|
The spinal cord exits the cranium through the:
Select one:
A. cauda equina.
B. foramen lamina.
C. vertebral foramen.
D. foramen magnum.
|
D
|
|
The mental status of a patient who has experienced a generalized seizure:
Select one:
A. is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia.
B. typically does not improve, even after several minutes.
C. is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes.
D. progressively worsens over a period of a few hours.
|
C
|
|
The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the:
Select one:
A. cerebral cortex.
B. brain stem.
C. cerebrum.
D. cerebellum.
|
B
|
|
When transporting a stable stroke patient with a paralyzed extremity, place the patient in a:
Select one:
A. recumbent position with the paralyzed side up.
B. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down.
C. supine position with the legs elevated 6 feet to 12 feet.
D. sitting position with the head at a 45° to 90° angle.
|
B
|
|
You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should:
Select one:
A. insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport.
B. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask.
C. administer one tube of oral glucose and transport.
D. suction her oropharynx and transport immediately.
|
D
|
|
You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should:
Select one:
A. obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia.
B. assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis.
C. perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED.
D. initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible.
|
D
|
|
You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should:
Select one:
A. instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test.
B. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient’s arms into position yourself.
C. defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech.
D. repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward.
|
B
|
|
A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when:
Select one:
A. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours.
B. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage.
C. a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms.
D. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot.
|
C
|
|
Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the:
Select one:
A. kidneys.
B. pancreas.
C. liver.
D. brain.
|
C
|
|
You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes valproate (Depakote) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to administering oxygen, you should:
Select one:
A. place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren.
B. administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport.
C. give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity.
D. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level.
|
D
|
|
Functions of the liver include:
Select one:
A. absorption of nutrients and toxins.
B. release of amylase, which breaks down starches into sugar.
C. production of hormones that regulate blood sugar levels.
D. secretion of bile and filtration of toxic substances.
|
D
|
|
Injury to a hollow abdominal organ would MOST likely result in:
Select one:
A. profound shock due to severe internal bleeding.
B. impairment in the blood’s clotting abilities.
C. leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity.
D. pain secondary to blood in the peritoneum.
|
C
|
|
Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies?
Select one:
A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Kidney
|
C
|
|
A strangulated hernia is one that:
Select one:
A. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.
B. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention.
C. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs.
D. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours.
|
A
|
|
In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum:
Select one:
A. lines the walls of the abdominal cavity and is stimulated when the solid abdominal organs contract.
B. is supplied by the same nerves from the spinal cord that supply the skin of the abdomen.
C. is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation.
D. is less likely to become inflamed or infected because it lines the abdominal organs themselves.
|
C
|
|
Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured?
Select one:
A. Gallbladder
B. Stomach
C. Liver
D. Appendix
|
C
|
|
The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:
Select one:
A. accommodating a large amount of blood volume.
B. removing sodium and water from the body.
C. eliminating toxic waste products from the body.
D. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium.
|
B
|
|
The parietal peritoneum lines the:
Select one:
A. retroperitoneal space.
B. walls of the abdominal cavity.
C. lungs and chest cavity.
D. surface of the abdominal organs.
|
B
|
|
Solid abdominal organs include the:
Select one:
A. urinary bladder, colon, and ureters.
B. stomach and small intestine.
C. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas.
D. gallbladder and large intestine.
|
C
|
|
The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock is:
Select one:
A. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion.
B. transporting the patient without delay.
C. administering high-flow oxygen.
D. positioning the patient on his or her side.
|
B
|
|
You respond to a residence for a patient who is "not acting right." As you approach the door, the patient, a 35-year-old male, begins shouting profanities at you and your partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic, and is wearing a medical identification bracelet. You should:
Select one:
A. contact medical control for instructions.
B. calm him down so you can assess him.
C. be assertive and talk the patient down.
D. retreat at once and call law enforcement.
|
D
|
|
Ketone production is the result of:
Select one:
A. rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane.
B. acidosis when blood glucose levels are low.
C. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable.
D. blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/dL.
|
C
|
|
o which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?
