CSCS Final Quiz

Your page rank:

Total word count: 10619
Pages: 39

Calculate the Price

- -
275 words
Looking for Expert Opinion?
Let us have a look at your work and suggest how to improve it!
Get a Consultant

All of the following are criteria for an effective mission statement EXCEPT

a. sharply focused
b. narrow in scope
c. inspires commitment
d. defines why the organization exists

b. narrow in scope

Which of the following is defined as knowing that an inherent risk exists with participation in an activity, but choosing to participate anyway?

a. negligence
b. liability
c. standard of care
d. assumption of risk

d. assumption of risk

Which of the following is defined as a legal responsibility, duty, or obligation?

a. negligence
b. liability
c. standard of care
d. assumption of risk

b. liability

Which of the following is defined as doing what a reasonable and prudent person would do under similar circumstances?

a. negligence
b. liability
c. standard of care
d. assumption of risk

c. standard of care

Which of the following is defined as failure to act as a reasonable and prudent person would act under similar circumstances?

a. negligence
b. liability
c. standard of care
d. assumption of risk

a. negligence

Which of the following would void the liability of an equipment manufacturer and place responsibility in the hands of the strength and conditioning professional?

a. The professional altered the product from the condition in which it was originally sold.
b. The professional used the product as intended by the manufacturer.
c. Existing professional standards and guidelines were followed.
d. Warning labels were placed on the product in plain view.

a. The professional altered the product from the condition in which it was originally sold.

Which of the following is the first role that needs to be attended to by the staff of a strength and conditioning facility in the case of an emergency?

a. provision of immediate care to the injured athlete
b. retrieval of emergency equipment from within the facility
c. establishment of a direct line of communication with emergency transportation
d. familiarity with facility location to assist with directing emergency transportation

a. provision of immediate care to the injured athlete

All of the following are recommended ways the strength and conditioning professional can safely monitor athletes in a training facility EXCEPT

a. being qualified and vigilant
b. knowing the health status of the athletes who are present
c. monitoring and reinforcing the rules and regulations of the facility
d. asking more experienced athletes to help supervise newer athletes

d. asking more experienced athletes to help supervise newer athletes

Which of the following documents should be maintained for as long as possible to help protect a strength and conditioning facility from lawsuits?

a. injury report forms
b. personnel credentials
c. manufacturer’s warranties
d. assumption-of-risk forms

a. injury report forms

The responsibility of clearing an athlete for participation in a strength and conditioning program belongs to which of the following individuals?

a. athlete’s parents
b. athletic director
c. sports medicine staff member
d. head strength and conditioning coach

c. sports medicine staff member

Which of the following is the recommended minimum amount of floor space for an athlete within a strength and conditioning facility?

a. 36 square feet (3.3 m2)
b. 64 square feet (5.9 m2)
c. 100 square feet (9.3 m2)
d. 144 square feet (13.4 m2)

c. 100 square feet (9.3 m2)

Which of the following is the recommended ceiling height for a strength and conditioning facility?

a. 6 to 8 feet (1.8-2.4 m)
b. 9 to 11 feet (2.7-3.4 m)
c. 12 to 14 feet (3.7-4.3 m)
d. 15 to 17 feet (4.6-5.2 m)

c. 12 to 14 feet (3.7-4.3 m)

Mirrors in a strength and conditioning facility should be positioned at what minimum distance from any equipment?

a. 4 inches (10 cm)
b. 6 inches (15 cm)
c. 12 inches (30 cm)
d. 20 inches (51 cm)

b. 6 inches (15 cm)

What is the minimum recommended distance between the ends of racked bars in a strength and conditioning facility?

a. 24 inches (61 cm)
b. 36 inches (91 cm)
c. 48 inches (122 cm)
d. 60 inches (152 cm)

b. 36 inches (91 cm)

Which of the following is a standard for safe and sufficient access to a strength and conditioning facility?

a. rough strips on the edge of each step
b. single door on each wall of the facility
c. ramp run of 6 inches (15 cm) for every 2-inch (5 cm) floor rise
d. wheelchair lift for any change in floor height exceeding 5 inches (13 cm)

a. rough strips on the edge of each step

Which of the following are the optimal temperature and humidity setting, respectively, for a strength and conditioning facility?

