geo 120 csu final

1. A key step in developing a new explanation for a scientific problem is:
a) making observations about a place or process
b) asking questions about the observations
c) proposing an interpretation that can be tested
d) collecting new observations to test predictions
e) all of these

e

Which of the following statements about the Race Track Playa is an interpretation rather than an observation?
a) The race track is flat and dry.
b) The rocks have tracks leading away from them.
c) There are polygonal shaped cracks in the dirt.
d) The rocks have moved in the past.
e) There are rocks of different sizes on the Race Track.

d

Which of the following data that geologists collected to investigate the movement of rocks on Race Track Playa is quantitative data?
a) GPS measurements of rock movement
b) Photographs of the playa
c) Descriptions of weather conditions
d) B&C
e) All of these are quantitative data

a

Which of the following is an example of quantitative data?
a) North America is moving across Earth's surface several centimeters per year
b) the river has flooded a low-lying area
c) the volcano is releasing much steam
d) volcanoes are dangerous
e) when held, one rock feels heavier than another rock

a

Qualitative data may involve which of the following?
a) labels
b) sketches
c) descriptive words
d) images
e) all of these

e

Which of the following would be consistent with an origin of Upheaval Dome by a rising salt mass?
a) the presence of a thick salt layer beneath the region
b) structures that are similar to those formed around rising salt
c) a lower density for salt than typical rocks
d) all of these
e) none of these

d

7. Your textbook describes some observations about a crater in Northern Arizona; which of the following is not an observation?
a) The crater has a raised rim.
b) The rim of the crater consists of fractured blocks of limestone and sandstone.
c) The crater was formed by a meteor impact
d) Shattered rocks in the walls of the crater contain unusual minerals that form only at extremely
high pressures.
e) All of these are observations.

c

8. Which are true of a hypothesis?
a) It may be tentatively assumed.
b) It can be tested for validity.
c) It may be scrapped or amended after testing.
d) All of these.

d

Which of the following is a possible hypothesis for the Arizona crater described in Question 7?
a) A volcanic explosion blasted open the crater.
b) A rising mass of salt warped up the rock layers, and rain water later dissolved the salt to form
the crater.
c) A large meteoroid blasted the crater when it collided with the Earth's surface.
d) All of these are possible hypotheses.

d

Which of these is NOT a prediction you could make to test the hypotheses listed in Question 9?
a) Volcanoes are very common, so that is the most likely explanation.
b) Volcanic materials, such as ash, should be present around the crater.
c) A mass of salt should exist beneath the floor of the crater.
d) Fragments of a meteoroid might remain beneath the crater or on the surrounding plains.
e) Meteoroid impacts cause very high pressures near the collision, so minerals formed under high
pressure may be found.

a

Which of the following statements correctly describes the differences between ocean crust and continental crust?
a) Ocean crust is thicker, denser and more mafic than continental crust.
b) Ocean crust is thinner, denser and more mafic than continental crust.
c) Ocean crust is thinner, less dense and more felsic than continental crust.
d) Ocean crust is thinner, less dense and more mafic than continental crust.
e) Ocean crust is thicker, denser and more felsic than continental crust.

b

When an ocean plate and a continental plate converge, which plate will subduct and why?
a) The continental plate; it is thicker.
b) The continental plate; it is denser.
c) The ocean plate; it is denser.
d) The ocean plate; it is thicker.

c

13. Which type of tectonic plate boundary has a deep ocean trench, an accretionary wedge, deep earthquakes, and volcanoes next to the boundary?
a) Ocean - Ocean Divergent
b) Ocean - Continent Convergent
c) Continental Collision
d) Transform

b

14. Where is subduction occurring on this map of South America?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

b

At which of these tectonic plate boundaries would you expect to have earthquakes?
a) Ocean - Ocean Divergent
b) Ocean - Continent Convergent
c) Continental Collision
d) Transform
e) All of the above

e

At which of these tectonic plate boundaries would you expect to have volcanoes?
a) Ocean - Ocean Divergent
b) Ocean - Continent Convergent
c) Continental Collision
d) A&B
e) all of the above

d

What occurs at mid-ocean ridges?
a) oceanic crust is destroyed
b) continental crust is destroyed
c) oceanic crust is created
d) continental crust is created
e) all crust is destroyed by magma

c

How fast do plates move relative to one another?
a) centimeters per year
b) meters per year
c) kilometers per year
d) one hundred kilometers per year

a

What types of plate boundaries are shown in this figure?
a) divergent
b) convergent
c) transform
d) divergent and transform
e) convergent and divergent

d

Which of these is NOT a force that drives plate tectonics?
a) Polar wander
b) Slab pull
c) Ridge push
d) Mantle convection

a

Which of the following is NOT a required criterion for a substance to be classified as a mineral?
a) Defined chemical composition
b) Contains at least 5 different elements
c) Naturally occurring
d) Crystalline solid
e) Inorganic

b

If a mineral cleaves into thin sheets, it probably has:
a) no well-defined cleavage planes
b) three directions of cleavage
c) fractures rather than cleavage
d) one dominant direction of cleavage
e) none of these

d

The most important class of rock-forming minerals on Earth is:
a) halides
b) sulfates
c) native minerals
d) silicates
e) asbestos

d

In which class of minerals would calcite (CaCO3) be included?
a) halides
b) sulfates
c) sulfides
d) carbonates e) silicates

d

In which class of minerals would olivine ((Mg,Fe)2SiO4) be included?
a) halides
b) sulfates
c) sulfides
d) carbonates e) silicates

e

Which of the following minerals is a felsic silicate mineral?
a) pyroxene b) quartz
c) halite
d) biotite
e) magnetite

b

Which of the following minerals is a mafic silicate mineral?
a) amphibole
b) quartz
c) potassium feldspar
d) calcite
e) muscovite

a

The two elements most abundant in the earth's crust are:
a) helium and hydrogen
b) iron and magnesium
c) sodium and potassium
d) silicon and oxygen
e) iron and nickel

d

Which of the following is NOT a way in which silica tetrahedron are combined to form a major group of silicate minerals:
a) Single chains
b) Double chains
c) Triple chains
d) Sheets
e) Frameworks

c

Which of these is NOT a significant mineral resource mined in Colorado?
a) Molybdenum b) Iron
c) Gold
d) Gypsum

b

A finely crystalline or glassy igneous texture indicates that:
a) there was a lot of gas in the magma
b) the rock cooled quickly
c) the rock broke apart as it flowed
d) the rock cooled slowly
e) the ash and pumice were hot and became compacted

b

Which letter in this classification table indicates the position of granite?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

a

Which letter in this classification table indicates the position of basalt?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

e

Which of the following changes in conditions would cause melting of a solid rock?
a) fromAtoB b) fromBtoC c) fromCtoD d) fromAtoD e) fromAtoC

a

Which of the following changes in conditions represents decompression melting?
a) fromAtoB b) fromBtoA c) fromBtoC d) fromCtoB e) fromDtoA

d

How does the addition of water cause melting?
a) it heats the rocks
b) it decreases the pressure on the rocks
c) it increases the temperature while decreasing the pressure
d) it changes the location of the liquid-solid boundary

d

Which of the following minerals would likely crystallize first from a cooling magma?
a) mafic minerals
b) felsic minerals

a

What is the mechanism of melting and source of magma at mid-ocean ridges?
a) Addition of water melting the mantle
b) Heating of continental crust
c) Decompression melting of ocean crust
d) Decompression melting of the mantle

d

What type of magma will be produced at mid-ocean ridges?
a) mafic
b) intermediate c) felsic

a

What is the mechanism of melting and source of magma at subduction zones?
a) Addition of water melting the mantle
b) Heating of continental crust
c) Decompression melting of the mantle
d) A&B
e) All of the above

d

The higher the gas pressure builds in a magma,:
a) the more explosive an eruptions it is likely to produce
b) the less explosive an eruption is likely to produce
c) the longer the lava flows an eruption will produce
d) the more likely a volcanic dome is to form

a

Which of the following are true of felsic magmas?
a) They tend to have high viscosities.
b) They do not allow gas bubbles to escape easily
c) High gas pressures commonly lead to highly explosive eruptions.
d) All of these

d

Mafic magmas tend to have ________ viscosity and ________ gas content than felsic magmas?
a) higher; higher
b) higher; lower
c) lower; higher
d) lower; lower

