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1. The respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute in an infant is ________.
Select one:
A. normal
B. too fast
C. too shallow
D. too slow
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A
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2. Children of which age group are considered toddlers?
Select one:
A. Over 6 years
B. 1 month to 1 year
C. 1-3 years
D. 3-6 years
|
C
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3. Which of the following describes the Moro reflex?
Select one:
A. When something touches a neonate’s cheek, he or she instinctively turns his or her head toward the touch.
B. The neonate opens his or her arms wide, spreads his or her fingers, and seems to grasp at something after being startled.
C. An infant’s heart rate decreases secondary to hypoxia because he or she depends heavily on the heart rate to perfuse the body.
D. When the sole of the foot is stroked with a blunt object, the big toe lifts upward and the other toes fan outward.
|
B
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4. Which of the following is NOT a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient’s vital signs?
Select one:
A. Medications
B. Increased weight
C. Medical conditions
D. Overall health
|
B
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5. Atherosclerosis is defined as ________.
Select one:
A. dilation of the arteries
B. the buildup of plaque inside blood vessels
C. constriction of the blood vessels
D. the blockage of a coronary artery
|
D
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6. When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. the majority of older patients experience a loss of low-frequency hearing.
B. age-related changes diminish the effectiveness of the eyes and ears.
C. most older patients are confused due to a decrease in brain cells.
D. deafness and blindness are a normal part of the process of aging.
|
B
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7. The average pulse rate of persons between 19 and 60 years of age is typically:
Select one:
A. 80 beats/min.
B. 90 beats/min.
C. 70 beats/min.
D. 60 beats/min.
|
C
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8. The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to:
Select one:
A. blood vessel dilation.
B. meningeal deterioration.
C. shrinkage of the brain.
D. a decrease in neurons.
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C
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9. A normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is between:
Select one:
A. 80 and 120 mm Hg.
B. 90 and 140 mm Hg.
C. 70 and 140 mm Hg.
D. 60 and 120 mm Hg.
|
B
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10. In preconventional reasoning, children:
Select one:
A. act almost purely to avoid punishment and to get what they want.
B. look for approval from their peers and society.
C. make decisions based on their conscience.
D. blame their actions on what they have observed in older children.
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A
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11. In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include:
Select one:
A. increased stability from a wider wheelbase.
B. a collapsible undercarriage.
C. weight capacity of up to 650 lb.
D. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher.
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A
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12. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should:
Select one:
A. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient’s head.
B. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag.
C. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient.
D. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.
|
A
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13. Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard?
Select one:
A. Joint flexibility
B. Abnormal spinal curvature
C. Naturally deformed bones
D. Patient disorientation
|
B
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14. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury?
Select one:
A. Scoop stretcher
B. Portable stretcher
C. Wheeled stretcher
D. Long backboard
|
D
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15. Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is?
Select one:
A. The patient is dragged against the body’s long axis during an emergency move.
B. The spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing an emergency move.
C. An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.
D. It is not possible to perform an emergency move without injuring the patient.
|
C
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16. The proper technique for using the power grip is to:
Select one:
A. position your hands about 6² apart.
B. rotate your palms down.
C. hold the handle with your fingers.
D. lift with your palms up.
|
D
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17. Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is ?
Select one:
A. Most of the patient’s weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher.
B. The majority of a horizontal patient’s weight is in the torso.
C. A semi-sitting patient’s weight is equally distributed on both ends.
D. The EMT at the patient’s head will bear the least amount of weight.
|
B
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18. The _________ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.
Select one:
A. thorax
B. sacrum
C. ischium
D. coccyx
|
B
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19. It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.
Select one:
A. incinerate
B. properly store
C. decontaminate
D. throw out
|
C
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20. As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should:
Select one:
A. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards.
B. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient.
C. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs.
D. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance.
|
D
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21. A palpable pulse is created by:
Select one:
A. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.
B. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.
C. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart.
D. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries.
|
B
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22. Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:
Select one:
A. area hospitals have been notified.
B. the number of patients is known.
C. a physician arrives at the scene.
D. all the patients have been triaged.
|
D
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23. The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
Select one:
A. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
B. most life-threatening condition that you discover.
C. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment.
D. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.
|
A
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24. Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?
Select one:
A. Poisoning
B. Inadequate perfusion
C. Acute anxiety
D. Drug overdose
|
C
|
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25. When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to:
Select one:
A. become larger.
B. become smaller.
C. not react.
D. dilate.
|
B
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26. An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score?
Select one:
A. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension
B. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
C. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion
D. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain
|
B
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27. A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should:
Select one:
A. ensure that his airway is patent.
B. elevate his legs and keep him warm.
C. apply direct pressure to the wound.
D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.
|
C
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28. You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should:
Select one:
A. direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured.
B. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.
C. document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient.
D. immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance.During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
|
B
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29. During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
Select one:
A. before you load the patient into the ambulance.
B. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.
C. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.
D. immediately after completion of your primary assessment.
|
C
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30.Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is ?
Select one:
A. A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment.
B. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient’s condition.
C. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.
D. During the secondary assessment, the EMT’s primary focus should be on taking the patient’s vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history.
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C
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31. Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position?
Select one:
A. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
B. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations
C. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume
D. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations
|
A
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32. You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving?
Select one:
A. 75%
B. 55%
C. 45%
D. 65%
|
B
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33. A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient’s medical history is not known. The patient’s face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?
Select one:
A. His extremities are cold
B. Increased body temperature
C. Carbon monoxide poisoning
D. Severe pulmonary edema
|
C
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34. Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-valve mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse?
Select one:
A. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag
B. Twenty breaths/min being delivered to the adult
C. Decreased compliance when squeezing the bag
D. Consistently increasing heart rate
|
A
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35. The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it:
Select one:
A. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly.
B. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest.
C. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.
D. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex.
|
C
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36. The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:
Select one:
A. ventilation.
B. diffusion.
C. oxygenation.
D. respiration.
|
A
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37. What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly?
Select one:
A. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
B. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate.
C. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.
D. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations.
|
C
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38. Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?
Select one:
A. Larynx
B. Oropharynx
C. Bronchus
D. Pharynx
|
C
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39. Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is ?
Select one:
A. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.
B. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.
C. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position.
D. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure.
|
A
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40. Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is ?
Select one:
A. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
B. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries.
C. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide.
D. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.
|
A
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41. By ________ to 24 months, toddlers begin to understand cause and effect.
|
18
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42. What is "vital capacity"?
Select one:
A. The volume of air moved during the deepest points of respiration
B. The maximum thickness of the meninges
C. The amount of air left in the lungs following exhalation
D. The volume of blood moved by each contraction of the heart
|
A
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43. In toddlers, the pulse rate is _______ beats/min.
|
90-150 BPM
|
|
44. Work, family, and stress best describe the life stage known as:
Select one:
A. middle adulthood.
B. late adulthood.
C. early adulthood.
D. adolescence.
|
C
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45. An infant’s lungs are fragile, and providing bag-valve mask ventilations that are too forceful can result in trauma from pressure, or _______.
|
Barotrauma
|
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46. _______ is used for patients with no suspected spinal injury who are found lying supine on the ground.
|
Direct Ground Lift
|
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47. When pulling a patient, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. reposition your feet so that the force of pull will be balanced equally.
B. pull the patient by slowly flexing your arms.
C. when you can pull no farther, lean forward another 15 to 20 inches (38 to 50 cm).
D. extend your arms no more than about 15 to 20 inches (38 to 50 cm).
|
C
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48. You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than _____ pounds with fewer than four rescuers, regardless of individual strength.
|
250
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49. You should perform an urgent move in all of the following situations, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. if a patient has an altered level of consciousness.
