Exam70-412 Chapter 1 – 9

Which of the following technologies transparently distributes traffic across multiple servers by using virtual IP addresses and a shared name?

Network Load Balancing ***Network Load Balancing (NLB) transparently distributes traffic across multiple servers by using virtual IP addresses and a shared name. With NLB, you gain fault tolerance and enhanced performance. It is often used with mission-critical web servers but can also be found with other types of servers.

Which of the following statements about Network Load Balancing is incorrect?

Network adapters in the NLB cluster can use both multicast and unicast simultaneously. ***Within each cluster, all network adapters must be either multicast or unicast. You cannot have some nodes configured as multicast while other nodes are configured as unicast within a single cluster.

From where would you add Network Load Balancing to a Windows Server 2012 computer?

Server Manager ***To add the NLB feature to a computer running Windows Server 2012, you use Server Manager.

To configure an NLB cluster after installing NLB on the Windows Server 2012 computer, you must configure three types of parameters. Which of the following is not one of the three you must configure?

Firewall rules ***To configure the NLB cluster, you must configure three types of parameters: – Host parameter: Defines what each node can do in an NLB cluster. – Cluster parameter: Configures the NLB cluster as a whole. – Port rules: Controls what ports the NLB cluster services and how requests are balanced across all servers.

Which PowerShell cmdlet here will correctly install NLB and the NLB management console?

Add-WindowsFeature NLB,RSAT-NLB ***To install the NLB cluster and the NLB tools using PowerShell, you can use the following cmdlet: Add-WindowsFeature NLB,RSAT-NLB

Which PowerShell cmdlet is used to add a new dedicated IP to an NLB cluster node?

Add-NlbClusterNodeDip ***You can use the Add-NlbClusterNodeDip cmdlet to add a dedicated IP to an NLB cluster node.

Which PowerShell cmdlet is used to delete an NLB cluster?

Remove-NlbCluster ***You can use the Remove-NlbCluster cmdlet to delete a specified NLB cluster.

While logged into a Windows Server 2012 computer that is part of an NLB cluster, which of the following PowerShell one-liners is the correct way to change or set the primary IP address of the cluster?

Get-NlbCluster | Set-NlbCluster -ClusterPrimaryIP IPaddress ***You would need to use the Get-NlbCluster | Set-NlbCluster -ClusterPrimaryIP IPaddress PowerShell one-liner to change or set the primary IP address of the cluster.

When you configure port rules for NLB clusters, you will need to configure all of the options listed here, except for one. Which option in this list will you not configure for a port rule?

The node IP address the rule should apply to ***When you configure the port rules, you configure the following: – The virtual IP address that the rule should apply to – The TCP or UDP port range that this rule should apply to – The protocols that this rule should apply to, including TCP, UDP, or both – The filtering mode that specifies how the cluster handles traffic, which is described by the port range and the protocols

In which NLB cluster operation mode is the MAC address of every node’s network adapter replaced with a single shared MAC address?

Unicast ***When you configure an NLB cluster to use unicast mode, NLB replaces the network card’s original MAC address, and all cluster hosts use the same unicast MAC address.

Which of the following is a constraint of using NLB clusters in unicast mode that you will need to design for?

You will need separate cluster and management network adapters if you manage the nodes from a different TCP/IP subnet than the cluster network. ***When you use unicast mode with a single network adapter on each node, the computer can communicate only with other computers within the same subnet. If you perform management tasks on the computer, you need to perform these tasks on a computer that is on the same TCP/IP subnet as the node, or you have to use a second network adapter and address.

Which cluster operation mode is designed to prevent the network switch from flooding with traffic?

IGMP Multicast ***Another mode available is the Internet Group Management Protocol Multicast mode, which is a special form of multicast mode that prevents the network switch from flooding with traffic. When you use IGMP multicast mode, traffic is forwarded only through the switch ports that are part of the NLB cluster.

Which NLB control command would be the correct one to use to gracefully prepare a node for a planned maintenance activity?

Drainstop ***To perform maintenance on an NLB node that needs to be temporarily removed from the NLB cluster, you should choose drainstop so that connections are not prematurely stopped before the requests are completed.

Which NLB control command would most likely be the best option to use to immediately prepare a node for emergency maintenance?

Stop ***The stop action terminates all existing connections to the cluster node and stops the NLB service. This would most likely be the best option if you needed to immediately take the server out of the NLB cluster for maintenance; although, it will result in client session interruption, so it should be used with caution and an understanding of the net result.

Many components can be configured redundantly within a server system. Of the components listed, which one is typically not available in a redundant arrangement in a single server system?

Mainboards (motherboards) ***To make a server more fault tolerant, you should first look at what components are the most likely to fail and implement technology to make the system less likely to fail. Some of the components that are made redundant within a system are usually the following: – Disks: Use some form of RAID and hot spares. – Power supplies: Use redundant power supplies. – Network cards: Use redundant network cards.

Why should you clearly express availability requirements?

To ensure there are no misunderstandings ***If there is miscommunication about service-level expectations between the customer and the IT department, poor business decisions, unsuitable investment levels, and customer dissatisfaction are likely to occur. Therefore, you need to express availability requirements clearly so that there are no misunderstandings about the implications.

What is the function of port rules in an NLB cluster?

They define which ports are balanced among the hosts of the cluster ***Port rules define which incoming TCP/IP requests are balanced among the hosts in the NLB cluster.

When configuring a port rule for an NLB cluster with the "multiple host" filtering mode selected, which of the following statements is most correct pertaining to the affinity configuration?

Selecting the "Single" option will force a single cluster node to handle all client requests from a specific client ***When you select the "Single" affinity option, a single cluster node handles all requests from a single client. This option is useful for stateful applications where the status of a process or transaction is maintained through the entire connection, including when using SSL and e-commerce shopping cart applications.

Which of the following availability guidelines allows for a maximum downtime per month of 25.9 seconds?

Five nines (99.999%) ***The maximum allowable downtime for each "9" of availability is: – 99%—3.65 days per year, or 7.20 hours per month – 99.9% ("three nines")—8.76 hours per year, or 43.8 minutes per month – 99.99% ("four nines")—52.6 minutes per year, or 4.32 minutes per month – 99.999% ("five nines")—5.26 minutes per year, or 25.9 seconds per month – 99.9999% ("six nines")—31.5 seconds per year, or 2.59 seconds per month

Which of the following availability guidelines allows for a maximum downtime per year of 52.6 minutes?

Four nines (99.99%) ***The maximum allowable downtime for each "9" of availability is: – 99%—3.65 days per year, or 7.20 hours per month – 99.9% ("three nines")—8.76 hours per year, or 43.8 minutes per month – 99.99% ("four nines")—52.6 minutes per year, or 4.32 minutes per month – 99.999% ("five nines")—5.26 minutes per year, or 25.9 seconds per month – 99.9999% ("six nines")—31.5 seconds per year, or 2.59 seconds per month

Which of the following availability guidelines allows for a maximum downtime per year of 31.5 seconds?