d

Composite volcanoes are so called because they:
a) are a combination of shield volcanoes, scoria cones, and other volcanoes
b) have many different types of geologic hazards
c) were first discovered on the island of Composita in Italy
d) are composed of lava flows, pyroclastic material, and mudflows
e) none of these

d

Which of the following sites would most likely have LESS dangerous volcanoes? A is on an island arc, B is in the Andes, C is near Hawaii, D is along a mid-ocean ridge.
a) AandB b) BandC c) CandD d) AandC e) BandD

c

Which of the following factors makes a site near a volcano relatively more dangerous?
a) the nearby slopes on the volcano are gentle
b) a site that is within a valley that drains the volcano
c) a site that is upwind from the volcano
d) all of these
e) none of these

b

In which tectonic setting would you expect to find a composite volcano?
a) Mid-ocean ridge
b) Subduction zone
c) Ocean hot spot
d) Continental collision

b

Broad shield volcanoes are composed of:
a) low viscosity mafic magma
b) high viscosity felsic magma

a

Which of the following is NOT evidence of recent activity at a volcano?
a) Thick, well-developed soil
b) Layer of ash blanketing hillslopes
c) Unweathered lava flows
d) Ash flows lacking a well-developed soil

a

Which of the following commonly precede a volcanic eruption?
a) Increased gas flow from a volcano
b) Steam eruptions from the volcanic crater
c) Increased heat flow from the volcano
d) All of these

d

Organic material in oil mostly comes from:
a) plants on land
b) hydrogen rising from Earth's mantle
c) marine organisms
d) calcite that has been heated to a high-enough temperature

C

Which of the following is NOT a necessary step in the formation of oil and natural gas:
a) Burial and heating to the right temperature
b) Buried in an oxygen-poor environment
c) Consumption of organic material by bacteria
d) Accumulation of organic material

C

Once oil and gas are formed, they:
a) rise toward the surface
b) are lighter than water
c) flow most easily through permeable rocks, such as sandstone
d) can be prevented from reaching the surface if they are trapped by impermeable layers
e) all of these

E

Which site in the accompanying figure is the most likely setting for a conventional oil reservoir?
a) shales at 1, 3, and 5
b) limestone at 2
c) sandstone at 4
d) both2and3
e) both2and4

E

What is the starting material for coal?
a) limestone with abundant shells
b) sandstone formed in certain environments
c) plants
d) black shale
e) any of these

C

Which of the following is NOT an environmental consequence of using coal?
a) mining coal in underground mines causes explosions and cave ins
b) coal mining can devastate the landscape, leaving piles of mine waste on the surface
c) burning coal can release sulfur dioxide, a leading cause of acid rain
d) burning coal removes carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas from the atmosphere

D

7. Which of the following settings would be the most favorable for fossil fuels?
a) fractured granitic rocks that allow oil and gas to enter
b) metamorphosed rocks that have been heated to 400°C
c) sedimentary rocks that contain folds and faults
d) hydrothermal rocks, like hot spring deposits

C

Hydraulic fracturing is used in some unconventional oil and gas reservoirs to:
a) Increase the formation of oil within the reservoir
b) Convert oil to natural gas
c) Increase the permeability of the reservoir
d) Increase the porosity of the reservoir

C

How is nuclear energy produced to generate electricity?
a) lead is heated until it becomes molten and turns into uranium
b) hydrogen and helium are combined in the process of nuclear fusion
c) uranium decays into two smaller particles, releasing heat in the process
d) large panels collect light from the nuclear-powered Sun

C

How do most uranium deposits form?
a) granites solidify, trapping uranium within the crystals
b) volcanic pipes bring uranium to the surface from deep in the mantle
c) uranium is transported and deposited by groundwater
d) there are no natural deposits because uranium is produced in the laboratory

C

Missing geologic time caused by erosion is called a (an):
a) unconformity
b) fold
c) igneous intrusion
d) isotope

A

The term half life represents the time it takes:
a) to dissolve half of the atoms in the lattice
b) for the parent atoms to decay into atoms half their original size
c) for half of the parent atoms to decay into daughter atoms
d) for the Sun to decrease its size by 50 percent

C

If a rock started with 1,000 atoms of a parent but now contains 250 parent atoms, how many half-lives have passed?
a) .25 half lives
b) .5 half lives
c) 1 half life
d) 2 half lives
e) there is no way to tell

D

If the half-life of the isotope you are using is 10 million years, and rock you are dating started with 1,000 atoms of the parent but now contains 500 parent atoms, how old is the rock?
a) 5 million years old
b) 10 million years old
c) 20 million years old
d) 10 billion years old
e) there is no way to tell

B

Which is the oldest rock unit in this diagram?
a) D b) B c) A d) C e) G
(ORDER B,F,G,E,H,C (D CUTS THROUGH F)(A CUTS THROUGH AND STOPS BEFORE F AT G)

D

Which rock unit in this figure was formed before A but after E?
a) C
b) E
c) G
d) F
e) D
(ORDER B,F,G,E,H,C (D CUTS THROUGH F)(A CUTS THROUGH AND STOPS BEFORE F AT G)

C

The sedimentary rocks along the Colorado Front range dip down to the east because:
a) They were deformed during the formation of the modern Rocky Mountains
b) They were deposited that way
c) They were pushed up by glaciers during the last ice age
d) They were deformed during the formation of the ancestral Rocky Mountains

A

Which of these geologic events happened most recently:
a) First dinosaurs
b) A shallow sea covered Colorado (Western Interior Seaway)
c) Formation of the modern Rocky Mountains
d) First animals with shells
e) Formation of the ancestral Rocky Mountains

C

This figure shows the main subdivisions of the geologic timescale. Which of these is the Cenozoic?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
((YELLOW)A=65MY)((GREEN)B=251 MY)((BLUE)C=542 MY)((TAN)D=4500 MA)

A

Which of the following time periods were dinosaurs the dominant creatures?
a) Cenozoic
b) Mesozoic
c) Paleozoic
d) Precambrian

B

_________ are fastest and travel through compression, while _________ are slower and travel through shearing.
a) S-waves; P-waves
b) P-waves; S-waves

B

In what order will the seismic stations (#1 and #2) detect seismic waves generated by the earthquake shown in the image?
a) Station 1 will detect them first, followed by Station 2.
b) Station 2 will detect them first, followed by Station 1.
c) Stations 1 and 2 will detect the waves at the same time.
d) Only station 2 will detect waves because Station 1 is too close to the hypocenter.

A

When do rocks along a fault have the highest amount of stress?
a) right before an earthquake
b) right after an earthquake
c) several weeks or months after an earthquake
d) none of these because rocks cannot have stress

A

What is illustrated by this figure below?
a) stress consistently increases through time
b) stress consistently decreases through time
c) as stress increases, the fault strength increases
d) stress increases until it matches the strength of the fault, and then stress decreases

D

The diagram below indicates that:
a) S-waves are the first wave to arrive at station and then die out into P-waves
b) S-waves are the last wave to arrive at the station
c) P-waves arrive first, followed by S-waves
d) surface waves arrive first, followed by S-waves and then P-waves
e) surface waves cause the smallest vibrations
(SMALL (P WAVES) MEDIUM (S WAVE) THEN LARGE (SURFACE WAVE)

C

The diagram below shows the record of one earthquake on seismograms at three different stations in a seismic network. These three seismograms show:
a) ISCO station is closest to the earthquake
b) WUAZ station was right at the earthquake
c) DUG station is farthest from the earthquake
d) WUAZ is the closest station, followed by DUG, and then ISCO
e) none of these
(ISCO WAVES STOP QUICKEST, DUG STOP MIDDLE, WUAZ TAKES LONGEST TO STOP)

A

Which of the following would increase the magnitude of an earthquake:
a) Decreasing the length of slip along a fault
b) Lower rigidity of the rock
c) Increasing the area of the fault that slips
d) all of these

C

In the map to the right, areas of significant earthquake risk are shaded. Most high risk areas will be located:
a) next to the oceans
b) in mountainous areas
c) near a boundary between tectonic plates
d) near volcanoes
e) in the center of continents

C

The top cross section below shows earthquakes along the San Andreas fault before October 17, 1989 and the one on the bottom shows earthquakes along the same fault after that date. These two cross sections illustrate that:
a) one way to predict the locations of future earthquakes is to identify seismic gaps
b) San Francisco is due for an earthquake
c) the most dangerous part of a fault may be one that has not had recent earthquakes
d) all of these

