Exam Two Review

1) Professionals have become more cautious in diagnosing intellectual disabilities for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

a) the stigma associated with the label.
b) the belief that intellectual disabilities are a socially constructed condition.
c) overrepresentation of children from ethnic minority groups.
d) increasing costs associated with special education.

d) increasing costs associated with special education.

2) Which one of the following statements about intellectual disabilities (ID) is true?

a) Designating someone as having "intellectual disabilities" has become easier.
b) Professionals are in agreement that the label "mental retardation" (MR) is harmful.
c) The prevailing opinions is that, for some children, intellectual disabilities are not a permanent condition.
d) How well a person functions has not been shown to be related to supports available in the environment.

c) The prevailing opinions is that, for some children, intellectual disabilities are not a permanent condition.

3) The current emphasis on adaptive behavior in defining intellectual disabilities is due to the

a) influence of the learning disabilities movement.
b) realization that students can be "streetwise" despite having low IQ test scores.
c) rise of the disability rights movement.
d) joint efforts of parents of children with intellectual disabilities.

b) realization that students can be "streetwise" despite having low IQ test scores.

4) Many authorities say that adaptive behavior consists of

a) social intelligence and practical intelligence.
b) behaviors that defy definition.
c) IQ and behavior.
d) skills that result in the individual’s achieving a high quality of life.

a) social intelligence and practical intelligence.

5) Strategies and resources that a person requires to participate in activities associated with normative human functioning are

a) scaffolds.
b) normative skills.
c) adaptive skills.
d) supports.

d) supports.

6) The classification system that most school systems use to describe levels of intellectual disabilities is based on

a) reading and math achievement levels.
b) IQ score.
c) the intensity of support needed.
d) adaptive level.

b) IQ score.

7) According to the hypothetical "normal curve," approximately what percentage of the population is expected to have IQ scores between 0-70?

a) 1%
b) 1.27%
c) 2.27%
d) 5.27%

c) 2.27%

8) Current estimates place the prevalence of students identified with intellectual disabilities at approximately

a) under 1%.
b) 5%.
c) 2.5%.
d) 3.5%.

a) under 1%.

9) In recent years, the percentage of cases in which the cause of intellectual disabilities is known has dramatically increased due to

a) better assessment practices by teachers.
b) the mapping of the human genetic code.
c) better assessment practices by family physicians.
d) advances in microscopic technology.

b) the mapping of the human genetic code.

10) A common way to categorize causes of intellectual disabilities is to consider the

a) part of the brain affected.
b) location at which the cause occurs.
c) severity of the condition.
d) time at which the cause occurs.

d) time at which the cause occurs.

11) Claudia is a third grader with intellectual disabilities. She has thick epicanthal folds in the corner of her eyes, small stature, decreased muscle tone, speckling of the iris of the eye, a small oral cavity, and short, broad hands with a single palmar crease. These characteristics are typical of

a) cultural-familial intellectual disabilities.
b) Down syndrome.
c) fetal alcohol syndrome.
d) Fragile X syndrome.

b) Down syndrome.

12) Alzheimer’s disease has been linked to which cause of intellectual disabilities?

a) neurofibromatosis
b) Down syndrome
c) phenylketonuria (PKU)
d) hydrocephalus

b) Down syndrome

13) Each of the following diagnostic techniques involves the fetus EXCEPT

a) amniocentesis.
b) chorionic villus sampling.
c) phenylketonuria (PKU) screening.
d) Nuchal translucency sonogram.

c) phenylketonuria (PKU) screening.

14) People who have Williams syndrome

a) do not pass it on to their children.
b) pass it on to their male children only.
c) pass it on to their female children only.
d) can pass it on to each of their children, regardless of gender.

d) can pass it on to each of their children, regardless of gender.

15) Fragile X syndrome occurs more often in

a) females.
b) twins.
c) first-born offspring.
d) males.

d) males.

16) The most common known hereditary cause of intellectual disabilities is

a) Fragile X syndrome.
b) Down syndrome.
c) Williams syndrome.
d) Prader-Willi syndrome.

a) Fragile X syndrome.

17) Jose has intellectual disabilities. As an infant, he was lethargic and had difficulty eating; however, at about one year of age he became obsessed with food. This is characteristic of

a) Down syndrome.
b) Williams syndrome.
c) Fragile X syndrome
d) Prader-Willi syndrome.

d) Prader-Willi syndrome.

18) All states routinely screen for this before babies leave the hospital:

a) Fragile X syndrome.
b) phenylketonuria.
c) Down syndrome.
d) hydrocephalus.

b) phenylketonuria.

19) A surgically placed shunt that drains excess fluid away from the brain is used to treat

a) microcephalus.
b) encephalitis.
c) meningitis.
d) hydrocephalus.

d) hydrocephalus.

20) Fetal alcohol syndrome is classified as resulting from a/an

a) environmental hazard.
b) infection.
c) genetic factor.
d) chromosomal abnormality.

a) environmental hazard.

21) Each of the following are possible PERINATAL causes of intellectual disabilities EXCEPT

a) rubella.
b) syphilis.
c) anoxia.
d) low birth weight.

a) rubella.

22) An infection of the covering of the brain that may be caused by a variety of bacterial and viral agents is

a) syphilis.
b) flu.
c) meningitis.
d) spina bifida.

c) meningitis.

23) Joe, a 15-year-old boy, performs about as well on an intelligence test as an average six-year-old. His IQ is about

a) 25.
b) 40
c) 60.
d) 90.

b) 40

24) Which one of the following statements about intelligence tests is TRUE?

a) An individual’s IQ score does not change from one testing to another.
b) All IQ tests are culturally biased to a certain extent.
c) The older the child, the less validity and reliability the test has.
d) IQ tests are ideal for assessing a person’s ability to function in society.

b) All IQ tests are culturally biased to a certain extent.

25) How is adaptive behavior typically assessed?

a) A psychologist observes the student in the classroom.
b) The student is asked to perform a series of tasks.
c) A parent, teacher, or professional answers questions related to the student’s behavior.
d) A close friend, chosen by the student, fills out a behavior rating form

c) A parent, teacher, or professional answers questions related to the student’s behavior.

26) The ability to keep information in mind while simultaneously doing another task is

a) working memory.
b) passive memory.
c) long-term memory.
d) active memory.

a) working memory.

27) A person’s awareness of what strategies are needed to perform a task, the ability to plan how to use the strategies, and the evaluation of how well the strategies are working is

a) metacognition.
b) self-regulation.
c) working memory.
d) perception.

a) metacognition.

28) People with intellectual disabilities are likely to believe they have little control over what happens to them and that they are primarily controlled by other people and events. This belief is

a) a lack of self-regulation.
b) due to their histories of failure.
c) due to locus of control.
d) a problem with gullibility.

b) due to their histories of failure.

29) Joe tends to believe whatever he is told, even highly questionable statements or claims, despite any evidence. This tendency is

a) self-deception.
b) gullibility.
c) unreasonable trust.
d) learned helplessness.

b) gullibility.

30) A specific and characteristic behavior repertoire associated with a genetic or chromosomal disorder is a

a) genetic syndrome.
b) personality characteristic.
c) behavioral phenotype.
d) behavioral genotype.

c) behavioral phenotype.

31) In functional academics, academics are taught in the context of

a) daily living skills.
b) test-taking, such as the SATs.
c) the general education curriculum.
d) the common core state standards.

a) daily living skills.

32) Using instructional prompts, consequences for performance, and strategies for transfer of stimulus control is called

a) community-based instruction.
b) functional instruction.
c) functional academics.
d) systematic instruction.

d) systematic instruction.

33) Pointing to an item while telling a student to pick it up is an example of

a) verbal prompt.
b) gestural prompt.
c) modeling.
d) poor instruction.

b) gestural prompt.

34) Research has consistently shown that students who are positively reinforced for correct responses

a) learn at the same rate as when they are not reinforced.
b) are susceptible to a "rebound effect," whereby punishment is ineffective.
c) learn at a faster rate than when they are not reinforced.
d) are highly likely to become dependent on reinforcement.

c) learn at a faster rate than when they are not reinforced.

35) Systemic instruction involves the teacher working with the student in the following ways EXCEPT:

a) Selecting a well-defined target behavior.
b) Monitoring student performance and using that information to make changes to instruction needed.
c) Teaching advanced behaviors before teaching foundational skills.
d) Implementing instruction consistently with respect to such things as sequencing and prompting/cueing.

c) Teaching advanced behaviors before teaching foundational skills.

36) Which statement is TRUE?

a) Instruction of daily living skills is more effective in a controlled classroom setting.
b) It is easier to hold instruction in classrooms than in real-life settings.
c) Instruction in daily living skills should not include instruction in classroom settings.
d) There is no benefit to using real products and money when teaching daily living skills.

b) It is easier to hold instruction in classrooms than in real-life settings.

37) Research on classwide peer tutoring (CWPT) to help meet the instructional needs of students with mild mental retardation in inclusive settings shows that, compared to teacher-led instruction, CWPT resulted in each of the following EXCEPT

a) increased academic performance for all students.
b) increased amount of engaged academic time.
c) increased academic performance for the students with mild ID only.
d) positive acceptance from the teachers and students.

c) increased academic performance for the students with mild ID only.

