FINAL 3702

Your page rank:

Total word count: 16570
Pages: 60

Calculate the Price

- -
275 words
Looking for Expert Opinion?
Let us have a look at your work and suggest how to improve it!
Get a Consultant

the use of oxygen and generation of carbon dioxide by the mitochondria during energy metabolism

Which of the following processes is NOT a part of external respiration? A) the transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and body tissues by the blood B) the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and blood by diffusion C) the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and tissues by diffusion D) the movement of air into and out of the lungs by bulk flow E) the use of oxygen and generation of carbon dioxide by the mitochondria during energy metabolism

pulmonary ventilation

Which of the following specifically describes the movement of air into and out of the lungs? A) pulmonary ventilation B) internal respiration C) expiration D) secondary ventilation E) respiration

electrolyte balance of blood

Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system? A) vocalization B) heat loss C) electrolyte balance of blood D) acid- base balance of blood E) enhancing venous return

the thickness of the walls surrounding the air spaces

What is the primary anatomical difference that marks the dividing line between the conducting zone and the respiratory zone of the respiratory tract? A) the absence of goblet cells B) the presence of smooth muscle and the absence of cartilage C) the thickness of the walls surrounding the air spaces D) the presence of macrophages E) the absence of cartilage

Epithelial and endothelial cells share a common basement membrane.

What is the significance of the respiratory membrane to facilitate gas exchange? A) The surface area is increased with this membrane. B) Epithelial and endothelial cells share a common basement membrane. C) It is covered with surfactant to accelerate gas exchange. D) All three surfaces are kept moist through interstitial fluid exchange. E) Its thickness prohibits the alveoli from pulling away from the capillary.

maximize surface area and minimize thickness

Why are alveoli arranged in small grape- like clusters? A) maximize surface area B) maximize surface area and minimize thickness C) increase tidal volume D) increase chest volume and elasticity (resilience) E) maximize density and volume

terminal bronchioles

What are the smallest (and most distal) structures that remain a component of the conducting zone ) in the respiratory tract? A) terminal bronchioles B) tertiary bronchioles C) bronchi D) respiratory bronchioles E) secondary bronchi

propel mucus containing trapped particles toward the glottis

What is the function of ciliated cells in the conducting zone? A) produce a viscous solution called mucus B) provide the rigid support that keeps the conducting zone open C) propel mucus containing trapped particles toward the glottis D) engulf foreign material that has been trapped within the mucus E) move macrophages down the conducting zone toward the respiratory

smooth muscle

Which of the following becomes more abundant deeper into the conducting zone (from bronchi to ) bronchioles)? A) smooth muscle B) cilia C) cartilage D) type I alveolar cells E) goblet cells

cartilage

Which of the following is most abundant in the trachea and bronchi, becoming much less dense and eventually absent) in the bronchioles? A) goblet cells B) type II alveolar cells C) macrophages D) smooth muscle cells E) cartilage

respiratory bronchioles.

The transition from the conducting to the respiratory zone in the lungs occurs at the A) tertiary bronchi. B) terminal bronchioles. C) alveolar ducts. D) alveoli. E) respiratory bronchioles.

equalize pressure in the lungs

What is the function of alveolar pores? A) equalize pressure in the lungs B) allow for exhalation of H2O formed during cellular respiration C) a portal for diapedesis D) allow for nutrients to reach the alveolar cells E) speed the rate of diffusion

type I alveolar cells

What are the most common cells that line the surface of the alveoli and are therefore associated with the exchange of gases within the lungs? A) macrophages B) goblet cells C) type I alveolar cells D) type II alveolar cells E) type III alveolar cells

respiratory membrane

What is the thin barrier (0.2 µm) that allows for the efficient exchange of gases between the lungs ) and the blood called? A) endothelial cell B) type I alveolar cell C) type II alveolar cell D) respiratory membrane E) alveolar macrophage

It lands in the mucociliary ladder and moves to the pharynx to be swallowed.

What happens to a dust particle that is too large to stay airborne and land in the alveoli? A) It lands in the bronchi, where it is absorbed. B) It lands in the respiratory bronchiole, where it is coughed out. C) It lands in the mucociliary ladder and moves to the pharynx to be swallowed. D) It lands in the mucociliary ladder, where type II macrophages phagocytize them. E) It lands in the mucociliary ladder, where it is moved to the trachea to be exhaled.

It is inhaled and then exhaled.

What happens to a dust particle that is too small to fall from the inspired air and land in the alveoli? A) It lands in the respiratory bronchiole, where it is coughed out B) It lands in the mucociliary ladder, where type II macrophages phagocytize it. C) It lands in the mucociliary ladder, where it is moved to the trachea to be exhaled. D) It is inhaled and then exhaled. E) It lands in the bronchi, where it is absorbed.

It is too small to be caught in the mucociliary ladder and too large to be immediately exhaled, thereby landing it in the alveoli.

Mycoplasma tuberculosis, the causative agent in tuberculosis, primarily infects the alveolar macrophages and is therefore very fortunate in its size. Why is this statement true? A) It is just large enough to land in the mucociliary ladder, where type II macrophages phagocytize them. B) It is too small to be caught in the mucociliary ladder and too large to be immediately exhaled, thereby landing it in the alveoli. C) It is just large enough to land in the respiratory bronchiole, where it migrates to the alveoli. D) It is just small enough to land in the mucociliary ladder, where it is moved to the alveoli to infect macrophages. E) It is just small enough to land in the bronchi, where it is absorbed by alveolar macrophages.

pneumothorax (air leaking into the intrapleural space)

An ex- smoker with emphysema has a pulmonary erosion into his intrapleural space. What ) life- threatening condition is he at imminent risk of developing? A) pneumothorax (air leaking into the intrapleural space) B) pulmonary fibrosis C) adhesions to the parietal pleura D) acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) E) bacterial pneumonia

surface tension of the intrapleural fluid

What keeps the visceral pleura in close proximity to the parietal pleura? A) trans- alveolar pressure B) surface tension of the intrapleural fluid C) spider web- like processes extending from the outer covering D) the mesothelia are one and the same E) positive pressure in the intrapleural space

airway collapse.

The COPD called emphysema forces the afflicted to exhale through pursed lips to maintain ) intrabronchial backpressure, thereby preventing A) the use of secondary breathing muscles. B) surface tension decrease. C) airway collapse. D) mixing of oxygenated/deoxygenated blood. E) decreased traction.

asthma

Which of the following is a chronic inflammatory pulmonary disorder characterized by reversible obstruction of the airways? A) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) B) pulmonary fibrosis C) asthma D) tuberculosis E) pulmonary edema

atmospheric pressure.

When air is no longer moving through the respiratory tract and the airway is open to the environment, the pressure within the lung is equal to A) transpulmonary pressure. B) end- diastolic pressure. C) intrapleural pressure. D) atmospheric pressure. E) systolic blood pressure.

atmospheric and intra- alveolar

The difference between what two pressures drives air into and out of the lungs? A) pulmonary venous and atmospheric B) intrapleural and intra- alveolar C) central venous and intracoronary D) atmospheric and intrapleural E) atmospheric and intra- alveolar

Air moves out of the lung.

Which of the following occurs when intra- alveolar pressure exceeds atmospheric pressure? A) Air moves into the lung. B)The lung collapses. C)The lung must be expanding. D)Air moves out of the lung. E)Intrapleural pressure is greater than intra- alveolar pressure.

both intrapleural pressure and intra- alveolar pressure

Which of the following varies rhythmically with respiration? A) atmospheric pressure only B) intrapleural pressure only C) intra- alveolar pressure only D) both intrapleural pressure and intra- alveolar pressure E) both atmospheric pressure and intrapleural pressure

transpulmonary pressure

he difference between intrapleural pressure and intra- alveolar pressure is A) transpulmonary pressure. B) atmospheric pressure. C) the driving force for air flow into and out of the lungs. D) approximately 100 mm Hg. E) zero

transpulmonary pressure

Which of the following is a measure of the distending force across the lungs? A) intra- alveolar pressure B) difference between intra- alveolar pressure and atmospheric pressure C) transpulmonary pressure D) intrapleural pressure E) atmospheric pressure

a pneumothorax (the lung will collapse

28) Equilibration of pressure between the intrapleural space and the alveoli will lead to which of the following? A) a pneumothorax (the lung will collapse) B) air moving out of the lungs C) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D) air moving into the lungs E) restrictive pulmonary disease

functional residual capacity

What is the volume of air present in the lungs when the lungs are at rest (in between breaths)? 29) A) zero B) residual volume C) tidal volume D) total lung capacity E) functional residual capacity

The elastic recoil of the lungs is balanced by the elastic recoil of the chest wall

Which of the following is TRUE when the lung volume is equal to the functional residual capacity? A) Intra- alveolar pressure is less than atmospheric pressure. B) Intra- alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. C) Intra- alveolar pressure is less than intrapleural pressure. D) The elastic recoil of the lungs is balanced by the elastic recoil of the chest wall. E) Intrapleural pressure is zero.

decreases : into

As the lungs expand, intra- alveolar pressure ________ and air moves ________ the lungs. A) decreases : into B) increases : out of C) decreases : out of D) increases : into E) does not change : neither into nor out of

will not change.

As the volume of the lung increases, atmospheric pressure A) will follow the ideal gas law. B) increases. C) will not change. D) will follow Starling’s law. E) decreases.

increase in the volume of the thoracic cavity and, therefore, a decrease in intra- alveolar pressure

What does contraction of the diaphragm cause? A) decrease in the volume of the thoracic cavity and, therefore, a decrease in intra- alveolar pressure B) increase in the volume of the thoracic cavity and, therefore, an increase in intra- alveolar pressure C) increase in the volume of the thoracic cavity and, therefore, a decrease in intra- alveolar pressure D) decrease in the volume of the thoracic cavity and, therefore, a decrease in atmospheric pressure E) decrease in the volume of the thoracic cavity and, therefore, an increase in intra- alveolar pressure

diaphragm and external intercostals

What are the primary inspiratory muscles? A) diaphragm and the external and internal intercostals B) diaphragm and abdominal muscles C) diaphragm and internal intercostals D) external and internal intercostals E) diaphragm and external intercostals

skeletal muscle, innervated by the somatic nervous system.

The muscles of respiration are A) smooth muscle, innervated by the somatic nervous system B) skeletal muscle, innervated by the autonomic nervous system. C) skeletal muscle, innervated by the somatic nervous system. D) smooth muscle, innervated by the autonomic nervous system. E) smooth muscle, without innervation.

increase in transpulmonary pressure.

As the volume of the chest wall increases, the concomitant expansion of the lungs is due to a(n) A) increase in atmospheric pressure. B) decrease in intra- alveolar pressure. C) increase in intrapleural pressure. D) increase in transpulmonary pressure. E) decrease in transpulmonary pressure

passive : relaxation of the diaphragm and external intercostals

At rest, expiration is a(n) ________ process that involves ________. A) active : the contraction of the diaphragm B) passive : relaxation of the diaphragm and external intercostals C) passive : relaxation of the internal intercostals D) active : relaxation of the diaphragm E) active : contraction of the internal intercostals

both intra- alveolar and intrapleural pressures

Which of the following pressures is lower during inspiration than during expiration? A) intra- alveolar pressure only B) transpulmonary pressure only C) intrapleural pressure only D) both intra- alveolar and transpulmonary pressures E) both intra- alveolar and intrapleural pressures

lung volume : transpulmonary pressure

The compliance of the lungs can be determined by measuring the change in ________ for a given change in ________. A) airway resistance : lung volume B) lung volume : transpulmonary pressure C) lung volume : airway resistance D) lung volume : intra- alveolar pressure E) intra- alveolar pressure : lung volume

surface tension.

