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All of the following are criteria for an effective mission statement EXCEPT a. sharply focused |
b. narrow in scope |
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Which of the following is defined as knowing that an inherent risk exists with participation in an activity, but choosing to participate anyway? a. negligence |
d. assumption of risk |
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Which of the following is defined as a legal responsibility, duty, or obligation? a. negligence |
b. liability |
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Which of the following is defined as doing what a reasonable and prudent person would do under similar circumstances? a. negligence |
c. standard of care |
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Which of the following is defined as failure to act as a reasonable and prudent person would act under similar circumstances? a. negligence |
a. negligence |
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Which of the following would void the liability of an equipment manufacturer and place responsibility in the hands of the strength and conditioning professional? a. The professional altered the product from the condition in which it was originally sold. |
a. The professional altered the product from the condition in which it was originally sold. |
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Which of the following is the first role that needs to be attended to by the staff of a strength and conditioning facility in the case of an emergency? a. provision of immediate care to the injured athlete |
a. provision of immediate care to the injured athlete |
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All of the following are recommended ways the strength and conditioning professional can safely monitor athletes in a training facility EXCEPT a. being qualified and vigilant |
d. asking more experienced athletes to help supervise newer athletes |
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Which of the following documents should be maintained for as long as possible to help protect a strength and conditioning facility from lawsuits? a. injury report forms |
a. injury report forms |
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The responsibility of clearing an athlete for participation in a strength and conditioning program belongs to which of the following individuals? a. athlete’s parents |
c. sports medicine staff member |
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Which of the following is the recommended minimum amount of floor space for an athlete within a strength and conditioning facility? a. 36 square feet (3.3 m2) |
c. 100 square feet (9.3 m2) |
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Which of the following is the recommended ceiling height for a strength and conditioning facility? a. 6 to 8 feet (1.8-2.4 m) |
c. 12 to 14 feet (3.7-4.3 m) |
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Mirrors in a strength and conditioning facility should be positioned at what minimum distance from any equipment? a. 4 inches (10 cm) |
b. 6 inches (15 cm) |
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What is the minimum recommended distance between the ends of racked bars in a strength and conditioning facility? a. 24 inches (61 cm) |
b. 36 inches (91 cm) |
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Which of the following is a standard for safe and sufficient access to a strength and conditioning facility? a. rough strips on the edge of each step |
a. rough strips on the edge of each step |
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Which of the following are the optimal temperature and humidity setting, respectively, for a strength and conditioning facility? a. 67 to 71 °F (19-21 °C); <60% |
b. 67 to 71 °F (19-21 °C); 60% to 70% |
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Placing the __________________ in the center of the room would create a space with a clear view for coaches or facility supervisors. a. dumbbell rack |
a. dumbbell rack |
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If repair for a broken elliptical machine will be delayed, what should the strength and conditioning professional do with the machine during the delay? a. remove the machine from the floor and place it in storage |
a. remove the machine from the floor and place it in storage |
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Which of the following is the recommended amount of floor space for a treadmill within a strength and conditioning facility? a. 6 square feet (0.6 m2) |
d. 45 square feet (4.2 m2) |
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Which of the following is the recommended amount of floor space for the standing shoulder press exercise if the athlete is using a 7-foot (2.1 m) barbell? a. 28 square feet (2.6 m2) |
d. 52 square feet (4.8 m2) |
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The responsibility for the day-to-day physical health of an athlete falls to which of the following members of the sports medicine team? a. strength and conditioning professional |
b. athletic trainer |
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Which of the following types of injury is characterized by an excess accumulation of blood and fluid in the tissues surrounding an injured muscle? a. tendinitis |
c. contusion |
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After suffering a broken wrist, what is the sequence of phases of healing that an athlete must go through before returning to play? a. inflammatory response, fibroblastic repair, maturation-remodeling |
a. inflammatory response, fibroblastic repair, maturation-remodeling |
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Which of the following phases of healing is characterized by random deposits of Type III collagen fibers along the injured structure? a. fibroblastic repair |
a. fibroblastic repair |
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Which of the following is a treatment goal for rehabilitation during the inflammatory response phase of an injury? a. avoidance of excessive muscle atrophy |
b. prevention of new tissue disruption |
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Which of the following is an exercise strategy during the maturation-remodeling phase of an injury? a. passive rest of the injured area |
d. joint angle-specific strengthening |
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Which of the following is an exercise strategy during the fibroblastic repair phase of an injury? a. velocity-specific muscle activities |
d. submaximal isokinetic exercise |
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Which of the following is a treatment goal for rehabilitation during the maturation-remodeling phase of an injury? a. optimization of tissue function |
a. optimization of tissue function |
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Which of the following is an example of a closed kinetic chain exercise? a. deadlift |
a. deadlift |