38) Each of the following is true regarding assessment of quality of life EXCEPT

a) It presents challenges because it depends on individual perceptions.
b) It should consider society’s view of quality of life as well as an individual’s level of satisfaction.
c) There are no assessments to use with Spanish-speaking populations.
d) Quality of life is difficult to measure.

c) There are no assessments to use with Spanish-speaking populations.

39) The purpose of early intervention programs for children at risk for mild intellectual disabilities is

a) improving parents’ teaching skills.
b) preventing intellectual disabilities or furthering development of children who have intellectual disabilities.
c) improving family financial status through job training for parents.
d) improving the quality of the children’s medical care.

b) preventing intellectual disabilities or furthering development of children who have intellectual disabilities.

40) Early Childhood programs designed to enhance the development of children already identified with intellectual disabilities place a great deal of emphasis on

a) transitions.
b) physical therapy.
c) feeding techniques.
d) language and conceptual development.

d) language and conceptual development.

41) Effective programs for transitioning students with intellectual disabilities to adulthood

a) use direct instruction in reading but not math.
b) focus on community adjustment and employment.
c) always involve behavior modification.
d) focus on mastering the general education curriculum.

b) focus on community adjustment and employment.

42) Most professionals agree that programming for transition to adulthood for students with intellectual disabilities should begin

a) at birth.
b) during the elementary years.
c) when students express interest in a vocation.
d) when the student enters high school.

b) during the elementary years.

43) The ability to make personal choices, regulate one’s own life, and be a self-advocate is called

a) self-determination.
b) self-reliance.
c) self-consciousness.
d) self-promotion.

a) self-determination.

44) A motivational term referring to a condition wherein a person believes that no matter how hard he or she tries, failure will result is

a) outside locus of control.
b) self-defeatism.
c) learned helplessness.
d) self-determination.

c) learned helplessness.

45) In person-centered planning, professionals are seen as

a) working as mobilizers of resources and supports to help individuals with intellectual disabilities meet their goals.
b) largely irrelevant in planning with individuals with intellectual disabilities.
c) advising individuals with intellectual disabilities.
d) planning everything for individuals with intellectual disabilities.

a) working as mobilizers of resources and supports to help individuals with intellectual disabilities meet their goals.

46) Researchers have found that such things as the ability to manage money, prepare meals, maintain a clean house, and keep one’s clothing and self well groomed are key factors for

a) functional academics.
b) elementary programming.
c) reaching a state of mindfulness and self-awareness.
d) community adjustment.

d) community adjustment.

47) Self-determination is most likely to be fostered under which of the following conditions?

a) supported living
b) community residential facilities
c) group homes
d) residential institutions

a) supported living

48) All of the following are true of sheltered workshops EXCEPT

a) There is little, if any, integration with workers who are not disabled.
b) They usually offer repetitive work and limited job-training experiences.
c) They are run by business people to make a profit.
d) Clients are often paid very low wages.

c) They are run by business people to make a profit.

49) In supported competitive employment, a worker with intellectual disabilities has a competitive employment position and receives

a) incentive money.
b) ongoing assistance from a job coach.
c) sub-minimum wage.
d) pay from a social agency rather than from the employer.

b) ongoing assistance from a job coach.

50) Employment based on assessment of an individual’s skills and interests is

a) supported employment.
b) competitive employment.
c) sheltered employment.
d) customized employment.

d) customized employment.

1) Dyslexia refers to a severe impairment in the ability to

A) read.
B) write.
C) compute.
D) use expressive language.

A) read.

2) The majority of states use the definition of learning disabilities that is endorsed by

A) AAIDD.
B) NJCLD.
C) LDA.
D) the federal government.

D) the federal government.

3) Each of the following is an element of the NJCLD definition EXCEPT

A) Learning disabilities are due to central nervous system dysfunction.
B) Learning disabilities are a lifelong condition.
C) Spelling is a specific manifestation of learning disabilities.
D) Learning disabilities can occur concurrently with mental retardation.

C) Spelling is a specific manifestation of learning disabilities.

4) Up until the recent ascendance of the response to intervention model, the identification of learning disabilities focused on

A) IQ-achievement discrepancy
B) learning problems due to visual, hearing, or motor handicaps, or environmental, cultural, or economic disadvantage
C) neurological evidence of brain injury
D) deficits in adaptive behavior

A) IQ-achievement discrepancy

5) According to law, states

A) must require the use of severe discrepancy between intellectual ability and achievement, but may permit the use of response to intervention.
B) must not require the use of severe discrepancy between intellectual ability and achievement, and must permit the use of response to intervention.
C) must require the use of severe discrepancy between intellectual ability and achievement, and must require the use of response to intervention.
D) must not require the use of severe discrepancy between intellectual ability and achievement, and must not require the use of response to intervention.

B) must not require the use of severe discrepancy between intellectual ability and achievement, and must permit the use of response to intervention.

6) One of the major advantages of the response to intervention method of identifying learning disabilities is that

A) it is easy to implement.
B) it is not subject to the same "wait-to fail" criticism.
C) it ensures that a student’s low achievement is not simply due to ineffective instruction.
D) A great deal of research has been done to show how best to implement RTI.

C) it ensures that a student’s low achievement is not simply due to ineffective instruction.

7) All of the following have been identified as concerns about response to intervention EXCEPT

A) Most of what is validated about RTI is focused just on reading.
B) Most of the research on RTI has focused on grades 3-5, leaving a vacuum of what we know about its implementation in 1 and 2, where it is most important to intervene.
C) Some students do well enough in Tier 2 to return to Tier 1, but then they experience difficulties, resulting in returning to Tier 2.
D) Currently, many general education teachers are failing to use evidence-based instruction in Tier 1.

B) Most of the research on RTI has focused on grades 3-5, leaving a vacuum of what we know about its implementation in 1 and 2, where it is most important to intervene.

8) In a typical school of 1000 students, about how many students identified as learning disabled would you expect to find?

A) 10
B) 50
C) 150
D) 250

B) 50

9) Changes in the number of students in the learning disabilities category has been attributed to all of the following factors EXCEPT

A) poor diagnostic procedures.
B) teachers’ reluctance to change teaching methods.
C) increase in poverty and stress on families and children.
D) increase in prevalence of mental retardation.

D) increase in prevalence of mental retardation.

10) Each of the following is suggested as an explanation for why boys outnumber girls in the learning disabilities category EXCEPT

A) greater biological vulnerability of boys
B) decrease in prevalence of intellectual disabilities
C) other behavior by boys (hyperactivity) leads to referral
D) lower academic expectations for girls

D) lower academic expectations for girls

11) Research using neuroimaging suggests that some cases of learning disability are caused by

A) poor nutrition.
B) head wounds.
C) structural and functional differences in the brain.
D) allergies to food additives.

C) structural and functional differences in the brain.

12) Research on the neurological basis of learning disabilities

A) has been relatively consistent in pointing to the left temporal lobe as being involved.
B) has made it possible to use neuroimaging as a screening tool for learning disabilities.
C) has largely failed to find any connection between brain function and learning disabilities.
D) has largely failed to find any connection between brain structure and learning disabilities.

A) has been relatively consistent in pointing to the left temporal lobe as being involved.

13) Over the years, evidence has accumulated showing that learning disabilities

A) dramatically improve in the adult years.
B) can be inherited.
C) manifest themselves in infancy.
D) occur more often in first-born children.

B) can be inherited.

14) All of the following are true EXCEPT

A) Learning disabilities tend to run in families.
B) Premature birth can result in learning disabilities.
C) Toxins have been ruled out as a potential cause of learning disabilities.
D) Most geneticists agree that there is no single gene that causes learning disabilities.

C) Toxins have been ruled out as a potential cause of learning disabilities.

15) John, Jim, and Ann are fifth-grade students with learning disabilities. Which one of the following statements best illustrates the concept of interindividual differences?

A) John has problems with math, while Ann has problems with reading.
B) In comparison to the nondisabled students in her class, Ann scores lower in reading and math.
C) Jim does well in reading, but not in math.
D) John has high intelligence, but low achievement in spelling.

A) John has problems with math, while Ann has problems with reading.

16) Freda, Sam, and Liz are eighth-grade students with learning disabilities. Which one of the following statements best illustrates the concept of intraindividual variation?

A) Freda scores high in math, but not in spelling.
B) In comparison to eighth graders nationally, Sam scores lower in reading and written expression.
C) In comparison to Freda and Sam, Liz has higher achievement in math.
D) Liz has lower reading scores than any of the nondisabled students in her class.

A) Freda scores high in math, but not in spelling.

17) By definition, every student with learning disabilities has

A) academic problems.
B) brain damage.
C) hyperactivity.
D) deficits in all academic areas.

A) academic problems.

18) Which poses the most difficulty for most children with learning disabilities?

A) reading
B) spelling
C) handwriting
D) math

A) reading

19) The ability to understand that specific words can be broken down into individual sounds is referred to as

A) phonological awareness.
B) phonemic awareness.
C) decoding.
D) reading fluency.

B) phonemic awareness.

20) Students with poor phonological skills are most likely to have problems with which aspect of written language?

A) handwriting
B) spelling
C) metacognitive strategies
D) creative writing

B) spelling

21) When writing creatively, students with learning disabilities tend to

A) use less complex sentence structures than their peers.
B) write paragraphs that are generally as well organized as their peers.
C) include about the same number of ideas as their peers.
D) have the same type and degree of handwriting problems as their peers.

