemisphere is dominated by water. |
Which of the following is true regarding the amount of water in rivers, streams, and the atmosphere? – They contain 0.033 percent of the world’s fresh water supply. |
All of these are correct. |
What must break in order for water to change from solid to liquid to gas? – Hydrogen bonds between water molecules |
Hydrogen bonds between water molecules |
How much heat energy is needed to melt 1 gram of ice? – 8 calories of heat energy |
80 calories of heat energy |
Why does temperature NOT initially increase as energy is added after ice begins to melt? – The added energy is used to break hydrogen bonds between water molecules. |
The added energy is used to break hydrogen bonds between water molecules. |
What physically breaks hydrogen bonds between water molecules as ice melts? – The movement of water molecules |
The movement of water molecules |
What do we call the energy used to melt ice once the ice becomes water? – Latent heat of melting |
Latent heat of melting |
How much heat energy is needed to turn 1 gram of water at 100 degrees Celsius into water vapor? – 5.4 calories of heat energy |
540 calories of heat energy |
How can water vapor become ice? – Water vapor can become liquid water through the release of heat energy, and then become ice through the release of more heat energy. Water vapor can also become ice directly through the release of heat energy. |
Water vapor can become liquid water through the release of heat energy, and then become ice through the release of more heat energy. Water vapor can also become ice directly through the release of heat energy. |
_________ of heat is released when one gram of water vapor condenses into liquid water. – 620 calories |
540 calories |
When water freezes, its volume – remains the same as in the liquid state. |
increases. |
Relative humidity refers to __________. – the amount of water vapor in the air per kilogram of air |
the amount of water vapor in the air compared with the maximum amount of water vapor possible |
The capacity of the air to hold water vapor is basically a function of – the water vapor content. |
the temperature of both the water vapor and the air. |
If the saturation vapor pressure increases while the amount of water vapor in the air remains constant, this would indicate – that the temperature had increased. |
that the temperature had increased. |
What causes the development of most clouds and precipitation in the atmosphere? – rising air |
rising air |
Why would a parcel of air rise relative to other air in the atmosphere? – A parcel of air will rise if it has a lower density than the surrounding air. |
A parcel of air will rise if it has a lower density than the surrounding air. |
Which factor is most important for determining the density of a parcel of air? – temperature |
temperature |
What will happen to a parcel of air as it rises? – A rising parcel of air will expand and cool. |
A rising parcel of air will expand and cool. |
If two parcels of air start at the same temperature at 2000 meters above Earth’s surface, which would end up with a higher temperature, an unsaturated parcel of air at Earth’s surface or a saturated parcel of air 4000 meters above Earth’s surface? – An unsaturated parcel of air at Earth’s surface would be warmer, since air cools as it rises and warms as it descends, regardless of any temperature difference due to saturation. |
An unsaturated parcel of air at Earth’s surface would be warmer, since air cools as it rises and warms as it descends, regardless of any temperature difference due to saturation. |
Two parcels of air, one dry and one wet, sit at the same temperature at sea level. What will the temperature difference between the two bodies of air be after they rise to 2000 meters elevation? – The dry parcel of air will be 8 degrees colder than the wet parcel of air. |
The dry parcel of air will be 8 degrees colder than the wet parcel of air. |
In general, when will clouds begin to form out of a parcel of air? – when a rising parcel of air has reached a temperature below its dew point |
when a rising parcel of air has reached a temperature below its dew point |
Which process can add heat to a rising body of air? – condensation |
condensation |
The wet adiabatic rate __________. – is always the same as the environmental lapse rate |
is less than the dry rate |
An air parcel is considered unstable when it – either remains as it is, or changes its initial position. |
continues to rise until it reaches an altitude at which the surrounding air has a similar temperature. |
Clouds are classified based on their _____. – size and water content |
altitude and shape |
Which of these types of fog would you find after a clear night, especially over moist ground? – radiation fog |
radiation fog |
Condensation nuclei over the ocean consist primarily of – pieces of coral. |
salt particles. |
Weather is – the climate of a region. |
the short-term condition of the atmosphere. |
Over the last two decades, costs for weather-related destruction has, on an annual basis, – decreased. |
increased five-fold. |
Air masses are classified according to their_____. – temperature alone |
temperature and source region |
Air masses which develop over Canada are examples of __________ air masses. – mT |
cP |
Given a cP air mass and cT air mass with the same relative humidity, which air mass would have higher specific humidity? – The cP air mass would have the higher specific humidity. |
The cT air mass would have the higher specific humidity. |