The compliance of the lung is determined by the elasticity of the lung and A) volume. B) transpulmonary pressure. C) surface tension. D) intra- alveolar pressure. E) airway resistance.

type II alveolar

The surface tension of the alveolus is reduced by surfactants produced by what type of cells? A) ciliated B) goblet C) type I alveolar D) type II alveolar E) type III alveolar

pulmonary surfactant concentration

Which of the following is NOT involved in altering the resistance of the airway to air movement? A) tractive forces exerted on the airway by surrounding tissue B) contractile activity of bronchiolar smooth muscle cells C) pulmonary surfactant concentration D) transpulmonary pressure E) secretion of mucus into the airway

decrease in airway resistance

How do tractive forces affect the airways during inspiration? A) increase in compliance B) decrease in compliance C) bronchodilation D) decrease in airway resistance E) increase in airway resistance

passive forces exerted on the airways

Which of the following is responsible for changes in airway resistance that occur in a single breath? A) surrounding atmospheric pressure B) contractility of smooth muscle cells C) sensitivity of smooth muscle cells to allergens D) passive forces exerted on the airways E) autonomic nervous system

histamine

Which of the following chemicals will NOT result in a decrease in airway resistance? A) carbon dioxide B) bronchodilators C) norepinephrine D) epinephrine E) histamine

increased release of corticosteroids

Which of the following is NOT part of the response of an airway to specific allergens that initiate an asthmatic response? A) increased histamine release B) increased secretion of mucus C) increased inflammatory response D) increased airway resistance E) increased release of corticosteroids

They reduce inflammation of the airways.

What benefit are corticosteroids in the treatment of asthma? A) They decrease mucus secretion into the airways. B) They increase blood flow to the airways. C) They reduce inflammation of the airways. D) They induce bronchodilation. E) They induce bronchoconstriction.

spirometer

A(n) ________ is used clinically to measure lung volumes and rates of air flow. A) spirometer B) electroencephalogram C) X- ray D) ratiometer E) electrocardiograph

tidal volume

What is the volume of air moved into and out of the lungs in a single breath during unforced breathing called? A) tidal volume B) functional residual capacity C) minute ventilation D) vital capacity E) total lung capacity

residual volume

The presence of a negative intrapleural pressure at maximum expiration is responsible for which of the following? A) tidal volume B) functional residual volume C) residual volume D) functional residual capacity E) vital capacity

inspiratory capacity

The tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume together make up which of the following? A) vital capacity B) residual volume C) inspiratory capacity D) functional residual capacity E) total lung capacity

residual volume and expiratory reserve volume only

Functional residual capacity is comprised of which of the following? A) residual volume and expiratory reserve volume only B) tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume only C) tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume only D) tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, and expiratory reserve volume E) vital capacity and expiratory reserve volume only

residual volume

Which of the following measurements cannot be determined by a spirometer? A) inspiratory capacity B) tidal volume C) residual volume D) inspiratory reserve volume E) vital capacity

500

A normal tidal volume at rest is approximately ________ mL. A) 1000 B) 5000 C) 500 D) 100 E) 10,000

4500

A normal vital capacity is approximately ________ mL A) 9000 B) 1000 C) 4500 D) 500 E) 100

80

A healthy person can normally exhale what percentage of his or her vital capacity in one second? A) 100 B) 50 C) 10 D) 20 E) 80

expiration : increase residual volume and total lung capacity

In an obstructive disease, the lungs can become overinflated because the difficulty in ________ tends to ________. A) inspiration : decrease total lung capacity and vital capacity B) expiration : increase residual volume and total lung capacity C) expiration : increase vital capacity D) inspiration : increase total lung capacity and vital capacity E) expiration : decrease total lung capacity and vital capacity

vital capacity

A decrease in ________ is indicative of a restrictive pulmonary disease. A) forced expiratory volume B) residual volume C) vital capacity D) tidal volume E) minute ventilation

forced expiratory volume

A decrease in ________ is indicative of an obstructive pulmonary disease. A) residual volume B) forced vital capacity C) tidal volume D) minute ventilation E) forced expiratory volume

minute ventilation

What is the term for the volume of air moved into the lungs every minute? A) alveolar ventilation B) tidal volume C) pulmonary ventilation D) total lung capacity E) minute ventilation

alveolar ventilation

What is the term for the volume of air that reaches the respiratory zone each minute? A) alveolar ventilation B) minute ventilation C) pulmonary ventilation D) tidal volume E) total lung capacity

anatomical dead space

What is the volume of the respiratory pathway that is NOT able to exchange gases (conducting) pathway) called? A) dead volume B) residual volume C) functional dead space D) anatomical dead space E) functional residual volume

decreases

What happens to the inner diameter of the walls of the respiratory tract as it moves down from the upper conducting zone to the lower respiratory zone? A) thins B) decreases C) thickens D) no change E) increases

decreases

What happens to the amount of cartilage in the walls of the respiratory tract as it moves down from 64) the upper conducting zone to the lower respiratory zone? A) thickens B) hypertrophies C) increases D) decreases E) no change

decreases

What happens to the amount of cilia lining the inner walls of the respiratory tract as it moves down from the upper conducting zone to the lower respiratory zone? A) increases B) thickens C) no change D) atrophies E) decreases

decreases

What happens to the number of goblet cells found in the walls of the respiratory tract as it moves down from the upper conducting zone to the lower respiratory zone? A) decreases B) thickens C) no change D) increases E) changes to ciliated pseudostratified epithelium

decreases

What happens to the amount of smooth muscle found in the walls of the respiratory tract as it moves down from the upper conducting zone to the lower respiratory zone? A) It is not found in the conducting zone B) increases C) thins D) no change E) decreases

type II alveolar cells

Which cells secrete surfactant? A) type II alveolar cells B) type I alveolar cells C) goblet cells D) alveolar macrophages E) ciliated cells

goblet cells

Which cells secrete mucus? A) type II alveolar cells B) type I alveolar cells C) ciliated cells D) alveolar macrophages E) goblet cells

ciliated cells

Which cells form the mucus escalator? A) type I alveolar cells B) type II alveolar cells C) goblet cells D) ciliated cells E) alveolar macrophages

alveolar macrophages

Which cells engulf foreign particles that reach the lungs? A) type II alveolar cells B) goblet cells C) ciliated cells D) type I alveolar cells E) alveolar macrophages

type I alveolar cells

Which cells form the lung tissue component of the respiratory membrane? A) type II alveolar cells B) type I alveolar cells C) alveolar macrophages D) goblet cells E) ciliated cells

intrapleural pressure

Which pressure is created by the elastic recoil of the lungs and chest wall? A) transpulmonary pressure B) exhalation pressure C) intrapleural pressure D) intra- alveolar pressure E) atmospheric pressure

atmospheric pressure

Which pressure is constant during the respiratory cycle? A) atmospheric pressure B) rebound pressure (elastic recoil) C) intra- alveolar pressure D) transpulmonary pressure E) intrapleural pressure

transpulmonary pressure

Which pressure is the distending force on the lungs? A) intrapleural pressure B) atmospheric pressure C) transpulmonary pressure D) rebound pressure (elastic recoil) E) intra- alveolar pressure

intra- alveolar pressure

Which of the following has the difference between its pressure and atmospheric pressure driving the air into and out of the lungs? A) rebound pressure (elastic recoil) B) intra- alveolar pressure C) transpulmonary pressure D) intrapleural pressure E) atmospheric pressure

intrapleural pressure

Which pressure changes with the phases of respiration but is always negative? A) atmospheric pressure B) transpulmonary pressure C) rebound pressure (elastic recoil) D) intra- alveolar pressure E) intrapleural pressure

intrapleural pressure

Which pressure equals atmospheric pressure during a pneumothorax, causing the lungs to collapse? A) intra- alveolar pressure B) transpulmonary pressure C) atmospheric pressure D) rebound pressure (elastic recoil) E) intrapleural pressure

intra- alveolar pressure

Which pressure changes with the phases of respiration from a negative value during inspiration and a positive value during expiration? A) intrapleural pressure B) rebound pressure (elastic recoil) C) intra- alveolar pressure D) transpulmonary pressure E) atmospheric

residual volume.

The volume of air remaining in the lungs following a maximum expiration is called? A) residual volume. B) inspiratory reserve volume. C) inspiratory capacity. D) vital capacity. E) tidal volume.

tidal volume.

The volume of air exchanged with the environment during an unforced breath is called A) inspiratory reserve volume. B) vital capacity. C) tidal volume. D) inspiratory capacity. E) expiratory reserve volume

inspiratory reserve volume.

The maximum volume of air that can be inspired following a resting inspiration is called A) vital capacity. B) tidal volume. C) inspiratory capacity. D) inspiratory reserve volume. E) expiratory reserve volume.

inspiratory capacity.

The maximum volume of air that can be inspired following a resting expiration is called A) tidal volume. B) vital capacity. C) functional residual capacity. D) inspiratory capacity. E) inspiratory reserve volume.

vital capacity.

The maximum volume of air that can be expired following a maximum inspiration is called A) expiratory reserve volume. B) inspiratory capacity. C) inspiratory reserve volume. D) tidal volume. E) vital capacity.

expiratory reserve volume.

The maximum volume of air that can be expired following a resting expiration is called A) vital capacity. B) inspiratory capacity. C) expiratory reserve volume. D) tidal volume. E) inspiratory reserve volume.

total lung capacity.

The volume of air in the lungs following a maximum inspiration is called A) vital capacity. B) inspiratory capacity. C) inspiratory reserve volume. D) tidal volume. E) total lung capacity.

functional residual capacity

The volume of air in the lungs at rest, between breaths, is called A) inspiratory capacity. B) inspiratory reserve volume. C) functional residual capacity. D) tidal volume. E) vital capacity.

inspiratory capacity.

Tidal volume inspiratory reserve volume is called A) inspiratory capacity. B) tidal volume. C) vital capacity. D) inspiratory reserve volume. E) functional residual capacity.

functional residual capacity

What is the residual volume + expiratory reserve volume called? A) functional residual capacity B) inspiratory reserve volume C) tidal volume D) inspiratory capacity E) vital capacity

vital capacity

What is the tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory reserve volume called? A) vital capacity B) inspiratory reserve volume C) functional residual capacity D) inspiratory capacity E) tidal volume

total lung capacity

What is the tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory reserve volume + residual volume called? A) total lung capacity B) vital capacity C) inspiratory capacity D) tidal volume E) inspiratory reserve volume

600

In Figure 16.1, how many mL is the tidal volume? A) 1700 B) 2800 C) 2200 D) 600 E) 1300

2200

In Figure 16.1, how many mL is the inspiratory reserve volume? A) 1300 B) 2800 C) 2200 D) 600 E) 1700

1300

In Figure 16.1, how many mL is the expiratory reserve volume? A) 2800 B) 1300 C) 1700 D) 600 E) 2200

1700

In Figure 16.1, how many mL is the residual volume? A) 1700 B) 2200 C) 600 D) 2800 E) 1300

2800

In Figure 16.1, how many mL is the inspiratory capacity? A) 1300 B) 1700 C) 2800 D) 600 E) 2200

4100

In Figure 16.1, how many mL is the vital capacity? A) 4100 B) 2800 C) 2200 D) 1700 E) 1300

3000

In Figure 16.1, how many mL is the functional residual capacity? A) 3000 B) 1300 C) 2200 D) 2800 E) 1700

5800

In Figure 16.1, how many mL is the total lung capacity? A) 5800 B) 1700 C) 1300 D) 2800 E) 2200

quantity of air in the alveolus and volume of the alveoli

The intra- alveolar pressure is determined by what two factors? A) dead air space and atmospheric pressure B) perfusion pressure and elastic recoil C) functional residual capacity and elastic recoil D) elastic recoil and intrapulmonary pressure E) quantity of air in the alveolus and volume of the alveoli

airway radius

What is the primary determinant of airway resistance? A) compliance B) presence of mucous C) rate of air exchange D) airway radius E) traction competency

ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide produced per volume of oxygen consumed.

The respiratory quotient is calculated as the A) ratio of the volume of oxygen consumed per volume of carbon dioxide produced. B) ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide produced per volume of oxygen consumed. C) product of the volume of oxygen consumed and the volume of carbon dioxide produced. D) sum of the volume of oxygen consumed and the volume of carbon dioxide produced. E) product of the volume of carbon dioxide consumed and the volume of oxygen produced.