A) use less complex sentence structures than their peers.

22) Gareth is a twelve-year-old with learning disabilities who makes many grammatical errors when speaking. Gareth has a problem with which aspect of language?

A) phonology
B) semantics
C) pragmatics
D) syntax

D) syntax

23) Pragmatics is the study of

A) word order within sentences.
B) the sound structure of words.
C) the meaning of language.
D) language use in social settings.

D) language use in social settings.

24) An academic area that may cause just as much trouble for students with learning disabilities as reading is

A) spoken language.
B) science.
C) written language.
D) math.

D) math.

25) Researchers have found that one of the major reasons that children with
learning disabilities perform poorly on memory tasks is that

A) they fail to use strategies.
B) their working memory is much more advanced so it interferes with short term memory.
C) they have been exposed to too much direct instruction.
D) they are either auditory or visual learners but not both.

A) they fail to use strategies

26) Students with learning disabilities have what type(s) of memory problems?

A) working memory only.
B) short term memory or working memory and retrieval of information from long-term memory.
C) short term memory only.
D) retrieval of information from long-term memory only.

B) short term memory or working memory and retrieval of information from long-term memory.

27) Students with learning disabilities

A) have problems with working memory but not long term memory.
B) have problems with long term memory but not working memory.
C) can have problems in working memory and/or long term memory.
D) are no different in memory skills from nondisabled peers as long as they are motivated properly.

C) can have problems in working memory and/or long term memory.

28) Which one of the following problems best illustrates difficulty in metacognition?

A) Joelle reverses b and d.
B) Simon is always active and out of his seat.
C) Rita can’t tell the difference between the spoken words think and thing.
D) Oscar neglects to slow down when reading a difficult passage.

D) Oscar neglects to slow down when reading a difficult passage.

29) Difficulties experienced by students with learning disabilities in interpreting the feeling and emotions of others reflects a problem with

A) visual perception.
B) social cognition.
C) affective disorder.
D) referential communication.

B) social cognition.

30) Individuals who have a cluster of disabilities in social interaction, math, visual-spatial tasks, and tactual tasks are referred to as having

A) nonverbal learning disabilities.
B) motivational problems.
C) social cognition problems.
D) locus of control deficits.

A) nonverbal learning disabilities.

31) Brianna is a junior in high school who has a learning disability and an external locus of control. When she succeeds on a homework assignment in math, she is most likely to attribute her success to

A) effort.
B) luck.
C) math ability.
D) intelligence.

B) luck.

32) Cognitive training involves all of the following EXCEPT

A) changing thought processes.
B) providing strategies for learning.
C) teaching self-initiative.
D) multisensory training.

D) multisensory training.

33) Making students aware of the stages of problem-solving tasks while they are performing them and bringing behavior under verbal control is

A) self-instruction.
B) self-monitoring.
C) scaffolded instruction.
D) reciprocal teaching.

A) self-instruction.

34) A method in which assistance is provided to students when they are first learning tasks, then gradually reduced until the students do the tasks independently is

A) scaffolded instruction.
B) self-monitoring.
C) prompted instruction.
D) self-regulated strategy development.

A) scaffolded instruction.

35) A method in which the teacher-student relationship is similar to that of an expert and an apprentice is

A) reciprocal teaching.
B) scaffolded instruction
C) co-teaching.
D) team teaching.

A) reciprocal teaching.

36) Repeated readings is a technique specifically used to improve

A) phonemic awareness.
B) reading fluency.
C) phonics.
D) reading comprehension.

B) reading fluency.

37) Effective writing instruction involves teaching systematic strategies for each of the following EXCEPT

A) planning.
B) handwriting skills.
C) revising.
D) editing.

B) handwriting skills.

38) Which approach to mathematics instruction is most efficient for students with learning disabilities?

A) constructivist
B) discovery-oriented
C) teacher-directed
D) student-centered

C) teacher-directed

39) Visual devices that employ lines, circles, and boxes to organize information are

A) mnemonic organizers.
B) linear organizers.
C) graphic organizers.
D) geometric organizers.

C) graphic organizers.

40) All of the following are features of Direct Instruction EXCEPT

A) fast-paced lessons.
B) emphasis on drill and practice.
C) student-centered lessons.
D) precisely sequenced.

C) student-centered lessons.

41) A method involving breaking down academic problems into their component parts that can be taught separately and then combined is called

A) direct instruction.
B) scaffolded instruction.
C) cognitive training.
D) task analysis.

D) task analysis.

42) Each of the following is true of peer-assisted learning strategies (PALS) EXCEPT

A) it involves pairing a higher-performing student with a lower-performing student.
B) it is not effective for high school students without learning disabilities.
C) students take turns being "coach" and "reader."
D) students participate in highly structured tutoring sessions each week.

B) it is not effective for high school students without learning disabilities.

43) The most common placement for students with learning disabilities is

A) self-contained special classes.
B) special schools.
C) resource room.
D) general education classroom.

D) general education classroom.

44) The part of the graph typically used with curriculum-based measurement to depict where a student should be performing at a given point in time is the

A) baseline data point.
B) expected growth norm.
C) aim line.
D) goal.

C) aim line.

45) All of the following practices are typical of curriculum-based assessment EXCEPT

A) frequent observation of child’s behavior.
B) testing completed by classroom teacher.
C) comparison of child to national norms.
D) use of curriculum the student has been exposed to.

C) comparison of child to national norms.

46) An informal reading inventory is primarily used to

A) provide practice in reading for the student.
B) explain the cause of a student’s reading problems.
C) estimate the appropriate difficulty level of reading materials.
D) design instructional interventions.

C) estimate the appropriate difficulty level of reading materials.

47) The most common testing accommodations for students with learning disabilities are

A) extended time and small group administration.
B) dividing assessment into multiple sessions and individual assessment.
C) having directions read aloud and group administration.
D) extended time and group administration.

A) extended time and small group administration.

48) Rather than talking about identification of learning disabilities at the preschool level, educators emphasize

A) causation/etiology.
B) prediction.
C) adaptive behavior.
D) classification.

B) prediction.

49) According to the Council for Exceptional Children special education teachers of students with learning disabilities should be able to do all of the following EXCEPT

A) address a variety of academic learning problems, such as reading, math, and spelling.
B) help students apply these academic skills in the general education content areas, such as science and social studies.
C) teach the exact same content as the general education teacher.
D) to teach academic skills in several different settings, such as individually or in small or large groups.

C) teach the exact same content as the general education teacher.

50) In addition to a transition plan, federal law now requires that schools develop a(n)

A) summary of performance
B) exit interview.
C) assessment review.
D) list of ongoing accommodations.

A) summary of performance

1) Authorities have used all of the following as a historical basis for the existence of ADHD EXCEPT

A) Still’s children with "defective moral control."
B) Goldstein’s brain-injured soldiers of World War I.
C) Cruickshank’s poems of children led astray by goblins and fairies.
D) Weikard’s chapter on "Lack of Attention."

C) Cruickshank’s poems of children led astray by goblins and fairies.

2) A physician credited with being the first to address the issue of attention deficits in the professional literature is

A) George Still.
B) Melchior Adam Weikard.
C) Alfred Strauss.
D) Kurt Goldstein.

B) Melchior Adam Weikard.

3) Which of the following is a way that Still’s cases were similar to today’s population of persons with ADHD?

A) Many had average intelligence.
B) The condition was more prevalent in females than males.
C) There was no evidence of a hereditary basis.
D) Most of the children had no other psychological or physical problems.

A) Many had average intelligence.

4) A person diagnosed as ADHD is more likely than most people to exhibit

A) stubbornness.
B) sociopathic tendencies.
C) perseveration.
D) artistic talents.

C) perseveration.

5) In addition to clinical observations, Werner and Strauss used an experimental task consisting of:

A) tests on sensitivity to light
B) figure/background slides that were presented at very brief exposure times
C) hyperactivity
D) examining perseveration

B) figure/background slides that were presented at very brief exposure times

6) Cruickshank’s work was important with respect to ADHD for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

A) The children he studied had cerebral palsy, definitely caused by brain damage.
B) Most of the children had average intelligence.
C) He was among the first to have an educational program for children with characteristics of what is now called ADHD.
D) He showed that hyperactivity could exist concomitantly with mental retardation.

D) He showed that hyperactivity could exist concomitantly with mental retardation.

7) What do many authorities currently suggest should replace inattention as the primary deficit in ADHD?

A) hyperactivity
B) behavioral inhibition
C) aggressiveness
D) subtle brain damage

B) behavioral inhibition

8) Each of the following is a subdivision of ADHD according to the American Psychiatric Association’s diagnostic manual EXCEPT

A) predominantly lethargic-inattentive type.
B) predominantly inattentive type.
C) predominantly hyperactive-impulsive type.
D) combined type.

A) predominantly lethargic-inattentive type.

9) Child guidance clinics

A) rarely see clients who have ADHD.
B) see children with ADHD more than they see children with most other types of disabilities.
C) see many more girls than boys with ADHD.
D) turn away more children with ADHD than they treat.

B) see children with ADHD more than they see children with most other types of disabilities.