a. 67 to 71 °F (19-21 °C); <60%
b. 67 to 71 °F (19-21 °C); 60% to 70%
c. 72 to 78 °F (22-25 °C); <60%
d. 72 to 78 °F (22-25 °C); 60% to 70%

b. 67 to 71 °F (19-21 °C); 60% to 70%

Placing the __________________ in the center of the room would create a space with a clear view for coaches or facility supervisors.

a. dumbbell rack
b. circuit training machine
c. elliptical
d. stationary bike

a. dumbbell rack

If repair for a broken elliptical machine will be delayed, what should the strength and conditioning professional do with the machine during the delay?

a. remove the machine from the floor and place it in storage
b. keep the machine unplugged
c. place an "Out of Order" sign on the machine
d. turn the machine around so the machine is facing the other direction

a. remove the machine from the floor and place it in storage

Which of the following is the recommended amount of floor space for a treadmill within a strength and conditioning facility?

a. 6 square feet (0.6 m2)
b. 24 square feet (2.2 m2)
c. 40 square feet (3.7 m2)
d. 45 square feet (4.2 m2)

d. 45 square feet (4.2 m2)

Which of the following is the recommended amount of floor space for the standing shoulder press exercise if the athlete is using a 7-foot (2.1 m) barbell?

a. 28 square feet (2.6 m2)
b. 40 square feet (3.7 m2)
c. 42 square feet (3.9 m2)
d. 52 square feet (4.8 m2)

d. 52 square feet (4.8 m2)

The responsibility for the day-to-day physical health of an athlete falls to which of the following members of the sports medicine team?

a. strength and conditioning professional
b. athletic trainer
c. exercise physiologist
d. physiotherapist

b. athletic trainer

Which of the following types of injury is characterized by an excess accumulation of blood and fluid in the tissues surrounding an injured muscle?

a. tendinitis
b. sprain
c. contusion
d. subluxation

c. contusion

After suffering a broken wrist, what is the sequence of phases of healing that an athlete must go through before returning to play?

a. inflammatory response, fibroblastic repair, maturation-remodeling
b. maturation-remodeling, inflammatory response, fibroblastic repair
c. fibroblastic repair, inflammatory response, maturation-remodeling
d. inflammatory response, maturation-remodeling, fibroblastic repair

a. inflammatory response, fibroblastic repair, maturation-remodeling

Which of the following phases of healing is characterized by random deposits of Type III collagen fibers along the injured structure?

a. fibroblastic repair
b. inflammatory response
c. maturation-remodeling
d. phagocytosis-macrophage

a. fibroblastic repair

Which of the following is a treatment goal for rehabilitation during the inflammatory response phase of an injury?

a. avoidance of excessive muscle atrophy
b. prevention of new tissue disruption
c. optimization of tissue function
d. maintenance of function of the cardiorespiratory system

b. prevention of new tissue disruption

Which of the following is an exercise strategy during the maturation-remodeling phase of an injury?

a. passive rest of the injured area
b. balancing training activities
c. submaximal isometric exercise
d. joint angle-specific strengthening

d. joint angle-specific strengthening

Which of the following is an exercise strategy during the fibroblastic repair phase of an injury?

a. velocity-specific muscle activities
b. closed kinetic chain exercise
c. proprioceptive training activities
d. submaximal isokinetic exercise

d. submaximal isokinetic exercise

Which of the following is a treatment goal for rehabilitation during the maturation-remodeling phase of an injury?

a. optimization of tissue function
b. prevention of new tissue disruption
c. avoidance of joint deterioration
d. immediate loading of the neuromusculoskeletal system

a. optimization of tissue function

Which of the following is an example of a closed kinetic chain exercise?

a. deadlift
b. lateral raise
c. bench press
d. shoulder press

a. deadlift

Which of the following is an example of an open kinetic chain exercise?

a. push-up
b. front squat
c. pull-up
d. leg curl

d. leg curl

Which of the following is the period between the preparatory and competitive periods?

a. strength/power
b. first transition
c. basic strength
d. second transition

b. first transition

An athlete has just finished the preparatory period of his training and is now focusing on his strength and power capabilities. This portion of training is generally referred to as what?