300 mL per minute

At sea level, if oxygen is consumed by the body cells at a rate of 300 mL per minute, then how much oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the blood in the pulmonary capillaries? A) 300 mL per minute B) more than 300 mL per minute C) less than 300 mL per minute D) It depends on where the oxygen is being utilized. E) It depends on whether or not carbon dioxide is being produced at the same rate

pulmonary vein only

Oxygenated blood is found in which of the following? A) right atrium only B) pulmonary artery only C) pulmonary vein only D) both the right atrium and pulmonary artery E) both the right atrium and pulmonary vein

simple diffusion

Movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between alveoli and blood occurs by what process? A) simple diffusion B) osmosis C) facilitated diffusion D) primary active transport E) secondary active transport

rapid blood flow

Which of the following does NOT contribute to the rapid movement of gases into and out of the blood within the lungs? A) permeability of the membrane B) rapid blood flow C) large surface area D) thin membrane E) concentration gradient

760 mm Hg.

At sea level the air pressure which equals 1 atmosphere is A) 600 mm Hg. B) 760 mm Hg. C) 100 mm Hg. D) 150 mm Hg. E) 500 mm Hg

partial pressure of that gas.

In a mixture of gases, the driving force for the movement of an individual gas within that mixture is ultimately the A) fractional concentration of that gas. B) partial pressure of that gas. C) solubility of the gas. D) total pressure of the gases. E) volume of the gas.

nitrogen

What is the most abundant gas in the air that we breathe? A) carbon dioxide B) nitrogen C) hydrogen D) oxygen E) water vapor

21%

What percentage of air is oxygen? A) 21% B) 12% C) 79% D) < 1% E) 6 %

&lt; 1%

What percentage of air is carbon dioxide? A) < 1% B) 6% C) 12% D) 79% E) 21 %

400 mm Hg

What is the partial pressure of oxygen in a gas mixture that is 40% oxygen, 40% argon, and 20% helium, when the total pressure of the gas is 1000 mm Hg? A) 400 mm Hg B) 200 mm Hg C) 333 mm Hg D) 100 mm Hg E) 600 mm Hg

160 mm Hg

What is the partial pressure of oxygen in air at sea level? A) 160 mm Hg B) 600 mm Hg C) 210 mm Hg D) 400 mm Hg E) 60 mm Hg

decreases as the total pressure of air remains the same.

As humidity increases, the partial pressure of oxygen in air A) increases as the total pressure of air remains the same. B) increases as the total pressure of air increases. C) decreases as the total pressure of air remains the same. D) decreases as the total pressure of air increases. E) does not change.

a decrease in the partial pressure of the remaining gases.

As the air is saturated with water vapor (humidified) upon entry into the conducting pathway, 14) there will be A) a selective decrease in the partial pressure of nitrogen. B) no change in the partial pressure of the remaining gases. C) a decrease in the partial pressure of the remaining gases. D) an increase in the partial pressure of the remaining gases. E) a selective increase in the partial pressure of nitrogen

partial pressure.

At equilibrium, the gas molecules that dissolve in solution and those that remain in the gaseous phase are, by definition, at the same A) humidity. B) partial pressure. C) concentration. D) temperature. E) volume.

Henry’s law

The relationship between the concentration of a gas in solution and the partial pressure of that gas 16) can be described by A) Dalton’s law. B) Fick’s law. C) Poiseuille’s law. D) Henry’s law. E) Boyle’s law. .

Increase the partial pressure of that gas exposed to the solution.

ch of the following can increase the concentration of a particular gas in a solution? A) Decrease the concentration of other gases in the solution. B) Increase the volume of the gas only. C) Increase the partial pressure of that gas exposed to the solution. D) Increase the volume of the solution only. E) Increase the volume of the container containing the gas and solution.

The partial pressures of helium and nitrogen in the water are equal.

At equilibrium, which of the following statements is TRUE when helium and nitrogen are present in a gas at equal partial pressures over water? A) The concentrations of helium and nitrogen in both the water and gas are equal. B) The concentrations of helium and nitrogen in the water are equal. C) The concentrations of helium and nitrogen in the gas are equal. D) The partial pressure of nitrogen is greater than the partial pressure of helium. E) The partial pressures of helium and nitrogen in the water are equal.

Each gas acts independently and diffuses down its own partial pressure gradient.

Which statement best describes why O2 and CO2 can both be exchanged simultaneously at the alveoli and pulmonary capillaries? A) Each gas acts independently and diffuses down its own partial pressure gradient. B) Blood in the pulmonary capillaries is high in both O2 and CO2. C) Nitrogen is at a high pressure in both the alveoli and pulmonary capillaries and drives the exchange of O2 and CO2. D) Blood in the alveoli is high in both O2 and CO2. E) Blood in both the alveoli and pulmonary capillaries is at equilibrium

Nitrogen gas bubbles form in the blood, joints, and nervous system as pressure decreases from too fast an ascent.

Which statement best describes the cause of decompression sickness? A) Nitrogen gas bubbles form in the blood, joints, and nervous system as pressure decreases from too fast an ascent. B) Oxygen molecules are so tightly compressed due to pressure exerted by the water column that they cannot deliver oxygen to the tissues. C) The oxygen molecule expands upon ascent and bursts, therefore causing a lack of oxygen to the tissues. D) Carbon dioxide bubbles come out of solution too quickly and burst blood vessels, especially in the brain. E) Carbon dioxide is driven into the cardiovascular system and causes acidosis.

The increased pressure drives more oxygen into the bloodstream and, therefore, anaerobic bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen.

Gangrene is often caused by anaerobic bacteria deep in tissues that lack adequate blood flow and adequate oxygen supply. Many times, gangrene can be treated by putting the patient into a hyperbaric chamber. Which statement best describes why this type of therapy is effective? A) When the patient is brought back to normal atmospheric pressure, carbon dioxide comes out of solution at high concentrations, which poisons the bacteria. B) The increased pressure creates a higher pressure in the capillaries of the tissue and drives the toxin produced by the bacteria into the bloodstream, where it is diluted. C) The increased pressure drives more oxygen into the bloodstream and, therefore, anaerobic bacteria cannot survive in the presence of oxygen. D) The increased pressure drives nitrogen into the system and nitrogen gas poisons the bacteria. E) The increased pressure destroys the cell wall of the bacteria.

oxygen in the alveoli that is lower than atmospheric.

The mixing of atmospheric air within the dead space of the conducting zone of the lung upon inspiration results in a partial pressure of A) nitrogen in the alveoli that is higher than atmospheric. B) carbon dioxide in the alveoli that is lower than atmospheric. C) oxygen in the alveoli that is lower than atmospheric. D) oxygen in the alveoli that is higher than atmospheric. E) water vapor in the alveoli that is lower than atmospheric.

humidifying the air

Which of the following causes a decrease in the PO2 of air as it enters the conducting zone of the lungs? A) the consumption of oxygen B) warming of the air C) humidifying the air D) the increasing PCO2 E) decreasing alveolar PO2

thickening of the diffusion barrier by fluid accumulation in the alveoli.

Pulmonary edema describes a condition where the uptake of oxygen and unloading of carbon dioxide is reduced as a consequence of a(n) A) decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus. B) increase in the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. C) thickening of the diffusion barrier by fluid accumulation in the alveoli. D) decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveolus. E) thickening of the diffusion barrier by fluid accumulation in the pulmonary blood.

pulmonary edema

Your patient is in the hospital due to left heart failure. In your observation, you notice that she has a very low pulse oximeter reading, her skin is turning blue, and she appears to be in respiratory distress (rapid shallow breathing). You immediately call the doctor because you recognize that these symptoms indicate ________,a life- threatening situation. A) pulmonary edema B) internal bleeding C) myocardial infarction D) decompression sickness E) prolapsed heart valve

left heart failure

What is the most common cause of pulmonary edema? A) collapsed lung B) blood clot C) left heart failure D) right heart failure E) kidney failure

a decrease : facilitating

27) During intense exercise, the metabolic activity of muscle causes ________ in the partial pressure of oxygen in the tissue, ________ the movement of oxygen into the tissue. A) no change : facilitating B) an increase : facilitating C) an increase : reducing D) a decrease : facilitating E) a decrease : reducing

pulmonary artery

28) Mixed venous blood samples can be taken from which of the following blood vessels? A) pulmonary vein B) aorta C) inferior vena cava D) pulmonary artery E) superior vena cava

comes from tissue with differing metabolic activities.

The venous blood in the right ventricle is referred to as "mixed" because the blood that enters the heart A) contains a mixture of oxygen and carbon dioxide. B) has a low PO2. C) has a high PCO2. D) comes from tissue with differing metabolic activities. E) is drained from the body.

hyperpnea

What is an increase in alveolar ventilation to match the demands of increased metabolic activity in the cells called? A) hyperpnea B) hyperventilation C) hypopnea D) dyspnea E) hypoventilation

increase in PO2 and decrease in PCO2

Hyperventilation would lead to a(n) ________ within the systemic arteries. A) selective increase in PO2 B) selective decrease in PO2 C) increase in PO2 and decrease in PCO2 D) selective decrease in PCO2 E) decrease in PO2 and increase in PCO2

decrease in PO2 and increase in PCO2

Hypoventilation would lead to a(n) ________ within the systemic arteries. A) selective increase in PO2 B) selective decrease in PO2 C) increase in PO2 and decrease in PCO2 D) selective decrease in PCO2 E) decrease in PO2 and increase in PCO2

hypocapnia

What is a decrease in carbon dioxide within the blood called? A) hypoxemia B) hyperpnea C) hypercapnia D) hypocapnia E) hypoxia

1.5%

What percentage of oxygen is transported in the plasma? A) 1.5% B) 86% C) 98.5% D) 75% E) 5 %

98.5%

What percentage of oxygen is transported by hemoglobin? A) 98.5% B) 86% C) 5% D) 1.5% E) 75 %

bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells.

The majority of oxygen present within the blood is A) dissolved within the plasma. B) bound to hemoglobin within the plasma. C) bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells. D) bound to plasma proteins. E) in the plasma as HCO3- .

heme : four

Each ________ on the hemoglobin subunit is capable of binding an oxygen molecule, thereby allowing ________ oxygen to bind with one hemoglobin molecule. A) free iron : one B) heme : three C) heme : four D) globin : four E) globin : three

PO2

What is the primary driving force for the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin? A) temperature B) PO2 C) 2,3- bisphosphoglycerate (2,3- BPG) D) pH E) PCO2

As oxygen levels in the pulmonary capillaries increase, more oxyhemoglobin is formed. Conversely, as oxygen levels in the systemic capillaries decrease, the reaction reverses and releases oxygen from hemoglobin.

Which statement best describes why the law of mass action explains the loading and unloading of oxygen in hemoglobin? A) As oxygen levels in the pulmonary capillaries decrease, more carbaminohemoglobin is formed due to the concentration of carbon dioxide. B) The mass of both carbon dioxide and oxygen is the same and therefore they exchange at the same rates C) As oxygen levels in the pulmonary capillaries increase, more oxyhemoglobin is formed. Conversely, as oxygen levels in the systemic capillaries decrease, the reaction reverses and releases oxygen from hemoglobin. D) As oxygen level rises, so does the pressure, which breaks the bonds of hemoglobin thereby releasing hemoglobin to the tissues. E) Oxygen has a greater mass than carbon dioxide and therefore can load more quickly than carbon dioxide.

2925 mL O2/min

If hemoglobin is saturated (1.3 mL of oxygen per gram) and there are 150 grams of hemoglobin per liter of blood, how much oxygen can be delivered to the tissue if cardiac output is 15 liters per minute? A) 1300 g O2/min B) 2925 mL O2/min C) 650 g O2/min D) 2925 g O2/min E) 1300 mL O2/min

a decrease in the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

What is the definition of anemia? A) a decrease in the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood B) a decrease in PO2 C) an increase in PCO2 D) a decrease in the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen E) a decrease in hemoglobin

dyspnea

What is labored or difficult breathing called? A) apnea B) dyspnea C) hypopnea D) eupnea E) hyperpnea

hypoxia

What is a deficiency of oxygen in the tissues called? A) apnea B) hypoxemia C) hypoxia D) hypocapnia E) hypercapnia

tachypnea

What is rapid shallow breathing called? A) tachypnea B) apnea C) dyspnea D) eupnea E) hyperpnea

hypoxemia

What is a decrease in oxygen in the blood called? A) dysnemia B) hypocapnia C) anemia D) hypoxemia E) hypoxia

affinity : positive cooperativity

As oxygen binds to hemoglobin, the ________ of the hemoglobin molecule will change through a process of ________ such that the binding of oxygen is enhanced. A) cooperativity : negativity B) affinity : positive cooperativity C) affinity : negative cooperativity D) amino acid sequence : phosphorylation E) cooperativity : positivity

It can be caused by an increase in PCO2.