Six nines (99.9999%) ***The maximum allowable downtime for each "9" of availability is: – 99%—3.65 days per year, or 7.20 hours per month – 99.9% ("three nines")—8.76 hours per year, or 43.8 minutes per month – 99.99% ("four nines")—52.6 minutes per year, or 4.32 minutes per month – 99.999% ("five nines")—5.26 minutes per year, or 25.9 seconds per month – 99.9999% ("six nines")—31.5 seconds per year, or 2.59 seconds per month

Which of the following availability guidelines allows for a maximum downtime per month of 43.8 minutes?

Three nines (99.9%) ***The maximum allowable downtime for each "9" of availability is: – 99%—3.65 days per year, or 7.20 hours per month – 99.9% ("three nines")—8.76 hours per year, or 43.8 minutes per month – 99.99% ("four nines")—52.6 minutes per year, or 4.32 minutes per month – 99.999% ("five nines")—5.26 minutes per year, or 25.9 seconds per month – 99.9999% ("six nines")—31.5 seconds per year, or 2.59 seconds per month

A production-ready failover cluster requires what minimum number of nodes?

Two ***To create a failover using Windows Server 2012, you need a minimum of two servers that meet the minimum requirements of Windows Server 2012 and that have identical hardware components.

There are many requirements that must be met in order to build a failover cluster using Windows Server 2012. Which of the items listed here is not an actual requirement you must meet?

All servers must be joined to an Active Directory domain ***Correctly stated, this requirement is that all servers in the failover cluster must be joined to the same Active Directory domain.

What type of quorum configuration can sustain the loss of one-half of the cluster nodes (rounded up), minus one?

Node Majority ***The Node Majority quorum type can sustain the loss of one-half of the cluster nodes (rounded up), minus one.

In Windows Server 2012, how many virtual machines can be utilized in a cluster?

4,000 ***In Windows Server 2012, a failover cluster can have 64 physical nodes and can run 4,000 virtual machines on each cluster.

In a failover cluster configured on Windows Server 2012, how are heartbeats transmitted?

Using UDP port 3343 unicast ***Cluster nodes are kept aware of the status of the other nodes and services through the use of heartbeats. Heartbeats transmit and receive using UDP port 3343 unicast (legacy clusters used UDP broadcast).

When failover clusters connect to, and use, a shared storage device using Fibre Channel, what name is given to the Fibre Channel network?

The fabric ***If the cluster communicates to shared storage using Fibre Channel, the Fibre Channel will connect using a dedicated network known as a fabric.

Which storage technology is a low-cost option that typically requires the cluster nodes to be physically close to the drives?

SAS ***Shared serial attached SCSI (SAS) is a low-cost option that requires the cluster nodes to be physically close to the drives. Typically, the SAS has a limited number of connections for cluster nodes.

How are storage devices typically assigned to only a single cluster on the network?

By using LUN masking or zoning ***A storage device can be assigned to only one cluster. This is usually accomplished with logical unit number (LUN) masking or zoning.

Cluster Shared Volume, in Windows Server 2012, offers faster throughput when integrated with what?

Server Message Block (SMB) Multichannel ***CSV in Windows Server 2012 offers multisubnet support for CSVs so you can achieve faster throughput when integrated with Server Message Block (SMB) Multichannel and it allows the network adapters to support Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA).

In a cluster with an even number of nodes, what must be used to break ties during node failure?

A witness ***If there is an even number of nodes in a cluster, then the cluster needs to have a witness assigned to the cluster to break the tie during failures of cluster nodes. The witness can be either a disk or a file share.

Which PowerShell cmdlet would be used to add a new resource group to a failover cluster configuration?

Add-ClusterGroup ***You would need to use the Add-ClusterGroup cmdlet to add an empty resource group to the failover cluster configuration, in preparation for adding clustered resources to the group.

Which PowerShell cmdlet would you need to use to configure the possible nodes that can own a resource in a failover cluster?

Set-ClusterOwnerNode ***You would need to use the Set-ClusterOwnerNode cmdlet to specify which nodes can own a resource in a failover cluster or to specify the order of preference among owner nodes for a clustered role, or a resource group.

What mode of Cluster Aware Updating has an administrator triggering the updates manually from the orchestrator?

Remote-updating mode ***With remote-updating mode, you install the failover clustering administrative tools on a CAU orchestrator (a remote computer running Windows 8 or Windows Server 2012 that is not a member of the cluster). The CAU is included in the Remote Server Administration Tool (RSAT). The administrator triggers the update process on the orchestrator computer.

Clusters running on which of the following operating systems are supported for migration to Windows Server 2012? (Choose all that apply)

Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2008 R2 ***You can migrate clusters running Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2008 R2, and Windows Server 2012.

When configuring shared storage for a cluster, there are several requirements that you must keep in mind. Of the items listed here, which one is not a requirement when configuring the shared storage?

The disks must be only GPT, not MBR. ***To use a shared disk, you must use the following guidelines: – For the disk type, use basic disks, not dynamic disks. – For the file system type, format the disk as New Technology File System (NTFS). – For the partition style of the disk, you can use either master boot record (MBR) or globally unique identifier (GUID) partition table (GPT). – The storage device must follow the SCSI Primary Commands-3 (SPC-3) standard including supporting Persistent Reservations. – The miniport driver used for the storage must work with the Storport storage driver. – A storage device can be assigned to only one cluster. This is usually accomplished with logical unit number (LUN) masking or zoning.

What name is given to the most basic and smallest configurable unit that may provide a service to clients in a cluster?

Cluster resource ***A cluster resource is the most basic and smallest configurable unit that may provide a service to clients, or it is an important component that makes up the cluster.

When using iSCSI storage in a failover cluster, which of the items listed here becomes a recommended configuration?

Each clustered server should have one or more network adapters or host bus adapters dedicated to the cluster storage ***If you use iSCSI storage connections, each clustered server should have one or more network adapters or host bus adapters dedicated to the cluster storage.

Why is it not recommended to install Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) on cluster nodes?

AD DS does not require clustering for fault tolerance ***It is not recommended that you install the Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) role on any of the nodes. Having multiple domain controllers provides fault tolerance without using a cluster.

Which quorum type allows the cluster to continue to function as long as one node is available and the disks are online?

No Majority (Disk Only) ***The No Majority (Disk Only) quorum type allows the cluster to function as long as one node is available and the disks are online. However, this configuration is not recommended, because the disk might be a single point of failure.

Which quorum type is recommended for clusters with an odd number of nodes?

Node Majority ***The Node Majority quorum type is recommended for clusters with an odd number of nodes. It can sustain failures of half the nodes (rounding up) minus one.

Which quorum type is used by clusters that have special configurations?

Node and File Share Majority ***The Node and File Share Majority quorum type is used for clusters with special configurations. Instead of using a disk witness, it uses a file share witness.

Which quorum type is recommended for clusters with an even number of nodes?

Node and Disk Majority ***The Node and Disk Majority quorum type is recommended for clusters with an even number of nodes. It can sustain failures of half the nodes (rounding up) if the disk witness remains online.