10) What percentage of the school-age population does the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention report as having ADHD?

A) 1-2%
B) 1-3%
C) 2-4%
D) 7-9%

D) 7-9%

11) Which of the following is a reason why ADHD was not included when the federal government began tracking the prevalence of disabilities?

A) There was a large body of research suggesting it is not a distinct disability.
B) The advocacy base for children with ADHD was not yet well-developed.
C) There was already a category for minimal brain injury.
D) The federal government put a cap on the number of disability types to be served by public schools.

B) The advocacy base for children with ADHD was not yet well-developed.

12) Students with ADHD receive special education services under the Individuals with Disabilities Education Act (IDEA) in which category?

A) ADHD
B) learning disabilities
C) emotional or behavioral disorders
D) other health impaired (OHI)

D) other health impaired (OHI)

13) Each of the following is true EXCEPT

A) the growth of the Other Health Impaired category suggests that students with ADHD are identified as OHI.
B) ADHD occurs much more frequently in boys than in girls.
C) Gender differences in diagnosis of ADHD are likely due to biological differences.
D) Statistics show that ADHD is largely a U.S. phenomenon.

D) Statistics show that ADHD is largely a U.S. phenomenon.

14) All of the following are often used as part of the process of diagnosing children with ADHD EXCEPT

A) a medical exam.
B) a clinician interviewing parents and child.
C) neuroimaging.
D) teacher-and parent-rating scales.

C) neuroimaging.

15) Rating scales used for ADHD are generally filled out by each of the following EXCEPT

A) parents
B) medical doctors
C) teachers
D) the child

B) medical doctors

16) Which statement about the brains of people with ADHD is true?

A) Neuroimaging techniques have shown there is a neurological basis for ADHD.
B) Neuroimaging technology has shown there is no neurological basis for ADHD.
C) Most people with ADHD show neurological signs of tissue damage to the brain.
D) There is a diagnostic blood test now available for ADHD.

A) Neuroimaging techniques have shown there is a neurological basis for ADHD.

17) The part of the brain responsible for executive functions such as the ability to regulate one’s own behavior is the

A) basal ganglia.
B) cerebellum.
C) corpus collosum.
D) frontal lobes.

D) frontal lobes.

18) The basal ganglia and cerebellum are responsible for

A) regulating one’s own behavior.
B) executive functioning.
C) coordination and control of motor behavior.
D) communication between the hemispheres of the brain.

C) coordination and control of motor behavior.

19) A neurotransmitter involved in sending messages between neurons and the brain that is found in abnormal levels in people with ADHD is

A) histamine.
B) dopamine.
C) dexadrine.
D) caladrine.

B) dopamine.

20) All of the following are true EXCEPT

A) It is highly unlikely that watching TV as a cause of ADHD.
B) It is highly unlikely that playing video games as a cause of ADHD.
C) There is some suggestive evidence that food allergies may cause ADHD for a very small subgroup of children.
D) Exposure to lead and the abuse of alcohol by pregnant women increases the likelihood of ADHD.

C) There is some suggestive evidence that food allergies may cause ADHD for a very small subgroup of children.

21) The classic "Marshmallow Experiment" and follow-up studies demonstrated that

A) delay of gratification by young children was related to several negative outcomes in adulthood.
B) sugar intake has little impact on children’s hyperactivity.
C) the more sweets young children with ADHD consume when unsupervised, the greater the likelihood that they will have traffic violations as adults.
D) marshmallows are more reinforcing than oreos for children with ADHD but not for nondisabled children.

A) delay of gratification by young children was related to several negative outcomes in adulthood.

22) All of the following are examples of behavioral inhibition EXCEPT

A) the ability to wait one’s turn.
B) refraining from interrupting in conversations.
C) working for immediate gratification or short-term rewards.
D) resisting potential distractions while working.

C) working for immediate gratification or short-term rewards.

23) All of the following are ways that people with ADHD can exhibit problems with executive function EXCEPT

A) They have difficulty telling right from wrong.
B) They have difficulty with working memory.
C) They have difficulty with inhibitory control.
D) They have difficulty with mental flexibility.

A) They have difficulty telling right from wrong.

24) An area of deficits that has traditionally been associated with persons with intellectual disabilities but is beginning to be of interest with respect to persons with ADHD is

A) stereotypic behaviors.
B) verbal intelligence.
C) gullibility.
D) adaptive behavior skills.

D) adaptive behavior skills.

25) Compared to students with other disabilities, students with ADHD

A) have fewer social skills problems.
B) have more friends of the opposite gender.
C) are more disliked by their peers.
D) are viewed as less rude.

C) are more disliked by their peers.

26) The negative social status experienced by students with ADHD is

A) usually long lasting.
B) usually overcome by early adulthood.
C) largely a myth associated with the label.
D) generally an issue only during high school.

A) usually long lasting.

27) ADHD has been shown to often coexist with each of the following EXCEPT

A) learning disabilities.
B) emotional or behavioral disorders.
C) giftedness.
D) substance abuse.

C) giftedness.

28) About how many children with ADHD also have learning disabilities?

A) 10%.
B) 25%.
C) 50%.
D) 75%.

C) 50%.

29) The National Institute of Health recommends all of the following for students with ADHD EXCEPT

A) maintaining a daily schedule that is consistent.
B) a strong emphasis on student-directed learning.
C) use praise when rules are followed.
D) use homework and notebook organizers.

B) a strong emphasis on student-directed learning.

30) All of the following are suggestions for teaching students with ADHD EXCEPT

A) divide instruction into meaningful chunks.
B) provide a rationale for each lesson.
C) include opportunities for guided practice.
D) avoid "thinking aloud" as this is very distracting.

D) avoid "thinking aloud" as this is very distracting.

31) Determining the antecedents, consequences, and setting events that maintain inappropriate behaviors is called

A) functional behavioral assessment.
B) functional deconstruction.
C) behavioral self-awareness.
D) behavioral contracting.

A) functional behavioral assessment.

32) Contingency-based self-management involves having persons

A) take turns with other students in keeping track of their own behavior and then receive consequences based on an average of their behavior and the other student’s behavior.
B) predict how well they will do on a behavioral checklist scored by the teacher—the better they are able to predict, the greater the rewards they receive.
C) keep track of their own behavior and then receive consequences based on that behavior.
D) choose their own goals and their own rewards.

C) keep track of their own behavior and then receive consequences based on that behavior.

33) In contingency-based self-management, the "contingency" is usually a type of

A) punishment.
B) reward.
C) aversive.
D) contract.

B) reward.

34) A teacher sets up a machine that beeps at random intervals; research has demonstrated that, if students check "yes" or "no" in answer to whether they were paying attention when the beeper beeps,

A) their self-determination skills will decrease .
B) their actual attention will decrease because of being distracted by the beeps.
C) their actual attention will improve.
D) their actual attention will improve, only if they are auditory-learners.

C) their actual attention will improve.

35) According to the National Institute of Mental Health, all of the following are recommendations for teaching children with ADHD EXCEPT

A) Take advantage of their inherent fear of punishment.
B) Follow the same routine every day.
C) Have a place for everything, keep everything in its place.
D) Have clear and consistent rules.

A) Take advantage of their inherent fear of punishment.

36) Most students with ADHD spend most of their time in which of the following settings?

A) general education classroom
B) special day school
C) self-contained classroom
D) resource room

A) general education classroom

37) In this model of co-teaching, the two teachers split the class into two groups and teach the same content to a smaller group of student.

A) One Teach, One Drift
B) Parallel Teaching
C) Accommodation Teaching
D) Alternative Teaching

B) Parallel Teaching

38) A teaching model that includes content instruction by one teacher to a large group of students and remedial or supplementary instruction by the other teacher to a small group of students is

A) Alternative Teaching.
B) Parallel Teaching.
C) Team Teaching.
D) Station Teaching.

A) Alternative Teaching.

39) The most frequently prescribed types of medication for students with ADHD are

A) depressants.
B) mood enhancers.
C) psychotropics.
D) psychostimulants.

D) psychostimulants.

40) Which of the following statements about Ritalin is true?

A) Research is overwhelmingly negative on its effectiveness in helping students have more normalized behavioral inhibition and executive functioning.
B) Ritalin is not effective for about 30% of people who take it.
C) Ritalin has no side effects.
D) By taking Ritalin, children with ADHD are more likely to become abusers of drugs later in life.

B) Ritalin is not effective for about 30% of people who take it.

41) All of the following are cautions concerning Ritalin EXCEPT

A) It should not be prescribed at the first sign of a behavioral problem.
B) The results for academic outcomes are unclear.
C) Proper dosage levels vary considerably.
D) It is an over-the-counter substance with little chance of abuse.

D) It is an over-the-counter substance with little chance of abuse.

42) According to the National Institute of Mental Health, the treatment for ADHD that shows the most effective immediate results is

A) medication management.
B) behavioral management.
C) combined medication management and behavioral management.
D) community care.

C) combined medication management and behavioral management.

43) For students with ADHD, assessment of progress

A) should focus on attention, not academics.
B) should focus on academics, not attention.
C) is best accomplished by analyzing performance on standardized tests.
D) is similar to the approaches used for students with learning disabilities.

D) is similar to the approaches used for students with learning disabilities.

