|
A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should:
Select one:
A. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.
B. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.
C. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx.
D. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block.
|
a
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|
A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient’s medical history is not known. The patient’s face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?
Select one:
A. Severe pulmonary edema
B. Increased body temperature
C. His extremities are cold
D. Carbon monoxide poisoning
|
d
|
|
A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:
Select one:
A. mouth-to-mask device.
B. bag-valve mask.
C. nonrebreathing mask.
D. nasal cannula.
|
c
|
|
During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates:
Select one:
A. a lower airway obstruction.
B. swelling of the upper airway.
C. secretions in the airway.
D. fluid in the alveoli.
|
a
|
|
How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems?
Select one:
A. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung.
B. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane.
C. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion.
D. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation.
|
b
|
|
In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway?
Select one:
A. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma
B. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed
C. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet
D. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree
|
b
|
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Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
Select one:
A. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
B. ataxic respirations.
C. eupneic respirations.
D. agonal respirations.
|
a
|
|
The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it:
Select one:
A. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex.
B. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest.
C. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.
D. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly
|
c
|
|
The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:
Select one:
A. diffusion.
B. ventilation.
C. oxygenation.
D. respiration.
|
b
|
|
What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly?
Select one:
A. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.
B. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
C. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations.
D. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate.
|
a
|
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When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than:
Select one:
A. 200 mm Hg.
B. 300 mm Hg.
C. 400 mm Hg.
D. 100 mm Hg.
|
b
|
|
Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-valve mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse?
Select one:
A. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag
B. Twenty breaths/min being delivered to the adult
C. Decreased compliance when squeezing the bag
D. Consistently increasing heart rate
|
a
|
|
Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?
Select one:
A. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin
B. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume
C. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations
D. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
|
d
|
|
Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position?
Select one:
A. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
B. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations
C. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume
D. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations
|
a
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct?
Select one:
A. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.
B. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.
C. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate.
D. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation.
|
a
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?
Select one:
A. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.
B. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries.
C. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide.
D. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries
|
d
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct?
Select one:
A. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.
B. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.
C. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position.
D. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure.
|
a
|
|
Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?
Select one:
A. Bronchus
B. Pharynx
C. Larynx
D. Oropharynx
|
a
|
|
You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving?
Select one:
A. 45%
B. 55%
C. 65%
D. 75%
|
b
|
|
You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should:
Select one:
A. seal the mouth and nose.
B. thrust the jaw forward.
C. thoroughly suction the stoma.
D. ventilate with less pressure.
|
a
|
|
A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway?
Select one:
A. Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation.
B. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and provide suction and assisted ventilations.
C. Suction his oropharynx with a rigid catheter until all secretions are removed.
D. Provide continuous ventilations with a bag-valve mask to minimize hypoxia.
|
a
|
|
A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should:
Select one:
A. insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases.
B. assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask.
C. perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment.
D. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask
|
d
|
|
A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted:
Select one:
A. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare.
B. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose.
C. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare.
D. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum.
|
a
|
|
A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when:
Select one:
A. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen.
B. a traumatic injury or medical condition impairs the body’s ability to effectively bring oxygen into the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body.
C. ventilation is compromised, resulting in the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, alveoli, and the tissues and cells of the body.
D. ventilation is inadequate due to a traumatic injury or medical condition, which results in an impairment in pulmonary gas exchange.
|
a
|
|
An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:
Select one:
A. 1,000 psi.
B. 1,500 psi.
C. 200 psi.
D. 500 psi.
|
b
|
|
An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she:
Select one:
A. has increased tidal volume.
B. requires CPR.
C. begins to vomit.
D. regains consciousness
|
b
|
|
As the single EMT managing an apneic patient’s airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the:
Select one:
A. mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve.
B. mouth-to-mouth technique.
C. manually triggered ventilation device.
D. one-person bag-valve mask.
|
a
|
|
At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:
Select one:
A. 52%.
B. 44%.
C. 35%.
D. 24%.
|
b
|
|
Based on current guidelines, in which of the following situations should supplemental oxygen be administered?