D

Long-range earthquake forecasting:
a) is based mainly on the knowledge of when and where earthquakes occurred in the past
b) uses tectonic settings and historical records
c) measures patterns of seismic activity along a fault to determine locations and recurrence intervals
d) all of these

D

Folds are examples of ______________ deformation and occur at ______________ depths in the crust.
a) Brittle; shallow
b) Brittle; deep
c) Ductile; shallow
d) Ductile; deep

D

What type of fault is shown in this figure?
a) normal fault
b) strike-slip fault
c) reverse fault
(2 PLATES SLIDING PAST EACH OTHER ONE TOWARDS NORTH ONE TOWARDS SOUTH)

B

33. What type of stress could form the fault in this figure?
a) confining pressure
b) tension
c) shear
d) compression
(2 PLATES SLIDING PAST EACH OTHER ONE TOWARDS NORTH ONE TOWARDS SOUTH)

C

What type of fault is shown in this figure?
a) normal fault
b) reverse fault
c) strike-slip fault
(LEFT BLOCK IS HIGHER THAN RIGHT BLOCK MOVING AWAY FROM EACH OTHER IN OPPOSITE DIRECTIONS)

A

What type of stress could form the fault in this figure?
a) confining pressure
b) tension
c) compression
d) shear
(LEFT BLOCK IS HIGHER THAN RIGHT BLOCK MOVING AWAY FROM EACH OTHER IN OPPOSITE DIRECTIONS)

B

What type of structure is shown in this figure?
a) anticline b) syncline c) monocline d) dome
e) basin
(STRUCTURE RESEMBLING "U")

B

Shale is metamorphosed into four rock types: (1) a banded gneissic rock; (2) a rock with small mica crystals with a shiny aspect; (3) a very shiny rock with large mica crystals; and (4) a dull slate with cleavage. Which of the following lists these rocks in order of increasing metamorphic grade?
a) 1,2,3,4 b) 4,3,2,1 c) 2,3,4,1 d) 4,2,3,1 e) 3,2,4,1

D

Which of the following does NOT match a sedimentary rock with a possible metamorphic equivalent?
a) sandstone - quartzite
b) limestone - marble
c) shale - schist
d) shale - gneiss
e) all of these are correct matches

E

Which location on this diagram would most likely record contact metamorphism in shallow levels of the crust?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
(1 CLOSEST TO TOP, 2 2ND CLOSEST TO TOP, 3 3RD CLOSEST TO TOP, 4 LAST FROM TOP)

A

Which type of stress would you expect to occur at an ocean-continent convergent boundary?
a) compression b) tension
c) shear

A

Which of the following is NOT a physical weathering process:
a) fracturing
b) dissolution
c) frost wedging
d) animal burrowing
e) root wedging

B

If you were designing a rock that resisted weathering, which of the following characteristics would it have?
a) closely spaced fractures
b) a soluble chemical composition
c) abundant quartz
d) composed of abundant loose pieces
e) composed of mafic minerals

C

A conglomerate is a sedimentary rock composed of rounded pieces of rock that are larger than sand size. In which category of sedimentary rocks would conglomerate be placed?
a) clastic
b) chemical
c) biochemical
d) none of these

A

What typically happens to the size, shape, and sorting of clasts as they are transported from steep mountains toward more gentle settings?
a) the size of the clasts increases
b) the clasts become more rounded
c) the sediment becomes more poorly sorted
d) all of these

B

Which of the following rocks is composed of the smallest sedimentary clasts?
a) breccia
b) conglomerate c) shale
d) sandstone
e) siltstone

C

What type of rock would you form from a coral reef?
a) conglomerate
b) limestone
c) coal
d) shale
e) iron formation

B

Which environment is least likely to deposit sand?
a) sand dunes along a beach or in a desert
b) channel of a meandering river
c) beach along the ocean or lake
d) delta along an ocean or lake
e) open ocean away from land

E

A very well sorted, red sandstone with large-scale cross-bedding such as the Lyons Sandstone indicates the sand was likely:
a) deposited by the wind in dunes
b) deposited by water in a braided river system
c) deposited by water in a meandering river system
d) deposited by water at a beach

A

Which of the following units was most likely deposited along an ancient mountain front?
a) unit 5
b) unit 4
c) unit 3
d) unit 2
e) unit 1
(6=SANDSTONE WITH SILTSTONE/COAL 5=SHALE, 4=SANDSTONE WITH PLANT FOSSILS/BEACH, 3=SHALE AND SANDSTONE WITH DINOSAUR, 2= MUDSTONE AND MARINE LIMESTONE, 1=RED SANDSTONE, CONGLOMERATE, BRECCIA)

E

A sedimentary sequence (from bottom to top) is limestone, mudstone, then sandstone. This change likely reflects a:
a) Transgression (sea level rise)
b) Regression (sea level fall)
c) Transgression followed by a regression
d) Regression followed by a transgression
e) No change in sea level

B

Which of the following is NOT a common trigger for mass movements?
a) adding water to a slope
b) volcanic eruption
c) shaking during an earthquake
d) oversteepening of cliffs or hillslopes during road construction
e) all of these are common triggers for slope failure

E

What is the main force involved in the stability of slopes?
a) water pressure
b) sunlight
c) wind
d) gravity
e) radioactivity decay

D

Mass movements are classified based upon which of the following?
a) Rate of movement
b) Type of material
c) Type of movement
d) Slope failures are classified based upon all of these

D

How is a slide differentiated from a fall?
a) A slide involves a relatively intact block moving on a well-defined plane. A fall involves material free falling or bouncing down a cliff.
b) A slide moves material for very great distances. A fall does not move material very far.
c) Material becomes broken up during a slide. Material remains relatively intact during a fall.
d) A fall is much more hazardous than a slide.

A

The failure of a slope typically occurs when:
a) The downslope force is greater than the resisting force
b) The resisting force is greater than the downslope force
c) The force of gravity is reduced
d) Friction along the slope increases

A

The downhill movement of wet, muddy mixtures usually is considered a:
a) flow
b) fall
c) slide

A

Why are mass movements common after large rainfall events such as the 2013 Front Range Flooding?
a) The addition of water decreases shear component of the force of gravity
b) The addition of water decreases the resisting force holding the material in place
c) Increased water in streams erodes and undercuts hill slopes
d) B&C
e) All of the above

D

Which of the following settings would be most vulnerable to mass movements?
a) A gentle slope with lots of vegetation
b) A steep mountain composed of unfractured granite
c) A steep mountain covered in a thick layer of loose sediment

C

Which one of the following statements is true regarding the Earth's supply of freshwater?
a) The largest volume exists in lakes and reservoirs.
b) There is more in the form of water vapor in the atmosphere than there is as liquid groundwater.
c) There is more freshwater in glaciers and ice sheets than exists as groundwater.
d) There is more water in rivers than exists as soil moisture and groundwater.

C

Which of the following are the two primary sources of water for the City of Fort Collins?
a) South Platte Aquifer and the Cache la Poudre River
b) Cache la Poudre River and the Horsetooth Reservoir
c) Colorado River and the Dakota Aquifer
d) Horsetooth Reservoir and the Dakota Aquifer
e) South Platte River and the Cache la Poudre River

B

Most groundwater pumped in Colorado is used for:
a) industry
b) irrigation
c) drinking water
d) swimming pools

B

In a material that holds groundwater, porosity:
a) controls the amount of water that can be stored
b) determines the composition of the cement between grains and clasts
c) does not depend on the size and shape of grains and clasts
d) is constant from one type of material to another

A

The permeability of a material refers to:
a) the volume of air space in a material
b) a meandering stream's movement across the underlying bedrock
c) the ease with which a stream erodes material
d) the ability of water to flow through a material

D

Which of the following materials has high porosity and high permeability?
a) unfractured granite
b) well-sorted gravel
c) compacted clay
d) poorly sorted sand, silt, and clay

B

Aquifers are generally characterized by ______________.
a) low porosity and low permeability
b) low porosity and high permeability
c) high porosity and low permeability
d) high porosity and high permeability

D

Which of the following would NOT make a good aquifer?
a) Unconsolidated sand and gravel
b) Shale
c) Well-sorted sandstone
d) Fractured limestone

B

This map shows elevations of the water table beneath an area. Which way does the groundwater flow? Generally toward the:
a) south
b) north
c) northwest
d) east