44) Momentary time sampling is ______________to capture a representative sample of a target behavior over a specified period of time.

A).an interval recording procedure
B) a contingency-based intervention used
C) a group contingency-based intervention used.
D) a less effective way than simply asking the teacher to estimate the child’s performance.

A).an interval recording procedure

45) Which statement is TRUE about the Telephone Interview Probe (TIP)?

A) It uses comprehensive, weekly telephone calls with parents to determine effects of intervention,
B) It is particularly useful for determining the effects of psychostimulants at different times of the day.
C) It has a broader time frame than many other common rating scales.
D) It is only used to provide ratings of inattention.

B) It is particularly useful for determining the effects of psychostimulants at different times of the day.

46) Diagnosis of young children with ADHD is particularly difficult because

A) there is no funding to do assessment in preschool.
B) the symptoms usually do not appear before a child is eight years of age.
C) preschool teachers have no training in identifying children with disabilities.
D) many preschoolers without ADHD exhibit a great deal of activity and impulsivity.

D) many preschoolers without ADHD exhibit a great deal of activity and impulsivity.

47) The best "test" for ADHD in adults is

A) Conners behavior scales.
B) an MRI to test for brain abnormalities.
C) the person’s life and medical history.
D) referrals from past teachers.

C) the person’s life and medical history.

48) Each of the following conclusions about adults with ADHD have been documented EXCEPT

A) They finish fewer years of school.
B) They have more automobile infractions.
C) They have fewer marital problems.
D) They have more addictive behaviors.

C) They have fewer marital problems.

49) A therapeutic technique that involves identifying someone whom the person with ADHD can rely on for support is

A) training.
B) coaching.
C) encouraging.
D) directing.

B) coaching.

50) Students with ADHD who have not received special education in high school

A) should obtain the documentation they need for colleges to provide them with appropriate accommodations.
B) have little chance of obtaining accommodations in college.
C) must provide a copy of current prescriptions they take for ADHD in order to obtain accommodations in college.
D) must get the high school to send a letter apologizing for the oversight in order to obtain accommodations in high school.

A) should obtain the documentation they need for colleges to provide them with appropriate accommodations.

1) The most obvious problem of children with E/BD is

A) imaginary friendships.
B) aggression aimed at others.
C) lack of close emotional ties.
D) social fear or disinterest.

C) lack of close emotional ties.

2) Many different terms have been used to designate children who have extreme social interpersonal and/or intrapersonal problems. Which term have some pointed out has the advantage of focusing attention on the clearly observable aspect of these children’s problems:

A) behaviorally disordered.
B) emotionally disturbed.
C) socially maladjusted.
D) emotionally conflicted.

A) behaviorally disordered.

3) The terminology proposed by the National Mental Health and Special Education Coalition in 1990 is

A) serious emotional disturbance.
B) severe behavioral disorder.
C) emotional or behavioral disorder.
D) emotionally or behaviorally challenged.

C) emotional or behavioral disorder.

4) The problematic behavior of children and youth with EBD tends to be

A) exhibited more often in highly structured environments.
B) a psychological processing problem.
C) a sudden onset of extremely inappropriate behavior.
D) episodic, highly variable, and situation specific.

D) episodic, highly variable, and situation specific.

5) The federal definition of E/BD has been most widely criticized for its exclusion of children with

A) autism.
B) schizophrenia.
C) social maladjustment.
D) attention deficit disorder.

C) social maladjustment.

6) In contrast to the present federal definition, the proposed National Mental Health and Special Education Coalition definition of E/BD

A) recognizes that disorders of emotion and behavior may occur separately or in combination.
B) focuses on problems that exist in a school setting only.
C) excludes students with schizophrenia.
D) is less sensitive to ethnic and cultural differences.

A) recognizes that disorders of emotion and behavior may occur separately or in combination.

7) Two broad dimensions of behavior disorders are

A) externalizing and internalizing.
B) withdrawal and disinterest.
C) exterior and interior.
D) hostility and aggression.

A) externalizing and internalizing.

8) Schizophrenia is associated the least with which of the following problems?
A) delusions and hallucinations.
B) tendency to withdraw into their own private worlds.
C) epileptic seizures.
D) severe disorder of thinking.

C) epileptic seizures.

9) Comorbidity in persons with E/BD is
A) not unusual.
B) very unusual.
C) rare.
D) part of the diagnosis.

A) not unusual.

10) According to the federal government, what percentage of the school-age population is identified for special education services under the category of "emotional disturbance"?
A) less than 1%
B) about 2%
C) 3-5%
D) 6-10%

A) less than 1%

11) What percentage of the school-aged population exhibits serious and persistent emotional/behavioral problems, according to credible studies in the U.S. and other countries?
A) less than 1%
B) about 2%
C) 6-10%
D) 10-15%.

C) 6-10%

12) Each of the following statements about children with E/BD is true EXCEPT
A) aggressive acting-out behavior is most common.
B) boys outnumber girls.
C) most students identified are psychotic.
D) juvenile delinquency and conduct disorder cannot be clearly distinguished from emotional disturbance.

C

13) The causes of E/BD have been attributed to each of the following EXCEPT
A) biological disorders and diseases.
B) pathological family relationships.
C) undesirable school experiences.
D) membership in a particular cultural group.

D

14) In the majority of cases, the cause of E/BD is
A) biological.
B) family-related.
C) unknown.
D) school-based.

C

15) A biologically determined behavioral style is a
A) personality.
B) temperament.
C) learning style.
D) attitude.

B

16) Each of the following statements about biological causes of E/BD is true EXCEPT
A) If a disorder has a biological cause it can still be an emotional or behavioral disorder.
B) Causes are usually exclusively biological or exclusively psychological.
C) Medical treatment is seldom the only intervention needed.
D) Medical approaches may be of little benefit if psychological and social aspects are not addressed.

B

17) Each of the following is true regarding school practices and development of E/BD EXCEPT
A) Children may become better or worse, depending on how they are managed in the classroom.
B) A child’s temperament and social competence interact with behaviors of peers and teachers.
C) We know which specific school experiences contribute to E/BD.
D) Teachers need to be aware of how their academic instruction and behavior management approaches may contribute to student’s misconduct.

C

18) Each of the following societal conditions may predispose children to develop E/BD EXCEPT
A) availability and level of drug use.
B) a child’s temperament.
C) level of violence depicted in the media.
D) use of terror as a means of coercion.

B

19) Despite problems in defining E/BD, most children with severe E/BD are easily recognized because
A) teachers are trained in the use of behavior rating scales.
B) systematic screening procedures are used in most schools.
C) their behavior attracts immediate attention.
D) most schools have psychologists on-site.

C

20) Bert is a nine-year-old boy with E/BD. If he is like the typical child with E/BD, his IQ score probably falls in which range on standardized tests?
A) dull-normal
B) bright-normal
C) normal
D) superior

A

21) On standardized achievement tests, most students with E/BD perform
A) at grade level.
B) above grade level.
C) at mental age level.
D) below grade level.

D

22) The most common problems exhibited by children with E/BD are
A) withdrawn behaviors.
B) attention deficit disorders.
C) impulsive behaviors.
D) conduct disorders.

D

23) Many social learning theorists and behavioral psychologists believe that aggression is
A) caused by an overwhelming sense of frustration.
B) a result of subconscious motives.
C) a defense mechanism used in distressing situations.
D) a learned behavior.

D

24) Erik is a sixth grader with E/BD who is highly aggressive. His teacher, Mr. Glumbly, should be advised to try all of the following techniques with Erik EXCEPT
A) providing examples of nonaggressive responses in aggression-provoking circumstances.
B) role-playing nonaggressive behavior with him.
C) preventing him from receiving positive consequences for aggression.
D) letting him "act out" his aggression freely.

D

25) The Olweus Bullying Prevention Program includes all of the following EXCEPT
A) Avoid involving parents unless absolutely necessary because they can actually make the situation worse.
B) If an incident occurs the parents should be contacted in a timely manner.
C) Facilitate discussions of bullying in the classroom.
D) Establish rules and consequences for bullying.

A

26) A social-learning analysis attributes withdrawal and immaturity to
A) inadequate environment.
B) internal conflicts.
C) unconscious motivations.
D) conscious motivations.

A

27) Behavioral psychologists tend to attribute withdrawal and immaturity to
A) internal conflicts.
B) unconscious motivations.
C) conscious motivations.
D) failures in social learning.

D

28) Which of the following statements about depression is true?
A) Depression is not a widespread problem among children and adolescents.
B) The nature of depression in children and adolescents is quite different from that of adults.
C) Suicide is among the leading causes of death among young people.
D) Antidepressant medications have not been successful in helping young people with depression.

C

29) All credible conceptual models of education have two objectives. They are
A) controlling misbehavior and teaching academic and social skills.
B) controlling misbehavior and teaching academic skills.
C) teaching academic and social skills.
D) controlling misbehavior and teaching social skills.

A

30) To maximize their effectiveness, programs for students with E/BD should provide a balance between
A) behavioral control and academic/social instruction.
B) academic/social instruction and vocational training.
C) psychological therapy and academic/social instruction.
D) individualized instruction and behavioral control.