B. in extreme weather conditions.
C. if a patient has inadequate ventilation or shock.
D. if the patient is complaining of neck pain.
|
D
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50. The _____ may be especially helpful when the patient is in a very narrow space or when there is not enough room for the patient and a team of EMTs to stand side by side.
|
Extremity Lift
|
|
51. When there are low levels of oxygen in the blood, the lips and mucous membranes appear blue or gray. This condition is called:
Select one:
A. ashen.
B. cyanosis.
C. jaundice.
D. pallor.
|
B
|
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52. _____ is the circulation of blood within an organ or tissue.
|
Perfusion
|
|
53. For children younger than 1 year old, you should palpate the _____ artery when assessing the pulse.
Select one:
A. femoral
B. carotid
C. radial
D. brachial
|
D
|
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54. The scene size-up consists of all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. determining level of responsiveness.
B. using personal protective equipment (PPE) and standard precautions.
C. determining the mechanism of injury.
D. requesting additional assistance.
|
A
|
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55. Skin that is cool, clammy, and pale in your primary assessment typically indicates _____.
|
Hyperfusion
|
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56. Matching
|
…
|
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57. You respond to a construction site and find a worker lying supine in the dirt. He has been hit by a heavy construction vehicle and flew more than 15 feet (4.6 m) before landing in his current position. There is discoloration and distention of his abdomen about the right upper quadrant. He is unconscious and his respirations are 10 breaths/min and shallow, with noisy gurgling sounds. What method will you use to keep his airway open?
Select one:
A. Nasal cannula
B. Jaw thrust
C. Oropharyngeal airway
D. All of these answers are .
|
C
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58. You come upon an unresponsive patient who is not injured and is breathing on her own with a normal rate and an adequate tidal volume. What would be the advantage of placing her in the recovery position?
Select one:
A. It’s easier to load the patient onto the cot from this position.
B. It helps to protect the patient’s cervical spine when injuries are hidden.
C. It helps to maintain a clear airway.
D. It’s the preferred position of comfort for patients.
|
C
|
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59. While assisting with respirations, you note gastric distention. In order to prevent or alleviate the distention, you should:
Select one:
A. ensure that the patient’s airway is appropriately positioned.
B. ventilate the patient at the appropriate rate.
C. ventilate the patient at the appropriate volume.
D. All of these answers are .
|
D
|
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60. The proper technique for sizing an oropharyngeal airway before insertion is to measure the device from:
Select one:
A. the center of the jaw to the earlobe.
B. the bridge of the nose to the tip of the chin.
C. the corner of the mouth to the earlobe.
D. the tip of the nose to the earlobe.
|
C
|
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61. Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age?
Select one:
A. Decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels
B. Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels
C. Decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production
D. Increased physical activity, increased food intake, and increased insulin production
|
C
|
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62. You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will MOST likely find that she:
Select one:
A. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother.
B. is unable to track your movements with her eyes.
C. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration.
D. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence.
|
D
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63. In late adults, the amount of air left in the lungs after expiration of the maximum amount of air:
Select one:
A. remains unchanged because the lungs have become accustomed to years of breathing pollution.
B. decreases, resulting in widespread collapsing of the alveoli and impaired diffusion of gases.
C. increases, which hampers diffusion of gases because of the stagnant air that remains in the alveoli.
D. decreases, which increases diffusion in the lungs and causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide.
|
C
|
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64. Which of the following statements regarding an infant’s vital signs is ?
Select one:
A. An infant’s normal heart rate increases by 10 beats/min each month.
B. An infant’s normal body temperature is typically higher than a preschooler’s.
C. An infant’s heart rate generally ranges between 70 and 110 beats/min.
D. By 6 months of age, an infant’s normal tidal volume is 2 to 4 mL/kg.
|
B
|
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65. Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant?