The High Availability Wizard allows you to configure several pre-selected high availability roles in a cluster. Which of the following are options that are available to choose from? (Choose all that apply)

Distributed Transaction Coordinator (DTC), Exchange Server ***The High Availability Wizard offers the following services and applications to choose from: DFS Namespace Server, DHCP Server, Distributed Transaction Coordinator (DTC), File Server, Generic Application, Generic Script, Generic Service, iSCSI Target Server, Internet Storage Name Service (iSNS) Server, Message Queuing, Other Server, Virtual Machine (VM), WINS Server.

Which of the following statements are true concerning SMB Multichannel in SMB 3.0? (Choose all that apply)

Uses multiple network interfaces, Introduces bandwidth aggregation and network fault tolerance, SMB 1.0 and SMB 2.x clients will use a single SMB connection ***SMB Multichannel uses multiple network interfaces to provide both high performance through bandwidth aggregation and network fault tolerance through the use of multiple network paths to data on an SMB share. SMB 1.0 and SMB 2.x clients will use a single SMB connection.

What new management functionality is introduced with SMB 3.0?

PowerShell cmdlets for SMB ***SMB PowerShell management cmdlets were introduced in Windows Server 2012 and in Windows 8 with SMB 3.0.

Which of the following features are not supported on the Scale-Out File Server? (Choose all that apply)

DFS replication, File Server Resource Manager, NFS ***Unlike a General Use File Server cluster, the Scale-Out File Server cluster is an active-active failover cluster where all file shares are online on all nodes simultaneously. Although the Scale-Out File Server supports SMB, it does not support NFS, Data Deduplication, DFS Replication, or File Server Resource Manager.

How does the Scale-Out File Server provide for multiple nodes to access the same volume at the same time?

CSV and CSV cache ***To support multiple nodes to access the same volume at the same time, the Scale-Out File Server uses a CSV. It also uses a CSV cache, which is a read cache that significantly improves performance in certain scenarios, such as Virtual Desktop Infrastructure.

When adding nodes to a cluster, what permission must be granted to the account used to add the nodes to the cluster if that account is not a member of the Domain Administrators security group?

Create Computer Objects ***When you first create a cluster or add servers to a cluster, you must be logged on to the domain with an administrator’s account on all the cluster’s servers. If the account is not a domain administrator, the account must have the Create Computer Objects permission in the domain.

How do you change the value of the preferred node in a cluster?

List the servers in the preferred order ***Select the server to be preferred from the list of available servers, then use the Up and Down buttons to move that server to the top or bottom of the listing.

What does the priority value for the cluster role specify?

The order in which roles are started up ***If a cluster has multiple roles, you can categorize the priority for each role. Roles with higher priorities are started before roles with lower priorities. If you don’t want a role to start, you select No Auto Start.

How does the selection of the preferred node affect failover of the cluster resources?

Allows you to control which node the resources come online on after a failure ***When configuring the Failback option, you can specify when failback will occur and whether or not to failback to the preferred owner after the preferred owner is brought back online.

When configuring the failure threshold on the Failover tab, you can opt to leave the cluster in a failed state by configuring what two options? (Choose two answers)

The maximum number of failures that can occur, The length of time in hours ***You will configure the maximum number of failures that can occur in the selected number of hours. If the cluster fails more times within the selected period of time, it can be configured to be left offline for manual intervention.

When using VM Monitoring for Hyper-V VMs, what event ID will be logged when a monitored service is deemed to be unhealthy?

1250 ***When the service is determined to be unhealthy, the Event ID 1250 will be logged.

When using VM Monitoring for Hyper-V VMs, into what event log will events be logged when a monitored service is deemed to be unhealthy?

System ***The events (event ID 1250) will be logged in the System log.

Which of the following PowerShell cmdlets correctly configures VM Monitoring for the DHCPClient service on the VM named VM42?

Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem -VirtualMachine "VM42" -Service DHCPClient ***You would correctly use the PowerShell cmdlet Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem -VirtualMachine "VM42" -Service DHCPClient to configure this monitoring configuration.

If a monitored VM is gracefully restarted on its current Hyper-V host and it subsequently fails again, what will VM Monitoring next attempt?

Move the VM to another cluster node and restart it again ***When the service is determined to be unhealthy, the Event ID 1250 will be shown in the System Log. VM Monitoring will then restart the VM gracefully on the host that it’s currently running on. If the VM fails again, VM Monitoring will move the VM to another node and start the VM.

Which of the following features of the General Use File Server clustering role is the only change from Windows Server 2008 R2 to Windows Server 2012?

Support for SMB 3.0 ***The General Use File Server role provides a central location for users to share files or for server applications that open and close files frequently. It also supports SMB, Network File System (NFS), Data Deduplication, File Server Resource Manager, DFS Replication, and other File Services role services. The only significant difference between Windows Server 2008 R2 and Windows Server 2012 is that Windows Server 2012 supports SMB 3.0.

When creating a new General Use File Server role, which SMB settings are enabled by default, but can be disabled if desired? (Choose all that apply)

Enable continuous availability, Encrypt data access ***The Enable continuous availability and Encrypt data access options are selected by default. The Enable continuous availability takes advantage of SMB v3 functionality (Transparent Failover), whereas the Encrypt data access enables encryption of the SMB connections.

When configuring a cluster to provide highly available Hyper-V services, which of the following hardware requirements must your server hardware meet?

Provide hardware-assisted virtualization ***Hosts require an x64-based processor with hardware-assisted virtualization.

Which SMB 3.0 feature minimizes processor utilization when performing large file I/O operations?

SMB Direct ***SMB Direct (SMB over Remote Direct Memory Access [RDMA]) enables direct memory-to-memory data transfers between servers, with minimal CPU utilization and low latency, using standard RDMA-capable network adapters (iWARP, InfiniBand, and RoCE). It also minimizes the processor utilization when performing large file I/O operations.

Server Message Block (SMB) 3.0 provides many changes that add functionality and improve performance. Which of the following features allows SMB 3.0 clients to not lose an SMB session when failover occurs?

SMB Transparent Failover ***SMB Transparent Failover provides Continuously Available properties that allow SMB 3 clients to not lose an SMB session when failover occurs. Both the SMB client and SMB server must support SMB 3.0 to take advantage of the SMB Transparent Failover functionality.

Server Message Block (SMB) 3.0 provides many changes that add functionality and improve performance. Which of the following features reduces the latency when accessing files over slow WAN links?

SMB Directory Leasing ***SMB Directory Leasing reduces the latency when accessing files over slow WAN links by caching directory and file meta-data for longer periods, which reduces the associated round-trips to fetch the meta-data from the server.

Server Message Block (SMB) 3.0 provides many changes that add functionality and improve performance. Which of the following features allows users to scale shared bandwidth by adding cluster nodes?

SMB Scale Out ***SMB Scale Out allows users to scale shared bandwidth by adding cluster nodes.

Server Message Block (SMB) 3.0 provides many changes that add functionality and improve performance. Which of the following features encrypts traffic?