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Which of the following is an example of an open kinetic chain exercise? a. push-up |
d. leg curl |
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Which of the following is the period between the preparatory and competitive periods? a. strength/power |
b. first transition |
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An athlete has just finished the preparatory period of his training and is now focusing on his strength and power capabilities. This portion of training is generally referred to as what? a. competitive phase |
d. first transition period |
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Which of the following makes the specific preparatory phase distinct from the general preparatory phase? a. higher training volumes |
d. inclusion of sport-specific training activities |
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In what method of periodization might an athlete perform four sets with a 6RM load on the first day of the week, three sets with a 10RM on the next training day, and five sets with a 3RM load on the last training day of the week? a. linear periodization |
c. undulating periodization |
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An athlete is performing back squats at 95% of her 1RM for six sets of two repetitions. This is most consistent with which phase of training? a. muscular endurance |
d. basic strength |
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According to the ____________, as an athlete recovers from and adapts to a training stimuli, fatigue will dissipate and preparedness and performance increase. a. General Adaptation Syndrome |
b. stimulus-fatigue-recovery-adaptation theory |
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An athlete has dramatically increased time spent practicing sport-specific skills and tactics and decreased overall training volume. This best describes an athlete who has entered which of the following periods of training? a. off-season |
c. competitive |
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All of the following are benefits of a three-week second transition period EXCEPT a. preparing for the upcoming competitive period |
a. preparing for the upcoming competitive period |
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In what method of periodization might an athlete perform five sets of four repetitions at 85% of 1RM on the first day of the week, five sets of four repetitions at 80% of 1RM on the next training day, and five sets of four repetitions at 70% of 1RM on the last training day of the week? a. undulating periodization |
d. traditional periodization |
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During which of the following phases should athletes ideally be tested to determine initial training loads for the exercises in the first mesocycle? a. first week of the postseason |
c. first week of the off-season |
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Which of the following describes an athlete’s maximum lactate steady state? a. Maximal lactate production is equal to maximal lactate clearance. |
a. Maximal lactate production is equal to maximal lactate clearance. |
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Which of the following describes a technique guideline for an optimal running gait? a. The foot should land in front of the hips to avoid "braking." |
b. The arms should swing in a reciprocating motion with the lower body. |
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Which of the following describes the minimum suggested hypoxic dose for an athlete to see an ergogenic effect from altitude training? a. 12 hours/day at low altitudes for at least 12 weeks |
b. 12 hours/day at moderate altitudes for at least 3 weeks |
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All of the following are benefits from resistance training for a highly trained aerobic endurance athlete EXCEPT a. enhancement in short-term exercise performance |
c. improvement in |
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An athlete who typically runs for 70 minutes at 65% to 75% of her is looking to maintain a minimal level of conditioning. Which of the following workouts would provide the best stimulus for cross-training? a. rowing at 55% of for 30 minutes |
d. cycling at 75% of for 70 minutes |
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Which of the following is a type of aerobic endurance training that involves easy running (70% combined with short, fast bursts of running (85-90% for short time periods? a. Fartlek |
a. Fartlek |
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Which of the following is the maximum recommended weekly increase in training duration for an off-season athlete? a. 5% |
b. 10% |
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Approximately how many METs is equal to a of 70 ml·kg-1·min-1? a. 2 |
b. 20 |
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A 30-year-old athlete with a resting heart rate of 50 beats/min is training at 60% of her maximal heart rate. Using the Karvonen method, what is her exercise heart rate? a. 84 beats/min |
b. 134 beats/min |
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A 50-year-old athlete with a resting heart rate of 60 beats/min is training at 70% of his maximal heart rate. Using the maximal heart rate method, what is his exercise heart rate? a. 102 beats/min |
b. 119 beats/min |
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Agility is similar to speed, except that agility also includes which of the following components that is not part of speed? a. acceleration |
d. perceptual-cognitive ability |
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Which of the following describes the rate and amplitude of impulses being sent from the nervous system to the target muscles? a. elastic energy |
b. neural drive |
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Which of the following is the cause of an athlete’s prematurely having an upright posture when starting a sprint? a. deficient force production |
b. inadequate push-off force |
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Which of the following is the cause of an athlete’s overstriding when sprinting at maximum velocity? a. deficient force production |
d. misunderstanding of force application |
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For a sprint athlete, which of the following exercises is best used to help develop the stretch-shortening cycle? a. squat |
c. snatch |
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Which of the following agility tests requires the longest time to complete? a. 505 test |
c. T-test |
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Which of the following is a field and court drill for a novice athlete who needs to work on eccentric strength? a. unilateral lifts |
b. deceleration drills |
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When examining factors that provide insight into an athlete’s change-of-direction and agility performance capabilities, all of the following are typically considered EXCEPT a. duration of the test |