A

31) Each of the following statements regarding the need to balance behavioral control with academic and social learning is true EXCEPT
A) Too often, the focus is on academic instruction at the expense of social learning and student behavior.
B) Excellent academic instruction has been shown to eliminate most disruptive behaviors.
C) Without effective behavior control, it is extremely unlikely that academic and social learning will occur.
D) Behavior control strategies preferably involve students in self-control strategies.

A

32) The importance of integrated services for students with E/BD means that
A) subject areas within the curriculum should not be taught in isolation from each other.
B) students with E/BD should be fully included in regular classrooms.
C) schools, families, and community agencies should cooperate to meet students’ needs.
D) therapy should occur in school within the context of the student’s academic program.

C

33) Susan and Mike are looking to place their son, Max, in an effective educational program for students with E/BD. They should select a program that includes all of the following elements EXCEPT
A) systematic, data-based interventions.
B) direct, daily assessment of performance.
C) emphasis on self-awareness, mindfulness activities.
D) programming for transfer and maintenance.

C

34) In comparison to the percentage of students with most other disabilities, students with E/BD are more likely to be educated in
A) general education classrooms.
B) resource room programs.
C) less restrictive settings.
D) more restrictive settings.

D

35) The trend in programs for students with EBD is toward
A) institutionalization.
B) resource rooms.
C) integration into more restrictive placements.
D) integration into general education classrooms whenever possible.

D

36) Each of the following is true of instructional considerations for students with E/BD EXCEPT
A) Incidental social learning is sufficient and preferred to address social difficulties.
B) If social skills are improved any academic deficits will improve to the point of not being an issue.
C) Many incarcerated youths actually receive better instruction because they are in a highly structured environment.
D) Kindness and concern are not sufficient qualities for teachers of students with E/BD.

C

37) The expertise of any teacher of students with EDB includes understanding, assessing, and managing behavior to promote learning. The teacher needs the following skills EXCEPT
A) use of intelligence tests and standardized achievement tests to make placement decisions.
B) knowledge of prevention and intervention strategies.
C) use of nonaversive techniques.
D) establishment of consistent classroom routines.

A

38) Increasingly, researchers recognize that problem behavior occurs less frequently in the classroom when
A) the teacher is offering effective instruction.
B) the teacher allows unstructured free time each day.
C) the teacher separates students with behavior problems from other students.
D) the teacher consistently punishes each occurrence of problem behavior.

A

39) In the case of discipline, "zero tolerance" means that
A) the circumstances surrounding an incident are not weighed in deciding what the consequences should be; only the act itself is questioned.
B) the circumstances surrounding an incident are weighed in deciding what the consequences should be, and the act itself is questioned.
C) the circumstances surrounding an incident are weighed in deciding what the consequences should be, but the act itself is not questioned.
D) the circumstances surrounding an incident are not weighed in deciding what the consequences should be, and the act itself is not questioned.

A

40) All of the following are controversial concepts specific to discipline of students with disabilities EXCEPT
A) determining if behavior is a manifestation of disability.
B) use of corporal punishment.
C) providing alternative placement for education.
D) developing functional behavior assessments.

B

41) Proponents of positive behavioral intervention and support
A) forbid the use of punishment.
B) recognize the value of nonviolent negative consequences (punishment) in managing behavior.
C) believe that there are rare occasions when it is necessary to use aversive punishments, such as solitary confinement.
D) believe that there are rare occasions when it is necessary to use aversive punishments, such as corporal punishment.

B

42) Under IDEA, "functional behavioral assessment" (FBA)
A) simply means assessment that is based on psychoanalytic as well as behavioral principles.
B) clearly refers to a specific set of procedures designed to pinpoint the function of a student’s behavior.
C) is optional.
D) is designed by school administrators.

B

43) With respect to monitoring the progress of students with E/BD,
A) academic as well as behavioral assessment is usually necessary.
B) standardized assessments are more accurate than teacher rating scales.
C) curriculum-based assessments are outdated.
D) teacher rating scales are all that are actually required to assess the students’ behavior.

A

44) All of the following patterns of behavior signal problems in preschool EXCEPT
A) grabbing, kicking, and screaming to get one’s way.
B) frequent conflicts and aloofness from others.
C) infrequent outbursts, but with apparent reason.
D) hiding from strangers.

C

45) Effective interventions for preschool children with E/BD that include defining and measuring behavior and rearranging the environment to teach and support more appropriate conduct are
A) psychoeducational.
B) humanistic.
C) ecological.
D) behavioral.

D

46) Each of the following is a reason why early, comprehensive, intense, and sustained intervention is so rare EXCEPT
A) worry about labeling and stigma.
B) lack of familiarity with the early signs of problems.
C) optimism about a child’s development (i.e., "he’ll grow out of it").
D) lack of resources for any but the most severe cases.

D

47) Tad is a 15-year-old youth with a long-standing history of school failure and serious behavioral offenses. He is currently in prison and receives no special education services. A likely reason why Tad is not receiving services is that
A) IDEA does not apply to prison schools.
B) Tad is considered "socially maladjusted" and therefore is not eligible for services.
C) because he has been convicted of a serious offense, Tad has lost the right to a free, appropriate public education.
D) Tad has refused to participate in special education programming.

B

48) It is difficult to design a specific education program for E/BD at the secondary level because
A) services provided for E/BD usually omit secondary education.
B) few special educators are interested in this field.
C) this category of youths is so varied.
D) subject areas are varied and training of professionals is limited.

C

49) Transition from school to work is particularly difficult for many adolescents with E/BD for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) a high rate of dropping out of school.
B) neglectful, abusive, or inadequate family relationships.
C) over-emphasis on vocational training rather than academics.
D) behavior that is unacceptable to peers and employers.

C

50) Among children and adolescents with E/BD, the future is especially grim for those with
A) neurosis.
B) conduct disorders.
C) withdrawal.
D) anxiety and depression.

B

1) Each of the following is a misconception about autism spectrum disorders EXCEPT
A) It is a single, well-defined category of disability.
B) People with autism spectrum disorders are all intellectually disabled.
C) All People with autism are impaired in some cognitive areas but are highly intelligent or geniuses in others.
D) There is no evidence that bad parenting causes autism.

C

2) The seminal work in the field of autism began in what year?
A) 1992
B) 1929
C) 1943
D) 1907

D

3) The words "autistic" and "autism" come from the Greek word autos, meaning
A) cars.
B) withdrawn.
C) others.
D) self.

A

4) One characteristic that distinguished children studied by Kanner was
A) an inability to relate to others in an ordinary manner.
B) a need to be picked up or held by parents.
C) surprisingly normal language development.
D) an extreme dislike of repetition.

C

5) Kanner’s research with a group of children he called "autistic" indicated that these children could be set apart from children with schizophrenia in each of the following ways EXCEPT
A) Children with schizophrenia withdrew from the world at some point in time, while children with autism had no social connections to begin with.
B) Children with autism exhibited unique language patterns, such as echolalia.
C) Children with schizophrenia exhibited bizarre, repetitive physical movement.
D) Children with schizophrenia tended to deteriorate in their functioning over time, while children with autism did not.

A

6) Asperger identified children who had
A) average intelligence but channeled their intellectual pursuits into obsessive preoccupation in narrow areas.
B) superior intelligence but channeled their intellectual pursuits into obsessive preoccupation in narrow areas.
C) below average intelligence but remarkable ability in a particular area.
D) below average intelligence and a tendency toward violent, psychotic behavior.

B

7) In Kanner’s paper, he described the children he was studying as all of the following EXCEPT
A) prefer to play alone.
B) perceived as normal.
C) obsessive desire for repetition.
D) resistance to being held by parents.

A

8) The term "spectrum" in autism spectrum disorders refers to the fact that people with ASD
A) have a variety of symptoms and degrees of impairment that fall along a continuum.
B) have symptoms that are like waves, they come and go.
C) are almost always (at least over 50%) obsessed with the colors of objects in their environment.
D) are overrepresented in the LGBT population.

A

9) A condition that is much like autism but usually without significant delays in cognition and language is
A) Asperger syndrome.
B) non-verbal learning disabilities.
C) psychosis..
D) retrograde autism.

B

10) Early warning signs for Autistic Spectrum include all of the following EXCEPT
A) no babbling or pointing by age 1.
B) response to name.
C) poor eye contact.
D) loss of language of social skills.

D

11) According to the DSM-5, Asperger syndrome
A) is distinguished from autism in that the latter is inherited.
B) is a necessary, but not sufficient condition, to be diagnosed as ASD .
C) can only be used as a diagnosis in adults with superior IQ scores.
D) is no longer an entity separate from ASD.

C

12) DSM-5 divides the symptoms of ASD into two general domains:
A) Asperger syndrome and autism.
B) mild and moderate-severe ASD.
C) social communication impairment and repetitive/restricted behaviors. .
D) intrinsic and extrinsic symptoms.

C

13) The prevalence of ASD
A) is much higher in girls of color than boys of color
B) has begun to diminish since the early 2000s.
C) is now almost as much as the prevalence of learning disabilities.
D) is 5 times higher for boys than girls.

D

14) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, how many people have an autism spectrum disorder?
A) about 1 in 68
B) about 1 in 2,500
C) about 1 in 333
D) about 1 in 91

A

15) Most scientists argue that the dramatic increase in prevalence statistics for autism is due to each of the following EXCEPT
A) a widening of the criteria used for diagnosis.
B) a greater awareness of autism in general.
C) widespread use of vaccinations for babies.
D) "diagnostic substitution" (diagnosing with autism rather than intellectual disability).