SMB Encryption ***SMB Encryption performs encryption by selecting a check box. Both the SMB client and SMB server must support SMB 3.0 to take advantage of the SMB Encryption functionality.

In regard to Live Migration, which of the following prerequisites must be met before attempting the Live Migration? (Choose all that apply)

All hosts must use processors from the same manufacturer, All hosts must support hardware virtualization ***Additionally, the involved hosts must be running Windows Server 2012, must be in the same Active Directory domain (or trusting domains), the VMs must be using VMD or VMDX disks and you must have the required administrative permissions to perform the LM.

If you will be performing Live Migration using remote management tools, what must you first do to allow for Kerberos authentication to function?

Configure Kerberos constrained delegation on the source server ***If you are using remote management tools, you need to configure constrained delegation and select Kerberos as the authentication protocol. You will perform the delegation on the source server, selecting services on the target server.

When performing a Live Migration, there are several options available to choose from that control how the LM will occur. Which of the following is not one of these options?

Move only the snapshot files ***There is no option when performing a Live Migration to move only snapshot files.

When performing a Live Migration using the "Move the virtual machine’s data by selecting where to move the items" option, you have three additional, advanced options available to you. Which of the following is not one of those advance options?

Move the VM’s data to different locations ***There is no option "Move the VM’s data to different locations" in the advanced options available to you when using the "Move the virtual machine’s data by selecting where to move the items" Live Migration option.

Quick Migration occurs within the confines of what?

A failover cluster ***Quick Migration occurs within the confines of a cluster, allowing you to quickly migrate a running VM from one cluster node to another.

What two factors are the primary items impacting the speed of a Quick Migration? (Choose two answers)

The speed of the network between the source and destination servers, The amount of memory that needs to be written to disk ***The speed of the Quick Migration is dependent on how much memory needs to be written to disk and the speed of the network connection between the source and destination servers.

When importing a VM in Windows Server 2012, you have three options available to select from that affect how the import is performed. Which of the following is not one of those options?

Restore the virtual machine (create a new unique ID) ***There is no option available to "Restore the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)".

If you want to use an exported VM as a template to create multiple VMs, what should you do on the source VM before performing the export?

Run sysprep ***If you want to use an exported VM as a template to create multiple VMs, you should run sysprep on the VM prior to performing the export.

You want to use Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2012 SP1 in your network to allow you to perform P2V migrations. What operating system must you install on the server to house SCVMM?

Windows Server 2012 only ***SCVMM SP1 runs only on Windows Server 2012

Which of the following VM file formats can be migrated using the V2V method by Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager? (Choose all that apply)

OVF, VMware, Citrix XenServer ***Currently, SCVMM supports migrations from VMware, XenServer, or OVF. You wouldn’t migrate a VHD, you would export and import it instead.

Before you can work with OVF files on your SCVMM server, what must you first do?

Apply the OVF Import/Export tool ***Open Virtualization Format (OVF) is an open standard for packaging and distributing virtual machines and needs the OVF Import/Export tool, which is available from the Microsoft Download Center. The OVF Import/Export tool must be installed into an existing VMM management server that has the VMM console installed.

When performing a P2V migration using SCVMM, there are several limitations that must be observed. Which of the following source server specifications would disqualify it from a P2V migration? (Choose all that apply)

256 MB of RAM installed, Uses BitLocker Drive Encryption on the data volume ***Source servers to be migrated using P2V must have at least 512 MB of RAM and cannot have any encrypted volumes.

When performing a P2V migration using SCVMM, there are several limitations that must be observed. Which of the following source operating systems would be disqualified from a P2V migration?

Windows Server 2003 SP1 32-bit ***VMM does not support P2V conversion for computers running NT Server 4.0 or Windows Server 2003 SP1.

What minimum version of VMware ESX/ESXi must a source VM be running on to allow it to be migrated to Hyper-V using P2V?

3.5 update 5 ***The prerequisites for V2V using SCVMM are as follows: – VMware ESX/ESXi version 3.5 update 5 or higher (4.0, 4.1, or 5.1). – The VMware Tools must be removed. – VMware virtual hard disks cannot be connected to an IDE bus.

Offline P2V migrations are the only available migration method for what types of source servers? (Choose all that apply)

Servers with FAT32 volumes, Servers that are domain controllers ***An offline P2V conversion is the only way to migrate FAT volumes and domain controllers.

When performing a Live Migration using the "Move the virtual machine’s data by selecting where to move the items" option, which of the following advanced options would be the best to choose from to ensure that the folder structure remains the same on the destination server after the LM completes?

Move the VM’s data automatically ***The "Move the VM’s data automatically" option maintains the file and folder structure of the source on the destination.

When performing a Live Migration using the "Move the virtual machine’s data by selecting where to move the items" option, which of the following advanced options would be the best to choose from if you need to select a specific location on the destination server for each of the VMs to be moved to?

Move the VM’s hard disks to different locations ***The "Move the VM’s items to different locations" option allows you to specify the location of each moving item.

When performing a VM import operation, which option is best selected when you are working from an exported VM template that you will be importing more than once?

Copy the virtual machine (create a new unique ID) ***The "Copy the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)" option is used when you have an exported VM that you are using as a template and want to import many times.

What is the process by which you move the storage of a VM from one physical server to another without a cluster?

Storage Migration ***Storage Migration is the process of moving the storage of a VM from one physical server to another without a cluster.

What is the process by which you move an entire VM or parts of a VM to another physical server using a cluster?

Quick Migration ***Quick Migration is the process of moving an entire VM or parts of a VM to another physical server using a cluster.

What is the process by which you take a partially or completely configured VM and create other VMs without having to perform the installation and configuration from scratch?

Exporting ***Exporting a VM is the process by which you take a partially or completely configured VM and create other VMs without having to perform the installation and configuration from scratch.

What is the process by which you move an entire VM or parts of a VM to another physical server without a cluster?

Live Migration ***Live Migration is the process of moving an entire VM or parts of a VM to another physical server without a cluster.

Which of the following is a distributed file system protocol used to access files over the network that is used with UNIX and Linux file server clients?

NFS ***Network File System (NFS) is a distributed file system protocol that is used to access files over a network, similar to accessing a file using a shared folder in Windows (which uses Server Message Block (SMB). It is used with UNIX and Linux file server clients and VMware.

What feature of Windows enables you to integrate Windows users into an existing UNIX or Linux environment?

Identity Management for UNIX ***Identity Management for UNIX enables you to integrate Windows users into an existing UNIX or Linux environment, including managing user accounts and passwords on Windows and UNIX systems.

What feature or role must you install to extend the Active Directory schema with UNIX attributes?

Server for NFS ***When you install the Server for NFS role, it extends the Active Directory schema by adding UNIX attributes.

When configuring UNIX Attributes for an Active Directory user account, which of the following attributes is not available for configuration?

Login script ***You can configure the following UNIX attributes: NIS domain, UID, login shell, Home directory, and Primary group.

Which of the following protocols is not supported by BranchCache?