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a leftward shift in the hemoglobin- oxygen dissociation curve? A) It can be caused by an increase in blood pH. B) Hemoglobin is more saturated at a given PO2. C) Oxygen loading onto the hemoglobin is increased. D) Affinity for oxygen is increased. E) It can be caused by an increase in PCO2.

It can be caused by a decrease in 2,3- BPG.

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding a rightward shift in the hemoglobin- oxygen 48) dissociation curve? A) Affinity for oxygen is decreased. B) A rightward shift usually occurs in active tissue. C) Oxygen loading onto hemoglobin is decreased. D) Hemoglobin unloading of oxygen is increased. E) It can be caused by a decrease in 2,3- BPG.

both an increase in temperature and an increase in 2,3- BPG

Which of the following will cause a shift in the hemoglobin- oxygen dissociation curve to the right? A) increase in temperature only B) increase in plasma pH only C) increase in 2,3- BPG (2,3- bisphosphoglycerate) only D) both an increase in temperature and an increase in 2,3- BPG E) both an increase in temperature and an increase in plasma pH

98 %

As it leaves the lung in the pulmonary vein, blood is ________ saturated with oxygen. A) 75 % B) 98 % C) 108% (supersaturated) D) 90 % E) 100 % (completely )

increased carbon dioxide in the tissue

Which of the following increases oxygen unloading from hemoglobin? A) decreased metabolism B) decreased temperature C) increased carbon dioxide in the tissue D) increased blood pH E) increased oxygen levels in the tissue

increased hydrogen ion concentration, increased body temperature, and increased PCO2

Which of the following will increase the unloading of oxygen within the tissue? A) increased hydrogen ion concentration only B) increased PCO2 only C) increased body temperature only D) both increased hydrogen ion concentration and increased body temperature E) increased hydrogen ion concentration, increased body temperature, and increased PCO2

decreased hydrogen ion concentration

Which of the following will increase the loading of oxygen onto the hemoglobin molecule within the lungs? A) increased 2,3- bisphosphoglycerate (2,3- BPG) B) increased body temperature C) increased PCO2 D) decreased pH E) decreased hydrogen ion concentration

100 mm Hg : 98%

In the systemic arteries, the partial pressure of oxygen is approximately ________, and hemoglobin is approximately ________ saturated with oxygen. A) 40 mm Hg : 75% B) 40 mm Hg : 50% C) 100 mm Hg : 75% D) 100 mm Hg : 98% E) 60 mm Hg : 50%

40 mm Hg : 75%

In the pulmonary arteries, the partial pressure of oxygen is approximately ________, and hemoglobin is approximately ________ saturated with oxygen. A) 40 mm Hg : 75% B) 80 mm Hg : 90% C) 100 mm Hg : 98% D) 25 mm Hg : 50% E) 60 mm Hg : 80%

As temperature increases due to increased metabolism, the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is decreased.

Which statement best describes why oxygen is unloaded in tissue that is highly active? A) Highly active tissues produce more carbon dioxide, which competes for the heme groups in hemoglobin, thereby displacing oxygen. B) As temperature increases due to increased metabolism, the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is decreased. C) As temperature increases, the Bohr effect causes hemoglobin to release oxygen. D) As temperature increases, the carbamino effect causes hemoglobin to release oxygen. E) As temperature increases, the affinity for oxygen to hemoglobin increases, allowing more oxygen to be carried to the tissues.

The Bohr effect refers to a decrease in pH which decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.

Which statement best describes the Bohr effect? A) The Bohr effect refers to the release of a chemical 2,3 BPG from erythrocytes that degrades hemoglobin and releases oxygen. B) The Bohr effect refers to a decrease in pH which decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. C) The Bohr effect speeds up metabolism and therefore increases the temperature in the body releasing oxygen to the tissues. D) The Bohr effect refers to a decrease in carbon dioxide concentration which decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. E) The Bohr effect refers to the cascading events that must take place in order to chemically remove oxygen from hemoglobin

increase in CO2.

The carbamino effect describes a change in the conformation of hemoglobin that is induced by a(n) A) increase in pH. B) increase in temperature. C) decrease in temperature. D) decrease in pH. E) increase in CO2.

2,3- BPG increases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.

Which of the following statements about 2,3- BPG is FALSE? A) 2,3- BPG produces a rightward shift in the hemoglobin- oxygen dissociation curve. B) 2,3- BPG is produced by red blood cells. C) 2,3- BPG increases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. D) 2,3- BPG synthesis is inhibited by high levels of oxyhemoglobin. E) 2,3- BPG is an intermediate of glycolysis

erythrocytes

Where in blood does the conversion of CO2 to bicarbonate occur? A) erythrocytes B) plasma C) leukocytes D) capillary endothelial cells E) platelets

as bicarbonate dissolved in the plasma

What is the primary mechanism of carbon dioxide transport in blood? 61) A) dissolved in the plasma B) dissolved in the red blood cells C) bound to hemoglobin D) as bicarbonate dissolved in the red blood cells E) as bicarbonate dissolved in the plasma

Carbon monoxide is toxic because it binds more readily to hemoglobin than oxygen, thereby decreasing the oxygen carrying capacity of blood.

Which statement best describes how people die of carbon monoxide poisoning? A) As the carbon dioxide content of blood increases, a phenomenon known as the Haldane effect converts the excess carbon dioxide to carbon monoxide until it reaches toxic levels. B) Carbon monoxide is toxic because it binds more readily to hemoglobin than oxygen, thereby decreasing the oxygen carrying capacity of blood. C) Carbon monoxide causes the carbamino effect where carbon dioxide is stripped of an oxygen, producing carbon monoxide. D) Carbon monoxide is toxic because it readily picks up oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, causing acidosis and eventual death. E) Carbon monoxide causes decompression sickness which can lead to death.

maintaining acid- base balance.

The presence of bicarbonate ions in the blood has an important direct effect, aside from the transport of CO2, that involves A) stimulating the proliferation of alveolar epithelial cells. B) altering the activity of several receptors. C) altering the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen. D) altering the activity of carbonic anhydrase. E) maintaining acid- base balance.

efflux of bicarbonate from the erythrocyte via the chloride shift

Within an erythrocyte, the conversion of CO2 to bicarbonate is prevented from reaching equilibrium by the A) presence of hydrogen ions. B) temperature of the body. C) presence of oxygen. D) efflux of bicarbonate from the erythrocyte via the chloride shift. E) absence of a nucleus

binding to hemoglobin.

65) The hydrogen ions released by the dissociation of carbonic acid are buffered by their A) transport out of the erythrocyte as a sodium ion moves in. B) binding to hemoglobin. C) active transport out of the erythrocyte. D) transport into the erythrocyte as sodium ions move out. E) binding to DNA within the nucleus

PO2.

The Haldane effect describes the increase in the affinity of hemoglobin for CO2 in the presence of a 66) lowered A) PCO2. B) pH. C) concentration of bicarbonate (HCO3- ). D) PO2. E) temperature.

contraction and relaxation of inspiratory muscles.

During quiet breathing, a person’s breathing cycle consists of A) contraction of expiratory muscles. B) contraction of inspiratory muscles. C) contraction and relaxation of inspiratory muscles. D) contraction and relaxation of inspiratory and expiratory muscles. E) contraction of inspiratory muscles and relaxation of expiratory muscles.

both the phrenic nerve and external intercostal nerves

Which of the following nerves has activity during quiet inspiration? A) phrenic nerve only B) internal intercostal nerve only C) external intercostal nerve only D) both the phrenic nerve and internal intercostal nerves E) both the phrenic nerve and external intercostal nerves

asynchronously in the inspiratory and expiratory motor neurons.

During active breathing, bursts of action potentials are observed to occur 69) A) synchronously in the inspiratory and expiratory motor neurons. B) simultaneously in the inspiratory and expiratory motor neurons. C) asynchronously in the inspiratory and expiratory motor neurons. D) exclusively in the expiratory motor neurons. E) exclusively in the inspiratory motor neurons.

pontine respiratory group

The ________ is the respiratory center that appears to facilitate the transition between inspiration 70) and expiration. A) ventral respiratory group B) medullary respiratory group C) dorsal respiratory group D) central pattern generator E) pontine respiratory group

abrupt termination of inspiration.

In the model for quiet breathing, expiration is induced by A) activation of expiratory neurons in the dorsal respiratory center. B) activation of expiratory neurons in the ventral respiratory center. C) activation of inspiratory neurons in the dorsal respiratory center. D) abrupt termination of inspiration. E) activation of inspiratory neurons in the ventral respiratory center.

irritant receptors : trachea

Coughing is initiated by ________ located in the ________. A) chemoreceptors : nose and pharynx B) irritant receptors : nose and pharynx C) irritant receptors : trachea D) chemoreceptors : trachea E) stretch receptor : trachea

PO2, pH, and PCO2

Peripheral chemoreceptors are specialized cells in contact with arterial blood that respond directly 73) to changes in blood A) pH. B) PO2. C) PCO2. D) PCO2 and PO2. E) PO2, pH, and PCO2

cerebrospinal fluid pH.

Central chemoreceptors are neurons in the medulla that respond directly to changes in A) cerebrospinal fluid pH. B) cerebrospinal fluid PO2 and pH. C) blood pH and PO2. D) blood pH. E) cerebrospinal fluid PO2.

hydrogen ion concentration.

Chemoreceptors respond primarily to changes in PCO2 indirectly by its effect on A) lactic acid concentration. B) hydrogen ion concentration. C) hemoglobin concentration. D) PO2. E) 2,3- diphosphoglycerate (2,3- DPG) concentration.

decrease in breathing rate and depth of breathing.

Hyperventilation will cause changes in PCO2 that are detected by the chemoreceptors which causes a(n) A) increase in breathing rate and depth of breathing. B) decrease in breathing rate and depth of breathing. C) increase in breathing rate only. D) decrease in breathing rate only. E) increase in depth of breathing only.

Central chemoreceptors respond to only large decreases in PO2

Which of the following best describes a chemoreceptor response to PO2. A) Peripheral chemoreceptors respond only indirectly to PO2. B) Central chemoreceptors respond to only large decreases in PO2 C) Peripheral chemoreceptors respond to oxyhemoglobin. D) Central chemoreceptors do not respond to changes in PO2. E) Peripheral chemoreceptors respond to small changes in PO2

weak vasodilation : bronchoconstriction

A decrease in PCO2 within the lung will result in a ________ in the pulmonary vasculature and a ________ in the bronchioles A) vasodilation : weak bronchodilation B) lack of change : weak bronchoconstriction C) weak vasodilation : bronchoconstriction D) weak vasoconstriction : bronchodilation E) vasoconstriction : lack of change

increase : increase

A local bronchodilation within the alveolus will result in a(n) ________ in the ventilation- perfusion ratio in that region. A vasoconstriction of pulmonary arteriole diameter will result in a(n) ________ in the ventilation- perfusion ratio in that region. A) increase : decrease B) decrease : increase C) increase : increase D) lack of change : increase E) decrease : decrease

vasodilation : decreases

The primary effect of increased PO2 in the lungs is to cause ________ which ________ the ventilation- perfusion ratio back to a normal level. A) vasoconstriction : increases B) bronchodilation : increases C) vasoconstriction : decreases D) vasodilation : decreases E) bronchoconstriction : decreases

bronchodilation : increases

The primary effect of increased PCO2 in the lungs is to cause ________ which ________ the 81) ventilation- perfusion ratio back to a normal level. A) bronchoconstriction : decreases B) vasoconstriction : increases C) vasodilation : decreases D) vasoconstriction : decreases E) bronchodilation : increases

7.38- 7.42

What is the normal pH range for blood? A) 7.38- 7.42 B) 7- 10 C) 7 D) 1- 14 E) 7.35- 7.45

Changes in pH can denature proteins that serve as enzymes and receptors throughout the body, resulting in widespread effects on the body.