A

18. This cross section shows the location of a septic tank with harmful bacteria and 5 wells. Which well is least likely to become contaminated?
a) well A
b) well B
c) well C
d) well D
e) well E
(B CLOSEST, C SECOND CLOSEST, D THIRD CLOSEST, A 4TH CLOSEST, E FARTHEST)

E

19. Fort Collins is in the ______________drainage basin. Rain that falls in Fort Collins will eventually flow into the __________________.
a) Colorado River; Pacific Ocean
b) Arkansas River; Atlantic Ocean
c) Mississippi River; Arctic Ocean
d) Cache la Poudre River; Gulf of Mexico

D

What is the pattern of discharge shown by this hydrograph?
a) discharge gradually increases and quickly decreases
b) discharge quickly increases and gradually decreases
c) discharge gradually decreases and quickly increases
d) discharges quickly decreases and gradually increases
(GRAPH IS A 2 FOR "A" AND "B" THEN 9 AT "C" 6 AT "D" AND 4 AT "E")

B

Based on the accompanying hydrograph, what was the stream discharge when the data period shown in the graph ended?
a) 1.8 meters per second
b) 4 meters per second
c) 4 cubic meters per second
d) 9 cubic meters per second
e) 10 cubic meters per second
(GRAPH IS A 2 FOR "A" AND "B" THEN 9 AT "C" 6 AT "D" AND 4 AT "E")

C

The grain size of clasts that a stream can carry is primarily controlled by:
a) the water temperature
b) the dissolved and suspended load of a stream
c) how close the stream is to the ocean
d) the velocity of the current
e) whether it is a permanent or ephemeral stream

D

Which of the following is a condition favoring deposition of sediment?
a) a decrease in water velocity
b) an decrease in sediment grain size
c) an increase in stream discharge
d) a decrease in sediment input to the stream

A

Which of the following graphs is typical for the profile of a river?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
"A"=UPSIDE DOWN U
"B"=SIDEWAYS LIGHTING BOLT
"C"=GRADUAL DECREASE FROM HIGH TO LOW
"D"=GRADUAL INCREASE FROM LOW TO HIGH

C

Which of the following typically decreases downstream in a river?
a) discharge
b) channel size
c) maximum sediment grain size
d) none of these

C

This stream has a width of 20 m, an average depth of 6 m and a velocity of 2 m/s. What is its discharge?
a) 60 m3/s
b) 120 m3/s
c) 28 m3/s
d) 240 m3/s

D

For the same discharge, which site is most likely to be flooded?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
"A"=A IS LEVEL WITH OTHER SIE OF CREEK
"B"=B IS LEVEL WITH OTHER SIDE OF CREEK
"C"=C IS HIGHER THAN OTHER SIDE OF CREEK
"D"= D IS LOWER THAN OTHER SIDE OF CREEK

D

Which of the following is true of a 100-year flood?
a) a 100-year flood occurs exactly every 100 years on a given stream
b) the probability of a 100-year flood occurring on any given year is 1%
c) a 100-year flood cannot occur twice within 10 years
d) the probability of a 100-year flood is related to how recently the last 100-year flood occurred

B

Using this plot of annual peak discharge, what is the Recurrence Interval of flows greater than 7000 cubic feet per second on the Cache la Poudre River (assume there is 40 years of data)?
a) 2 years
b) 10 years
c) 20 years
d) 40 years
e) 100 years
(2 POINTS ABOVE 7000 FROM 1975-2015)

C

Assuming no change in snowfall, an increase in temperature will cause a glacier to _____________.
a) retreat
b) advance
c) have no change

A

A glacier will retreat if accumulation is _____________ ablation.
a) greater than
b) less than
c) the same as

B

Below the equilibrium line (at lower elevation), accumulation is _____________ ablation.
a) greater than
b) less than
c) the same as

B

If a glacier is advancing, the equilibrium line will ____________ in elevation.
a) move up
b) move down
c) stay the same

B

Valleys created by glacial erosion tend to be ______________.
a) very short
b) very steep
c) V-shaped
d) U-shaped

D

Sediments deposited directly by glaciers ________________.
a) Tend to be very well sorted
b) Only contain silt-sized clasts
c) Can contain clast sizes from clay to boulders.
d) Tend to accumulate near the top of the glacier in the accumulation zone

C

What does a terminal moraine represent?
a) the end of a polished and scratched segment of bedrock
b) the sharp ends of a jagged ridge formed by glaciers
c) the end of an ice sheet that is floating in the sea
d) a pile of sediment deposited at the end of the glacier
e) the final time that two glaciers come together

D

Which of the following is NOT evidence for past glacial intervals?
a) glacial moraines in locations where there are no glaciers today
b) deposits of limestone on land indicating higher sea-levels
c) changes in the oxygen isotope composition of the oceans as recorded by foraminifera
d) large boulders in the middle of fields with no connection to the surrounding bedrock
e) large areas smoothed by glacial erosion

B

Which of the following would cause sea level to fall?
a) a decrease in the amount of glaciers on land
b) faster rates of seafloor spreading
c) a decrease in the temperature of the oceans
d) all of these

C

Imagine that the figure below represents the ocean. If an ice sheet with a volume of 1000 m3 melted and the water produced was added to this ocean, how would the depth of the ocean change? (hint: the volume of water is 0.9 * the volume of ice)
a) a decrease of 6 m
b) an increase of 6 m
c) a decrease of 3 m
d) an increase of 3 m
(A 3D SQUARE RECTANGLE IS SHOWN WITH A 2M HEIGHT,15 M WIDTH ON TOP AND 10 M LENGTH ON TOP)

B

Which of the following is NOT a primary control on Earth's average temperature?
a) Solar radiation
b) greenhouse gases
c) decay of radioactive elements in Earth's core
d) albedo

C

Which of these changes would lead to an increase in Earth's average surface temperature?
a) A decrease in solar radiation
b) A decrease in greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere
c) A decrease in Earth's albedo

C

Growth in the extent of ice sheets would cause a ________________ in Earth's average albedo.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) no change

A

Greenhouse gases _________________.
a) Absorb incoming short-wave solar radiation.
b) Absorb outgoing long-wave radiation
c) Act to cool Earth's surface
d) Are not an important component of Earth's climate system

B

If the amount of energy absorbed by the Earth is greater than the about of energy emitted by the Earth, _______________.
a) Earth's surface temperature will stay the same.
b) Earth's surface temperature will increase.
c) Earth's surface temperature will decrease.

B

Which of the following settings is most likely to have high precipitation?
a) cold polar air that descends and heats up
b) a site where two large-scale circulation patterns flow away from each other, causing air to descend
c) a site where two large-scale circulation patterns converge, causing air to rise
d) none of these

C

The subtropics at 30° north and south of the equator are characterized by arid lands. This is primarily a result of:
a) rising hot air caused by solar heating in these zones
b) descending hot air that heats the ground
c) descending, dry air that is part of a cell that originates at the equator
d) rising cool, dry air that flows in a cell to the equator
e) polar air that flows towards the equator

C

What is the primary reason for the increase in Earth's average temperature over the last 100 years?
a) A decrease in the distance between the Earth and the Sun
b) An increase in Earth's albedo
c) An increase in the tilt of Earth's axis
d) An increase in greenhouse gas concentrations
e) An decrease in volcanic eruptions

D

If the size of ice sheets on land increases (more water locked up as ice), the 18O/16O ratio of seawater should __________.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) stay the same

A

The graph below shows the oxygen isotopic composition of foraminifera that lived in the ocean over the past 5.5 million years. What long-term trends were there in Earth's climate over the past 5.5 million years?
a) It became generally warmer
b) It became generally colder
c) The average temperature did not change.
(STARTED AT 0 BENTHIC ENDED AT 3 BENTHIC)

B

The graph above shows the oxygen isotopic composition of foraminifera that lived in the ocean over the past 5.5 million years. Which of these time periods had the most short-term variability between warm conditions and cold conditions?
a) Between 0.5 million years ago and the present
b) Between 2.0 - 1.5 million years ago
c) Between 4.5 - 4.0 million years ago
d) All of these time periods show the same variability
(LARGE SPIKES 4-4.5 MILLION YEARS AGO, MEDIUM SPIKES 1.5 TO 2 MILLION YEARS AGO, SMALL SPIKES FROM 1/2 MILLION YEARS AGO TO PRESENT)