NFS ***BranchCache supports HTTP/HTTPS, SMB and BITS.

Which mode of BranchCache configuration uses one or more dedicated servers to provide the cached copy in the branch office?

Hosted cache mode ***The hosted cache mode uses one or more dedicated servers to host the cache.

Distributed cache mode is designed for branch offices with what number of clients?

Fewer than 50 ***Distributed cache mode is designed for branch offices with fewer than 50 users that do not have a dedicated server in the branch office. BranchCache works across a single subnet only.

Before you can use BranchCache, you must perform several tasks. Which of the following tasks is not required to be performed to use BranchCache?

Configure switches to support BranchCache ***You will not need to make any changes to your network infrastructure (switches, routers) to support BranchCache.

When configuring the BranchCache hash publication options in Group Policy, you have three options available. Which of the options listed here is not available to configure?

Disallow hash publication on shared folders on which BranchCache is not enabled ***There is no Group Policy option for BranchCache hash publication to "Disallow hash publication on shared folders on which BranchCache is not enabled."

What can you use to configure automatic procedures for defining a desired property on a file based on the conditions specified in a rule?

File classification ***File classification allows you to configure automatic procedures for defining a desired property on a file, based on the conditions specified in classification rules. Once the classification has been made, however, you can then do many other things such as deleting files, archiving files, or other automated tasks.

Before you can audit access to files, what must you first do? (Choose all that apply)

Specify files to be audited, Enable object access auditing ***When you want to audit files, you must first enable object access auditing. Then you must specify what files you want to audit.

When configuring file access auditing, which of the following audit types are available to choose from?

Success, Fail, All ***You will need to select Success, Fail, or the All type when configuring what type of actions to perform auditing on.

What feature, first available in Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008, enables you to configure object access auditing for every file and folder on the computer’s file system?

Global Object Access Auditing ***Starting with Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008 R2, you can enable Global Object Access Auditing, which enables you to configure object access auditing for every file and folder in a computer’s file system.

What can be configured to create targeted audit policies based on resource properties, and expressions, so that you don’t have to audit every file?

Dynamic Access Control ***You can use Dynamic Access Control to create targeted audit policies based on resource properties, and expressions, so that you don’t have to audit every file.

How is Identity Management for UNIX installed?

Using dism.exe ***You must install the Identity Management for UNIX using the Deployment Image Servicing and management command-line tool, dism.exe.

When a file is accessed using NFS, what attributes are used by the NFS server to determine if the user has the required permissions to access the file?

UID and GID ***Users are identified with a user identifier (UID) value and a group identifier (GID). Whenever a file is accessed using NFS, the UID and GID are sent to the NFS server to see whether the user has the proper permissions for access.

To create an NFS shared folder on a cluster, you need to install which of the following items on each cluster node?

The File Services role, The Server for NFS role service, The Failover Clustering feature ***After you install all three prerequisites and create a cluster, you can configure the cluster to provide high availability for NFS and create an NFS share.

Which of the following terms is best described as giving access to a user?

Authorization ***Authentication is used to prove the identity of a user. Authorization gives access to the user who was authenticated.

Select the proper PowerShell cmdlet from this list that is used to configure BranchCache in local caching mode.

Enable-BCLocal ***You will use the Enable-BCLocal cmdlet to configure BranchCache in local caching mode.

Select the proper PowerShell cmdlet from this list that is used to modify BranchCache configuration.

Set-BCCache ***You will use the Set-BCCache cmdlet to modify BranchCache configuration.

Select the proper PowerShell cmdlet from this list that is used to increase the BranchCache in storage space.

Add-BCDataCacheExtension ***You will use the Add-BCDataCacheExtension cmdlet to increase the BranchCache storage space.

Select the proper PowerShell cmdlet from this list that is used to configure BranchCache in distributed caching mode.

Enable-BCDistributed ***You will use the Enable-BCDistributed cmdlet to configure BranchCache on a computer in distributed caching mode.

Which of the following statements are true concerning Kerberos armoring? (Choose all that apply)

Fully encrypts Kerberos messages, Increases Kerberos processing time ***Kerberos armoring fully encrypts Kerberos messages and signs Kerberos errors. Although Kerberos armoring enhances security, it also increases processing time.

Claims authorization relies on what?

The Kerberos KDC ***Claims authorization relies on the Kerberos Key Distribution Center (KDC). Claims, the user’s security identifier (SID), and group membership are all stored inside the Kerberos ticket.

What must you specify to create a claim type?

A specific attribute in Active Directory ***To create a claim type, you specify a specific attribute from Active Directory.

After you create claim types, what is the next step you must perform to allow the claim to function properly?

Configure resource properties ***After you create the claim types, you must configure the resource property objects such as a folder or a file using the Active Directory Administrative Center.

What is created so that files are automatically scanned and classified based on their content?

Classification rules ***Classification rules can be created and then scheduled to be applied on a regular basis so that files are automatically scanned and classified based on the content of the file.

From what locations in Windows Server 2012 can you set classifications on files and folders? (Choose all that apply)

On the folder Properties dialog box, In the File Server Resource Manager console ***You can manually configure classification on a folder from its Properties dialog box, or you can create classification rules to automate the classification from within the File Server Resource Manager console.

What should you configure if you want to limit access to files with certain classifications within a folder to a specific security group’s members?

A Central Access Policy ***A Central Access Policy contains Central Access Rules that grant permissions to objects for a defined group of resources. This is how access to files with certain classifications within a folder can be limited to a specific security group’s members.

Before you attempt to implement a Central Access Policy, which of the following tasks should you first complete?

Translate the authorization policies into expressions, Identify the resources you want to protect, Define the authorization policies ***You should perform all the listed steps and then use that information to determine what claim types, resource properties, and device claims you must create to deploy the desired policies.

Before you attempt to implement file classification, which of the following tasks should you not first determine?

The schedule of disk defragmentation ***Before you attempt to perform file classification, you should know what classifications you wish to apply, how you will identify documents to be classified, and how often the classification should be performed by the system.

What does Windows Server 2012 provide that allows you to verify that proposed Dynamic Access Control changes accomplish what you intend them to do before actually deploying the changes?

Staging ***To help you test implementing DAC or before making changes, Windows Server 2012 enables you to perform staging, which allows you to verify the proposed policy updates before enforcing them.

What Windows Server 2012 feature allows you to define computer-wide auditing of the file system or the registry?

Global Object Access Auditing ***Global Object Access Auditing lets you define computer-wide system access control lists for either the file system or registry.

What Windows Server 2012 feature helps users determine why they cannot access a folder or a file?

Access-Denied Assistance ***When a user is denied access to a shared folder or file, Windows Server 2012 provides Access-Denied Assistance, which helps users determine why they cannot access the folder or file and directs users to resolve the issue without calling the help desk.

Which of the listed PowerShell cmdlets would be correctly used to modify a Central Access Policy in Active Directory?

Set-ADCentralAccessPolicy ***The Set-ADCentralAccessPolicy cmdlet modifies a Central Access Policy in Active Directory.