Which statement best describes the effect on the body due to pH changes either above or below the 83) normal range? A) Changes in pH out of the normal range are normal and will not have any detrimental effects on the body. B) pH ranges vary throughout the body; therefore, blood pH has no detrimental effects on the body as it changes pH. C) Changes in pH can only lower pH causing acidosis, meaning organs deteriorate due to high levels of acid. D) Changes in pH destroy the nephrons of the kidney, making kidney failure is inevitable. E) Changes in pH can denature proteins that serve as enzymes and receptors throughout the body, resulting in widespread effects on the body.

acidic

When the blood becomes ________, it can lead to a depression in the activity of the central nervous system. A) acidic B) pH 7.4 C) hypoxic D) hypocapnic E) alkaline

hydrogen ions.

The buffering capacity of hemoglobin is directly related to its ability to bind with A) oxygen. B) carbon dioxide. C) nitrogen. D) hydrogen ions. E) carbon monoxide

kidneys

Bicarbonate is an important buffer in blood and its concentration is regulated by the A) kidneys. B) lungs. C) pancreas. D) liver. E) heart.

change blood pH.

A change in the ratio of bicarbonate to carbon dioxide concentration in the blood will A) change blood potassium concentration. B) cause a vasodilation of systemic arterioles. C) cause a bronchodilation. D) change blood chloride concentration. E) change blood pH.

increase in blood CO2 concentration.

Respiratory acidosis will result from a(n) A) decrease in blood CO2 concentration. B) increase in carbon monoxide. C) increase in blood CO2 concentration. D) decrease in blood bicarbonate. E) increase in blood bicarbonate.

160 mm Hg

Assuming resting conditions at sea level, what is the partial pressure of oxygen in air? A) 80 mm Hg B) 100 mm Hg C) 46 mm Hg D) 40 mm Hg E) 160 mm Hg

100 mm Hg

A ssuming resting conditions at sea level, what is the partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli? 90) A) 100 mm Hg B) 160 mm Hg C) 40 mm Hg D) 46 mm Hg E) 80 mm Hg

40 mm Hg

Assuming resting conditions at sea level, what is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveoli? A) 40 mm Hg B) 46 mm Hg C) 80 mm Hg D) 160 mm Hg E) 100 mm Hg

100 mm Hg

Assuming resting conditions at sea level, what is the partial pressure of oxygen in pulmonary veins? A) 46 mm Hg B) 80 mm Hg C) 160 mm Hg D) 40 mm Hg E) 100 mm Hg

40 mm Hg

A ssuming resting conditions at sea level, what is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in pulmonary veins? A) 40 mm Hg B) 46 mm Hg C) 100 mm Hg D) 160 mm Hg E) 80 mm Hg

100 mm Hg

Assuming resting conditions at sea level, what is the partial pressure of oxygen in systemic arteries? A) 40 mm Hg B) 160 mm Hg C) 46 mm Hg D) 100 mm Hg E) 80 mm Hg

40 mm Hg

Assuming resting conditions at sea level, what is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in systemic arteries? A) 40 mm Hg B) 80 mm Hg C) 160 mm Hg D) 46 mm Hg E) 100 mm Hg

40 mm Hg

A ssuming resting conditions at sea level, what is the partial pressure of oxygen in systemic veins? A) 40 mm Hg B) 80 mm Hg C) 160 mm Hg D) 100 mm Hg E) 46 mm Hg

46 mm Hg

Assuming resting conditions at sea level, what is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in systemic veins? A) 46 mm Hg B) 40 mm Hg C) 100 mm Hg D) 80 mm Hg E) 160 mm Hg

40 mm Hg

Assuming resting conditions at sea level, what is the partial pressure of oxygen in pulmonary arteries? A) 46 mm Hg B) 100 mm Hg C) 80 mm Hg D) 160 mm Hg E) 40 mm Hg

carbamino effect.

A decrease in the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen caused by the binding of carbon dioxide to hemoglobin is described by the A) carbamino effect. B) Bohr effect. C) respiratory quotient. D) Henderson- Hasselbalch effect. E) Haldane effect.

Bohr effect.

A decrease in the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen caused by the binding of a hydrogen ion to 100) hemoglobin is described by the A) Henderson- Hasselbalch effect. B) Haldane effect. C) respiratory quotient. D) carbamino effect. E) Bohr effect.

carbamino effect

A decrease in the affinity of hemoglobin for carbon dioxide caused by the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin is described by the A) Bohr effect. B) Haldane effect. C) Henderson- Hasselbalch effect. D) respiratory quotient. E) carbamino effect.

105 mm Hg

At an altitude where atmospheric pressure is 500 mm Hg, what is the partial pressure of oxygen? A) 800 mm Hg B) 760 mm Hg C) 630 mm Hg D) 100 mm Hg E) 105 mm Hg

rightward : unloading

A decrease in the affinity of oxygen for hemoglobin is reflected as a ________ shift in the hemoglobin- oxygen dissociation curve, which would facilitate the ________ of oxygen. A) rightward : unloading B) leftward : unloading C) leftward : loading D) rightward : loading E) neutral

200 mm Hg

What is the partial pressure of nitrogen if it accounts for 20% of a mixed gas with a total pressure of 1000 mm Hg? A) 100 mm Hg B) 10 mm Hg C) 20 mm Hg D) 200 mm Hg E) 0 mm Hg

hypoventilation

Respiratory acidosis can occur during A) hypocapnia. B) the Haldane effect. C) hyperpnea. D) hyperventilation. E) hypoventilation

regulation of plasma temperature

1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys? A) regulation of plasma hydrogen concentration B) regulation of plasma ionic concentration C) regulation of plasma osmolarity D) regulation of plasma volume E) regulation of plasma temperature

volume : composition

The primary function of the kidneys involves regulating the ________ and the ________ of plasma and interstitial fluid. A) temperature : composition B) pressure : volume C) composition : osmolarity D) volume : composition E) volume : temperature

ureter : urethra

Once produced, urine travels through the ________ until it reaches the bladder, from which it is released into the external environment through the ________. A) urethra : ureter B) renal hilus : ureter C) collecting duct : urethra D) ureter : urethra E) collecting duct : ureter

erythropoietin

What hormone is secreted by the kidneys to increase red blood cell synthesis? A) ANP B) vitamin D C) renin D) erythropoietin E) angiotensin

20%

Despite being less than 1% of body weight, the kidneys receive what percent of resting cardiac output? A) 20% B) 1% C) 5% D) 15% E) 35 %

renal pyramids

What are the conical sections of the renal medulla called? A) renal pyramids B) renal cortex C) renal pelvis D) major calyces E) minor calyces

minor calyces

Where do the collecting ducts of the renal tubules drain? A) minor calyces B) ureters C) renal pelvis D) major calyces E) glomerulus

nephron

What is the functional unit of the kidney? A) proximal tubule B) nephron C) loop of Henle D) glomerulus E) collecting ducts

Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus

What two structures make up the renal corpuscle? A) nephron and collecting duct B) Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus C) major and minor calyces D) afferent and efferent arterioles E) proximal straight and proximal convoluted

afferent arteriole

Blood leaves the ________ and enters the glomerulus. A) vasa recta B) afferent arteriole C) Bowman’s capsule D) efferent arteriole E) peritubular capillary

efferent arteriole

Where does blood leaving the glomerulus go next? A) efferent arteriole B) Bowman’s capsule C) vasa recta D) peritubular capillary E) afferent arteriole

loop of Henle.

After fluid passes through the entire proximal tubule, the fluid will enter the A) distal tubule. B) connecting tubule. C) loop of Henle. D) collecting duct. E) Bowman’s capsule.

cortical

What type of nephron is located within the outer region of the kidney and comprises nearly 80% the nephrons? A) juxtamedullary B) peritubular C) medullary D) juxtaglomerular E) cortical

afferent and efferent arterioles are in contact with the distal tubule.

The juxtaglomerular apparatus describes the unique region of the nephron where the A) afferent and efferent arterioles are in contact with the proximal tubule. B) afferent arteriole is in contact with the distal tubule. C) afferent and efferent arterioles are in contact with the distal tubule. D) afferent arteriole is in contact with the proximal tubule. E) efferent arteriole is in contact with the distal tubule.

peritubular

What capillaries come off of the efferent arterioles associated with cortical nephrons? A) lobular B) vasa recta C) arcuate D) peritubular E) glomerulus

vasa recta

What capillaries come off of the efferent arterioles associated with juxtamedullary nephrons? A) vasa recta B) lobular C) peritubular D) glomerulus E) arcuate

renal artery, segmental arteries, interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobular arteries, afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole

Which of the following is the correct order of blood supply to the kidneys? A) renal artery, segmental arteries, interlobular arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobar arteries, efferent arteriole, glomerulus, afferent arteriole B) renal artery, interlobar arteries, interlobular arteries, arcuate arteries, segmental arteries, afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole C) renal artery, interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, segmental arteries, interlobular arteries, efferent arteriole, glomerulus, afferent arteriole D) renal artery, segmental arteries, interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobular arteries, afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole E) renal artery, arcuate arteries, interlobular arteries, segmental arteries, afferent arteriole, glomerulus, efferent arteriole, interlobar arteries

reabsorption

During what renal process are molecules selectively removed from the tubule lumen, moved into the interstitial space, and removed from the kidneys by the peritubular capillaries and the vasa recta? A) filtration B) reabsorption C) excretion D) absorption E) secretion

interlobular

The peritubular capillaries and vasa recta drain into what veins? A) interlobar B) arcuate C) segmental D) efferent E) interlobular

slit diaphragm

As fluid moves out of the glomerular capillaries, it passes through gaps in the podocytes called slit pores, whose size is regulated by what? A) slit muscle B) corpuscle C) slit diaphragm D) fenestrations E) glomerular capillary

secretion

What is the process whereby molecules are selectively transported from the peritubular fluid to the lumen of the renal tubules? A) reabsorption B) excretion C) glomerular filtration D) absorption E) secretion

glomerular filtration

What is the process whereby protein- free plasma moves by bulk flow from the glomerulus into Bowman’s capsules? A) reabsorption B) absorption C) excretion D) secretion E) glomerular filtration

capillary endothelial cells, basement membrane, and podocytes

Which of the following forms the filtration barrier? A) capillary endothelial cells only B) podocytes only C) basement membrane only D) both capillary endothelial cells and basement membrane E) capillary endothelial cells, basement membrane, and podocytes

glomerular filtration pressure

What is the sum of Starling’s forces within the renal corpuscle called? A) glomerular filtration pressure B) glomerular oncotic pressure C) glomerular filtration volume D) glomerular filtration rate E) glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure

glomerular capillary hydrostatic

What Starling force, which drives fluid out of the glomerulus, is relatively high (~60 mm Hg) due to the resistance of the efferent arterioles? A) glomerular capillary hydrostatic B) glomerular filtration C) glomerular oncotic D) Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic E) Bowman’s capsule oncotic

Bowman’s capsule oncotic pressure

Which of the following pressures across the glomerular capillaries approaches zero? A) glomerular filtration pressure B) glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure C) Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure D) glomerular oncotic pressure E) Bowman’s capsule oncotic pressure

glomerular oncotic pressure

Which of the forces across the glomerular capillaries tends to increase from the afferent to the efferent arteriole ends? A) glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure B) glomerular filtration pressure C) glomerular oncotic pressure D) Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure E) Bowman’s capsule oncotic pressure

(PGC +ȱΔBC) – (PBC +ȱΔGC)

Which equation describes the calculation of glomerular filtration pressure (BC = Bowman’s capsule and GC = glomerular capillary)? A) (PGC + PBC) – (ΔGC +ȱΔBC) B) (PBC +ȱΔGC) – (PGC +ȱΔBC) C) (PBC +ȱΔBC) – (PGC +ȱΔGC) D) (PGC +ȱΔBC) – (PBC +ȱΔGC) E) (PGC +ȱΔGC) – (PBC +ȱΔBC)

increased protein in Bowman’s space

Which of the following conditions would increase glomerular filtration pressure? A) decreased resistance of the efferent arterioles B) increased Bowman’s capsule pressure C) increased protein content in the blood D) increased protein in Bowman’s space E) increased resistance of the afferent arteriole

glomerular filtration rate × plasma concentration of solute

Which of the following equations is correct for calculating the filtered load? A) glomerular filtration pressure / renal plasma flow B) glomerular filtration rate × plasma concentration of solute C) glomerular filtration pressure × plasma concentration of solute D) glomerular filtration rate / renal plasma flow E) glomerular filtration pressure × plasma concentration of solvent

glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure

Changes in mean arterial pressure have the potential to alter glomerular filtration rate by directly altering which of the following? A) Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure B) glomerular oncotic pressure C) efferent arteriole resistance D) glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure E) Bowman’s capsule oncotic pressure