A

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1. A key step in developing a new explanation for a scientific problem is:
a) making observations about a place or process
b) asking questions about the observations
c) proposing an interpretation that can be tested
d) collecting new observations to test predictions
e) all of these

e

Which of the following statements about the Race Track Playa is an interpretation rather than an observation?
a) The race track is flat and dry.
b) The rocks have tracks leading away from them.
c) There are polygonal shaped cracks in the dirt.
d) The rocks have moved in the past.
e) There are rocks of different sizes on the Race Track.

d

Which of the following data that geologists collected to investigate the movement of rocks on Race Track Playa is quantitative data?
a) GPS measurements of rock movement
b) Photographs of the playa
c) Descriptions of weather conditions
d) B&C
e) All of these are quantitative data

a

Which of the following is an example of quantitative data?
a) North America is moving across Earth’s surface several centimeters per year
b) the river has flooded a low-lying area
c) the volcano is releasing much steam
d) volcanoes are dangerous
e) when held, one rock feels heavier than another rock

a

Qualitative data may involve which of the following?
a) labels
b) sketches
c) descriptive words
d) images
e) all of these

e

Which of the following would be consistent with an origin of Upheaval Dome by a rising salt mass?
a) the presence of a thick salt layer beneath the region
b) structures that are similar to those formed around rising salt
c) a lower density for salt than typical rocks
d) all of these
e) none of these

d

7. Your textbook describes some observations about a crater in Northern Arizona; which of the following is not an observation?
a) The crater has a raised rim.
b) The rim of the crater consists of fractured blocks of limestone and sandstone.
c) The crater was formed by a meteor impact
d) Shattered rocks in the walls of the crater contain unusual minerals that form only at extremely
high pressures.
e) All of these are observations.

c

8. Which are true of a hypothesis?
a) It may be tentatively assumed.
b) It can be tested for validity.
c) It may be scrapped or amended after testing.
d) All of these.

d

Which of the following is a possible hypothesis for the Arizona crater described in Question 7?
a) A volcanic explosion blasted open the crater.
b) A rising mass of salt warped up the rock layers, and rain water later dissolved the salt to form
the crater.
c) A large meteoroid blasted the crater when it collided with the Earth’s surface.
d) All of these are possible hypotheses.

d

Which of these is NOT a prediction you could make to test the hypotheses listed in Question 9?
a) Volcanoes are very common, so that is the most likely explanation.
b) Volcanic materials, such as ash, should be present around the crater.
c) A mass of salt should exist beneath the floor of the crater.
d) Fragments of a meteoroid might remain beneath the crater or on the surrounding plains.
e) Meteoroid impacts cause very high pressures near the collision, so minerals formed under high
pressure may be found.

a

Which of the following statements correctly describes the differences between ocean crust and continental crust?
a) Ocean crust is thicker, denser and more mafic than continental crust.
b) Ocean crust is thinner, denser and more mafic than continental crust.
c) Ocean crust is thinner, less dense and more felsic than continental crust.
d) Ocean crust is thinner, less dense and more mafic than continental crust.
e) Ocean crust is thicker, denser and more felsic than continental crust.

b

When an ocean plate and a continental plate converge, which plate will subduct and why?
a) The continental plate; it is thicker.
b) The continental plate; it is denser.
c) The ocean plate; it is denser.
d) The ocean plate; it is thicker.

c

13. Which type of tectonic plate boundary has a deep ocean trench, an accretionary wedge, deep earthquakes, and volcanoes next to the boundary?
a) Ocean – Ocean Divergent
b) Ocean – Continent Convergent
c) Continental Collision
d) Transform

b

14. Where is subduction occurring on this map of South America?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

b

At which of these tectonic plate boundaries would you expect to have earthquakes?
a) Ocean – Ocean Divergent
b) Ocean – Continent Convergent
c) Continental Collision
d) Transform
e) All of the above

e

At which of these tectonic plate boundaries would you expect to have volcanoes?
a) Ocean – Ocean Divergent
b) Ocean – Continent Convergent
c) Continental Collision
d) A&B
e) all of the above

d

What occurs at mid-ocean ridges?
a) oceanic crust is destroyed
b) continental crust is destroyed
c) oceanic crust is created
d) continental crust is created
e) all crust is destroyed by magma

c

How fast do plates move relative to one another?
a) centimeters per year
b) meters per year
c) kilometers per year
d) one hundred kilometers per year

a

What types of plate boundaries are shown in this figure?
a) divergent
b) convergent
c) transform
d) divergent and transform
e) convergent and divergent

d

Which of these is NOT a force that drives plate tectonics?
a) Polar wander
b) Slab pull
c) Ridge push
d) Mantle convection

a

Which of the following is NOT a required criterion for a substance to be classified as a mineral?
a) Defined chemical composition
b) Contains at least 5 different elements
c) Naturally occurring
d) Crystalline solid
e) Inorganic

b

If a mineral cleaves into thin sheets, it probably has:
a) no well-defined cleavage planes
b) three directions of cleavage
c) fractures rather than cleavage
d) one dominant direction of cleavage
e) none of these

d

The most important class of rock-forming minerals on Earth is:
a) halides
b) sulfates
c) native minerals
d) silicates
e) asbestos

d

In which class of minerals would calcite (CaCO3) be included?
a) halides
b) sulfates
c) sulfides
d) carbonates e) silicates

d

In which class of minerals would olivine ((Mg,Fe)2SiO4) be included?
a) halides
b) sulfates
c) sulfides
d) carbonates e) silicates

e

Which of the following minerals is a felsic silicate mineral?
a) pyroxene b) quartz
c) halite
d) biotite
e) magnetite

b

Which of the following minerals is a mafic silicate mineral?
a) amphibole
b) quartz
c) potassium feldspar
d) calcite
e) muscovite

a

The two elements most abundant in the earth’s crust are:
a) helium and hydrogen
b) iron and magnesium
c) sodium and potassium
d) silicon and oxygen
e) iron and nickel

d

Which of the following is NOT a way in which silica tetrahedron are combined to form a major group of silicate minerals:
a) Single chains
b) Double chains
c) Triple chains
d) Sheets
e) Frameworks

c

Which of these is NOT a significant mineral resource mined in Colorado?
a) Molybdenum b) Iron
c) Gold
d) Gypsum

b

A finely crystalline or glassy igneous texture indicates that:
a) there was a lot of gas in the magma
b) the rock cooled quickly
c) the rock broke apart as it flowed
d) the rock cooled slowly
e) the ash and pumice were hot and became compacted

b

Which letter in this classification table indicates the position of granite?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

a

Which letter in this classification table indicates the position of basalt?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E

e

Which of the following changes in conditions would cause melting of a solid rock?
a) fromAtoB b) fromBtoC c) fromCtoD d) fromAtoD e) fromAtoC

a

Which of the following changes in conditions represents decompression melting?
a) fromAtoB b) fromBtoA c) fromBtoC d) fromCtoB e) fromDtoA

d

How does the addition of water cause melting?
a) it heats the rocks
b) it decreases the pressure on the rocks
c) it increases the temperature while decreasing the pressure
d) it changes the location of the liquid-solid boundary

d

Which of the following minerals would likely crystallize first from a cooling magma?
a) mafic minerals
b) felsic minerals

a

What is the mechanism of melting and source of magma at mid-ocean ridges?
a) Addition of water melting the mantle
b) Heating of continental crust
c) Decompression melting of ocean crust
d) Decompression melting of the mantle

d

What type of magma will be produced at mid-ocean ridges?
a) mafic
b) intermediate c) felsic

a

What is the mechanism of melting and source of magma at subduction zones?
a) Addition of water melting the mantle
b) Heating of continental crust
c) Decompression melting of the mantle
d) A&B
e) All of the above

d

The higher the gas pressure builds in a magma,:
a) the more explosive an eruptions it is likely to produce
b) the less explosive an eruption is likely to produce
c) the longer the lava flows an eruption will produce
d) the more likely a volcanic dome is to form

a

Which of the following are true of felsic magmas?
a) They tend to have high viscosities.
b) They do not allow gas bubbles to escape easily
c) High gas pressures commonly lead to highly explosive eruptions.
d) All of these

d

Mafic magmas tend to have ________ viscosity and ________ gas content than felsic magmas?
a) higher; higher
b) higher; lower
c) lower; higher
d) lower; lower