Select one:
A. Any diabetic patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 98%
B. Signs of myocardial infarction and an oxygen saturation of 97%
C. Exposure to carbon monoxide and an oxygen saturation of 95%
D. Any elderly patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 95%
|
c
|
|
Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense:
Select one:
A. slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.
B. increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.
C. slight increases in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.
D. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.
|
c
|
|
Complications associated with using a manually triggered ventilation device include:
Select one:
A. lung tissue injury and gastric distention.
B. inadequate ventilation and hypercarbia.
C. inadequate oxygenation and tracheal injury.
D. reduced tidal volume delivery and hypoxia.
|
a
|
|
Despite your attempts to coach a conscious young female’s respirations, she continues to hyperventilate with a marked reduction in tidal volume. You should:
Select one:
A. ventilate her at the rate at which she is breathing.
B. explain to her that you will assist her ventilations.
C. restrain her and provide ventilatory assistance.
D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen.
|
b
|
|
Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:
Select one:
A. adequate amounts of surfactant.
B. surfactant-destroying organisms.
C. pulmonary capillary constriction.
D. water or blood within the alveoli.
|
a
|
|
In contrast to inhalation, exhalation:
Select one:
A. is an active process caused by decreased intrathoracic pressure.
B. occurs when the diaphragm lowers and expels air from the lungs.
C. is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure.
D. requires muscular effort to effectively expel air from the lungs.
|
c
|
|
Inhalation occurs when the:
Select one:
A. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.
B. diaphragm ascends and the intercostal muscles contract, causing a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.
C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure.
D. diaphragm and intercostal muscles ascend and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure.
|
a
|
|
Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when:
Select one:
A. blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state.
B. any impairment in circulatory function causes a reduced ability for oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
C. a decrease in respiratory rate and depth causes carbon dioxide accumulation in the alveoli and an overall decrease in blood oxygen levels.
D. the presence of pulmonary surfactant causes a decrease in alveolar surface tension, thus impairing the exchange of gases in the lungs.
|
a
|
|
Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask to a patient, you must ensure that the:
Select one:
A. patient has reduced tidal volume.
B. reservoir bag is fully inflated.
C. one-way valve is sealed.
D. flow rate is set at 6 L/min.
|
b
|
|
Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes:
Select one:
A. continuously suctioning patients with copious oral secretions.
B. removing large, solid objects with a tonsil-tip suction catheter.
C. suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx.
D. suctioning for up to 1 minute if the patient is well oxygenated
|
c
|
|
Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. bronchioles.
B. the epiglottis.
C. alveoli.
D. the trachea.
|
b
|
|
The diaphragm is innervated by the _________ nerve, which allows it to contract.
Select one:
A. vagus
B. phrenic
C. hypoglossal
D. vestibulocochlear
|
b
|
|
The hypoxic drive is influenced by:
Select one:
A. high blood carbon dioxide levels.
B. high blood oxygen levels.
C. low blood carbon dioxide levels.
D. low blood oxygen levels.
|
d
|
|
The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the:
Select one:
A. vallecula.
B. cricoid ring.
C. epiglottis.
D. thyroid cartilage.
|
c
|
|
The main advantage of the Venturi mask is:
Select one:
A. the ability to adjust the percentage of inspired oxygen when caring for a critically ill or injured patient.
B. that it does not contain an oxygen reservoir, so the same percentage of oxygen can consistently be administered.
C. the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients.
D. the ability to adjust the amount of oxygen administered to the patient by increasing the flow rate on the regulator.
|
c
|
|
The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is:
Select one:
A. oral abrasions from vigorous suctioning.
B. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts.
C. clogging of the catheter with thick secretions.
D. vomiting from stimulating the anterior airway
|
b
|
|
The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg, while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg.
Select one:
A. 90, 50
B. 88, 30
C. 70, 28
D. 104, 40
|
d
|
|
The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi).
Select one:
A. 2,000
B. 500
C. 1,000
D. 3,000
|
a
|
|
The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is:
Select one:
A. pyruvic acid.
B. adenosine triphosphate.
C. carbon dioxide.
D. lactic acid.
|
c
|
|
The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called:
Select one:
A. external respiration.
B. alveolar ventilation.
C. pulmonary ventilation.
D. cellular metabolism.
|
a
|
|
To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the:
Select one:
A. angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth.
B. corner of the mouth to the superior ear.
C. corner of the mouth to the earlobe.
D. center of the mouth to the posterior ear.
|
c
|
|
Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult?