Select one:
A. A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting
B. A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex
C. An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin
D. A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor
|
D
|
|
Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is:
Select one:
A. attempting to eliminate acids from the blood.
B. trying to generate energy by breathing deeply.
C. severely hypoxic and is eliminating excess CO2.
D. compensating for decreased blood glucose levels.
|
A
|
|
Common signs and symptoms of severe hyperglycemia include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. warm, dry skin.
B. rapid, thready pulse.
C. cool, clammy skin.
D. acetone breath odor.
|
C
|
|
Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes?
Select one:
A. Weight loss and polyuria
B. Weight gain and edema
C. Low blood glucose level
D. Total lack of appetite
|
A
|
|
When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes, it would be MOST important to determine:
Select one:
A. approximately how much water the patient drank that day.
B. if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions.
C. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress.
D. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin.
|
C
|
|
When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:
Select one:
A. rate and depth of breathing.
B. rate of the patient’s pulse.
C. patient’s mental status.
D. presence of a medical identification tag.
|
A
|
|
When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for:
Select one:
A. 15 seconds.
B. 5 seconds.
C. 20 seconds.
D. 10 seconds.
|
D
|
|
Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should:
Select one:
A. properly dispose of the syringe.
B. notify medical control of your action.
C. record the time and dose given.
D. reassess the patient’s vital signs.
|
A
|
|
Common side effects of epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. headache.
B. drowsiness.
C. tachycardia.
D. dizziness.
|
B
|
|
Which of the following physiologic actions does epinephrine produce when given for an allergic reaction?
Select one:
A. Vasoconstriction and bronchodilation
B. Blocking of further histamine release
C. Bronchoconstriction and vasoconstriction
D. Bronchodilation and vasodilation
|
A
|
|
You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should:
Select one:
A. crush up an antihistamine tablet and place it in between her cheek and gum.
B. monitor her en route to the hospital and call medical control if she worsens.
C. administer a nebulized bronchodilator to improve the status of her breathing.
D. request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine.
|
D
|
|
Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when:
Select one:
A. a paramedic is present at the scene.
B. wheezing and hypotension are present.
C. the patient is anxious and tachycardic.
D. the reaction produces severe urticarial.
|
B
|
|
Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately?
Select one:
A. Diffuse urticaria
B. Upper airway swelling
C. Severe hypotension
D. Systemic vasodilation
|
B
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding epinephrine administration via the intramuscular (IM) route is correct?
Select one:
A. The 1:1000 concentration should be used.
B. The maximum single adult dose is 0.15 mg.
C. The IM route should not be used in children.
D. The preferred injection site is the upper arm.
|
A
|
|
A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called:
Select one:
A. urticaria.
B. a pustule.
C. a wheal.
D. purpura.
|
C
|
|
Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting:
Select one:
A. the body’s immune system deactivates the bee’s venom.
B. the toxicity of the venom decreases within 10 minutes.
C. the stinger should quickly be removed with tweezers.
D. it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes.
|
D
|
|
Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke?
Select one:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypovolemia
C. Intracranial bleeding
D. A postictal state
|
B
|
|
The left cerebral hemisphere controls:
Select one:
A. the right side of the body.
B. breathing and blood pressure.
C. heart rate and pupil reaction.
D. the right side of the face.
|
A
|
|
Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke?
Select one:
A. A postictal state
B. Intracranial bleeding
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypovolemia
|
D
|
|
When you are obtaining medical history from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine:
Select one:
A. when the patient last appeared normal.
B. if the patient has been hospitalized before.
C. the patient’s overall medication compliance.
D. if there is a family history of a stroke.
|
A
|
|
The three major parts of the brain are the:
Select one:
A. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord.
B. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput.
C. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.
D. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord.
|
C
|
|
A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped before you arrived at the scene. The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to disagree with his refusal of transport?
Select one:
A. He is currently not prescribed any medications
B. His wife states that this was his "usual" seizure
C. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15
D. He has experienced seizures since he was 20
|
A
|
|
Which of the following symptoms would lead the EMT to believe that a patient’s headache is caused by sinus congestion?
Select one:
A. There is numbness in the extremities
B. The headache began suddenly
C. There is associated neck stiffness
D. The pain is worse when bending over
|
D
|
|
You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should:
Select one:
A. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route.
B. cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula.
C. advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day.
D. call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin.
|
A
|
|
When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:
Select one:
A. an acute stroke.
B. a seizure.
C. respiratory distress.
D. a febrile convulsion.
|
B
|
|
Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure?