125 mL/min

What is the normal glomerular filtration rate? A) 625 mL/min B) 30 L/day C) 125 mL/min D) 1 gallon/day E) 3 L/day

20 %

If the glomerular filtration rate is 150 mL/min, renal blood flow is 750 mL/min, and the plasma concentration of solute X is 10 ng/mL, then what is the filtration fraction? A) 10 % B) 75 ng/min C) 50 ng/min D) 1500 ng/min E) 20 %

1500 ng/min

34) If the glomerular filtration rate is 150 mL/min, renal blood flow is 750 mL/min, and the plasma concentration of solute X is 10 ng/mL, then what is the filtered load of X? A) 20 % B) 50 ng/min C) 1500 ng/min D) 10 % E) 7500 ng/min

increasing the rate of secretion

Which of the following can increase the filtered load of a particular solute? A) decreasing the rate of excretion B) decreasing the plasma concentration of the solute C) increasing the rate of reabsorption D) increasing the rate of secretion E) increasing the glomerular filtration rate

80- 180 mm Hg

ver what range of mean arterial pressure does glomerular filtration rate remain stable due to intrinsic regulation? A) 80- 180 mm Hg B) 50- 150 mm Hg C) 70- 110 mm Hg D) 80- 120 mm Hg E) 80- 100 mm Hg

afferent arterioles to constrict and thereby maintain a relatively constant glomerular filtration pressure.

During myogenic regulation of glomerular filtration rate, an increase in mean arterial pressure will cause the A) efferent arterioles to dilate and thereby maintain a relatively constant glomerular filtration pressure. B) afferent arterioles to dilate and thereby allow glomerular filtration pressure to increase. C) afferent arterioles to constrict and thereby maintain a relatively constant glomerular filtration pressure. D) efferent arterioles to constrict and thereby maintain a relatively constant glomerular filtration pressure. E) afferent arterioles to dilate and thereby maintain a relatively constant glomerular filtration pressure.

flow of tubular fluid : constrict the afferent arteriole

In tubuloglomerular feedback, an increase in glomerular filtration rate would increase the ________, thereby stimulating the release of a paracrine factor from the macula densa that would ________. A) flow of tubular fluid : constrict the efferent arteriole B) flow of tubular fluid : constrict the afferent arteriole C) afferent arteriolar pressure : constrict the afferent arteriole D) flow of tubular fluid : dilate the afferent arteriole E) afferent arteriolar pressure : increase filtrate flow

decrease in surface area of capillaries available for filtration

39) Contraction of mesangial cells results in a(n) ________, which decreases glomerular filtration. A) constriction of the afferent arterioles B) dilation of the afferent arterioles C) dilation of the efferent arterioles D) increase in surface area of capillaries available for filtration E) decrease in surface area of capillaries available for filtration

granular cell contraction

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism whereby glomerular filtration rate is regulated? A) tubuloglomerular feedback B) sympathetic nervous system C) granular cell contraction D) myogenic regulation E) mesangial cell contraction

the sympathetic nervous system

A hemorrhage- induced decrease in mean arterial pressure will decrease glomerular filtration rate by intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms; the extrinsic mechanisms act through A) tubuloglomerular feedback. B) the parasympathetic nervous system. C) myogenic responses. D) mesangial cells. E) the sympathetic nervous system

stimulates constriction of both the afferent and efferent arterioles

How does the sympathetic nervous system decrease glomerular filtration rate? A) stimulates constriction of the efferent arteriole only B) stimulates constriction of both the afferent and efferent arterioles C) stimulates relaxation of the mesangial cells D) stimulates contraction of mesangial cells E) stimulates constriction of the afferent arteriole only

tubule epithelial cell

What is the primary barrier to reabsorption in the renal tubules? A) capillary endothelial cell B) peritubular space C) tubule basement membrane D) tubule epithelial cell E) capillary basement membrane

The solute must be able to permeate the membrane of the tubule epithelial cells, and the solute must be in greater concentration in the tubule fluid than plasma.

What condition(s) must exist for a solute to be passively reabsorbed from the renal tubules? A) The solute must be able to permeate the membrane of the tubule epithelial cells and capillary endothelial cells. Its concentration is irrelevant. B) The solute must be able to permeate the membrane of the capillary endothelial cells, and the solute must be in greater concentration in the plasma than tubule fluid. C) The solute must be able to permeate the membrane of the tubule epithelial cells, and the solute must be in greater concentration in the tubule fluid than plasma. D) The solute must be able to permeate the membrane of the tubule epithelial cells, and the solute must be in greater concentration in the plasma than tubule fluid. E) The solute must be able to permeate the membrane of the capillary endothelial cells, and the solute must be in greater concentration in the tubule fluid than plasma

apical membrane of renal tubule epithelial cells

Within the kidneys, what membrane has microvilli? A) apical membrane of vasa recta endothelial cells B) apical membrane of renal tubule epithelial cells C) glomerulus D) basolateral membrane of renal tubule epithelial cells E) basolateral membrane of peritubular capillary endothelial cells

microvilli

The apical membranes of the tubular epithelial cells contain ________ that increase the surface area for reabsorption. A) a basement membrane B) mitochondria C) tight junctions D) loose junctions E) microvilli

osmolarity

The diffusion of water across a tubule is driven by differences in ________ across the membrane. A) volume B) osmolarity C) potassium concentration D) partial pressure E) active transport

sodium- linked secondary active transporter

The concentration of glucose in tubular epithelial cells is maintained in an elevated state by what type of transporter on the apical membrane? A) glucose- linked secondary active transporter B) sodium- linked secondary active transporter C) carrier protein D) ion channel E) potassium- linked secondary active transporter

Glucose moves by paracellular transport.

which of the following is FALSE concerning glucose transport across the proximal tubule? A) Glucose is actively transported across the apical membrane by cotransport with sodium. B) Glucose transport requires energy. C) Glucose moves by paracellular transport. D) Glucose is normally 100% reabsorbed. E) Glucose is passively transported across the basolateral membrane by facilitated diffusion

The maximum rate of glucose filtration is 375 mg/min

Which of the following is FALSE concerning renal handling of glucose? A) The maximum rate of glucose reabsorption is 375 mg/min. B) The maximum rate of glucose filtration is 375 mg/min. C) Glucose is completely reabsorbed when its plasma concentration is 100 mg/dL. D) Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. E) Once glucose concentration in the plasma exceeds the renal threshold, glucose will be excreted in the urine.

sodium

which of the following substances is NOT secreted at any point into the renal tubules? A) potassium B) sodium C) creatinine D) hydrogen E) choline

70%

By the time filtrate reaches the loop of Henle, what percentage of the sodium and water has been reabsorbed? A)50% B) 1% C) 70% D) 90% E) 100 %

left the filtrate iso- osmotic.

By the time the filtrate reaches the loop of Henle, the reabsorption of water and ions has A) left the filtrate hyperosmotic. B) left the filtrate iso- osmotic. C) removed all of the sodium from the filtrate. D) removed all of the potassium from the filtrate. E) left the filtrate hypoosmotic.

greater paracellular transport in the epithelial cells of the distal tubule

Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of differences between epithelial cells of the proximal and distal tubules? A) less prominent microvilli in the epithelial cells of the distal tubule B) fewer mitochondria in the epithelial cells of the distal tubule C) greater paracellular transport in the epithelial cells of the distal tubule D) less permeable tight junctions between the epithelial cells of the distal tubule E) receptors for hormones on the epithelial cells of the distal tubule

Hyperglycemia causes some glucose to remain in the renal tubules which pulls water with it by osmosis.

In diabetes mellitus, why does polyuria occur? A) A lack of ADH decreases water reabsorption. B) Hyperglycemia causes some glucose to remain in the renal tubules which pulls water with it by osmosis. C) A lack of insulin decreases water reabsorption. D) Hypoglycemia causes the excretion of a dilute urine. E) Hyperglycemia causes increased permeability of the renal tubules to water

microvilli on the apical membrane of the proximal tubule

What is the brush border? A) tight junctions between epithelial cells of the loops of Henle B) microvilli on the apical membrane of the proximal tubule C) tight junctions between epithelial cells of the distal tubule D) the epithelial cells of the renal corpuscle E) microvilli on the apical membrane of Bowman’s capsule

proximal tubule : not regulated

Most reabsorption occurs in the ________ and is ________. A) loop of Henle : regulated B) proximal tubule : regulated C) distal tubule and collecting duct : regulated D) distal tubule and collecting duct : not regulated E) proximal tubule : not regulated

aldosterone

Tubular epithelial cells of the collecting duct and distal tubule contain receptors for what hormone that stimulates sodium reabsorption? A) renin B) antidiuretic hormone C) aldosterone D) atrial natriuretic peptide E) erythropoietin

antidiuretic hormone

Tubular epithelial cells of the collecting duct and distal tubule contain receptors for what hormone that stimulates water reabsorption? A) erythropoietin B) renin C) aldosterone D) atrial natriuretic peptide E) antidiuretic hormone

special transport systems of the loops of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons

What creates the osmotic gradient in the renal medulla? A) passive transport of solute out of the distal tubules and collecting ducts B) active transport of solute out of the proximal tubule C) active transport of solute out of the distal tubules and collecting ducts D) special transport systems of the loops of Henle of cortical nephrons E) special transport systems of the loops of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons

both filtration and secretion

Substances can enter the renal tubules by what renal processes? A) filtration only B) reabsorption only C) secretion only D) both filtration and secretion E) both reabsorption and secretion

filtration + secretion – reabsorption

The amount of a substance excreted from the kidneys is calculated by which of the following 63) equations? A) filtration + secretion – reabsorption B) filtration – secretion – reabsorption C) filtration + secretion + reabsorption D) filtration – (secretion × reabsorption) E) filtration + (secretion × reabsorption)

reabsorbed.

Solutes that enter the lumen of the renal tubules are excreted unless they are 64) A) degraded. B) secreted. C) reabsorbed. D) filtered. E) bound to receptors.

secretion into the renal tubules.

If the amount of solute excreted per minute is greater than the filtered load, then the NET effect on the solute is A) secretion into the renal tubules. B) an absence of secretion in the renal tubules. C) a combination of reabsorption and secretion in the renal tubules. D) an absence of reabsorption in the renal tubules. E) reabsorption from the renal tubules.

clearance = excretion rate / plasma concentration

Which of the following equations for determining clearance is correct? A) clearance = excretion rate / glomerular filtration rate B) clearance = filtered load / glomerular filtration rate C) clearance = excretion rate × plasma concentration D) clearance = filtered load × glomerular filtration rate E) clearance = excretion rate / plasma concentration

clearance = (urine concentration × urine flow rate) / plasma concentration

Which of the following equations for determining clearance is correct? A) clearance = GRF × urine concentration B) clearance = (plasma concentration × urine flow rate) / urine concentration C) clearance = plasma concentration / (urine concentration × urine flow rate) D) clearance = (urine concentration × urine flow rate) / plasma concentration E) clearance = urine concentration (plasma concentration × urine flow rate)

Y is reabsorbed.

Calculate renal clearance of X given the following information: GFR = 100 mL/min, urine flow rate = 5 mL/min, plasma concentration of X = 10 mg/mL, urine concentration of X = 50 mg/mL. A) Y is freely filterable. B) Y is reabsorbed. C) Y is secreted. D) Y is neither reabsorbed nor secreted. E) Y is not freely filtered.

Y is freely filterable.