Select one:
A. Respirations of 20 breaths/min
B. Increased tidal volume
C. Shallow breathing
D. Slight decrease in respiratory rate
|
c
|
|
Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?
Select one:
A. Anxiety
B. Restlessness
C. Cyanosis
D. Tachycardia
|
c
|
|
Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?
Select one:
A. Liver
B. Heart
C. Muscle
D. Kidneys
|
c
|
|
Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?
Select one:
A. Pressure-compensated flowmeter
B. Ball-and-float flowmeter
C. Vertical-position flowmeter
D. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
|
d
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct?
Select one:
A. Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quickly ascend to an altitude of lower atmospheric pressure.
B. In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation.
C. In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very quickly.
D. Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the exchange of gases.
|
b
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct?
Select one:
A. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing.
B. Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure.
C. To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive-pressure ventilation.
D. Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body.
|
a
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-valve mask technique is correct?
Select one:
A. Bag-valve mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person.
B. The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-valve mask.
C. The bag-valve mask delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique.
D. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-valve mask.
|
d
|
|
Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum?
Select one:
A. Larynx
B. Esophagus
C. Bronchioles
D. Lungs
|
b
|
|
Which of the following would cause an increase in the amount of exhaled carbon dioxide?
Select one:
A. Anaerobic metabolism
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Excessive ventilation
D. Cardiopulmonary arrest
|
b
|
|
While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should:
Select one:
A. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him.
B. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.
C. place him in a supine position and open his airway.
D. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can.
|
b
|
|
While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should:
Select one:
A. remove the CPAP device and apply oxygen by nonrebreathing mask.
B. decrease the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering.
C. increase the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering.
D. remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-valve mask.
|
d
|
|
With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen.
Select one:
A. 90
B. 100
C. 70
D. 80
|
a
|
|
Without adequate oxygen, the body’s cells:
Select one:
A. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood.
B. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids.
C. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate.
D. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.
|
d
|
|
You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient’s lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-valve mask. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should:
Select one:
A. hyperextend the patient’s head and reattempt ventilations.
B. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique.
C. continue attempted ventilations and transport immediately.
D. suction the patient’s airway for 30 seconds and reattempt ventilations.
|
b
|
|
You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, she notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You should:
Select one:
A. perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for signs of bleeding.
B. increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure.
C. increase the rate at which you are ventilating and reassess his blood pressure.
D. reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering.
|
d
|
|
You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-valve mask. She has dentures, which are tight fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient’s oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should:
Select one:
A. attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations.
B. leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction.
C. remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations.
D. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise.
|
d
|
|
Your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. This means that you will:
Select one:
A. allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs.
B. deliver positive-pressure ventilation at rate of only 5 or 6 breaths/min.
C. time your positive-pressure ventilations to occur during chest recoil.
D. ventilate with a bag-valve mask that is not attached to oxygen.
|
a
|
|
A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:
Select one:
A. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.
B. apply pressure to the brachial artery.
C. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen.
D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages.
|
a
|
|
A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival?
Select one:
A. High-flow oxygen administration
B. Rapid transport to a trauma center
C. Intravenous fluid administration
D. Full immobilization of her spine
|
b
|
|
As you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be?
Select one:
A. Open the airway.
B. Administer oxygen.
C. Control the bleeding.
D. Check for a pulse.
|
c
|
|
Distributive shock occurs when:
Select one:
A. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function.
B. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster.
C. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.
D. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain.
|
c
|
|
Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________.
Select one:
A. septic shock
B. anaphylactic shock
C. psychogenic shock
D. neurogenic shock
|
b
|
|
Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of:
Select one:
A. whole blood.
B. plasma.
C. red blood cells.
D. platelets.
|
b
|
|
In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by:
Select one:
A. hypovolemia.
B. diaphoresis.
C. hypothermia.
D. tachycardia.
|
c
|
|
Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called ________.
Select one:
A. shock
B. hypoxia
C. perfusion
D. hypotension
|
a
|
|
Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during:
Select one:
A. anaphylactic shock.
B. septic shock.
C. neurogenic shock.
D. cardiogenic shock.
|
d
|
|
Shock due to severe infection is called ________.