a. duration of the test |
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Which of the following has been shown to improve change-of-direction ability? a. decreased hip extension velocity |
b. lower center of mass height |
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After a needs analysis is performed, which of the following steps comes next when developing a program for agility development? a. Plan the development of a primary area of need and a secondary area of need. |
b. Determine strengths and weaknesses by comparing results to performance standards. |
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Which of the following is the order of the phases of the stretch-shortening cycle? a. amortization, concentric, eccentric |
c. eccentric, amortization, concentric |
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Which of the following explains why a static squat jump results in a lower jump height than a countermovement jump? a. greater stored elastic energy |
b. lower potentiation |
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What type of lower body plyometric drill requires a higher horizontal speed than the other types of drills? a. jump in place |
d. bounding |
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Which of the following is a recommended landing surface for performing plyometrics? a. tile |
d. suspended floor |
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When an athlete lands on the ground from a lower body plyometric jump, the shoulders should be in line with the ____ when viewed from the side. a. toes |
c. knees |
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What type of drill used to warm up for a plyometric training session emphasizes posture and movement technique? a. marching |
a. marching |
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Which of the following is a method to increase the intensity of the plyometric lateral barrier hop drill? a. Use only one leg. |
a. Use only one leg. |
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Which of the following is NOT part of the starting position for the plyometric single-arm throw drill? a. Assume an upright stance with the feet shoulder-width apart. |
d. Rotate the throwing arm so the forearm is parallel to the floor. |
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Which of the following is the best recommendation for combining plyometric training with resistance training in a single workout session? a. high-intensity lower body resistance training with low-intensity upper body plyometrics |
a. high-intensity lower body resistance training with low-intensity upper body plyometrics |
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Which of the following is the maximum recommended depth jump box height for an athlete who weighs over 220 pounds (100 kg)? a. 16 inches (41 cm) |
b. 18 inches (46 cm) |
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The acronym SAID stands for which of the following? a. specific arousal to imposed demands |
d. specific adaptation to imposed demands |
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When developing a resistance training program, which of the following program design variables should be addressed first? a. exercise order |
b. needs analysis |
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Which of the following best describes core exercises and assistance exercises, respectively? a. recruit one or more large muscle areas and receive priority when selecting exercises; recruit smaller muscle areas and are considered less important to improving sport performance |
a. recruit one or more large muscle areas and receive priority when selecting exercises; recruit smaller muscle areas and are considered less important to improving sport performance |
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Which of the following is an antagonistic muscle group in the bench press exercise? a. anterior deltoid |
c. rhomboids |
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Which of the following exercises requires the least amount of recovery time between training sessions? a. lateral raise |
a. lateral raise |
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Which of the following is the best example of a pair of exercises that, when performed sequentially with little to no rest between them, constitute a compound set? a. dumbbell biceps curl and triceps pushdown |
c. upright row and shoulder press |
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All of the following influence an athlete’s volume-load for a resistance training program EXCEPT a. repetition and set scheme |
a. repetition and set scheme |
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If an athlete is tested in the bench press and is found to have a 1RM of 220 pounds (100 kg), approximately what weight should this athlete lift if he is performing six repetitions per set? a. 200 pounds (91 kg) |
c. 185 pounds (85 kg) |
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Which of the following percentages of an athlete’s 1RM should be assigned for a non-weightlifting multijoint exercise to maximize power output? a. 0-30% |
a. 0-30% |
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Which of the following volumes has the greatest potential to increase muscular endurance? a. 5 sets of 5 repetitions |
c. 5 sets of 15 repetitions |
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Which of the following is the best exercise to train the anatomical core musculature in individuals who want to improve sport performance? a. prone plank |
c. back squat |
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Which of the following is an advantage of machine-based training? a. enhanced ability to target specific muscle groups |
a. enhanced ability to target specific muscle groups |
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Which of the following does NOT occur when a ground-based free weight training exercise is performed on an unstable surface? a. power output decreases |
d. need to perform other exercises decreases |
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Which of the following factors is held constant during an accommodating resistance training exercise? a. external load |
b. speed of movement |
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Which of the following factors is held constant during a traditional resistance training exercise? a. external load |
a. external load |
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Which of the following is an advantage of variable-resistance training? a. minimizes the external load |
d. matches the changes in joint leverage |
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Which of the following techniques to flip a heavy-equipment tire commonly uses the narrowest hand position or grip? a. shoulders against the tire |
c. sumo |
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Weaker individuals often display _______________ and may benefit from the use of unilateral training methods. a. bilateral facilitation |