Which of the following would you skip in your planning for deploying Access-Denied Assistance?

The share size where Access-Denied Assistance will be used ***You will need to plan for the denial message, the request message, and who should receive the request message (email) for further action.

After you have deployed a proposed Dynamic Access Control policy in staging mode, how do you check to see what is happening?

Look in the Security logs for Event ID 4818 ***The Audit Event ID 4818 in the Security log shows the difference between the access check using the staged policy and the access check using the enforced policy.

To use claims-based authorization in a domain, which of the following items must you have?

Domain Controllers running Windows Server 2012 in the domain ***While technically you’ll need all the items listed depending on the scope, size, and complexity of your claims-based authorization deployment, you must have Domain Controllers running Windows Server 2012 in the domain that claims-based authorization is to occur in. Windows 8 clients are not required for this specific scenario and Kerberos is available by virtue of having Active Directory.

Which of these represents the largest benefit realized from classifying files and folders?

Tasks for files and folders can be automate ***Though all the options represent benefits you would gain through file and folder classification, the real big win is in being able to perform the listed tasks in automated fashion using the results of the classification process.

What is the best way to allow Dynamic Access Control staging for your Active Directory environment?

Edit a domain Group Policy object to enable Audit Central Access Policy Staging ***The best option is to edit a domain Group Policy to enable Audit Central Access Policy Staging.

Regarding Dynamic Access Control, which term describes the process of using a trusted identity provider to provide authentication?

Claims-based access control ***Claims-based access control uses a trusted identity provider to provide authentication.

Regarding Dynamic Access Control, which term describes the pieces of information that help prove who the user is?

Claim ***Identity is based on a set of information. Each piece of information is referred to as a claim (such as who the user or computer claims to be) and is stored as a token, which is a digital key.

Regarding Dynamic Access Control, which term describes the identity provider in Windows Server 2012?

Security Token Service ***In Windows Server 2012, the identity provider is the Security Token Service (STS) and the claims are the Active Directory attributes assigned to a user or device (such as a computer).

Regarding Dynamic Access Control, which term describes the process that issues a token to the user?

Trusted identity provider ***The trusted identity provider issues a token to the user, which the user then presents to the application or service as proof of identity.

How are NAS devices typically accessed over the network?

Using SMB, Using NFS ***A NAS is a file-level data storage device that is connected to the server over a computer network to provide shared drives or folders usually using Server Message Block (SMB) or Network File System (NFS).

SANs typically use what protocol for communication between servers and storage arrays?

SCSI ***Most SANs use the SCSI protocol for communication between servers and disk drive devices. By using SCSI protocol, you can attach disks to a server using copper Ethernet cables or fiber optic cables.

What is the underlying network protocol used by iSCSI storage network?

IP ***iSCSI carries SCSI commands over IP networks. Unlike standard local SCSI drives, iSCSI allows data transfers over intranets and can be used over long distances.

Which of the following methods can be used to restrict which servers can connect to an iSCSI target?

IQN, DNS name, MAC address, IP address ***When you configure an iSCSI target, you define which iSCSI initiators can connect to an iSCSI LUN by the client’s IQN. You can also specify which servers can connect to the iSCSI target based on MAC addresses, IP address, and DNS name.

What role can you install in Windows Server 2012 to provide iSCSI storage to other clients?

iSCSI Target Server role ***You can install the iSCSI Target Server role so that other Windows servers can provide iSCSI storage to other clients (including other Windows servers).

Which Windows versions support querying of the iSCSI Initiator computer for the iSCSI Initiator ID?

Windows Server 2012 ***Only Windows 8 and Windows Server 2012 support querying of the iSCSI Initiator computer for the iSCSI Initiator ID. For all other versions of Windows you will need to manually enter this value when configuring which iSCSI Initiators can connect to an iSCSI virtual disk.

What is the name of the high-availability technology that enables multiple TCP/IP connections from the initiator to the target for the same iSCSI session?

Multiple Connection Session ***Multiple Connection Session (MCS) enables multiple TCP/IP connections from the initiator to the target for the same iSCSI session. If a failure occurs, all outstanding commands are reassigned to another connection automatically.

What is the name of the high-availability technology that establishes multiple sessions or connections to the Fibre Channel storage array by using redundant path components such as switches, adapters, and cables?

Multipath I/O ***Multipath (I/O) is a multipath solution that supports iSCSI, Fibre Channel, and serial attached storage (SAS) SAN connectivity by establishing multiple sessions or connections to the storage array. Multipathing solutions use redundancy path components including adapters, cables, and switches to create logical paths between the server and the storage device.

What protocol is used to automatically discover, manage, and configure iSCSI devices on a TCP/IP network?

iSNS ***The Internet Storage Name Service (iSNS) protocol is used to automatically discover, manage, and configure iSCSI devices on a TCP/IP network. iSNS is used to emulate Fibre Channel fabric services to provide a consolidated configuration point for an entire storage network.

Which Hyper-V disk management command would you need to use to reduce the file size of a virtual hard disk?

Compac ***Compact actually compacts the file size of a virtual hard disk by removing blank space that is left behind when data is deleted from the virtual hard disk. The storage capacity of the virtual hard disk is unchanged.

What is the name given to the new Windows Server 2012 capability that allows an administrator to completely remove binaries from the disk for an unneeded role or feature?

Features on Demand ***By using Features on Demand, you save disk space and enhance the security by removing binaries for features that will not be needed.

Which of the following PowerShell cmdlets correctly removes the BitLocker feature and all of its binaries from the disk?

Uninstall-WindowsFeature Bitlocker -Remove ***You would need to correctly use the Uninstall-WindowsFeature Bitlocker -Remove cmdlet to remove the feature and its binaries from the disk.

After you have removed the binaries for a feature from your Windows Server 2012 computer, what status will be displayed for that feature if you run the dism /online /get-features command?

Disabled with Payload Removed ***After the binaries are removed, the dism output shows Disabled with Payload Removed.

Which component of the iSCSI Target Server role can also be installed to enable applications connected to an iSCSI target to perform volume shadow copies of data on iSCSI virtual disks?

iSCSI Target Storage Provider ***The iSCSI Target Storage Provider component enables applications on a server connected to an iSCSI target to perform volume shadow copies of data on iSCSI virtual disks. It also enables you to manage iSCSI virtual disks by using older applications that require a Virtual Disk Service (VDS) hardware provider, such as using the DiskRAID command-line tool.

How are SAN devices typically accessed over the network?

Using Fibre Channel, Using iSCSI ***The two standards used in SANs include Fibre Channel and iSCSI.

Fibre Channel of Ethernet (FCoE) is capable of _________ per second or more.

10 gigabits ***Fibre Channel of Ethernet (FCoE) is capable of 10 gigabits per second or more. Thus all answers are correct, but D is the best answer.

You have just attached an iSCSI device to a server running Windows Server 2012. The disk does not show up in Windows Explorer. What is the best way to make the disk available to the server for usage?

Rescan disks in Disk Management ***After opening Computer Management, if the disk does not show up, right-click Disk Management and try to perform a Rescan disk.