Select one:
A. hypovolemic shock
B. anaphylactic shock
C. neurogenic shock
D. septic shock
|
d
|
|
To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as:
Select one:
A. the skin.
B. the brain.
C. the lungs.
D. the heart.
|
a
|
|
What are the three components of the "perfusion triangle"?
Select one:
A. Arteries, veins, capillaries
B. Plasma, red blood cells, platelets
C. Heart, brain, lungs
D. Heart, blood vessels, blood
|
d
|
|
When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion.
B. the patient’s respirations are deep during the early stages of shock.
C. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock.
D. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.
|
d
|
|
When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient?
Select one:
A. Immediately after the injuries are discovered
B. En route to the hospital
C. Prior to transport
D. During the primary assessment
|
b
|
|
When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.
B. the older patient’s central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock.
C. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume.
D. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate.
|
a
|
|
Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock?
Select one:
A. Spinal cord injury
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Liver laceration
D. Simple pneumothorax
|
b
|
|
Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax?
Select one:
A. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids
B. Early administration of high-flow oxygen
C. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask
D. Decompression of the injured side of the chest
|
d
|
|
You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient’s skin is pale. This is likely due to ___________.
Select one:
A. an increased heart rate
B. peripheral vasodilation
C. hypothermia
D. peripheral vasoconstriction
|
d
|
|
Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to ___________.
Select one:
A. neurogenic shock
B. septic shock
C. cardiogenic shock
D. hypovolemic shock
|
c
|
|
Your patient is in shock, but the body’s defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called ___________.
Select one:
A. compensated shock
B. irreversible shock
C. decompensated shock
D. late shock
|
a
|
|
A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should:
Select one:
A. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away.
B. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route.
C. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control.
D. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack.
|
c
|
|
A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient’s wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient’s present condition is:
Select one:
A. severe septic hypoperfusion.
B. acute myocardial infarction.
C. a ruptured aortic aneurysm.
D. cardiogenic hypoperfusion.
|
d
|
|
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. absent peripheral pulses.
B. rapid, shallow breathing.
C. restlessness or anxiety.
D. cool and clammy skin.
|
a
|
|
Neurogenic shock occurs when:
Select one:
A. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.
B. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.
C. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.
D. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.
|
a
|
|
Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock?
Select one:
A. Viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction
B. Widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection
C. Bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation
D. Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation
|
d
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct?
Select one:
A. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen.
B. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure.
C. Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.
D. Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure.
|
c
|
|
You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to:
Select one:
A. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history.
B. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital.
C. provide emotional support regarding her sister.
D. determine if she was injured when she fainted.
|
d
|
|
You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should:
Select one:
A. repeat your secondary assessment.
B. reassess his condition in 5 minutes.
C. take his vital signs in 15 minutes.
D. arrange for an ALS rendezvous.
|
b
|
|
You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should:
Select one:
A. assess the rate and quality of his pulse.
B. apply direct pressure to the wound.
C. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.
D. immediately evaluate his airway.
|
b
|
|
Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
Select one:
A. ventilate her with a bag-valve mask.
B. administer high-flow oxygen.
C. move her to the ambulance stretcher.
D. check her airway for obstructions.
|
d
|
|
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
Select one:
A. begin CPR until an AED is available.
B. start CPR and transport immediately.
C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
D. determine if he has a valid living will.
|
a
|
|
Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:
Select one:
A. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses.
B. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency.
C. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
D. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management.
|
c
|
|
Between each chest compression, you should __________.
Select one:
A. remove your hands from the chest
B. administer a breath
C. allow full chest recoil
D. check for a pulse
|
c
|
|
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. rib fractures.
B. gastric distention.
C. a fractured sternum.
D. liver laceration.
|
b
|
|
CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?
Select one:
A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart.
B. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.
C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse.
D. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse.
|
b
|
|
CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:
Select one:
A. is delivered by computer.
B. occurs every 24 months.
C. involves hands-on practice.
D. is self-paced and brief.
|
c
|
|
CPR should be initiated when:
Select one:
A. a valid living will is unavailable.
B. rigor mortis is obvious.
C. signs of putrefaction are present.
D. the carotid pulse is very weak.
|
a
|
|
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
Select one:
A. horizontal.
B. on a firm surface.
C. supine.
D. prone
|
d
|
|
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
Select one:
a. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
b. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
c. when the airway is completely obstructed.
d. in patients who are intubated.
|
a
|
|
If an object is visible in the unconscious patient’s airway, you should __________.