c. bilateral deficits |
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Which of the following muscles are primarily trained during the single-leg Romanian deadlift exercise? a. gluteus maximus |
a. gluteus maximus |
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The single-leg Romanian deadlift can be performed with the weight held in the hand of the same side of the body as the support leg (_______) or in the hand of the opposite side of the body as the support leg (_______). a. ipsilateral; contralateral |
a. ipsilateral; contralateral |
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Which of the following grips is used for the hammer curl exercise? a. open, pronated |
c. closed, neutral |
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All of the following are points of contact with the bench or the floor when an athlete is in the five-point body contact position EXCEPT a. head |
b. right hand |
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As the bench press exercise is performed, the sticking point occurs at which of the following points within an athlete’s range of motion? a. at the end of the concentric phase |
d. soon after the transition from the eccentric phase to the concentric phase |
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An athlete performing which of the following workouts has the greatest need for a weight belt? a. back squat at 90% 1RM |
a. back squat at 90% 1RM |
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Which of the following exercises does not require one or more spotters? a. barbell shoulder press |
d. snatch |
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Which of the following grip widths can be determined using the fist-to-opposite-shoulder method or the elbow-to-elbow method? a. wide grip |
b. snatch grip |
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Which of the following is a guideline for proper technique for the first pull of the power clean exercise? a. Rapidly shrug the shoulders upward. |
b. As the bar is raised, keep it as close to the shins as possible. |
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When an athlete is performing the upward movement phase of the seated barbell shoulder press exercise, all of the following specify the action of the spotter to assist the athlete to perform the first repetition EXCEPT a. Stand erect behind the bench with the feet shoulder-width apart. |
c. Grasp the bar with a closed, alternated grip inside the athlete’s hands. |
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Which of the following is a major muscle involved with the leg extension exercise? a. semimembranosus |
d. rectus femoris |
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Which of the following describes the difference between the upward movement phase of the push press compared to the push jerk? a. Hip and knee extension thrust is only forceful enough to drive the bar one-half to two-thirds the distance overhead. |
a. Hip and knee extension thrust is only forceful enough to drive the bar one-half to two-thirds the distance overhead. |
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Which of the following is a temperature-related effect of a well-designed warm-up? a. enhanced neural function |
a. enhanced neural function |
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Which of the following are the components of the RAMP protocol? a. raise, antagonist, mobilize, proprioception |
c. raise, activate, mobilize, potentiate |
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An athlete performing ballistic stretching should follow which of the following guidelines? a. Hold for 15 to 30 seconds. |
b. Involve an active muscular effort. |
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Which of the following describes a Golgi tendon organ? a. sensitive to increases in muscular tension |
a. sensitive to increases in muscular tension |
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During a PNF stretch, all of the following muscle actions are used to facilitate the passive stretch of a muscle EXCEPT a. isometric muscle action of the agonist |
a. isometric muscle action of the agonist |
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An athlete is performing repeated walking knee lift stretches. Which of the following is the best definition of the type of stretching being completed? a. passive stretching |
b. dynamic stretching |
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Which of the following describes muscle and connective tissue elasticity? a. the ability of a muscle to stretch |
b. ability to return to original resting length after a passive stretch |
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Regarding age and sex of individuals, which of the following is true? a. Males tend to be more flexible than females. |
d. Fibrous connective tissue replaces degenerating muscle fibers in older people. |
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Which type of joint in the body typically exhibits the greatest ROM? a. hinge |
d. ball-and-socket |
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Which of the following describes the difference between dynamic ROM and static ROM? a. Dynamic ROM is greater than static ROM. |
b. Static ROM is greater than dynamic ROM. |
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Which of the following is an example of a low-speed muscular strength test? a. power clean 1RM |
b. bench press 1RM |
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An athlete struggles to return to a "ready" stance after jumping for a ball. This deficiency demonstrates a need to improve which of the following components of athletic performance? a. balance |
c. stability |
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Anthropometry generally includes measurements of all of the following EXCEPT a. height |
d. BMI |
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During the 300-yard (274 m) shuttle run, how far away are the lines, and how many round trips are made to complete this test? a. 15 yards (13.7 m) apart with 20 trips |
a. 15 yards (13.7 m) apart with 20 trips |
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For men and women respectively, which of the following loads should be used for the YMCA bench press test? a. 40 pounds (18.2 kg) and 15 pounds (6.8 kg) |
b. 80 pounds (36.4 kg) and 35 pounds (15.9 kg) |
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Which of the following is a valid test of local muscular endurance for a well-trained athlete? a. push-up test |
a. push-up test |
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A female athlete’s body fat percentage was measured before the competitive season. If she was classified as "leaner than average," what was her measurement? a. <15% |
c. 19-20% |
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Which of the following allows for someone to draw conclusions about a population from the information collected in a population sample? a. magnitude statistics |