Given that GFR is 125 mL/min and the clearance of substance Y is 200 mL/min, which of the following MUST be true of the renal handling of substance Y? A) Y is freely filterable. B) Y is reabsorbed. C) Y is secreted. D) Y is neither reabsorbed nor secreted. E) Y is not freely filtered.

inulin

The clearance of what substance provides the best estimate of glomerular filtration rate? A) inulin B) sodium C) creatine D) PAH E) glucose

PAH

The clearance of what substance provides the best estimate of renal blood flow rate? A) PAH B) creatine C) glucose D) inulin E) sodium

glucose

The clearance of which of the following substances is normally zero? A) creatine B) sodium C) glucose D) inulin E) PAH

filtered load.

If a substance is neither reabsorbed nor secreted, then its excretion rate is equal to the A) renal threshold. B) glomerular filtration rate. C) plasma concentration of the substance. D) filtered load.

internal urethral sphincter

What structure is formed by the thickening of the smooth muscle cell wall surrounding the bladder that regulates the flow of urine from the bladder? A) internal urethral sphincter B) bladder sphincter C) external urethral sphincter D) detrusor muscle E) urethral muscle

wavelike contractions of the ureter

How is urine moved through the ureter? A) contraction of the external urethral sphincter B) wavelike contractions of the ureter C) contraction of the internal urethral sphincter D) contraction of the detrusor muscle E) pressure created within the renal pelvis

detrusor and the internal urethral sphincter

Which muscle(s) that regulate(s) micturition is/are under involuntary control? A) detrusor B) internal urethral sphincter C) detrusor and the external urethral sphincter D) external urethral sphincter E) detrusor and the internal urethral sphincter

The detrusor muscles contract, muscles of the internal urethral sphincter relax, and muscles of the external urethral sphincter relax.

Which of the following occurs during micturition? A) The detrusor muscles relax, muscles of the internal urethral sphincter contract, and muscles of the external urethral sphincter contract. B) The detrusor muscles relax, muscles of the internal urethral sphincter relax, and muscles of the external urethral sphincter relax. C) The detrusor muscles contract, muscles of the internal urethral sphincter relax, and muscles of the external urethral sphincter relax. D) The detrusor muscles relax, muscles of the internal urethral sphincter contract, and muscles of the external urethral sphincter relax. E) The detrusor muscles contract, muscles of the internal urethral sphincter contract, and muscles of the external urethral sphincter contract.

excitation of sympathetic neurons, causing the internal urethral sphincter to relax.

Stretching of the bladder reflexively causes all of the following EXCEPT A) excitation of parasympathetic neurons, causing the detrusor muscles to contract. B) opening of the urethral sphincters. C) inhibition of somatic neurons to the external urethral sphincter, causing the sphincter to open. D) micturition. E) excitation of sympathetic neurons, causing the internal urethral sphincter to relax.

Sympathetic activity excites muscles of the internal urethral sphincter inhibiting micturition.

What effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on micturition? A) Sympathetic activity excites muscles of the internal urethral sphincter inhibiting micturition. B) Sympathetic activity excites muscles of the internal urethral sphincter allowing micturition. C) Sympathetic activity inhibits muscles of the internal urethral sphincter inhibiting micturition. D) Sympathetic activity excites muscles of the external urethral sphincter allowing micturition. E) Sympathetic activity inhibits muscles of the external urethral sphincter inhibiting micturition.

both the internal urethral sphincter and detrusor muscle

Which of the following is smooth muscle? A) internal urethral sphincter only B) external urethral sphincter only C) detrusor muscle only D) both the internal urethral sphincter and detrusor muscle E) both internal and external urethral sphincters

somatic : external urethral sphincter

To voluntarily control urination, the ________ nervous system innervates the ________. A) somatic : detrusor muscle B) autonomic : external urethral sphincter C) autonomic : internal urethral sphincter D) somatic : external urethral sphincter E) somatic : internal urethral sphincter

parasympathetic nervous system only

During micturition, neural activity to sphincters or detrusor muscles from which of the following is increased? A) parasympathetic nervous system only B) sympathetic nervous system only C) somatic nervous system only D) both parasympathetic and somatic nervous systems E) both sympathetic and somatic nervous

detrusor muscle only.

In older children and adults, the cerebral cortex is able to block micturition by inhibiting nerve activity to the A) internal urethral sphincter only. B) detrusor muscle only. C) external urethral sphincter only. D) detrusor muscle and external urethral sphincter. E) internal and external urethral sphincters.

3 mmole

Substance X is freely filtered at the glomerulus. 3 mmole X is filtered, 2 mmole X is reabsorbed, and 84) 2 mmole X is secreted per minute. How much X is excreted per minute? A) 1 mmole B) 2 mmole C) 3 mmole D) 4 mmole E) 5 mmole

macula densa

During tubuloglomerular feedback of glomerular filtration rate, paracrines secreted from what structure(s) cause constriction of the afferent arteriole? A) macula densa B) proximal tubule C) mesangial cells D) glomerulus E) juxtaglomerular cells

leakier epithelium and a larger apical surface area.

In comparison to the distal tubule, the proximal tubule has a A) tighter epithelium and a larger apical surface area. B) leakier epithelium and is more responsive to hormones. C) small apical surface area and is more responsive to hormones. D) leakier epithelium and a larger apical surface area. E) tighter epithelium and is more responsive to hormones.

Bowman’s capsule

What is the site where filtrate enters renal tubules? A) distal tubule B) collecting duct C) proximal tubule D) Bowman’s capsule E) loop of Henle

proximal tubule

Most filtered solutes and water are reabsorbed in what region? A) proximal tubule B) distal tubule C) collecting duct D) loop of Henle E) Bowman’s capsule

proximal tubule

Filtrate moves from what structure to the loop of Henle? A) collecting duct B) distal tubule C) Bowman’s capsule D) loop of Henle E) proximal tubule

distal tubule

Located entirely within the cortex, reabsorption of water and certain solutes from which region is 90) under hormonal control? A) distal tubule B) loop of Henle C) collecting duct D) Bowman’s capsule E) proximal tubule

loop of Henle

In juxtamedullary nephrons, which region sets up the medullary osmotic gradient? A) proximal tubule B) Bowman’s capsule C) distal tubule D) collecting duct E) loop of Henle

collecting duct

Which tubule drains into the minor calyces? A) distal tubule B) loop of Henle C) proximal tubule D) collecting duct E) Bowman’s capsule

kidneys

What structure filters the blood to regulate its composition? A) urethra B) bladder C) liver D) ureter E) kidneys

ureter

What structure stores urine prior to micturition? A) bladder B) ureter C) urethra D) kidneys E) liver

urethra

What structure transports urine from the kidneys to the bladder? A) urethra B) bladder C) liver D) ureter E) kidneys

filtration

Which of the following describes movement from glomerular capillaries into Bowman’s capsule? A) filtration B) reabsorption C) excretion D) secretion E) micturition

reabsorption

Which of the following describes movement from renal tubules into the peritubular capillaries? A) micturition B) reabsorption C) excretion D) secretion E) filtration

secretion

Which of the following describes movement from peritubular capillaries into the renal tubules? A) filtration B) excretion C) micturition D) reabsorption E) secretion

excretion

Which of the following describes elimination of urine from the body? A) micturition B) excretion C) secretion D) reabsorption E) filtration

afferent arteriole

Constriction of which vessel, by intrinsic or extrinsic mechanisms, decreases glomerular filtration rate? A) peritubular capillary B) vasa recta C) efferent arteriole D) afferent arteriole E) glomerulus

peritubular capillary

Substances that are reabsorbed from the proximal tubule enter which blood vessel? A) efferent arteriole B) afferent arteriole C) glomerulus D) vasa recta E) peritubular capillary

glomerulus

Filtration occurs across which capillary bed? A) efferent arteriole B) glomerulus C) afferent arteriole D) vasa recta E) peritubular capillary

efferent arteriole

After blood is filtered in the renal corpuscle, the blood continues moving through which blood vessel to another capillary bed? A) glomerulus B) peritubular capillary C) efferent arteriole D) afferent arteriole E) vasa recta

vasa recta

Which capillary bed dips down into the renal medulla with the loop of Henle? A) efferent arteriole B) peritubular capillary C) glomerulus D) vasa recta E) afferent arteriole

mesangial cells

Which of the following are modified smooth muscle cells around the glomerulus that contract to decrease the surface area of the glomerulus available for filtration? A) macula densa cells B) granular cells C) mesangial cells D) podocytes E) endothelial cells

podocytes

107) Which of the following are epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule that form part of the filtration barrier? A) macula densa cells B) podocytes C) mesangial cells D) granular cells E) endothelial cells

granular cells

Which cells of the afferent arteriole secrete renin? A) endothelial cells B) podocytes C) granular cells D) macula densa cells E) mesangial cells

macula densa cells

Which cells of the distal tubule secrete a paracrine in response to changes in the filtrate flow rate? A) granular cells B) mesangial cells C) endothelial cells D) podocytes E) macula densa cells

filtration fraction

What is the GFR/renal plasma flow equal to? A) excretion rate B) renal blood flow C) filtration fraction D) clearance E) filtered load

filtered load

What is the GFR plasma concentration equal to? A) clearance B) renal blood flow C) filtration fraction D) filtered load E) excretion rate

clearance

What is the excretion rate/plasma concentration equal to? A) filtration fraction B) filtered load C) excretion rate D) renal blood flow E) clearance

excretion rate

What is the urine concentration × urine flow rate equal to? A) excretion rate B) renal blood flow C) filtration fraction D) clearance E) filtered load

clearance

What is the (urine concentration × urine flow rate)/plasma concentration equal to? A) renal blood flow B) filtration fraction C) filtered load D) clearance E) excretion rate

renal blood flow

What is the (clearance of PAH)/(1-hematocrit) equal to? A) filtered load B) filtration fraction C) renal blood flow D) excretion rate E) clearance

What is the region of the kidney where the renal artery and vein enter? A) medulla B) columns C) hilus D) calyx E) pyramids

Bowman’s capsule and the glomerulus

What two structures make up the renal corpuscle? A) Bowman’s capsule and the glomerulus B) proximal and distal tubules C) juxtaglomerular apparatus and macula densa D) afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole E) proximal tubule and loop of Henle

descending limb, thin ascending limb, and thick ascending limb

What are the three components of the loop of Henle? A) proximal tubule, loop, and the distal tubule B) thick descending limb, thin descending limb, and thick ascending limb C) descending limb, ascending limb, and the bend D) descending limb, ascending limb, and the vasa recta E) descending limb, thin ascending limb, and thick ascending limb

juxtamedullary nephrons

119) What are a small percentage of the nephrons in the kidneys that function in the maintenance of the osmotic gradient in the medullary region of the kidney called? A) cortical nephrons B) convoluted nephrons C) interlobular nephrons D) arcuate nephrons E) juxtamedullary nephrons

peritubular and vasa recta, respectively

Which capillaries branch from efferent arterioles of cortical nephrons and which branch from efferent arterioles of juxtamedullary nephrons? A) cortical and juxtamedullary, respectively B) interlobar and interlobular, respectively C) vasa recta and interlobular, respectively D) peritubular and vasa recta, respectively E) arcuate and peritubular, respectively

macula densa

What are the specialized cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the distal tubule called? A) baroreceptors B) juxtaglomerular cells C) macula densa D) granular cells E) afferent endothelial cells

granular cells

What are the specialized cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the afferent arteriole (and, to a lesser extent, the efferent arteriole) called? A) macula densa B) baroreceptors C) vasa recta D) granular cells E) apparatus cells

basement membrane

Which layer of the filtration barrier in Bowman’s capsule is the primary barrier to the movement of protein from the capillary? A) epithelial cell B) endothelial cell C) basement membrane D) macula densa E) granular cell

back into the capillaries.