C

16) Which statement about the prevalence rate of ASD is TRUE?
A) It is 4 times higher for girls than boys.
B) It is 5 times higher for boys than girls.
C) It is higher for Latinos than European Americans.
D) It is higher for African Americans than for European Americans.

B

17) Which term was once commonly applied to mothers of children with autism?
A) warmhearted moms
B) refrigerator moms
C) egocentric moms
D) neglectful moms

B

18) Although highly questionable today, during the 1960s, which idea was popular among professionals trying to explain autism?
A) psychoanalytic idea that attributes cause to parents
B) biological basis that attributes cause to heredity
C) neurological basis that attributes cause to brain damage
D) childhood inoculations

D

19) Which statement about the causes of autism spectrum disorder is true?
A) Autism spectrum disorder is likely caused by parental attitudes and behavior.
B) Scientists have established unequivocally that the cause is neurological.
C) Psychoanalytic ideas attribute autism to brain malfunction.
D) Childhood inoculations have been proven to cause autism in some cases.

B

20) Each of the following supports a neurological basis for autism EXCEPT
A) People with autism have a high incidence of brain seizures and brain tumors.
B) Postmortem and neurological imaging studies have implicated several areas of the brain that differ from those of people without disabilities.
C) People with autism may have experienced sudden, excessive brain growth followed by a deceleration in growth.
D) Studies show that when one sibling is diagnosed with autism, the chances are much higher that another sibling has autism.

D

21) Neurological research that involves the brain and head size of people with autism strongly suggests that for many
A) their brains are larger than average at birth.
B) their brains increase in size after about age five years.
C) their brains grow suddenly and excessively in the first two years of life.
D) their brains reach maximum size around age two or three years.

C

22) Which of the following statements illustrates evidence for autism having a hereditary component?
A) "Refrigerator mothers" have been shown to have had mothers who were also "cold" and uninvolved.
B) Identical twins are much more likely to both have autism than are fraternal twins.
C) When one family member has autism, the chances are 9.3 times higher that a first cousin has autism than in the population as a whole.
D) Family members of those with autism are less likely to have a preference for routines than people in general.

B

23) Each of the following is criteria used by the APA’s DSM-5 EXCEPT
A) communication skills.
B) social interactions.
C) reading skills.
D) repetitive and stereotyped patterns of behavior.

C

24) What percentage of children with autism appears to experience autistic regression?
A) 10%
B) 33%
C) 40-50%
D) 50-75%

D

25) Each of the following is a characteristic that applies generally to individuals with autism spectrum disorder EXCEPT
A) impaired social responsiveness.
B) impaired communication.
C) stereotyped and ritualistic behavior.
D) broad range of interests.

D

26) Joint attention is the process of
A) looking at a stimulus within milliseconds of another person looking at the same stimulus.
B) anticipating another person’s focus of attention.
C) one person alerting another to a stimulus via nonverbal means, such as gazing or pointing.
D) two people using the same cues to help focus their attention.

C

27) The desire to communicate for social purposes is referred to as
A) communicative intent.
B) selective expression.
C) stereotypic behavior.
D) garrulity.

A

28) All of the following are characteristics of persons with Asperger syndrome EXCEPT
A) difficulties in thinking about situations in a nuanced way.
B) tendency to take things said to them literally.
C) tendency to interpret situations using emotion or sentiment rather than logic
D) difficulties in knowing the "dos and don’ts" of everyday living that most people learn incidentally.

C

29) Repetitive, ritualistic motor movements such as twirling, flapping hands, and rocking
A) are similar to those who are blind
B) are no longer thought to be symptoms of ASD.
C) are evident in some, but not all, children with ASD.
D) are associated with superior intelligence in children with ASD.

A

30) Which of the following statements about intelligence and autism is true?
A) Intelligence does not appear to be affected by autism.
B) About 20% of individuals with autism also have an intellectual ability
C) People with autism are unusually intelligent as a group.
D) The adult outcomes for persons with ASD are similar to those who have intellectual disabilities.

C

31) Jeremy has severe autism. He does not interact with others socially and his intellectual functioning appears to be very low. However, Jeremy has extraordinary ability as a pianist (though he is not interested in performing for other people). Which term best describes Jeremy?
A) Asperger syndrome
B) Rett syndrome
C) Autistic Savant Syndrome
D) gifted

C

32) Persons with autism savant syndrome
A) make up a rare proportion of those with ASD.
B) make up about 25% of the ASD population.
C) are more sociable than others with ASD.
D) are more likely to come from families with a high prevalence of twins.

A

33) A person whose sensory perceptions are so abnormal that he or she could appear to be deaf or blind would be
A) hyporesponsive.
B) hyperresponsive.
C) overresponsive.
D) hypersensitive.

A

34) A mixing of sensory or cognitive systems whereby stimulation of one elicits stimulation of the other is
A) mirror neurons.
B) synaesthesia.
C) hyperresponsiveness.
D) hyposensitivity.

B

35) Which of the following applies to students with ASD?
A) hidden curriculum.
B) differentiated curriculum.
C) social curriculum.
D) stepwise curriculum.

A

36) People with Asperger syndrome tend to be
A) overly literal but not logical
B) logical and able to see situations in a nuanced way
C) focused on emotion over logic, and are quite literal.
D) overly literal and focused on logic over emotion.

D

37) The way people use language in social situations is
A) communicative intent.
B) semantics.
C) pragmatics.
D) syntax.

C

38) The three most prominent theoretical frameworks that identify the major impairments attributed to autism spectrum disorders include each of the following EXCEPT
A) executive functions.
B) family systems
C) weak central coherence
D) theory of mind

B

39) Executive functions include all of the following EXCEPT
A) ability to conceptualize stimuli as a whole.
B) working memory.
C) the ability to plan ahead.
D) self-regulation of emotions.

A

40) The natural inclination for most people to bring order and meaning to information in their environment by perceiving it as a meaningful whole rather than as disparate parts is
A) lateral coherence.
B) central coherence.
C) lateral adherence.
D) central synthesis.

B

41) Jean is a young woman with Asperger syndrome. Her coworker recently lost a family member to cancer. Jean expounded on her knowledge of the cause and effects of the illness, but did not offer condolences, nor did she notice the discomfort she was causing her coworker. Jean’s inability to perceive the feelings or to understand the emotional state of her coworker is related to
A) central deconstruction theory.
B) theory of least resistance.
C) theory of mind.
D) mindfulness.

C

42) Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA) includes each of the following components EXCEPT
A) using structured lessons.
B) limited use of reinforcement.
C) focus on functional skills.
D) continuous assessment of progress.

B

43) Functional behavioral assessment is used to reduce or eliminate negative behaviors. The purposes the negative behaviors serve for a person are
A) antecedents.
B) setting events.
C) consequences.
D) quasi-negative reinforcers of the first magnitude.

C

44) Educators of students with autistic spectrum disorder are putting increasing emphasis on applying behavioral psychology in
A) structured settings and controlled environments.
B) normalized situations and normalized locations.
C) natural settings and natural interactions.
D) natural settings and in-vitro interactions.

B

45) The Picture Exchange Communication System (PECS) focuses on
A) teaching pivotal skills like motivation.
B) improving relatively severe language problems (communication).
C) teaching pivotal skills like self-management.
D) teaching reading based on phonemic awareness.

B

46) Equine therapy
A) shows promise as a way to enhance social interaction of children with ASD.
B) has been debunked as a method of helping children with ASD.
C) falls short of the criterion of "proof of concept."
D) is dangerous and should not be used for children with severe ASD.

D

47) Two critical areas of assessment for students with autism spectrum disorders are progress in
A) reading and math skills.
B) reading but not math skills.
C) math skills but not reading skills.
D) language development and social/adaptive behavior.

D

48) According to the National Research Council, each of the following is considered an essential feature of effective educational programs for preschool children with autistic spectrum disorders EXCEPT
A) entry into intervention programs as soon as diagnosis is seriously considered.
B) inclusion of a family component, including parent training.
C) low student/teacher ratios in the classroom.
D) focus on a differentiated curriculum.

D

49) In many ways, outcomes for persons with autism are similar to those with
A) learning disabilities.
B) intellectual disabilities.
C) emotional or behavioral disorders.
D) attention deficit hyperactivity disorders.

D

49) In many ways, outcomes for persons with autism are similar to those with
A) learning disabilities.
B) intellectual disabilities.
C) emotional or behavioral disorders.
D) attention deficit hyperactivity disorders.

B

1) Communication requires
A) language.
B) encoding and decoding.
C) speech.
D) listening and speaking.

B

2) Requesting objects, rejecting interactions, sharing ideas, and seeking social interaction are examples of
A) communicative function.
B) communication.
C) language.
D) expressive language.

A

3) The communication of ideas through an arbitrary system of symbols used according to certain rules that determine meaning is
A) speech.
B) language.
C) communication.
D) phonology.

B

4) Encoding, or sending messages, is referred to as
A) expressive language.
B) receptive language.
C) discourse.
D) communication.

A

5) Decoding, or understanding messages, is referred to as
A) communication.
B) expressive language.
C) discourse.
D) receptive language.