c. inferential statistics |
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Which of the following instructions should the coach give to an athlete when assessing the athlete’s reactive strength index? a. "Place your hands on your hips while on top of the drop box." |
a. "Place your hands on your hips while on top of the drop box." |
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Which of the following is the effect size for a 10-week squat training program? The athletes’ pretraining 1RM squat mean was 150 kg (330 pounds), the posttraining 1RM squat mean was 156 kg (343.2 pounds), and the standard deviation was 6 kg (13.2 pounds). a. -1.0 |
b. 1.0 |
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An athlete is having measurements taken to assess her body composition. The coach uses a DEXA scan and a new method he is being asked to test. The purpose of using these two measures is to establish what type of validity of the new test? a. concurrent |
a. concurrent |
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If an athlete’s test result is high on one day and low the next day, which of the following aspects of test quality appears to be compromised? a. face validity |
b. reliability |
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If a coach is planning to schedule testing and it must all be performed on the same day, which is the most ideal sequence for testing? a. agility, maximum power and strength, sprints, local muscular endurance, anaerobic capacity, aerobic capacity, nonfatiguing |
b. nonfatiguing, agility, maximum power and strength, sprints, local muscular endurance, anaerobic capacity, aerobic capacity |
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Due to availability of the track, a coach testing her athletes’ 5K time must test them in the early afternoon, which is the hottest part of the day in their location. Which of the following guidelines is LEAST effective for minimizing health risks and obtaining accurate results? a. Be acclimatized to the heat and humidity for 2 hours before testing. |
a. Be acclimatized to the heat and humidity for 2 hours before testing. |
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What is the minimum length of the rest period recommended between trials that are close to an athlete’s maximum? a. 2 minutes |
b. 3 minutes |
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Which of the following combination of tests would be most relevant for an American football wide receiver? a. bench press and 10-yard (9 m) sprint |
d. vertical jump and 30- to 100-yard (27-91 m) sprint |
|
One scorer for a group testing allowed a partial last repetition to count toward an athlete’s total score on the pull-up test, while another scorer did not count that repetition. This difference between scorers is related to which of the following? a. intrasubject variability |
c. interrater reliability |
|
All of the following are athlete-related factors to consider when selecting tests EXCEPT a. training age |
d. biomechanical movement pattern specificity |
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An athlete is able to identify that the back squat 1RM test is being used to test her maximal lower body strength. This is an example of which of the following? a. reliability |
b. face validity |
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Which of the following is LEAST helpful to record to aid in future testing sessions for an athlete? a. mental state of athlete on testing day |
a. mental state of athlete on testing day |
|
All of the following are typical patterns for the usage of steroids EXCEPT a. stacking |
c. augmented |
|
Which of the following is the term for hormone precursors that are theorized to increase the body’s ability to produce a given specific hormone? a. prohormones |
a. prohormones |
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Acromegaly, a disfiguring disease characterized by a widening of the bones, arthritis, organ enlargement, and metabolic abnormalities, is a risk factor for athletes who use which of the following as an ergogenic aid? a. testosterone |
b. HGH |
|
An athlete who is an archer is struggling with anxiety prior to his performance, which is also causing his hands and body to shake. Which of the following would be the most ideal ergogenic aid to help him with these issues? a. |
d. |
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An athlete has been taking a supplement for roughly 40 days. He has seen an increase in his squat 1RM, body weight, and vertical jump height. Which of the following is he most likely supplementing with? a. creatine |
a. creatine |
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A marathon runner is looking to improve her time to fatigue and ability to run longer distances. A combination of which supplements would best help her to achieve these goals? a. arginine and sodium bicarbonate |
d. caffeine, citrus aurantium, and erythropoietin |
|
The muscle buffering capacity relates to an athlete’s ability to a. produce |
d. regulate H+ concentrations. |
|
Which of the following substances should the strength and conditioning professional suspect an athlete is taking if the athlete is experiencing tremors, dizziness, heart palpitations, and insomnia? a. clenbuterol |
a. clenbuterol |
|
Which of the following is the purported ergogenic effect of oral supplementation of arginine? a. decreased nitric oxide levels |
c. increased muscle blood flow |
|
An aerobic endurance athlete is planning a precompetition meal. If she is able to eat 2.5 hours before her event, what is the recommended amount of carbohydrate to consume if she weighs 110 pounds (50 kg)? a. 25 g |
b. 50 g |
|
If an adult athlete is training to increase muscle hypertrophy, which of the following is a primary nutrition recommendation? a. Consume 10 g of high-quality, high-leucine protein immediately after exercise. |
b. Consume 20 g of high-quality, high-leucine protein every 3 to 4 hours. |
|
If an athlete weighs 158 pounds (72 kg) and is 5 feet, 7 inches (170 cm) tall, what is the athlete’s BMI? a. 20.3 kg/m² |
a. 20.3 kg/m² b. 24.7 kg/m² c. 30.7 kg/m² d. 42.3 kg/m² |
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An athlete is complaining that he is suffering from constipation and frequently feels cold. Coaches have also noticed his skin has a slight yellow tint with dry patches. Which of the following conditions should the strength and conditioning professional suspect? a. pica |
d. anorexia nervosa |
|
Which of the following is the main challenge with carbohydrate loading in females? a. the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle |
b. an insufficient overall caloric intake |
|
An individual often eats his meals alone, is overweight, and seems to eat large amounts of food even when not very hungry. Which of the following conditions should the strength and conditioning professional suspect? a. pica |
b. binge eating |
|
All of the following are characteristics of sports with an increased prevalence of disordered eating and eating disorders EXCEPT a. involvement of a strength component |