Select one:
A. Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance
B. Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions
C. Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently
D. Places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up
|
D
|
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66. The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is MOST often related to:
Select one:
A. kidney failure.
B. hypotension.
C. atherosclerosis.
D. medication use.
|
C
|
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67. At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
Select one:
A. 24 to 36 months
B. 10 to 18 months
C. 18 to 24 months
D. 6 to 8 months
|
B
|
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68. Age-related changes in the renal system result in:
Select one:
A. dilation of the blood vessels that supply the nephrons, which allows the kidneys to maintain their function.
B. a decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.
C. a significant increase in filtration, which causes the excretion of large amounts of water from the body.
D. the formation of large amounts of urine secondary to an increase in kidney mass of up to 20%.
|
B
|
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69. The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of:
Select one:
A. 7 and 14 months.
B. 9 and 18 months.
C. 3 and 4 months.
D. 6 and 8 months.
|
B
|
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70. Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. decreased residual volume.
B. increased surface area available for air exchange.
C. a loss of respiratory muscle mass.
D. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage.
|
B
|
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71. The direct carry is used to transfer a patient:
Select one:
A. with multiple long bone injuries.
B. who cannot be placed on a backboard.
C. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
D. with a possible cervical spine injury.
|
C
|
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72. In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by:
Select one:
A. slightly lifting the stretcher to prevent unnecessary patient movement.
B. pushing the foot of the stretcher while your partner guides the head.
C. pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot.
D. retracting the undercarriage and carrying the stretcher to the ambulance.
|
C
|
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73. You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your MOST appropriate action?
Select one:
A. Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients.
B. Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients.
C. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.
D. Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence.
|
C
|
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74. Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is NOT ?
Select one:
A. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her.
B. Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used.
C. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient’s spinal column.
D. The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it.
|
C
|
|
75. When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:
Select one:
A. the use of more than two EMTs.
B. flexing your body at the knees.
C. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.
D. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher.
|
C
|
|
76. The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient:
Select one:
A. with a deformed humerus.
B. who complains of nausea.
C. with forearm lacerations.
D. without a spinal injury.
|
A
|
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77. An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should:
Select one:
A. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device.
B. maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes.
C. slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally.
D. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar.
|
A
|
|
78. In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the MOST appropriate method of moving a patient?
Select one:
A. An unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke
B. A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain
C. A pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car
D. A patient who complains of hip pain following a fall
|
B
|
|
79. You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 lb with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength.
Select one:
A. five
B. three
C. four
D. six
|
C
|
|
80. Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital.
B. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle.
C. a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position.
D. a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient.
|
B
|
|
81. Your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. This means that you will:
Select one:
A. ventilate with a bag-valve mask that is not attached to oxygen.
B. time your positive-pressure ventilations to occur during chest recoil.
C. deliver positive-pressure ventilation at rate of only 5 or 6 breaths/min.
D. allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs.
|
D
|
|
82. Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is ?
Select one:
A. In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very quickly.
B. Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the exchange of gases.
C. In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation.
D. Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quickly ascend to an altitude of lower atmospheric pressure.
|
C
|
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83. You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-valve mask. She has dentures, which are tight fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient’s oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should:
Select one:
A. leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction.
B. attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations.
C. remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations.
D. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise.
|
D
|
|
84. Complications associated with using a manually triggered ventilation device include:
Select one:
A. inadequate oxygenation and tracheal injury.
B. reduced tidal volume delivery and hypoxia.
C. inadequate ventilation and hypercarbia.
D. lung tissue injury and gastric distention.
|
D
|
|
85. While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should:
Select one:
A. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.
B. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can.
C. place him in a supine position and open his airway.
D. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him.
|
A
|
|
86. A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when:
Select one:
A. ventilation is compromised, resulting in the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, alveoli, and the tissues and cells of the body.
B. a traumatic injury or medical condition impairs the body’s ability to effectively bring oxygen into the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body.
C. ventilation is inadequate due to a traumatic injury or medical condition, which results in an impairment in pulmonary gas exchange.
D. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen
|
D
|
|
87. The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi).
Select one:
A. 500
B. 1,000
C. 2,000
D. 3,000
|
C
|
|
88. While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should:
Select one:
A. increase the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering.
B. remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-valve mask.
C. remove the CPAP device and apply oxygen by nonrebreathing mask.
D. decrease the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering.
|
B
|
|
89. The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is:
Select one:
A. adenosine triphosphate.
B. lactic acid.
C. carbon dioxide.
D. pyruvic acid.
|
C
|
|
90. Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-valve mask technique is ?