A mT air mass is likely to be __________ than a cT air mass because the mT air mass __________. – wetter; forms over the ocean |
wetter; forms over the ocean |
What is a front? – the boundary between two air masses of different temperatures |
the boundary between two air masses of different temperatures |
Where does rain occur in a warm front? – Rain occurs along and in front of a warm front. |
Rain occurs along and in front of a warm front. |
Where does rain occur in a cold front? – Rain occurs along and behind a cold front. |
Rain occurs along and behind a cold front. |
How are rain patterns different near warm and cold fronts? – Rain near a warm front occurs over a wider spatial area and is less intense than near a cold front. |
Rain near a warm front occurs over a wider spatial area and is less intense than near a cold front. |
How are cold and warm fronts different? – The type of front is determined by which air mass is moving. |
The type of front is determined by which air mass is moving. |
Why does rain occur near a cold front? – Rising warm air cools, resulting in cloud formation and rain. |
Rising warm air cools, resulting in cloud formation and rain. |
Why does rain occur near a warm front? – Rising warm air cools, resulting in cloud formation and rain. |
Rising warm air cools, resulting in cloud formation and rain. |
The Intertropical Convergence Zone is characterized by – cold, dry rising air. |
warm, wet rising air. |
The term "rain shadow" refers to – periods of time during which there is a lack of rainfall. |
dry regions on the leeward side of mountain ranges. |
What are midlatitude cyclones? – Migrating low-pressure cells that move in the band of the westerlies |
Migrating low-pressure cells that move in the band of the westerlies |
What happens when air masses of different temperatures meet? – Well-defined boundaries form between the air masses. |
Well-defined boundaries form between the air masses. |
What is occlusion in a midlatitude cyclone? – Occlusion is the process by which a cold front overtakes a warm front. |
Occlusion is the process by which a cold front overtakes a warm front. |
When do midlatitude cyclones stop producing storms? – When the cold front has completely taken over the warm front |
When the cold front has completely taken over the warm front |
When a cold front approaches, air pressure will initially __________ due to the displacement and uplift of __________ air. – decrease; warm |
decrease; warm |
The severity of storm activity along a cold front is __________ than that along most warm fronts because the rate of uplift is __________ along a cold front. – greater; faster |
greater; faster |
What is a tropical cyclone? – a low-pressure disturbance that develops over warm, tropical waters |
a low-pressure disturbance that develops over warm, tropical waters |
Where are tropical cyclones found? – at lower and middle latitudes |
at lower and middle latitudes |
Why is heavy rain associated with hurricane formation? – Rising moist air cools. As air cools, water condenses and eventually falls. |
Rising moist air cools. As air cools, water condenses and eventually falls. |
Why is warm, moist air considered the "fuel" for a hurricane? – Air cools as it rises. As air cools, water vapor will condense out as liquid water. Condensation releases heat, providing energy to the hurricane. |
Air cools as it rises. As air cools, water vapor will condense out as liquid water. Condensation releases heat, providing energy to the hurricane. |
How big can the diameter of a hurricane become? – 500 miles |
500 miles |
What other natural hazards are associated with tornado formation? – thunderstorms |
thunderstorms |
Why does air spiral parallel to Earth’s surface during initial stages of tornado formation? – Because of friction, surface winds move more slowly than winds higher in the air column. |
Because of friction, surface winds move more slowly than winds higher in the air column. |
What can cause the horizontally rotating air spiral to become the vertical spiral of a tornado? – Updrafts associated with thunderstorm clouds can tilt the horizontal column of spinning air. |
Updrafts associated with thunderstorm clouds can tilt the horizontal column of spinning air. |
How are mesocyclones and tornadoes related? – Mesocyclones can turn into funnel clouds. A funnel cloud that touches the ground is called a tornado. |
Mesocyclones can turn into funnel clouds. A funnel cloud that touches the ground is called a tornado. |
Summer thunderstorms in the southern United States are usually produced by towering __________ clouds that form by __________. – nimbostratus; convection |
cumulonimbus; convection |
In which of the following areas would the least amount of precipitation occur? – in areas affected by maritime air masses |
on the leeward side of a mountain range in the interior of a continent |
An area defined by characteristic, long-term weather patterns is called – a biome. |
a climatic region. |
Which of the following statements about tropical climates is correct? – They are dominated by the subtropical high-pressure cells. |
They have consistent daylength and insolation. |
Which of the following statements about tropical savanna climates is correct? – Their dry season lasts three to four months. |
Their rainy season occurs in summer when the ITCZ is overhead. |
Which of the following statements about mesothermal climates is correct? – Mesothermal climates cover more area than do climates of any other type. |
Over half the world’s population lives in a mesothermal climate. |
Humid subtropical climates _________. – are either moist all year or have a dry summer period |