Select one:
A. Hyperventilation and hypersalivation
B. A gradually decreasing level of consciousness
C. Confusion and fatigue
D. A rapidly improving level of consciousness
|
C
|
|
Your patient opens his eyes, moans, and pulls away from you when you pinch his trapezius muscle. You should assign a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of:
Select one:
A. 9.
B. 6.
C. 8.
D. 7.
|
C
|
|
A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing:
Select one:
A. paraplegia.
B. dysarthria.
C. dysphagia.
D. aphasia.
|
B
|
|
During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should:
Select one:
A. immediately determine the patient’s blood glucose level.
B. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke.
C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations.
D. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed.
|
D
|
|
Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. a thrombus.
B. cerebral vasodilation.
C. an acute arterial rupture.
D. an embolism.
|
B
|
|
You are caring for a 68-year-old man with sudden onset of left-sided paralysis and slurred speech. His airway is patent, his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth, and his oxygen saturation is 98%. Treatment for this patient should include:
Select one:
A. recovery position and transport.
B. high-flow oxygen and transport.
C. oral glucose gel and transport.
D. ventilatory assistance and transport.
|
A
|
|
The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:
Select one:
A. severe stress.
B. heavy exertion.
C. hypertension.
D. diabetes mellitus.
|
C
|
|
A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:
Select one:
A. has bleeding within the brain.
B. has a GCS score that is less than 8.
C. has had a prior heart attack.
D. is older than 60 years of age.
|
A
|
|
When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should:
Select one:
A. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment.
B. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down.
C. observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes.
D. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient’s side.
|
A
|
|
A patient with an altered mental status is:
Select one:
A. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus.
B. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.
C. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli.
D. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events.
|
B
|
|
Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure?
Select one:
A. A seizure that begins in one extremity
B. A seizure that is not preceded by an aura
C. A seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly
D. A generalized seizure without incontinence
|
A
|
|
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?
Select one:
A. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere
B. Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe
C. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest
D. Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe
|
C
|
|
Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called:
Select one:
A. referred pain.
B. remote pain.
C. radiating pain.
D. visceral pain.
|
A
|
|
A 59-year-old male presents with sudden-onset severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should:
Select one:
A. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once.
B. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication.
C. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity.
D. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.
|
D
|
|
A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain?
Select one:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Gallbladder
|
A
|
|
Which of the following is correct about the secondary assessment for a high-priority patient?
Select one:
A. The secondary assessment must be performed prior to transport.
B. Never perform a secondary assessment on a high-priority patient.
C. Never contact medical direction before completing the secondary assessment.
D. You may not have time to complete a secondary assessment.
|
D
|
|
Peritonitis may result in shock because:
Select one:
A. intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present.
B. abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions.
C. severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature.
D. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues.
|
D
|
|
Which of the following may help reduce your patient’s nausea?
Select one:
A. Low-flow oxygen
B. Positive-pressure ventilation
C. Oral glucose
D. Cricoid pressure
|
A
|
|
Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:
Select one:
A. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles.
B. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position.
C. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.
D. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent.
|
C
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?
Select one:
A. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver.
B. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated.
C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
D. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.
|
C
|
|
When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should:
Select one:
A. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated.
B. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area.
C. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition.
D. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction, beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful.
|
D
|
|
An important aspect in the treatment of a patient with severe abdominal pain is to:
Select one:
A. administer analgesic medications to alleviate pain.
B. provide emotional support en route to the hospital.
C. give 100% oxygen only if signs of shock are present.
D. encourage the patient to remain in a supine position.
|
B
|
|
Urinary tract infections are more common in ____________.
Select one:
A. women
B. sedentary adults
C. men
D. active adults
|
A
|
|
A 29-year-old pregnant woman has had severe vomiting for the last 2 days. Today, she is vomiting large amounts of blood. Her skin is cool and pale and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:
Select one:
A. Mallory-Weiss tear.
B. acute pancreatitis.
C. esophagitis.
D. esophageal varices.
|
A
|
|
Your patient complains of chronic "burning" stomach pain that improves after eating. You should suspect:
Select one:
A. aortic aneurysm.
B. kidney stones.
C. pneumonia.
D. peptic ulcer disease.
|
D
|
|
Your patient complains of abdominal pain that occurs mostly at night or after eating fatty foods. You should suspect ____________.