D

6) The neuromuscular activity of forming and sequencing the sounds of oral language is called
A) communication.
B) discourse.
C) speech.
D) phonology.

C

7) "Phonology" refers to linguistic rules governing
A) construction of sentences.
B) particular sounds and how they are sequenced.
C) patterns of language use.
D) construction of word forms.

B

8) The meanings and concepts people attach to words and sentences are referred to as
A) morphology.
B) pragmatics.
C) syntax.
D) semantics.

D

9) A language disorder that involves problems with functional and socially appropriate communication is
A) communication.
B) semantics.
C) speech.
D) pragmatics.

D

10) Shaunta has a speech disorder which causes her to stutter. This is a disorder of
A) articulation.
B) motor-speech.
C) voice.
D) fluency.

D

11) All of the following are examples of speech disorders EXCEPT
A) semantic disorder.
B) articulation disorder.
C) fluency disorder.
D) voice disorder.

A

12) It is difficult to estimate the prevalence of communication disorders primarily because
A) there is so much overlap with other categories of disability.
B) schools do not maintain accurate records in this area.
C) many parents are reluctant to allow their children to receive speech and language services.
D) definitions of communication disorders vary so much from state to state.

A

13) Approximately what percentage of children identified for special education receives services primarily for speech or language disorders?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 20%

D

14) Approximately what percentage of preschool-age students is thought to have a speech disorder?
A) 1%
B) 8-9%
C) 15%
D) 20%

B

15) Approximately what percentage of the school-age population is thought to have a language disorder?
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 20%

A

16) Which one of the following is the best example of a language variation?
A) Appalachian English
B) acquired aphasia
C) stuttering
D) American Sign Language

A

17) Which of the following statements about communication variations is true?
A) If a student does not use the language expected in school, she or he has a language disorder.
B) Someone with a language difference who also has difficulty communicating even in his or her home language community.
C) Children of nondominant cultures should not be expected to learn the rules for effective communication in the dominant culture.
D) Professionals no longer have a problem of bias in normative tests of language assessment.

B

18) Which statement is true concerning the comparison between the language of a normally developing child and one with a language disorder?
A) The sequence of development is similar, but milestones are reached at later years by the child with a disorder.
B) The sequence of development is different, but milestones are reached at around the same ages.
C) The sequence of development is different, and milestones are reached later by the child with a disorder.
D) There is no developmental difference; they just sound different.

A

19) Many children do not learn to produce all speech sounds correctly until they
A) are 18 months old.
B) are 3 years old.
C) are 8-9 years old.
D) leave high school (16-18 years old).

C

20) The theory that language depends on brain development and proper brain functioning and that language disorders resulting from brain dysfunction can sometimes be compensated for is the theory of
A) biological maturation.
B) behavioral psychology.
C) information processing.
D) cognitive development.

A

21) The social interaction, or pragmatic, theory of language development suggests that
A) comprehending language is more important than producing language.
B) language is taught by direct instruction and arrangement of consequences.
C) language development is easily separated from social and cognitive development.
D) the natural environment may be arranged to teach more effective language.

D

22) At present, which theory of communication is considered to have the most direct implications for speech-language pathologists and teachers?
A) cognitive development
B) pragmatic or social interaction
C) behavioral psychology
D) biological maturation

B

23) Language disorders are generally classified according to two dimensions:
A) domain and etiology.
B) primary and secondary causes.
C) phonology and cause.
D) specific impairment and expressive delay.

A

24) Each of the following statements about classification of language disorders is true EXCEPT
A) If by age 2 years a child is not using two-word utterances, he might be considered to have early expressive language delay (EELD).
B) About half the children whose language development is delayed at age 2 will gradually catch up developmentally.
C) A significant percentage of the children who show language impairments in kindergarten will have obvious reading problems by second grade.
D) Difficulty in using language in social interactions and relationships is an exclusive feature of secondary language disorders.

D

25) Specific language impairment refers to
A) language disorders resulting from learning disabilities.
B) language disorders with no identifiable cause.
C) language disorders occurring concomitantly with other disorders.
D) language disorders resulting from mental retardation.

B

26) An example of a primary language disorder is a/an
A) phonological disorder.
B) articulation disorder.
C) early expressive language delay.
D) fluency disorder.

C

27) A failure of the child to understand the rules for producing the sounds of their language at an age-appropriate level and in a culturally appropriate way represents
A) phonological disorders.
B) articulation disorders.
C) voice disorders.
D) developmental apraxia.

A

28) Articulation disorders
A) are easily distinguished.
B) are genetically based.
C) have no known causes.
D) involve errors in sound production.

D

29) Which one of the following is an articulation disorder?
A) lisping
B) stuttering
C) aphasia
D) mutism

A

30) The dimensions of voice are
A) resonance, pitch, and tone.
B) resonance, loudness, and quality.
C) pitch, loudness, and quality.
D) resonance, pitch, and quality.

C

31) Causes of voice disorders include all of the following EXCEPT
A) hearing loss.
B) cleft palate.
C) chicken pox.
D) nodules.

C

32) The most frequent type of fluency disorder is
A) stuttering.
B) acquired aphasia.
C) echolalia.
D) dysarthria.

A

33) What percentage of children and adults are considered stutterers?
A) 1%
B) 2%
C) 5%
D) 8%

A

34) Due to a brain injury, Ethan has difficulty selecting and sequencing speech. He knows he makes errors and what he wants to say, but simply cannot. Henry’s condition is
A) dysarthria.
B) stuttering.
C) acquired apraxia.
D) acquired aphasia.

C

35) A disorder due to brain damage that affects a person’s respiratory support for making speech sounds is
A) apraxia.
B) echolalia.
C) dysarthria.
D) aphasia.

C

36) The primary role of the classroom teacher is to facilitate development of which aspect of language?
A) phonology
B) semantics
C) pragmatics
D) morphology

C

37) Which one of the following is an example of an alternative question-asking strategy?
A) focusing on student-initiated questions
B) reducing the complexity of a question
C) increasing interaction between student and teacher so both members ask and answer questions
D) creating several questions with synonymous meaning

B

38) Students with communication disorders may have trouble with stories about ideas or events they have experienced or thought about, called
A) autobiographical narratives.
B) personal essays.
C) first-person accounts.
D) personal narratives.

D

39) The ability to transfer written words into speech is
A) phonology.
B) decoding.
C) encoding.
D) reading.

B

40) All of the following are guidelines that teachers and parents can follow when talking with children with speech and language disorders EXCEPT
A) Lead the discussion.
B) Talk about things the child is interested in.
C) Allow enough time for the child to respond.
D) Do not interrupt the student.

A

41) Which of the following statements about written language development is true?
A) Written language and literacy are not usually problems for students with speech and language disorders.
B) As students progress throughout the grades, written language takes on increasing importance.
C) Students with language disorders tend to express themselves clearly in writing.
D) Mastering the alphabetic system is not part of written language instruction.

B

42) Methods of progress monitoring that involve a cycle of teaching, followed by testing, and then reteaching as necessary are
A) dynamic assessments.
B) curriculum-based language and communication assessment.
C) curriculum-based management.
D) response to intervention.

A

43) All of the following are examples of functional speech language activities EXCEPT
A) developing appropriate conversation skills.
B) using private transportation.
C) following instructions.
D) performing a job.

B

44) Much of a child’s language and social development depend on two characteristics of language interaction the child has with caregivers. What are the characteristics?
A) nature and quantity of the language
B) quality and variety of the language
C) variety and resonance of the language
D) loudness and functionality of the language

A

45) Jeremy is a four-year-old boy who makes infantile noises and uses gestures to request objects. He displays
A) articulation problems.
B) acquired aphasia.
C) prelinguistic communication.
D) syntactic dysfunction.

C

46) Which procedure most closely resembles "milieu teaching?"
A) Fiona requests a ball from her teacher who asks "What do you want to do with the ball?" The teacher gives Fiona the ball only when she replies to the question.
B) Fiona requests a ball from her teacher who says "There are fun things to do with a ball!" The teacher then gives Fiona the ball.
C) Fiona requests a ball from her teacher who asks "What do you want to do with the ball?" The teacher waits five seconds, then gives Fiona the ball whether she replies to the question or not.
D) Fiona’s teacher tells her to play with a ball, then observes her playing and waits for opportunities to interact verbally with her.

A

47) Ideally, the earliest intervention in the area of speech and language development, if needed, should begin
A) during the first few months of life.
B) between the ages of 12 and 18 months.
C) when the child is of preschool age.
D) in kindergarten.

A

48) Jennie is a preschooler with delayed language development. Language intervention at this level generally focuses on
A) articulation.
B) verb forms and plurals.
C) discourse.
D) concept development.

C

49) Each of the following statements about adolescents and adults with speech and language problems is true EXCEPT
A) They might refer themselves to a speech-language pathologist because of social embarrassment.
B) The loss of the ability to speak is typically more disabling than the loss of the ability to use language.
C) People with severe disabilities may need to be taught an alternative to oral language or be given an augmentative communication system.
D) There may be problems settings realistic goals for speech and language learning.

B

50) Which condition reduces the effectiveness of strategy training for adolescents with speech and language disorders?
A) use of natural group settings
B) emphasis on vocational goals
C) poor reading skills
D) involvement of peers

C