d

Composite volcanoes are so called because they:
a) are a combination of shield volcanoes, scoria cones, and other volcanoes
b) have many different types of geologic hazards
c) were first discovered on the island of Composita in Italy
d) are composed of lava flows, pyroclastic material, and mudflows
e) none of these

d

Which of the following sites would most likely have LESS dangerous volcanoes? A is on an island arc, B is in the Andes, C is near Hawaii, D is along a mid-ocean ridge.
a) AandB b) BandC c) CandD d) AandC e) BandD

c

Which of the following factors makes a site near a volcano relatively more dangerous?
a) the nearby slopes on the volcano are gentle
b) a site that is within a valley that drains the volcano
c) a site that is upwind from the volcano
d) all of these
e) none of these

b

In which tectonic setting would you expect to find a composite volcano?
a) Mid-ocean ridge
b) Subduction zone
c) Ocean hot spot
d) Continental collision

b

Broad shield volcanoes are composed of:
a) low viscosity mafic magma
b) high viscosity felsic magma

a

Which of the following is NOT evidence of recent activity at a volcano?
a) Thick, well-developed soil
b) Layer of ash blanketing hillslopes
c) Unweathered lava flows
d) Ash flows lacking a well-developed soil

a

Which of the following commonly precede a volcanic eruption?
a) Increased gas flow from a volcano
b) Steam eruptions from the volcanic crater
c) Increased heat flow from the volcano
d) All of these

d

Organic material in oil mostly comes from:
a) plants on land
b) hydrogen rising from Earth’s mantle
c) marine organisms
d) calcite that has been heated to a high-enough temperature

C

Which of the following is NOT a necessary step in the formation of oil and natural gas:
a) Burial and heating to the right temperature
b) Buried in an oxygen-poor environment
c) Consumption of organic material by bacteria
d) Accumulation of organic material

C

Once oil and gas are formed, they:
a) rise toward the surface
b) are lighter than water
c) flow most easily through permeable rocks, such as sandstone
d) can be prevented from reaching the surface if they are trapped by impermeable layers
e) all of these

E

Which site in the accompanying figure is the most likely setting for a conventional oil reservoir?
a) shales at 1, 3, and 5
b) limestone at 2
c) sandstone at 4
d) both2and3
e) both2and4

E

What is the starting material for coal?
a) limestone with abundant shells
b) sandstone formed in certain environments
c) plants
d) black shale
e) any of these

C

Which of the following is NOT an environmental consequence of using coal?
a) mining coal in underground mines causes explosions and cave ins
b) coal mining can devastate the landscape, leaving piles of mine waste on the surface
c) burning coal can release sulfur dioxide, a leading cause of acid rain
d) burning coal removes carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas from the atmosphere

D

7. Which of the following settings would be the most favorable for fossil fuels?
a) fractured granitic rocks that allow oil and gas to enter
b) metamorphosed rocks that have been heated to 400°C
c) sedimentary rocks that contain folds and faults
d) hydrothermal rocks, like hot spring deposits

C

Hydraulic fracturing is used in some unconventional oil and gas reservoirs to:
a) Increase the formation of oil within the reservoir
b) Convert oil to natural gas
c) Increase the permeability of the reservoir
d) Increase the porosity of the reservoir

C

How is nuclear energy produced to generate electricity?
a) lead is heated until it becomes molten and turns into uranium
b) hydrogen and helium are combined in the process of nuclear fusion
c) uranium decays into two smaller particles, releasing heat in the process
d) large panels collect light from the nuclear-powered Sun

C

How do most uranium deposits form?
a) granites solidify, trapping uranium within the crystals
b) volcanic pipes bring uranium to the surface from deep in the mantle
c) uranium is transported and deposited by groundwater
d) there are no natural deposits because uranium is produced in the laboratory

C

Missing geologic time caused by erosion is called a (an):
a) unconformity
b) fold
c) igneous intrusion
d) isotope

A

The term half life represents the time it takes:
a) to dissolve half of the atoms in the lattice
b) for the parent atoms to decay into atoms half their original size
c) for half of the parent atoms to decay into daughter atoms
d) for the Sun to decrease its size by 50 percent

C

If a rock started with 1,000 atoms of a parent but now contains 250 parent atoms, how many half-lives have passed?
a) .25 half lives
b) .5 half lives
c) 1 half life
d) 2 half lives
e) there is no way to tell

D

If the half-life of the isotope you are using is 10 million years, and rock you are dating started with 1,000 atoms of the parent but now contains 500 parent atoms, how old is the rock?
a) 5 million years old
b) 10 million years old
c) 20 million years old
d) 10 billion years old
e) there is no way to tell

B

Which is the oldest rock unit in this diagram?
a) D b) B c) A d) C e) G
(ORDER B,F,G,E,H,C (D CUTS THROUGH F)(A CUTS THROUGH AND STOPS BEFORE F AT G)

D

Which rock unit in this figure was formed before A but after E?
a) C
b) E
c) G
d) F
e) D
(ORDER B,F,G,E,H,C (D CUTS THROUGH F)(A CUTS THROUGH AND STOPS BEFORE F AT G)

C

The sedimentary rocks along the Colorado Front range dip down to the east because:
a) They were deformed during the formation of the modern Rocky Mountains
b) They were deposited that way
c) They were pushed up by glaciers during the last ice age
d) They were deformed during the formation of the ancestral Rocky Mountains

A

Which of these geologic events happened most recently:
a) First dinosaurs
b) A shallow sea covered Colorado (Western Interior Seaway)
c) Formation of the modern Rocky Mountains
d) First animals with shells
e) Formation of the ancestral Rocky Mountains

C

This figure shows the main subdivisions of the geologic timescale. Which of these is the Cenozoic?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
((YELLOW)A=65MY)((GREEN)B=251 MY)((BLUE)C=542 MY)((TAN)D=4500 MA)

A

Which of the following time periods were dinosaurs the dominant creatures?
a) Cenozoic
b) Mesozoic
c) Paleozoic
d) Precambrian

B

_________ are fastest and travel through compression, while _________ are slower and travel through shearing.
a) S-waves; P-waves
b) P-waves; S-waves

B

In what order will the seismic stations (#1 and #2) detect seismic waves generated by the earthquake shown in the image?
a) Station 1 will detect them first, followed by Station 2.
b) Station 2 will detect them first, followed by Station 1.
c) Stations 1 and 2 will detect the waves at the same time.
d) Only station 2 will detect waves because Station 1 is too close to the hypocenter.

A

When do rocks along a fault have the highest amount of stress?
a) right before an earthquake
b) right after an earthquake
c) several weeks or months after an earthquake
d) none of these because rocks cannot have stress

A

What is illustrated by this figure below?
a) stress consistently increases through time
b) stress consistently decreases through time
c) as stress increases, the fault strength increases
d) stress increases until it matches the strength of the fault, and then stress decreases

D

The diagram below indicates that:
a) S-waves are the first wave to arrive at station and then die out into P-waves
b) S-waves are the last wave to arrive at the station
c) P-waves arrive first, followed by S-waves
d) surface waves arrive first, followed by S-waves and then P-waves
e) surface waves cause the smallest vibrations
(SMALL (P WAVES) MEDIUM (S WAVE) THEN LARGE (SURFACE WAVE)

C

The diagram below shows the record of one earthquake on seismograms at three different stations in a seismic network. These three seismograms show:
a) ISCO station is closest to the earthquake
b) WUAZ station was right at the earthquake
c) DUG station is farthest from the earthquake
d) WUAZ is the closest station, followed by DUG, and then ISCO
e) none of these
(ISCO WAVES STOP QUICKEST, DUG STOP MIDDLE, WUAZ TAKES LONGEST TO STOP)

A

Which of the following would increase the magnitude of an earthquake:
a) Decreasing the length of slip along a fault
b) Lower rigidity of the rock
c) Increasing the area of the fault that slips
d) all of these

C

In the map to the right, areas of significant earthquake risk are shaded. Most high risk areas will be located:
a) next to the oceans
b) in mountainous areas
c) near a boundary between tectonic plates
d) near volcanoes
e) in the center of continents

C

The top cross section below shows earthquakes along the San Andreas fault before October 17, 1989 and the one on the bottom shows earthquakes along the same fault after that date. These two cross sections illustrate that:
a) one way to predict the locations of future earthquakes is to identify seismic gaps
b) San Francisco is due for an earthquake
c) the most dangerous part of a fault may be one that has not had recent earthquakes
d) all of these