Select one:
A. cholecystitis
B. kidney stones
C. a hernia
D. appendicitis
|
A
|
|
A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
Select one:
A. rapidly transport her to the hospital.
B. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen.
C. protect her airway from aspiration.
D. keep her supine and keep her warm.
|
C
|
|
Which of the following helps filter the blood and has no digestive function?
Select one:
A. Stomach
B. Spleen
C. Large intestine
D. Small intestine
|
B
|
|
For a patient with a gastrointestinal complaint, it is MOST important for the EMT to _________.
Select one:
A. identify whether the patient requires rapid transport
B. determine the cause of the patient’s complaint
C. avoid transporting the patient if the condition is minor
D. perform all interventions prior to transport
|
A
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct?
Select one:
A. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.
B. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water.
C. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis.
D. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis.
|
A
|
|
Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space?
Select one:
A. Spleen
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Gallbladder
|
C
|
|
A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours’ duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to:
Select one:
A. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy.
B. transport him in a supine position.
C. determine the exact location and cause of his pain.
D. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock.
|
D
|
|
Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n):
Select one:
A. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.
B. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature.
C. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems.
D. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment.
|
C
|
|
After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old woman with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should:
Select one:
A. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine.
B. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine.
C. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction.
D. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine.
|
B
|
|
Patients may experience allergic reactions to which of the following substances?
Select one:
A. Plant material
B. Food and medications
C. Insect or animal bites and stings
D. All of these answers are correct.
|
D
|
|
A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient?
Select one:
A. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept.
B. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine.
C. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine tablets that you can administer.
D. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance.
|
A
|
|
Epinephrine stimulates the ________ response, increasing blood pressure and relieving bronchospasm.
Select one:
A. sympathetic
B. parasympathetic
C. respiratory
D. cardiac
|
A
|
|
A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should:
Select one:
A. advise her to see her physician as soon as possible.
B. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine.
C. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital.
D. position her legs well above the level of her heart.
|
C
|
|
The stinger from a honeybee should be:
Select one:
A. left in place and covered
B. scraped away from the skin.
C. squeezed with tweezers and removed.
D. irrigated with copious amounts of water.
|
B
|
|
Which of the following signs/symptoms are indicative of respiratory involvement of an allergic reaction?
Select one:
A. Flushed, itching, or burning skin
B. A sense of impending doom
C. Tightness in the chest or throat
D. All of these answers are correct.
|
C
|
|
The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the infant-child auto-injector delivers ______ mg.
Select one:
A. 0.3; 0.15
B. 0.01; 0.1
C. 0.1; 0.01
D. 0.03; 0.3
|
A
|
|
The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration.
Select one:
A. 1 hour
B. 1 minute
C. 30 minutes
D. 30 seconds
|
B
|
|
The goal of invaders such as bacteria and viruses is to __________.
Select one:
A. use a human body as a home
B. spread disease and destruction
C. kill their human host
D. cause an immune response
|
A
|
|
Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines?
Select one:
A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
B. Albuterol (Ventolin)
C. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
|
A
|
|
When a foreign substance invades the body, the body will __________.
Select one:
A. protect itself
B. go on alert
C. attempt to inactivate the foreign substance
D. All of these answers are correct.
|
D
|
|
Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway?
Select one:
A. Rales
B. Stridor
C. Wheezing
D. Rhonchi
|
B
|
|
When an allergic reaction proceeds to life-threatening anaphylaxis, it will usually do so __________.
Select one:
A. quickly, within 30 seconds.
B. slowly, over several hours.
C. slowly, over more than 30 minutes.
D. quickly, within 30 minutes.
|
D
|
|
At the site of the injury, signs and symptoms of an animal or insect bite or sting may include pain, localized heat, and a wheal, which appears as __________.
Select one:
A. a raised, well-defined area of the skin
B. a large area of red, blotchy skin
C. a series of small, raised pustules
D. an uncomfortable depression in the skin
|
A
|
|
Urticaria is the medical term for:
Select one:
A. a wheal.
B. burning.
C. hives.
D. swelling.
|
C
|
|
Care for a victim of an immunologic emergency who is severely hypotensive should include which of the following?