Which of the following Hyper-V disk types is characterized as only allocating the amount of physical disk space that is required at that point in time, while still being able to grow to a fixed limit?

Dynamically expanding disk ***The dynamically expanding disk is given a maximum allowable size and will grow as needed until that maximum is reached. This is referred to as thin provisioning.

Which term corresponds to an entity that sends SCSI commands to iSCSI storage devices?

iSCSI Initiator ***iSCSI allows clients, called iSCSI initiators, to send SCSI commands to iSCSI storage devices, which are known as iSCSI targets.

Which term corresponds to a portion of a storage subsystem?

Logical Unit Number ***A Logical Unit Number (LUN) is a logical reference to a portion of a storage subsystem.

Which term corresponds to unique identifiers in an iSCSI network?

iSCSI Qualified Name ***iSCSI Qualified Names (IQNs) are unique identifiers that are used to address initiators and targets on an iSCSI network.

Which term corresponds to an entity that receives iSCSI commands?

iSCSI Target ***iSCSI allows clients, called iSCSI initiators, to send SCSI commands to iSCSI storage devices, which are known as iSCSI targets.

What command-line tool is installed when you install the Windows Server Backup feature?

wbadmin.exe ***The wbadmin.exe tool is installed when you install the Windows Server Backup feature to allow you to manage backups from the command line.

How can you manage the Windows Server Backup feature that has been installed on a server that only has the Server Core installation?

Use the command-line backup tool, Use PowerShell cmdlets ***The Windows Server Backup MMC snap-in is not installed on Windows Server 2012 systems running the Server Core installation option only. To run backups on these systems, you need to use either the command-line tool wbadmin or the Windows PowerShell cmdlets, or manage them remotely from another computer using the Windows Server Backup MMC. You can also use the Windows 8 Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT).

The maximum amount of time you have to bring a system back online before it has a significant impact on your organization is known as what?

Recovery Time Objective ***The maximum amount of time you have to bring a system back online before it has a significant impact on your organization is called the Recovery Time Objective (RTO).

What is the limitation of backing up system state using Windows Server Backup?

It cannot be backed up to a DVD drive ***The system state cannot be backed up to a DVD drive.

Which of the following would not be a good usage of manual backups?

Making normal backups without a schedule ***Never use manual backups as a replacement for your regularly scheduled backup. Instead, use them as a complement to your ongoing backups.

What is the limitation you must be aware of when configuring Windows Server Backup to backup to a shared network folder?

Only one backup at a time can exist ***The backup to a shared network folder option allows you to store your backups on a remote folder share that will hold only one backup at a time. This means that each time the backup is run, it overwrites the previous backup in the folder.

What is contained within the Backup <Date><ID number> folder created by Windows Server Backup?

Virtual hard disk (VHD) files that are basically duplicates of your volumes, XML files that provide backup history details ***The Backup <Date><ID number> folder contains several XML files that provide backup history details along with virtual hard disk (VHD) files that are basically duplicates of your volumes.

What advantage is offered by using block-level backup in Windows Server Backup?

The blocks are read in the order they appear on the disk ***Block-level backup technology increases performance by bypassing the files and file system. In other words, Windows Server Backup reads the blocks in the order they appear on the disk instead of reading them in the order they appear in files, which are usually fragmented across the disk.

When you select the "Faster backup performance" option for your backups, what is the net result of this configuration?

Incremental backups are performed, Windows keeps a shadow copy of the source volume ***When you select the "Faster backup performance" option, you are performing incremental backups; therefore, Windows keeps a shadow copy on the source volume, which it will use to track changes.

Which of the following items is not a limitation to keep in mind when deciding to use Windows Online Backups?

Files and folders (data) cannot be backed up ***When using Windows Online Backups, you need to keep the following in mind: -It’s only used with Windows Server 2012. -If BitLocker is enabled to protect your data files, it must be turned off for the software agent to back up your data files. -You can back up only files and folders (data); system state and system drives are not supported.

By default, where will backups of DHCP be sent when you configure backups to occur?

%systemroot%\Windows\System32\Dhcp\Backup ***DHCP backups are sent, by default, to the %systemroot%\Windows\System32\Dhcp\Backup location. This is configurable when enabling backups in the DHCP console.

Which of the following commands correctly demonstrates how to back up the forward lookup zone contoso.com to a backup folder location?

DNSCMD /zoneexport contoso.com c:\backup\contoso.com.dns.bak ***You would need to use the DNSCMD /zoneexport contoso.com c:\backup\contoso.com.dns.bak command to back up the forward lookup zone contoso.com to a backup folder location.

What is the minimum forest functional level your Active Directory forest must meet to enable the Active Directory Recycle Bin?

Windows Server 2008 R2 ***To use Active Directory Recycle Bin, your forest functional level should be set to at least Windows Server 2008 R2 or greater and all domain controllers must be running Windows Server 2008 R2 or Windows Server 2012.

Which VSS component is responsible for ensuring that the data to be backed up is ready for the shadow copy to be created?

VSS writer ***The VSS writer is responsible for ensuring that the data is ready for the shadow copy to be created.

What Windows feature captures and stores copies of folders and files at specific points in time, allowing users or administrators to recover accidentally deleted or overwritten files as well as compare different versions of the same file?

Shadow Copies for Shared Volumes ***Shadow Copies for Shared Volumes (SCSV) uses the capabilities of the VSS to capture and store copies of folders and files (located on shared network resources) at a specific point in time. When SCSV is implemented on a volume, both end users and administrators can recover accidentally deleted or overwritten files as well as compare different versions of the same file. Because end users can restore their own files, implementing SCSV can dramatically reduce not only the time but the associated costs of having to recover their folder and files via the IT support desk.

What happens if you are using a remote share as the backup location and you change the UNC path after backups have been executed?

You will not be able to recover the backup data without performing a full restore and creating a new UNC path or resetting the share back to the original configuration ***When using remote shares, you specify the Universal Naming Convention (UNC) path (\\servername\share) to provide the location for storing the backup. If you decide to change this after backups are executed, you will no longer be able to recover your backup data without performing a full restore and creating a new UNC path or resetting the share back to its original configuration.

Which of the following statements is true concerning incremental backups in Windows Server Backup?

You can restore from a single backup ***Windows Server Backup creates incremental backups that function like full backups allowing you to restore from a single backup. In the past, you had to restore using a full backup followed by the necessary incremental backup(s) to complete the restore process.

What is the best way to back up the Certificate Services database without backing up any extra files?

Perform a full backup, Perform a backup using the certutil.exe command ***To back up only Certificate Services, you can perform the backup manually via the Certificate Services console, or manually (or scheduled) using the certutil.exe command.

What type of backup allows you to recover the server to another server with the same or different hardware?

Bare metal recovery ***Bare metal recovery allows you to recover your server from a hard drive failure to a machine running the same/different hardware.

What type of backup allows you to recover all volumes of the failed server including critical data required for recovery?