D

Long-range earthquake forecasting:
a) is based mainly on the knowledge of when and where earthquakes occurred in the past
b) uses tectonic settings and historical records
c) measures patterns of seismic activity along a fault to determine locations and recurrence intervals
d) all of these

D

Folds are examples of ______________ deformation and occur at ______________ depths in the crust.
a) Brittle; shallow
b) Brittle; deep
c) Ductile; shallow
d) Ductile; deep

D

What type of fault is shown in this figure?
a) normal fault
b) strike-slip fault
c) reverse fault
(2 PLATES SLIDING PAST EACH OTHER ONE TOWARDS NORTH ONE TOWARDS SOUTH)

B

33. What type of stress could form the fault in this figure?
a) confining pressure
b) tension
c) shear
d) compression
(2 PLATES SLIDING PAST EACH OTHER ONE TOWARDS NORTH ONE TOWARDS SOUTH)

C

What type of fault is shown in this figure?
a) normal fault
b) reverse fault
c) strike-slip fault
(LEFT BLOCK IS HIGHER THAN RIGHT BLOCK MOVING AWAY FROM EACH OTHER IN OPPOSITE DIRECTIONS)

A

What type of stress could form the fault in this figure?
a) confining pressure
b) tension
c) compression
d) shear
(LEFT BLOCK IS HIGHER THAN RIGHT BLOCK MOVING AWAY FROM EACH OTHER IN OPPOSITE DIRECTIONS)

B

What type of structure is shown in this figure?
a) anticline b) syncline c) monocline d) dome
e) basin
(STRUCTURE RESEMBLING "U")

B

Shale is metamorphosed into four rock types: (1) a banded gneissic rock; (2) a rock with small mica crystals with a shiny aspect; (3) a very shiny rock with large mica crystals; and (4) a dull slate with cleavage. Which of the following lists these rocks in order of increasing metamorphic grade?
a) 1,2,3,4 b) 4,3,2,1 c) 2,3,4,1 d) 4,2,3,1 e) 3,2,4,1

D

Which of the following does NOT match a sedimentary rock with a possible metamorphic equivalent?
a) sandstone – quartzite
b) limestone – marble
c) shale – schist
d) shale – gneiss
e) all of these are correct matches

E

Which location on this diagram would most likely record contact metamorphism in shallow levels of the crust?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
(1 CLOSEST TO TOP, 2 2ND CLOSEST TO TOP, 3 3RD CLOSEST TO TOP, 4 LAST FROM TOP)

A

Which type of stress would you expect to occur at an ocean-continent convergent boundary?
a) compression b) tension
c) shear

A

Which of the following is NOT a physical weathering process:
a) fracturing
b) dissolution
c) frost wedging
d) animal burrowing
e) root wedging

B

If you were designing a rock that resisted weathering, which of the following characteristics would it have?
a) closely spaced fractures
b) a soluble chemical composition
c) abundant quartz
d) composed of abundant loose pieces
e) composed of mafic minerals

C

A conglomerate is a sedimentary rock composed of rounded pieces of rock that are larger than sand size. In which category of sedimentary rocks would conglomerate be placed?
a) clastic
b) chemical
c) biochemical
d) none of these

A

What typically happens to the size, shape, and sorting of clasts as they are transported from steep mountains toward more gentle settings?
a) the size of the clasts increases
b) the clasts become more rounded
c) the sediment becomes more poorly sorted
d) all of these

B

Which of the following rocks is composed of the smallest sedimentary clasts?
a) breccia
b) conglomerate c) shale
d) sandstone
e) siltstone

C

What type of rock would you form from a coral reef?
a) conglomerate
b) limestone
c) coal
d) shale
e) iron formation

B

Which environment is least likely to deposit sand?
a) sand dunes along a beach or in a desert
b) channel of a meandering river
c) beach along the ocean or lake
d) delta along an ocean or lake
e) open ocean away from land

E

A very well sorted, red sandstone with large-scale cross-bedding such as the Lyons Sandstone indicates the sand was likely:
a) deposited by the wind in dunes
b) deposited by water in a braided river system
c) deposited by water in a meandering river system
d) deposited by water at a beach

A

Which of the following units was most likely deposited along an ancient mountain front?
a) unit 5
b) unit 4
c) unit 3
d) unit 2
e) unit 1
(6=SANDSTONE WITH SILTSTONE/COAL 5=SHALE, 4=SANDSTONE WITH PLANT FOSSILS/BEACH, 3=SHALE AND SANDSTONE WITH DINOSAUR, 2= MUDSTONE AND MARINE LIMESTONE, 1=RED SANDSTONE, CONGLOMERATE, BRECCIA)

E

A sedimentary sequence (from bottom to top) is limestone, mudstone, then sandstone. This change likely reflects a:
a) Transgression (sea level rise)
b) Regression (sea level fall)
c) Transgression followed by a regression
d) Regression followed by a transgression
e) No change in sea level

B

Which of the following is NOT a common trigger for mass movements?
a) adding water to a slope
b) volcanic eruption
c) shaking during an earthquake
d) oversteepening of cliffs or hillslopes during road construction
e) all of these are common triggers for slope failure

E

What is the main force involved in the stability of slopes?
a) water pressure
b) sunlight
c) wind
d) gravity
e) radioactivity decay

D

Mass movements are classified based upon which of the following?
a) Rate of movement
b) Type of material
c) Type of movement
d) Slope failures are classified based upon all of these

D

How is a slide differentiated from a fall?
a) A slide involves a relatively intact block moving on a well-defined plane. A fall involves material free falling or bouncing down a cliff.
b) A slide moves material for very great distances. A fall does not move material very far.
c) Material becomes broken up during a slide. Material remains relatively intact during a fall.
d) A fall is much more hazardous than a slide.

A

The failure of a slope typically occurs when:
a) The downslope force is greater than the resisting force
b) The resisting force is greater than the downslope force
c) The force of gravity is reduced
d) Friction along the slope increases

A

The downhill movement of wet, muddy mixtures usually is considered a:
a) flow
b) fall
c) slide

A

Why are mass movements common after large rainfall events such as the 2013 Front Range Flooding?
a) The addition of water decreases shear component of the force of gravity
b) The addition of water decreases the resisting force holding the material in place
c) Increased water in streams erodes and undercuts hill slopes
d) B&C
e) All of the above

D

Which of the following settings would be most vulnerable to mass movements?
a) A gentle slope with lots of vegetation
b) A steep mountain composed of unfractured granite
c) A steep mountain covered in a thick layer of loose sediment

C

Which one of the following statements is true regarding the Earth’s supply of freshwater?
a) The largest volume exists in lakes and reservoirs.
b) There is more in the form of water vapor in the atmosphere than there is as liquid groundwater.
c) There is more freshwater in glaciers and ice sheets than exists as groundwater.
d) There is more water in rivers than exists as soil moisture and groundwater.

C

Which of the following are the two primary sources of water for the City of Fort Collins?
a) South Platte Aquifer and the Cache la Poudre River
b) Cache la Poudre River and the Horsetooth Reservoir
c) Colorado River and the Dakota Aquifer
d) Horsetooth Reservoir and the Dakota Aquifer
e) South Platte River and the Cache la Poudre River

B

Most groundwater pumped in Colorado is used for:
a) industry
b) irrigation
c) drinking water
d) swimming pools

B

In a material that holds groundwater, porosity:
a) controls the amount of water that can be stored
b) determines the composition of the cement between grains and clasts
c) does not depend on the size and shape of grains and clasts
d) is constant from one type of material to another

A

The permeability of a material refers to:
a) the volume of air space in a material
b) a meandering stream’s movement across the underlying bedrock
c) the ease with which a stream erodes material
d) the ability of water to flow through a material

D

Which of the following materials has high porosity and high permeability?
a) unfractured granite
b) well-sorted gravel
c) compacted clay
d) poorly sorted sand, silt, and clay

B

Aquifers are generally characterized by ______________.
a) low porosity and low permeability
b) low porosity and high permeability
c) high porosity and low permeability
d) high porosity and high permeability

D

Which of the following would NOT make a good aquifer?
a) Unconsolidated sand and gravel
b) Shale
c) Well-sorted sandstone
d) Fractured limestone

B

This map shows elevations of the water table beneath an area. Which way does the groundwater flow? Generally toward the:
a) south
b) north
c) northwest
d) east