Select one:
A. Routine spinal immobilization due to the potential for traumatic injury
B. Position the patient’s airway and initiate positive-pressure ventilations.
C. Initiate basic life support measures, including the use of an automated external defibrillator, if necessary.
D. Apply high-flow oxygen therapy, place the patient in a shock position, and help maintain the patient’s body temperature.
|
D
|
|
Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient’s allergic reaction?
Select one:
A. The environment in which the patient is found
B. The patient’s family history
C. The time of year in which the exposure occurred
D. The patient’s general physical appearance
|
A
|
|
Anaphylaxis caused by stinging insects is typically an allergic reaction to ____________ rather than the bite or sting itself.
Select one:
A. injected poison
B. irritating toxin
C. deadly venom
D. All of these answers are correct.
|
D
|
|
Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient:
Select one:
A. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections.
B. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin.
C. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose.
D. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion.
|
B
|
|
The main function of the endocrine system is to _________.
Select one:
A. regulate blood flow
B. maintain homeostasis
C. produce glandular secretions
D. regulate glucose and calcium
|
B
|
|
The normal blood glucose level is between:
Select one:
A. 80 and 120 mg/dL.
B. 60 and 80 mg/dL.
C. 160 and 200 mg/dL.
D. 30 and 150 mg/dL.
|
A
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?
Select one:
A. Most cells will function normally without glucose.
B. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen.
C. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin.
D. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells.
|
B
|
|
A patient with hypoglycemia will often present with which of the following signs/symptoms?
Select one:
A. Deep, rapid respirations
B. Warm, red, and dry skin
C. Pale, cool, and clammy skin
D. Hypertension
|
C
|
|
You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 480 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes:
Select one:
A. dextrose.
B. insulin.
C. oxygen.
D. glucagon.
|
B
|
|
A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should:
Select one:
A. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
B. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum.
C. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing.
D. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag.
|
C
|
|
The two main types of cells contained in blood are called _________.
Select one:
A. erythrocytes and leukocytes
B. hemoglobin A and S
C. transport and clotting
D. platelets and plasma
|
A
|
|
A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days’ duration. Her blood glucose level reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient’s condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop:
Select one:
A. irreversible renal failure.
B. acidosis and dehydration.
C. severe insulin shock.
D. hypoxia and overhydration.
|
A
|
|
A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __________.
Select one:
A. hyperglycemic crisis
B. hypoglycemic crisis
C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma
D. diabetic ketoacidosis
|
D
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct?
Select one:
A. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly.
B. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen.
C. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel.
D. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin.
|
B
|
|
In contrast to type 1 diabetes, type 2 diabetes:
Select one:
A. is caused by resistance to insulin at the cellular level.
B. is caused by a complete lack of insulin in the body.
C. occurs when antibodies attack insulin-producing cells.
D. is commonly diagnosed in children and young adults.
|
A
|
|
A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing:
Select one:
A. hypoglycemia.
B. an acute stroke.
C. a heart attack.
D. hyperglycemia.
|
C
|
|
The EMT should assess for hypoglycemia in small children with a severe illness or injury because:
Select one:
A. a child’s cells do not uptake glucose as rapidly as adults’ do.
B. children cannot store excess glucose as effectively as adults.
C. illness or injury causes the pancreas to produce less insulin.
D. children overproduce insulin during severe illness or injury.
|
B
|
|
During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that:
Select one:
A. he has a thrombosis.
B. his blood clots too quickly.
C. he has hemophilia A.
D. he has thrombophilia.
|
C
|
|
Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called:
Select one:
A. polydipsia.
B. dysphasia.
C. dyspepsia.
D. polyphagia.
|
D
|
|
Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:
Select one:
A. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations.
B. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations.
C. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations.
D. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations.
|
D
|
|
Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing?
Select one:
A. Blindness
B. Hepatitis B
C. Alcoholism
D. Depression
|
A
|
|
Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. requesting permission from medical control.
B. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex.
C. checking the medication’s expiration date.
D. assessing the patient’s mental status.
|
B
|
|
A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following should the EMT suspect?
Select one:
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Severe hypoglycemia
D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
|
B
|