Select one:
A. The bag-valve mask delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique.
B. Bag-valve mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person.
C. The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-valve mask.
D. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-valve mask.
|
D
|
|
91. An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will:
Select one:
A. exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs.
B. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.
C. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing.
D. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min.
|
B
|
|
92. When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the:
Select one:
A. diastolic blood pressure.
B. systolic blood pressure.
C. cardiac output pressure.
D. pulse pressure.
|
B
|
|
93. A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should:
Select one:
A. apply a pressure dressing to the patient’s arm.
B. apply a cervical collar and suction his airway.
C. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver.
D. tilt the patient’s head back and lift up on his chin.
|
C
|
|
94. Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is seen MOST commonly in pediatric patients?
Select one:
A. Rapid respirations
B. Seesaw breathing
C. Accessory muscle use
D. Pursed-lip breathing
|
B
|
|
95. When assessing a patient’s abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. open wounds or eviscerations.
B. gross bleeding and tenderness.
C. rigidity and obvious bleeding.
D. subcutaneous emphysema.
|
D
|
|
96. Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway?
Select one:
A. Rhonchi
B. Rales
C. Stridor
D. Crackles
|
C
|
|
97. When you assess capillary refill time in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within:
Select one:
A. 4 seconds.
B. 3 seconds.
C. 2 seconds.
D. 1 second.
|
C
|
|
98. If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient whose collapse was not witnessed, you should:
Select one:
A. assess for adequate breathing.
B. immediately begin CPR.
C. palpate at another pulse site.
D. apply an AED at once.
|
B
|
|
99. When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note that it has a bluish tint to it. This finding is called:
Select one:
A. cyanosis.
B. flushing.
C. mottling.
D. pallor.
|
A
|
|
100. Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in toddlers and _______ breaths per minute in infants.
Select one:
A. 30, 40
B. 18, 28
C. 40, 60
D. 20, 30
|
C
|
|
101. Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse?
Select one:
A. Avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure.
B. Use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating.
C. Apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers.
D. Place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point.
|
D
|
|
102. Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be:
Select one:
A. pale, cool, and moist.
B. pink, warm, and dry.
C. flushed, cool, and dry.
D. pink, warm, and moist.
|
B
|
|
103. You should gently palpate a patient’s pelvis only if:
Select one:
A. you note gross deformity to the pelvic area.
B. the possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out.
C. the patient does not complain of pelvic pain.
D. the MOI suggests significant trauma to the pelvis.
|
C
|
|
104. When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then:
Select one:
A. transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.
B. conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age.
C. apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm.
D. document your findings and perform a detailed assessment.
|
A
|
|
105. The "Golden Hour" begins when an injury occurs and ends when:
Select one:
A. the patient is admitted to the ICU.
B. you arrive at the emergency department.
C. the patient receives definitive care.
D. you depart the scene for the hospital.
|
C
|
|
106. When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by:
Select one:
A. using medical terminology whenever possible.
B. repeating statements back to him or her.
C. maintaining constant eye contact with him or her.
D. interrupting him or her as needed for clarification.
|
B
|
|
107. Capnography is used to:
Select one:
A. trend a patient’s blood pressure and assess for shock.
B. assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin.
C. determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.
D. assess how much oxygen is reaching the body’s tissues.
|
C
|
|
108. A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is:
Select one:
A. mottled and cool.
B. pale and moist.
C. flushed and red.
D. cyanotic and dry.
|
C
|
|
109. Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway?
Select one:
A. Forceful coughing
B. Inspiratory stridor
C. Audible breathing
D. Unresponsiveness
|
A
|
|
110. A 50-year-old male presents with altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" three years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen if needed, you should:
Select one:
A. repeat the primary assessment.
B. prepare for immediate transport.
C. inquire about his family history.
D. perform a head-to-toe assessment.
|
B
|