are either moist all year or have a winter dry period |
Microthermal climates _________. – are usually found in coastal areas |
are caused by continentality |
Which of the following statements about polar climates is correct? – There is little annual variation in temperature. |
They have no summer period. |
Which of the following factors would increase the rainfall in a region? – the presence of a warm current offshore |
the presence of a warm current offshore |
Which of the following is the best statement regarding the graph of atmospheric CO2 concentrations? – There has been negligible change in atmospheric CO2 concentrations over the past 50 years. |
Atmospheric CO2 concentrations have increased by more than 15% over the past 50 years. |
Which of the following is the best statement regarding the graph of atmospheric CO2 and surface temperature changes over the past 50 years? – This data set represents the strongest evidence available for anthropogenic global warming. |
This data is consistent with the hypothesis that increased atmospheric concentrations of CO2 may be causing an increase in average surface temperatures. |
Assuming that increasing CO2 concentrations are directly linked to increased surface temperatures, which scenario should result in a reduction of temperatures to below their 1960-1990 averages by 2040? – aggressive control |
none of the scenarios |
Which of the following arguments could be made for NOT adopting an aggressive control strategy worldwide? – The economic costs would be too high. |
All of the above. |
A climate that is mesothermal and has a long, hot, dry summer would be designated by which of the following? – Tropical savanna |
Mediterranean |
The tropical rain forest climate receives most of its rainfall as a result of – frontal uplift. |
convectional uplift. |
Which of the following climate types is characterized by soils that are so wet they are extremely low in nutrients? – Humid continental |
Tropical rain forest |
Humid subtropical climates receive __________ precipitation during the summer and __________ precipitation in winter. – orographic; frontal |
convectional; frontal |
The ITCZ migrates with the subsolar point and influences the tropical monsoon climates. True |
True |
Which of the following is an endogenic process? – weathering |
volcanism |
Which of the following is an exogenic process? – weathering |
weathering |
Earth’s magnetic poles – are fixed. |
are migrating approximately 50 km (30 mi) per year. |
When geologists or archaeologists dig downward into a unit of rock or sediment, they are digging "back in time." This fact is based on the principle of __________. – uniformitarianism |
superposition |
The region within Earth that lies directly below the lithosphere, but above the upper mantle, is __________. – a granitic layer with an average density of 2.7 g/cm3 |
a plastic layer that flows when subjected to heat and pressure |
Knowledge of Earth’s interior is derived from – direct sampling of the interior using deep-test wells. |
indirect evidence involving the analysis of seismic waves. |
Approximately 90 percent of Earth’s magnetic field is generated in the – outer core. |
outer core. |
The boundary between the crust and the rest of the lithospheric upper mantle is a discontinuity known as the – Moho. |
Moho |
What lies underneath volcanic features at Earth’s surface? – magma chambers and volcanic conduits |
magma chambers and volcanic conduits |
What is the difference between a dike and a sill? – A dike intrudes across sedimentary layers, and a sill intrudes between sedimentary layers. |
A dike intrudes across sedimentary layers, and a sill intrudes between sedimentary layers. |
What is a volcanic conduit called after the conduit has solidified and been exposed by erosion? – a volcanic neck |
a volcanic neck |
Why are volcanic rocks often exposed at Earth’s surface as hills, ridges, and mountains surrounded by areas of lower elevation? – Volcanic rocks are often more resistant to erosion than surrounding rock. |
Volcanic rocks are often more resistant to erosion than surrounding rock. |
What is a magma chamber called after it and the conduit have solidified and been exposed by erosion? – a batholith |
a batholith |
Three types of rock-forming processes comprise the – tectonic cycle. |
rock cycle. |
What type of rock forms from the solidification of molten material? – igneous |
igneous |
Which of the following is an example of an intrusive, igneous rock formation? – volcano |
pluton |
Limestone is a type of __________ rock that forms when __________. – igneous; magma cools |
sedimentary; calcium carbonate precipitates, or organic material containing calcium carbonate accumulates in a water environment |
Where are tectonic plates located? – at Earth’s surface |
at Earth’s surface |
What are the three types of plate boundaries? – divergent, convergent, transform |
divergent, convergent, transform |
Which of the following statements about earthquakes with magnitude greater than 4.0 is correct? – Earthquakes with magnitude greater than 4.0 occur in a pattern than correlates closely with plate boundaries. |
Earthquakes with magnitude greater than 4.0 occur in a pattern than correlates closely with plate boundaries. |
Which plate boundary type is not associated with volcanic eruptions? – transform |
transform |
Which phenomenon can explain the presence of volcanoes in the middle of the Pacific Ocean? – hot spots |
hot spots |
Which type of plate boundary is most closely associated with uplifting continental regions and mountain building? – convergent boundaries |