a. involvement of a strength component |
|
Which of the following contributes the most to total energy expenditure? a. exercise |
c. basal metabolic rate |
|
Which of the following are the appropriate fluid intake recommendations during practice and competition for children weighing 40 kg (88 pounds), even if they do not feel thirsty? a. 5 ounces (148 ml) every 20 minutes |
a. 5 ounces (148 ml) every 20 minutes |
|
All of the following are factors that may affect the amount of muscle damage experienced by athletes in high-intensity intermittent sports EXCEPT a. duration of the workout |
d. endurance capabilities of the athlete |
|
equirement adequate for meeting the needs of most healthy people within each life stage and sex"? a. Estimated Average Requirement |
c. Recommended Dietary Allowance |
|
Which of the following is a macronutrient? a. protein |
a. protein |
|
The minimum recommended intake of protein for athletes is ______ g/kg of body weight. a. 0.7 |
b. 1.0 |
|
A deficiency in which of the following nutrients is the most prevalent nutrition deficiency worldwide and can cause weakness, fatigue, and decreased exercise capacity? a. calcium |
d. iron |
|
After a 2-hour outdoor training session, an athlete lost 3 pounds (1.4 kg). How much fluid should this athlete consume to return to a more ideal hydration state? a. 1.5 L (50 ounces) |
a. 1.5 L (50 ounces) |
|
Which of the following conditions is defined as having diluted blood sodium levels (<130 mmol/L)? a. hypohydration |
c. hyponatremia |
|
A high serum level of which of the following substances is protective against heart disease? a. cholesterol |
d. HDL |
|
An athlete training for a marathon averages around 95 minutes of training a day at 75% of her If she weighs 126 pounds (57 kg), what is her minimum recommended daily intake of carbohydrate? a. 85.5 g |
c. 456 g |
|
Excessive intake of which of the following vitamins can lead to liver damage, dizziness, and joint pain? a. A |
a. A |
|
During prolonged activity in hot weather, an athlete should consume a sport drink that meets which of the following guidelines? a. 5-10% of carbohydrate |
a. 5-10% of carbohydrate |
|
All of the following describe the ideal performance state EXCEPT a. strong sense of personal control |
b. effective analysis of the performance |
|
______ anxiety is the actual experience of apprehension and uncontrolled arousal and ______ anxiety is a personality characteristic, which represents a latent disposition to perceive situations as threatening. a. Somatic, cognitive |
d. State, trait |
|
According to Hull’s drive theory, which of the following factors affect an athlete’s level of arousal and, consequently, the athlete’s performance? a. skill level, task complexity |
a. skill level, task complexity |
|
Which of the following describes how the individual zones of optimal functioning theory differs from the inverted-U theory? a. Athletes experience poor performance when feeling flat or underaroused. |
d. Ideal performance does not always occur at the midpoint of the arousal continuum. |
|
A coach informs his athletes that at the beginning of the competitive season he will be testing the back squat 1RM on all athletes and he hopes to see at least a 5% improvement for each team member. Shelby is excited by this new goal and the chance to evaluate her abilities. She likely is experiencing what type of motivation? a. motive to avoid failure |
d. motive to achieve success |
|
Which of the following is a relaxation technique that has been shown to be useful in injured and older athletes? a. progressive muscular relaxation |
b. autogenic training |
|
Winning is typically the primary focus of what type of goal? a. outcome goal |
a. outcome goal |
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What are the five main primary methods of incorporating a practice structure and schedule into an athlete’s program? a. segmentation, whole, repetitive part, random, observational |
d. whole, part, random, variable, observational |
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_______ feedback is provided to the athlete by the athlete from the senses, while _______ feedback is provided to the athlete by an observer or other external source. a. Observational, segmented |
c. Intrinsic, augmented |
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A coach informs the team running a 40-yard (37 m) sprint that she would like everyone to complete the first trial in under 4.8 seconds. This coach is providing what kind of feedback to her athletes? a. intrinsic |
d. knowledge of results |
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A strength and conditioning professional is training two 16-year-old males; one has developed facial hair and a deepened voice, while the other has not. Which of the following is the most effective indicator of their physical maturation level? a. exercise readiness |
c. skeletal age |
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As boys grow, they become taller and gain body mass. During this time, muscle changes as well, first in _______________ and second in _______________. a. high-level force production; velocity |
d. mass; high-level force production |
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Which of the following types of body proportions is characterized by a rounder body with broader hips? a. mesomorph |
b. endomorph |
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Which of the following is the primary mechanism leading to strength gains in preadolescents? a. hypertrophy |
d. neural factors (motor unit activation and synchronization) |
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All of the following are benefits of resistance training in youth EXCEPT a. decreased insulin sensitivity |
a. decreased insulin sensitivity |
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When comparing males and females, which of the following is true regarding strength and power capabilities? a. Absolute upper body strength of women is generally closer to male values as compared to the absolute values for lower body strength. |
c. When strength is expressed relative to muscle cross-sectional area, no significant difference exists between sexes. |
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The female athlete triad is the interrelationship between what three factors? a. overtraining, menorrhagia, inadequate protein intake |
b. energy availability, menstrual function, bone mineral density |
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Which of the following is generally discouraged in older adults, due to the sudden rise in blood pressure it can create? a. power training |
c. Valsalva maneuver |
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Sarcopenia is associated with all of the following changes due to advancing age EXCEPT a. decreased axial skeletal height |
a. decreased axial skeletal height |
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Joint laxity, skill level, limb alignment, and neuromuscular deficiency are all thought to be factors in the occurrence of what common injury? a. anterior cruciate ligament tear |