Under normal conditions, the osmotic pressure gradient across the glomerular capillaries tends to move water A) into the parenchyma. B) into the filtrate. C) back into the capillaries. D) into the collecting duct. E) against its concentration gradient.

glomerular capillary osmotic pressure : filtration

Which of the four Starling forces for glomerular filtration is incorrectly paired with the direction it favors (filtration or absorption)? A) glomerular capillary osmotic pressure : filtration B) Bowman’s capsule oncotic pressure : filtration C) glomerular capillary oncotic pressure : absorption D) glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure : filtration E) Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure : absorption

1000 mg/min

Given a GFR of 100 mL/min, and a plasma concentration of solute of 10 mg/mL, what is the filtered load of this solute? A) 1 g/mL B) 1000 mg/min C) 100 mg/dL D) 1000 mL/min E) 100 mg/mL

transport maximum

When carrier proteins are saturated, they are said to be working at what? A) increased capacity B) active reabsorptive state C) diminished capacity D) transport maximum E) increased affinity

PAH

The clearance of ________ provides a measure of renal plasma flow rate. A) PAH B) inulin C) urea D) myoglobin E) glucose

inulin

clearance of what substance, which is not produced in the body but must be injected, provides a measure of glomerular filtration rate? A) glucose B) urea C) PAH D) inulin E) creatinine

creatinine

The clearance of what substance, a natural by- product of muscle metabolism, provides a non- invasive estimate of glomerular filtration rate? A) urea B) glucose C) inulin D) PAH E) creatinine

external urethral sphincter : detrusor muscle : internal urethral sphincter

In terms of controlling micturition, the somatic nervous system innervates the ________, the parasympathetic nervous system innervates the ________, and the sympathetic nervous system innervates the ________. A) internal urethral sphincter : detrusor muscle : external urethral sphincter B) bladder skeletal muscle : bladder smooth muscle : external urethral sphincter C) external urethral sphincter : detrusor muscle : internal urethral sphincter D) internal urethral sphincter : external urethral sphincter : detrusor muscle E) bladder : micturition reflex : external urethral sphincter

stretch receptors

the micturition reflex is activated by the stretch of the bladder, which activates what? A) sympathetic afferents B) parasympathetic efferents C) somatic afferents D) parasympathetic afferents E) stretch receptors

secretion of ADH

hich of the following is NOT a mechanism of dissipating heat during exercise? A) radiation B) convection C) evaporation D) secretion of ADH E) conduction

Water can permeate the apical membrane through aquaporin- 2 and the basolateral membrane through aquaporin- 3, but aquaporin- 2 is only present in the presence of ADH

Which of the following correctly describes water movement across the epithelial cells lining the collecting duct? A) Water can permeate the phospholipid bilayer only in the presence of ADH. B) Water can permeate the basolateral membrane through aquaporin- 2 and the apical membrane through aquaporin- 3, but aquaporin- 2 is only present in the presence of aldosterone. C) Water can permeate the lipid bilayer at all times. D) Water can permeate the apical membrane through aquaporin- 2 and the basolateral membrane through aquaporin- 3, but aquaporin- 2 is only present in the presence of ADH. E) Water can permeate the phospholipid bilayer only in the presence of aldosterone.

440 mL

A person must void what volume of urine per day? A) 0 mL B) 15 mL C) 120 mL D) 440 mL E) 1200 mL

decrease in filtrate volume.

In the early portion of the collecting duct (in cortical interstitial fluid), an increase in water permeability will result in a(n) A) movement of water into the duct. B) increase in filtrate volume. C) efflux of urea from the tubule. D) transport of sodium out of the tubule. E) decrease in filtrate volume.

posterior pituitary

From where is ADH released? A) distal tubule B) pancreas C) posterior pituitary D) collecting duct E) anterior pituitary

principal : causes insertion of aquaporin- 2 into the apical membrane

Antidiuretic hormone binds to receptors on ________ cells in the collecting ducts and distal tubules where it ________. A) intercalated : causes vesicles with aquaporin- 3 to insert into the apical membrane B) intercalated : causes vesicles with aquaporin- 2 to insert into the basolateral membrane C) principal : causes vesicle with aquaporin- 3 to insert into the apical membrane D) principal : causes insertion of aquaporin- 2 into the apical membrane E) granular : causes vesicles with aquaporin- 2 to insert into the apical membrane

high : decrease

At high concentrations of antidiuretic hormone, the extent of water reabsorption in the collecting ducts is ________, causing urine output to ________. A) high : decrease B) high : increase C) low : increase D) low : decrease E) unaffected : remain unchanged

increase in plasma osmolarity

What is the strongest stimulus for the release of antidiuretic hormone from the posterior pituitary? A) decrease in blood pressure B) decrease in plasma osmolarity C) decrease in sodium content of the blood D) increase in plasma osmolarity E) increase in blood pressure

ADH : urine volume

In diabetes insipidus, blood levels of ________ are decreased causing an increase in ________. A) aldosterone : potassium in the urine B) ADH : urine volume C) ADH : plasma volume D) aldosterone : sodium in the urine E) insulin : glucose in the urine

nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

Whih of the following diseases is associated with decreased responsiveness of the renal tubules to ADH? A) diabetes mellitus type 1 B) diabetes mellitus type 2 C) nephrogenic diabetes insipidus D) central diabetes insipidus E) diabetic nephropathy

A lack of ADH decreases water reabsorption

In diabetes insipidus, why does polyuria occur? A) An increase in aldosterone increases water reabsorption. B) Glucose transporters in the renal tubules become saturated. C) A lack of insulin decreases water permeability of the renal tubules. D) A lack of angiotensin II decreases thirst. E) A lack of ADH decreases water reabsorption

increased plasma sodium

Which of the following conditions would be associated with hypernatremia? A) increased plasma potassium B) hypotension C) increased plasma sodium D) decreased plasma osmolarity E) decreased plasma volume

increased potassium secretion

Which of the following is associated with actions of aldosterone on principal cells? A) increased potassium secretion B) decreased blood pressure C) decreased plasma osmolarity D) increased calcium reabsorption E) increased sodium

granular : afferent arteriole

Renin is released by ________ cells of the ________. secretion A) principal : distal tubule B) principal : afferent arteriole C) granular : afferent arteriole D) granular : distal tubule E) intercalated : afferent arteriole

renin

What enzyme converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I? A) mucin B) carbonic anhydrase C) angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) D) atrial natriuretic peptide E) renin

angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)

What enzyme converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II? A) renin B) atrial natriuretic peptide C) angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) D) carbonic anhydrase E) mucin

ACE inhibitors reduce blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.

ACE inhibitors prevent angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) from performing its role in the body. Which statement best describes why doctors prescribe ACE inhibitors? A) ACE inhibitors reduce blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. B) ACE inhibitors slow down the heart rate by not allowing atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) to be released from the heart, decreasing sodium production and, therefore, blood pressure. C) ACE inhibitors block the production of renin in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys reducing fluid volume and, therefore, blood pressure. D) ACE inhibitors block baroreceptors and reduce sympathetic activity to the cardiovascular system, thereby reducing blood pressure. E) ACE inhibitors increase blood pressure by blocking the RASS pathway.

an increase in thirst

Angiotensin II acts directly in the hypothalamus to stimulate what? A) an increase in body temperature B) a systemic increase in blood pressure C) the release of aldosterone D) the release of oxytocin E) an increase in thirst

low blood pressure

Which of the following conditions triggers the release of renin? A) atrial stretching due to increased plasma volume B) increased mean arterial pressure (MAP) C) high blood pressure D) low blood pressure E) increased sympathetic stimulation

liver

Angiotensinogen is synthesized by what organ? A) kidney B) adrenal gland C) bone marrow D) liver E) pituitary gland

distension of the atrial wall due to an increase in plasma volume

What stimulates atrial natriuretic peptide release? A) distension of the atrial wall due to an increase in blood pressure B) changes in the concentration of sodium in the blood of the atrium C) distension of the atrial wall due to an increase in plasma volume D) changes in the concentration of potassium in the blood of the atrium E) renin

increasing the synthesis of sodium channels in principal cells.

The effects of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) are not restricted to regulating water movement; it also affects sodium reabsorption by A) decreasing the synthesis of sodium channels in principal cells. B) decreasing the synthesis of sodium channels in intercalated cells. C) increasing the synthesis of Na+/K+ pumps in principal cells. D) increasing the synthesis of sodium channels in principal cells. E) increasing the synthesis of sodium channels in intercalated cells.

release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

A ngiotensin II and atrial natriuretic peptide are able to alter the reabsorption of water through a similar pathway that involves altered A) release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). B) Na+/K+ pump activity in the principal cells. C) Na+/K+ pump activity in the intercalated cells. D) integration of aquaporin- 3 into the membrane. E) sodium channel expression on the apical membrane.

decreased renin secretion

Which of the following is NOT a response to hemorrhage? A) decreased renin secretion B) increased sympathetic activity C) increased angiotensin II production D) increased epinephrine secretion E) increased ADH release

ADH

What hormone activates the cAMP second messenger system in principal cells of the distal tubules and collecting ducts? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) angiotensin II D) atrial natriuretic peptide E) parathyroid hormone

ADH

What hormone increases water reabsorption by inserting aquaporin- 2 proteins into the apical membrane of principal cells? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) angiotensin II D) atrial natriuretic peptide E) parathyroid hormone

angiotensin II

What hormone stimulates the release of aldosterone? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) angiotensin II D) atrial natriuretic peptide E) parathyroid hormone

aldosterone

Release of what hormone is stimulated by high levels of potassium? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) angiotensin II D) atrial natriuretic peptide E) parathyroid hormone

calcitonin

What hormone decreases calcium levels in blood? A) angiotensin II B) aldosterone C) calcitonin D) parathyroid hormone E) ADH

parathyroid hormone

What hormone increases calcium resorption from bone? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) angiotensin II D) atrial natriuretic peptide E) parathyroid hormone

atrial natriuretic peptide

What hormone increases excretion of sodium? A) ADH B) aldosterone C) angiotensin II D) atrial natriuretic peptide E) parathyroid hormone

proximal tubule basolateral membrane

Most sodium reabsorption is driven by the Na+/K+ pump located in what region? A) principal cells basolateral membrane B) proximal tubule basolateral membrane C) principal cells apical membrane D) intercalated cells basolateral membrane E) proximal tubule apical membrane

principal cells basolateral membrane

Aquaporin- 3 is located on what membrane in the absence of ADH? A) intercalated cells basolateral membrane B) proximal tubule basolateral membrane C) proximal tubule apical membrane D) principal cells basolateral membrane E) principal cells apical membrane

principal cells basolateral membrane

Receptors for ADH are located where? A) proximal tubule apical membrane B) principal cells basolateral membrane C) principal cells apical membrane D) intercalated cells basolateral membrane E) proximal tubule basolateral membrane

proximal tubule basolateral membrane

Potassium channels located where are necessary for its reabsorption? A) proximal tubule basolateral membrane B) principal cells apical membrane C) principal cells basolateral membrane D) intercalated cells basolateral membrane E) proximal tubule apical membrane

principal cells apical membrane

Potassium channels located where are necessary for its secretion? A) proximal tubule apical membrane B) intercalated cells basolateral membrane C) principal cells apical membrane D) principal cells basolateral membrane E) proximal tubule basolateral membrane

proximal tubule apical membrane

Carbonic anhydrase is located where? A) proximal tubule basolateral membrane B) proximal tubule apical membrane C) principal cells basolateral membrane D) intercalated cells basolateral membrane E) principal cells apical membrane

proximal tubule apical membrane

Sodium – glucose cotransporters are located where A) intercalated cells basolateral membrane B) principal cells basolateral membrane C) proximal tubule basolateral membrane D) principal cells apical membrane E) proximal tubule apical membrane

principal cells apical membrane

ADH increases the insertion of aquaporin- 2 where? A) proximal tubule apical membrane B) proximal tubule basolateral membrane C) principal cells basolateral membrane D) principal cells apical membrane E) intercalated cells basolateral membrane

principal cells apical membrane

Aldosterone increases the number of potassium channels where? A) principal cells apical membrane B) proximal tubule basolateral membrane C) intercalated cells basolateral membrane D) proximal tubule apical membrane E) principal cells basolateral membrane

Share This
Flashcard

More flashcards like this

NCLEX 10000 Integumentary Disorders

When assessing a client with partial-thickness burns over 60% of the body, which finding should the nurse report immediately? a) ...

Read more

NCLEX 300-NEURO

A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) tells the nurse, "Sometimes I feel so frustrated. I can’t do anything without ...

Read more

NASM Flashcards

Which of the following is the process of getting oxygen from the environment to the tissues of the body? Diffusion ...

Read more

Unfinished tasks keep piling up?

Let us complete them for you. Quickly and professionally.

Check Price

Successful message
sending