Select one:
A. continue chest compressions
B. place the patient on his or her side
C. remove it
D. leave it in place
|
c
|
|
In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
Select one:
A. severe chest trauma.
B. respiratory arrest.
C. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
D. a drug overdose.
|
b
|
|
Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient’s airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should:
Select one:
A. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
B. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
C. when the airway is completely obstructed.
D. in patients who are intubated.
|
b
|
|
Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. acute cyanosis.
B. grasping the throat.
C. inability to speak.
D. forceful coughing.
|
d
|
|
The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by:
Select one:
A. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles.
B. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.
C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart.
D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.
|
b
|
|
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
Select one:
A. 3:2
B. 30:2
C. 30:1
D. 5:1
|
b
|
|
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
Select one:
A. 80 to 100 times per minute.
B. with one or two hands.
C. until a radial pulse is felt.
D. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.
|
b
|
|
While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:
Select one:
A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.
B. move to the opposite side of the patient’s chest.
C. suction the patient’s mouth and give two more ventilations.
D. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.
|
b
|
|
Without practice, your CPR skills will __________.
Select one:
A. deteriorate over time
B. come back automatically when needed
C. become part of your muscle memory
D. improve over time
|
a
|
|
Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should:
Select one:
A. encourage the patient to cough.
B. administer back blows.
C. place the patient supine.
D. perform abdominal thrusts.
|
a
|
|
Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should:
Select one:
A. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns.
C. move the patch to another area of the patient’s chest and then properly apply the AED pads.
D. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.
|
a
|
|
A young male is unresponsive after overdosing on an opioid. He is not breathing and his pulse is weak. The EMT should immediately:
Select one:
A. begin chest compressions.
B. request an ALS ambulance.
C. ventilate with a BVM.
D. administer naloxone.
|
c
|
|
If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should:
Select one:
A. suction the patient’s oropharynx.
B. increase the rate of ventilation.
C. reposition the patient’s airway.
D. insert an oropharyngeal airway.
|
c
|
|
Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves:
Select one:
A. back slaps.
B. blind finger sweeps.
C. abdominal thrusts.
D. bag-valve mask ventilation.
|
a
|
|
Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of:
Select one:
A. an acute ischemic stroke.
B. obstruction of the airway.
C. severe blunt trauma.
D. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
|
d
|
|
The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes:
Select one:
A. advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough.
B. administering oxygen and transporting immediately.
C. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction.
D. performing five back blows and five abdominal thrusts.
|
b
|
|
The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is:
Select one:
A. one-half to two-thirds the diameter of the chest.
B. one-third the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches.
C. one-half the diameter of the chest, or about 1½ inches.
D. two-thirds the diameter of the chest, or about 2 inches.
|
b
|
|
What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR?
Select one:
A. 5:1
B. 15:2
C. 3:1
D. 30:2
|
b
|
|
What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant?
Select one:
A. 90
B. 110
C. 120
D. 100
|
d
|
|
When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ________ artery.
Select one:
A. radial
B. brachial
C. femoral
D. carotid
|
b
|
|
When performing chest compressions on an adult, the EMT should compress:
Select one:
A. more than 2.5 inches.
B. between 1 inch and 2 inches.
C. at least 2 inches.
D. at least 1 inch.
|
c
|
|
Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese?
Select one:
A. Chest thrusts
B. Back blows
C. Abdominal thrusts
D. Finger sweeps
|
a
|
|
You are off duty at a park when you witness an apparently healthy 12-year-old child suddenly collapse. There are no bystanders around and your mobile phone is in your car. After confirming that the child is in cardiac arrest, you should:
Select one:
A. perform chest compressions only until a bystander arrives.
B. call 9-1-1 and then return to begin CPR on the child.
C. perform CPR for 2 minutes and then call 9-1-1.
D. deliver five rescue breaths before starting chest compressions.
|
b
|
|
You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patient in cardiac arrest by:
Select one:
A. placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid.
B. compressing quickly and releasing slowly.
C. compressing the sternum between the nipples.
D. depressing the sternum more than 2.5 inches in depth.
|
c
|