a. anterior cruciate ligament tear |
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Stroke volume is regulated by which of the following mechanisms? a. end-systolic volume and skeletal muscle pump |
c. end-diastolic volume and catecholamines |
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Which of the following is an effect of the Frank-Starling mechanism? a. increased cardiac emptying |
a. increased cardiac emptying |
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Which of the following is the standard deviation of the 220 – age in years equation to estimate maximal heart rate? a. ±2 to 4 beats/min |
c. ±10 to 12 beats/min |
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What is the MET equivalent of a of 55.0 ml·kg-1·min-1? a. 192.5 |
c. 15.7 |
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Which of the following areas of the pulmonary system is not functional for gas exchange in healthy athletes? a. bronchi |
d. anatomical dead space |
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Which of the following physiological characteristics decreases as an adaptation to aerobic endurance training? a. resting cardiac output |
a. resting cardiac output |
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Which of the following are the immediate physiological adjustments to elevation (>3,900 ft [1,200 m])? a. decreased number of mitochondria and increased capillary density |
d. hyperventilation and increased cardiac output |
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Which of the following is a potential marker of aerobic overtraining? a. decreased submaximal exercise heart rate |
b. decreased total testosterone concentration |
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All of the following are reasons why maximal aerobic power decreases with age EXCEPT a. decreased muscle mass |
b. lowered incidence of sarcopenia |
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Which of the following explains the differences in aerobic power between men and women who are matched by age? a. Women have a higher percentage of body fat. |
a. Women have a higher percentage of body fat. |
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Which of the following are primary neural adaptations to anaerobic training? a. decreased firing rates and alterations to selective recruitment |
b. increased neural drive and reductions in inhibitory mechanisms |
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_______________ is the enlargement of muscle fiber cross-sectional area, and _______________ is the increase in the number of muscle fibers via longitudinal fiber splitting. a. Muscle density; hypoplasia |
b. Hypertrophy; hyperplasia |
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Which of the following have been observed in men in elevated concentrations up to 30 minutes after a resistance training workout? a. testosterone, growth hormone, and cortisol |
a. testosterone, growth hormone, and cortisol |
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As an adaptation to anaerobic training, which of the following is the benefit of the myotatic reflex harnessing the involuntary elastic properties of muscle? a. decreased reflex magnitude |
c. increased force production |
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As an adaptation to resistance training, which of the following is a beneficial change in pennated muscles? a. decreased angle of pennation |
b. increased fascicle length |
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Minimal essential strain is the minimal threshold stimulus needed to cause which of the following changes? a. tendon formation |
c. bone formation |
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Which of the following is an adaptation in tendons from high-intensity anaerobic training? a. decreased collagen fibril diameter |
b. increased packing density of collagen fibrils |
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All of the following factors affect the degree to which blood flow is increased in the working muscles during anaerobic training EXCEPT a. amount of load lifted |
c. resting heart rate of the athlete |
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An athlete has spent the last four resistance training sessions overworking his body. He is hoping to see a substantial increase in performance after a week of active rest. Which of the following describes his current condition? a. prolonged maladaptation |
d. functional overreaching |
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Which of the following is a symptom specific to nonfunctional overreaching? a. altered neuron function |
b. decreased muscle glycogen |
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Which of the following describes the change in responsiveness of a receptor to insulin? a. lock and key |
b. downregulation |
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All of the following hormones use a second messenger to cause effects in the body EXCEPT a. norepinephrine |
c. cortisol |
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An athlete just completed a resistance training workout. All of the following are factors that influence the magnitude of the postworkout hormonal response EXCEPT a. amount of effort the athlete gave during the workout |
a. amount of effort the athlete gave during the workout |
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All of the following are adaptations of the endocrine system to resistance training EXCEPT a. amount of hormone synthesis |
d. type of hormones released |
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Serum levels of which of the following hormones will increase as a result of performing a resistance training workout that involves large muscle group exercises with loads 85-95% of 1RM and 30- to 60-second rest periods in athletes with two or more years of resistance training experience? a. testosterone |
a. testosterone |
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Polypeptide hormones are made of chains of which of the following substances? a. polypeptides |
c. amino acids |
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If the stress of a training session is too great, which of the following is true? a. anabolic reactions = catabolic reactions in the muscle |
b. anabolic reactions < catabolic reactions in the muscle |
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When one examines the effects of a resistance training program via peripheral blood hormone levels, which of the following is false? a. Higher blood hormone levels do not indicate higher receptor interaction probability. |
a. Higher blood hormone levels do not indicate higher receptor interaction probability. |
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Which of the following is a physiological role of growth hormone and its superfamily? a. decreased protein synthesis |
d. increased immune cell function |