A

18. This cross section shows the location of a septic tank with harmful bacteria and 5 wells. Which well is least likely to become contaminated?
a) well A
b) well B
c) well C
d) well D
e) well E
(B CLOSEST, C SECOND CLOSEST, D THIRD CLOSEST, A 4TH CLOSEST, E FARTHEST)

E

19. Fort Collins is in the ______________drainage basin. Rain that falls in Fort Collins will eventually flow into the __________________.
a) Colorado River; Pacific Ocean
b) Arkansas River; Atlantic Ocean
c) Mississippi River; Arctic Ocean
d) Cache la Poudre River; Gulf of Mexico

D

What is the pattern of discharge shown by this hydrograph?
a) discharge gradually increases and quickly decreases
b) discharge quickly increases and gradually decreases
c) discharge gradually decreases and quickly increases
d) discharges quickly decreases and gradually increases
(GRAPH IS A 2 FOR "A" AND "B" THEN 9 AT "C" 6 AT "D" AND 4 AT "E")

B

Based on the accompanying hydrograph, what was the stream discharge when the data period shown in the graph ended?
a) 1.8 meters per second
b) 4 meters per second
c) 4 cubic meters per second
d) 9 cubic meters per second
e) 10 cubic meters per second
(GRAPH IS A 2 FOR "A" AND "B" THEN 9 AT "C" 6 AT "D" AND 4 AT "E")

C

The grain size of clasts that a stream can carry is primarily controlled by:
a) the water temperature
b) the dissolved and suspended load of a stream
c) how close the stream is to the ocean
d) the velocity of the current
e) whether it is a permanent or ephemeral stream

D

Which of the following is a condition favoring deposition of sediment?
a) a decrease in water velocity
b) an decrease in sediment grain size
c) an increase in stream discharge
d) a decrease in sediment input to the stream

A

Which of the following graphs is typical for the profile of a river?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
"A"=UPSIDE DOWN U
"B"=SIDEWAYS LIGHTING BOLT
"C"=GRADUAL DECREASE FROM HIGH TO LOW
"D"=GRADUAL INCREASE FROM LOW TO HIGH

C

Which of the following typically decreases downstream in a river?
a) discharge
b) channel size
c) maximum sediment grain size
d) none of these

C

This stream has a width of 20 m, an average depth of 6 m and a velocity of 2 m/s. What is its discharge?
a) 60 m3/s
b) 120 m3/s
c) 28 m3/s
d) 240 m3/s

D

For the same discharge, which site is most likely to be flooded?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
"A"=A IS LEVEL WITH OTHER SIE OF CREEK
"B"=B IS LEVEL WITH OTHER SIDE OF CREEK
"C"=C IS HIGHER THAN OTHER SIDE OF CREEK
"D"= D IS LOWER THAN OTHER SIDE OF CREEK

D

Which of the following is true of a 100-year flood?
a) a 100-year flood occurs exactly every 100 years on a given stream
b) the probability of a 100-year flood occurring on any given year is 1%
c) a 100-year flood cannot occur twice within 10 years
d) the probability of a 100-year flood is related to how recently the last 100-year flood occurred

B

Using this plot of annual peak discharge, what is the Recurrence Interval of flows greater than 7000 cubic feet per second on the Cache la Poudre River (assume there is 40 years of data)?
a) 2 years
b) 10 years
c) 20 years
d) 40 years
e) 100 years
(2 POINTS ABOVE 7000 FROM 1975-2015)

C

Assuming no change in snowfall, an increase in temperature will cause a glacier to _____________.
a) retreat
b) advance
c) have no change

A

A glacier will retreat if accumulation is _____________ ablation.
a) greater than
b) less than
c) the same as

B

Below the equilibrium line (at lower elevation), accumulation is _____________ ablation.
a) greater than
b) less than
c) the same as

B

If a glacier is advancing, the equilibrium line will ____________ in elevation.
a) move up
b) move down
c) stay the same

B

Valleys created by glacial erosion tend to be ______________.
a) very short
b) very steep
c) V-shaped
d) U-shaped

D

Sediments deposited directly by glaciers ________________.
a) Tend to be very well sorted
b) Only contain silt-sized clasts
c) Can contain clast sizes from clay to boulders.
d) Tend to accumulate near the top of the glacier in the accumulation zone

C

What does a terminal moraine represent?
a) the end of a polished and scratched segment of bedrock
b) the sharp ends of a jagged ridge formed by glaciers
c) the end of an ice sheet that is floating in the sea
d) a pile of sediment deposited at the end of the glacier
e) the final time that two glaciers come together

D

Which of the following is NOT evidence for past glacial intervals?
a) glacial moraines in locations where there are no glaciers today
b) deposits of limestone on land indicating higher sea-levels
c) changes in the oxygen isotope composition of the oceans as recorded by foraminifera
d) large boulders in the middle of fields with no connection to the surrounding bedrock
e) large areas smoothed by glacial erosion

B

Which of the following would cause sea level to fall?
a) a decrease in the amount of glaciers on land
b) faster rates of seafloor spreading
c) a decrease in the temperature of the oceans
d) all of these

C

Imagine that the figure below represents the ocean. If an ice sheet with a volume of 1000 m3 melted and the water produced was added to this ocean, how would the depth of the ocean change? (hint: the volume of water is 0.9 * the volume of ice)
a) a decrease of 6 m
b) an increase of 6 m
c) a decrease of 3 m
d) an increase of 3 m
(A 3D SQUARE RECTANGLE IS SHOWN WITH A 2M HEIGHT,15 M WIDTH ON TOP AND 10 M LENGTH ON TOP)

B

Which of the following is NOT a primary control on Earth’s average temperature?
a) Solar radiation
b) greenhouse gases
c) decay of radioactive elements in Earth’s core
d) albedo

C

Which of these changes would lead to an increase in Earth’s average surface temperature?
a) A decrease in solar radiation
b) A decrease in greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere
c) A decrease in Earth’s albedo

C

Growth in the extent of ice sheets would cause a ________________ in Earth’s average albedo.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) no change

A

Greenhouse gases _________________.
a) Absorb incoming short-wave solar radiation.
b) Absorb outgoing long-wave radiation
c) Act to cool Earth’s surface
d) Are not an important component of Earth’s climate system

B

If the amount of energy absorbed by the Earth is greater than the about of energy emitted by the Earth, _______________.
a) Earth’s surface temperature will stay the same.
b) Earth’s surface temperature will increase.
c) Earth’s surface temperature will decrease.

B

Which of the following settings is most likely to have high precipitation?
a) cold polar air that descends and heats up
b) a site where two large-scale circulation patterns flow away from each other, causing air to descend
c) a site where two large-scale circulation patterns converge, causing air to rise
d) none of these

C

The subtropics at 30° north and south of the equator are characterized by arid lands. This is primarily a result of:
a) rising hot air caused by solar heating in these zones
b) descending hot air that heats the ground
c) descending, dry air that is part of a cell that originates at the equator
d) rising cool, dry air that flows in a cell to the equator
e) polar air that flows towards the equator

C

What is the primary reason for the increase in Earth’s average temperature over the last 100 years?
a) A decrease in the distance between the Earth and the Sun
b) An increase in Earth’s albedo
c) An increase in the tilt of Earth’s axis
d) An increase in greenhouse gas concentrations
e) An decrease in volcanic eruptions

D

If the size of ice sheets on land increases (more water locked up as ice), the 18O/16O ratio of seawater should __________.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) stay the same

A

The graph below shows the oxygen isotopic composition of foraminifera that lived in the ocean over the past 5.5 million years. What long-term trends were there in Earth’s climate over the past 5.5 million years?
a) It became generally warmer
b) It became generally colder
c) The average temperature did not change.
(STARTED AT 0 BENTHIC ENDED AT 3 BENTHIC)

B

The graph above shows the oxygen isotopic composition of foraminifera that lived in the ocean over the past 5.5 million years. Which of these time periods had the most short-term variability between warm conditions and cold conditions?
a) Between 0.5 million years ago and the present
b) Between 2.0 – 1.5 million years ago
c) Between 4.5 – 4.0 million years ago
d) All of these time periods show the same variability
(LARGE SPIKES 4-4.5 MILLION YEARS AGO, MEDIUM SPIKES 1.5 TO 2 MILLION YEARS AGO, SMALL SPIKES FROM 1/2 MILLION YEARS AGO TO PRESENT)

A

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