Full server ***Full server (recommended) backs up all hard disk volumes (except for the volume where the backup is stored) as well as any critical data required for recovery.

What type of backup allows you to recover all of the files needed to recover Active Directory?

System state ***System state option backs up all the files needed to recover Active Directory.

What type of backup allows you to recover the server to a Windows Recovery Environment?

System reserved ***The System Reserved backup option contains the Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) files and can be used to boot the server in situations where the operating system becomes corrupted or fails to boot.

Regarding Shadow Copies for Shared Volumes, how many copies per volume can be retained before the oldest shadow copy is permanently deleted?

64 copies ***You can store a maximum of 64 copies per volume. Once you reach the limit, the oldest shadow copy will be permanently deleted.

When performing a copy or a restore of a file from a volume protected by Shadow Copies for Shared Volumes, what is the difference between a copy and a restore?

A copy will result in the file being placed into a different location from where it was backed up, A restore will delete the current version of the file that exists ***If you select Copy, you will be prompted to select a new location. The file’s permissions will default to those of the directory where you place the file. If you choose restore, you will delete the current version and restore the file to the state it was in at the date and time you selected.

Which of the following can only be recovered using WinRE and the Windows installation media?

System volumes ***The approach used to restore a volume depends on the type of volume you need to recover. Data volumes can be restored using Windows Server Backup, whereas system volumes require you to use the WinRE and Windows installation media.

Which of the following items should you keep in mind when performing a restoration of a system volume using WinRE?

If there are any data volumes on the same disk that contain the system volumes, they will be erased as part of the restore process., The server’s current system volume will be erased and replaced with the restored system volume., The server’s hardware must not have changed and your data volumes must still be operational. ***To restore a system volume, you must restore using the Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) and the Windows installation media. WinRE provides a set of utilities that can assist you in troubleshooting and recovering a system that will not boot due to problems with the operating system files, services, and device drivers. Here are a few things to keep in mind when restoring a system volume: -The server’s hardware must not have changed and your data -volumes must still be operational. -The server’s current system volume will be erased and replaced with the restored system volume. -If there are any data volumes on the same disk that contain the system volumes, they will be erased as part of the restore process.

Which of the following backup configurations does not include the system state data?

Incremental backups ***The system state is included in the following backup configuration options: Full backups (recommended), Bare metal recovery backups, and System state backups.

From within a Windows session, what methods are available to reboot a domain controller into DSRM?

Use the bcdedit /set safeboot dsrepair command, Use msconfig to configure the server to reboot into DSRM ***You can either use the msconfig utility or edit the boot menu using the bcdedit command to cause the next startup of the domain controller to be into DSRM.

What is the functional difference between a non-authoritative restoration of Active Directory versus an authoritative restoration?

The objects that are restored in the non-authoritative restoration could be overwritten during the next replication cycle. ***When performing a non-authoritative restoration, any objects you restore that are older (have a lower change number) than still-existing objects will be overwritten during the next replication cycle.

Which of the following presents a possible method to access the Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE)?

Boot the server from Windows installation media and select Repair Computer., Select Settings from the Charms bar, choose Power, and click Restart while holding down the Shift key., Enter the command shutdown /r /o from a command prompt. ***The server also enters WinRE in situations after two consecutive failed attempts to start Windows, after two consecutive shutdowns that were unexpected, or due to secure boot errors.

When using the shutdown /r command, what happens when you add /o to the command?

The server will reboot and open the Advanced Boot options menu ***The /r switch tells the server to restart; the /o option tells the server to end the current Windows session and open the Advanced Boot options menu.

The Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store contains information that controls how your server boots and replaces what file previously used for this function?

boot.ini ***The Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store contains information that controls how your server boots. It replaces the boot.ini text file that was used in Windows Server 2003 to manage the boot configuration information.

Which of the following represents the correct command to use to set the boot timeout value that controls the length of time the computer waits to load the default operating system?

Bcdedit /timeout <value> ***Bcdedit /timeout <value> can be used to configure the length of time the computer waits until the default operating system loads.

If you see the "Boot Configuration Data for your PC is missing or contains errors" message or a similar error during the boot process, what is usually the best first step to take in your corrective actions?

Use the Bootrec /rebuildbcd command ***The best approach to take is to rebuild the BCD using the Boot Recovery Tool (bootrec.exe) by using the following command after booting to WinRE: Bootrec /rebuildbcd

Which of the following represents what an operating system GUID would look like in the BCD store?

849ab759-2b7d-11e2-9a4d-10bf4879ebe3 ***The value of 849ab759-2b7d-11e2-9a4d-10bf4879ebe3 accurately represents what an operating system GUID looks like in the BCD store.

When a Hyper-V VM is reverted back to the state of the last snapshot, what happens to the hierarchy tree of snapshots for that VM?

Nothing ***Selecting the Revert option returns the VM to the state and the configuration it was in at the time the last snapshot was taken. This process does not change the hierarchy of the tree and continues to show all snapshots taken of the VM.

Which of the following system state items will only be found on a domain controller?

SYSVOL ***The SYSVOL folder and NTDS contents are found only on a domain controller.

When is the best time to consider performing an authoritative restoration of Active Directory?

When someone accidentally deletes one or more objects and the change is replicated to other domain controllers. ***You perform an authoritative restore when someone accidentally deletes one or more objects (users, groups, etc.) and the change is replicated to other domain controllers.

Which of the following WinRE Command Prompt tools would be most appropriately used to cause the computer to boot to a different partition at the next startup?

Bcdedit ***The Bcdedit utility displays how Windows is configured to boot and can also be used to troubleshoot issues with the Windows Boot Manager. Bcdedit can also be used to change the boot behavior of the computer.

Which of the following is the most likely problem if your server can boot and log in to Safe Mode successfully, but cannot boot and log in normally?

Malware infection ***Starting in safe mode allows you to troubleshoot situations where you cannot access the system due to faulty hardware, software, device drivers, and virus infections.

Which Advanced Boot option would be most appropriate if your company was a hardware manufacturer and needed to troubleshoot drivers being developed?

Disable Driver Signature Enforcement ***The Disable Driver Signature Enforcement option allows drivers containing improper signatures to be loaded. This may be a useful approach when troubleshooting drivers.

Which Advanced Boot option would be most appropriate if you needed to boot a problematic server and needed to download a new video card driver?

Safe Mode with Networking ***You can use the Safe mode with Networking option to create a network connection to gain access to files on servers, connect and compare settings on other computers, and use the Internet to download updates.

Which Advanced Boot option would be most appropriate if you wanted to troubleshoot a problematic server that you suspected might be infected with malware?

Safe Mode ***The Safe Mode option starts Windows using only the core drivers and services. This option should be used when you cannot boot after the installation of a new driver and/or device. It can also be useful in malware analysis cases where you need the server to be online with a core set of drivers only, and without network connectivity.

Which Advanced Boot option would be most appropriate if you wanted to roll back to a previous state following a server problem?

Last Known Good Configuration ***The Last Known Good Configuration (advanced) option starts Windows using the settings from the last time Windows booted successfully.