convergent boundaries |
What is the relationship between the crust and the lithosphere? – All of the crust is contained within a larger layer called the lithosphere. |
All of the crust is contained within a larger layer called the lithosphere. |
What surface feature provides evidence for the location of hot spots? – volcanoes within tectonic plates |
volcanoes within tectonic plates |
When will a hot-spot volcano become extinct? – when the volcano is carried away from the hot spot by the tectonic plate |
when the volcano is carried away from the hot spot by the tectonic plate |
What surface feature would you expect to form if both a hot spot and a tectonic plate are stationary? – a single volcano |
a single volcano |
If you found a line of volcanic peaks a few hundred miles long in which the volcanoes were progressively older toward one end of the line, what probably created them? – a hot spot |
a hot spot |
If you found a line of volcanic peaks a few hundred miles long in which the volcanoes were of mixed ages in no particular order, what probably created them? – a convergent boundary |
a convergent boundary |
Precipitation normally refers to – the moisture demand in the water balance. |
rain, sleet, snow, and hail. |
Which of the following is true regarding the hydrologic cycle? – The bulk of the precipitation occurs over land. |
Seventy-eight percent of all precipitation falls on the oceans. |
In the water budget, __________ is the major receipt and __________ is the major expenditure. – insolation; radiative cooling |
PRECIP; ACTET |
Potential evapotranspiration (POTET) refers to _____. – the moisture supply |
the amount of water that would evaporate or transpire if it were available |
Which of the following is true of precipitation in North America? – The highest amounts occur in the Southeast and extreme South. |
The highest amounts occur in the Southeast and extreme South. |
Which of the following is normally true of a hot desert? – Potential evapotranspiration equals actual evapotranspiration. |
Potential evapotranspiration exceeds actual evapotranspiration. |
If precipitation and soil moisture are inadequate to meet potential evapotranspiration demands, the moisture condition is described as – actual evapotranspiration. |
a deficit. |
Soil moisture that plants are capable of accessing and using is called – wilting point water. |
capillary water. |
How does the water table change around a pumping water well? – The water table elevation decreases. |
The water table elevation decreases. |
The cone of depression is _____________. – the shape that the water table takes on near a pumping well |
the shape that the water table takes on near a pumping well |
When will a cone of depression stop enlarging? – when the amount of water flowing toward the well equals the amount of water being pumped out of the well |
when the amount of water flowing toward the well equals the amount of water being pumped out of the well |
If your new neighbor drilled a well and shortly thereafter your well went dry, what is the least that she might have to do to restore your water supply? – She would need to pump more slowly so that her well’s cone of depression would shrink. |
She would need to pump more slowly so that her well’s cone of depression would shrink. |
How would the water table be affected if Earth were made up of uniform, permeable material? – The water table would be much, much deeper. |
The water table would be much, much deeper. |
Why does groundwater discharge to Earth’s surface? – Earth’s surface is irregular, and permeability decreases with depth within Earth. |
Earth’s surface is irregular, and permeability decreases with depth within Earth. |
How does the use of water by humans affect the water table? – Use of water by humans increases discharge, resulting in lowered water tables. |
Use of water by humans increases discharge, resulting in lowered water tables. |
What is the water table? – The top of the saturated zone beneath Earth’s surface |
The top of the saturated zone beneath Earth’s surface |
Excess surface water percolates through the zone of __________ to reach the zone of __________ and the water table. – hydration; infiltration |
aeration; saturation |
Which continent has the highest ratio of available fresh water to population size? – Australia |
Australia |
Which continent has more than 12,000 cubic kilometers of water available per year? – Europe |
Asia |
Africa is much larger than Europe. Why doesn’t it have much more fresh water? – Its population is greater. |
Much of its land area is covered with desert. |
Which continents currently have sufficient water to meet the needs of their populations? – North America, Asia, and South America |
North America, South America, Africa, and Australia |
Fresh water available per capita should remain stable over the next 50 years. True |
False |
Asia has abundant water resources, but its high population size is causing water shortages. True |
True |
If some of Australia’s water resources could be diverted to Asia, it would eliminate Asia’s water shortages. True |
False |
The High Plains aquifer – averages about 30 inches of rain per year. |
received much of its water from melting glaciers in the past. |
The largest sector of daily water withdrawals in the water budget for the United States is presently that taken for agricultural purposes. True |
False |
The High Plains aquifer irrigates about one-fifth of all U.S. cropland. True |
True |
GEOG 155 Final Exam
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