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Which of the following substances is an important biomarker for health and performance? a. cortisol superfamily |
b. IGF superfamily |
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The Krebs cycle occurs in which portion of the cell? a. mitochondria |
a. mitochondria |
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The law of mass action states which of the following? a. A stronger action potential cannot produce a stronger contraction. |
b. The concentrations of reactants or products will drive the direction of the reactions. |
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An aerobic endurance athlete is trying to give himself a competitive edge over his opponents. To improve his lactate threshold, what type of training should he engage in, and in what direction would this shift his threshold? a. long, slow distance; shifts to the left |
b. high intensity; shifts to the right |
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Two athletes are competing in upcoming competitions, a weightlifting meet and a marathon. Which energy systems will each be primarily using, respectively? a. oxidative and phosphagen |
d. phosphagen and oxidative |
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Which of the following describes the portion of the total energy cost of exercise that must be supplied through anaerobic mechanisms due to the slow response of the aerobic system to the initial increase in the demand for energy? a. oxygen debt |
c. oxygen deficit |
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The excess postexercise oxygen consumption experienced by athletes is caused by all of the following EXCEPT a. changes in energy efficiency during recovery |
b. decreases in body temperature |
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If an athlete completes a maximum sprint interval in 10 seconds as part of an interval training workout, which of the following is a recommended length of the rest period before the next sprint? a. 5 seconds |
d. 2 minutes |
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During higher-intensity exercises, athletes often experience peripheral fatigue. Which of the following is believed to be the reason for this type of fatigue? a. lactate |
d. metabolic acidosis |
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An athlete is used to performing high-intensity aerobic exercise; however, she will now be changing to longer-duration, submaximal exercise on a regular basis. This change in training strategy will typically result in what changes concerning energy supply? a. transition from almost exclusively carbohydrate to mostly fat |
a. transition from almost exclusively carbohydrate to mostly fat |
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Which of the following is a branched-chain amino acid? a. alanine |
d. isoleucine |
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The pelvis is located _______________ to the patella. a. inferior |
C. superior |
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Which of the following is the smallest contractile unit of skeletal muscle? a. myosin |
B. sarcomere |
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Which of the following describes Type I muscle fibers? a. inefficient and easily fatigable |
D. fatigue resistant with high aerobic energy supply |
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Which of the following describes the flow of blood? a. right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body |
a. right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body |
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On average, how many times per minute does the SA node discharge at rest? a. 10-30 |
c. 60-80 |
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Which of the following are the two main divisions of the skeletal system? a. upper and lower body |
b. appendicular and axial |
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Some of the highest bone mineral densities have been seen in which of the following types of athletes? a. gymnasts |
a. gymnasts |
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What joint comprises the ankle and wrist joints? a. hyaline |
c. biaxial |
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Which of the following is the order of the phases of a muscle contraction? a. contraction, relaxation, excitation-contraction coupling, recharge, resting |
c. resting, excitation-contraction coupling, contraction, recharge, relaxation |
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The chronotropic effect is caused by stimulation of the _______________ nervous system and causes the heart rate to _______________. a. parasympathetic; decrease |
d. sympathetic; increase |
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Two individuals of the same body mass are lifting weights. Assuming all other factors to be equal, the person with tendons inserted on the bone _______________ the joint center should be able to lift _______________ weight. a. closer to; a heavier |
d. farther from; a heavier |
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Which anatomical plane divides the body into left and right sections? a. sagittal |
a. sagittal |
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An athlete in the weight room is performing the barbell bench press. If he moves a mass of 75 kg with an acceleration of 2 m/s², what force is he exerting? a. 37.5 N |
c. 150 N |
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Neural control affects the maximal force output of a muscle by determining which and how many motor units are involved in a muscle contraction and the rate at which the motor units are fired. These two factors are known as what, respectively? a. rate coding; EMG |
c. recruitment; rate coding |
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All of the following are considered to be advantages when using weight-stack machines EXCEPT a. design flexibility |
b. simulates real-life activities |
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Which of the following is the resistive force encountered when one attempts to move an object while it is pressed against another object? a. friction |
a. friction |
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Eighty-five to ninety percent of all intervertebral disk herniations occur at what two locations? a. T4-T5 and T5-L1 |
b. L4-L5 and L5-S1 |
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An athlete produced 840 watts of power in 0.6 seconds. How much work did this individual perform during the exercise? a. 1400 kJ |
d. 504 J |
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Which of the muscles or muscle groups have a fusiform pennation? a. deltoid |
b. biceps brachii |
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As an athlete’s body size increases, which of the following describes how body mass and muscular strength change? a. Muscular strength increases more rapidly than body mass. |
b. Body mass increases more rapidly than muscular strength |
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