a. competitive phase
b. basic strength phase
c. off-season
d. first transition period

d. first transition period

Which of the following makes the specific preparatory phase distinct from the general preparatory phase?

a. higher training volumes
b. emphasis on general motor abilities and skills
c. lower training intensities
d. inclusion of sport-specific training activities

d. inclusion of sport-specific training activities

In what method of periodization might an athlete perform four sets with a 6RM load on the first day of the week, three sets with a 10RM on the next training day, and five sets with a 3RM load on the last training day of the week?

a. linear periodization
b. traditional periodization
c. undulating periodization
d. fluctuating periodization

c. undulating periodization

An athlete is performing back squats at 95% of her 1RM for six sets of two repetitions. This is most consistent with which phase of training?

a. muscular endurance
b. specific preparatory
c. hypertrophy/strength endurance
d. basic strength

d. basic strength

According to the ____________, as an athlete recovers from and adapts to a training stimuli, fatigue will dissipate and preparedness and performance increase.

a. General Adaptation Syndrome
b. stimulus-fatigue-recovery-adaptation theory
c. fitness-fatigue paradigm
d. undulating periodization

b. stimulus-fatigue-recovery-adaptation theory

An athlete has dramatically increased time spent practicing sport-specific skills and tactics and decreased overall training volume. This best describes an athlete who has entered which of the following periods of training?

a. off-season
b. preseason
c. competitive
d. strength/power phase

c. competitive

All of the following are benefits of a three-week second transition period EXCEPT

a. preparing for the upcoming competitive period
b. rehabilitating injuries that may have occurred
c. refreshing mentally and physically before a new training block
d. helping to reduce the risk of overtraining

a. preparing for the upcoming competitive period

In what method of periodization might an athlete perform five sets of four repetitions at 85% of 1RM on the first day of the week, five sets of four repetitions at 80% of 1RM on the next training day, and five sets of four repetitions at 70% of 1RM on the last training day of the week?

a. undulating periodization
b. nonlinear periodization
c. daily undulating periodization
d. traditional periodization

d. traditional periodization

During which of the following phases should athletes ideally be tested to determine initial training loads for the exercises in the first mesocycle?

a. first week of the postseason
b. last week of the preseason
c. first week of the off-season
d. last week of the in-season

c. first week of the off-season

Which of the following describes an athlete’s maximum lactate steady state?

a. Maximal lactate production is equal to maximal lactate clearance.
b. Blood lactate concentration is greater than resting lactate levels.
c. Maximal lactate production is greater than maximal lactate clearance.
d. Blood lactate concentration is lower than resting lactate levels.

a. Maximal lactate production is equal to maximal lactate clearance.

Which of the following describes a technique guideline for an optimal running gait?

a. The foot should land in front of the hips to avoid "braking."
b. The arms should swing in a reciprocating motion with the lower body.
c. The weight should transfer from the inside of the heel and continue to shift.
d. The shoulders should be rounded.

b. The arms should swing in a reciprocating motion with the lower body.

Which of the following describes the minimum suggested hypoxic dose for an athlete to see an ergogenic effect from altitude training?

a. 12 hours/day at low altitudes for at least 12 weeks
b. 12 hours/day at moderate altitudes for at least 3 weeks
c. 2 hours/day at moderate altitudes for at least 3 weeks
d. 2 hours/day at low altitudes for at least 12 weeks

b. 12 hours/day at moderate altitudes for at least 3 weeks

All of the following are benefits from resistance training for a highly trained aerobic endurance athlete EXCEPT

a. enhancement in short-term exercise performance
b. prevention of overuse injuries
c. improvement in
d. reduction of muscle imbalances

c. improvement in

An athlete who typically runs for 70 minutes at 65% to 75% of her is looking to maintain a minimal level of conditioning. Which of the following workouts would provide the best stimulus for cross-training?

a. rowing at 55% of for 30 minutes
b. swimming at 60% of for 50 minutes
c. running at 50% of for 90 minutes
d. cycling at 75% of for 70 minutes

d. cycling at 75% of for 70 minutes

Which of the following is a type of aerobic endurance training that involves easy running (70% combined with short, fast bursts of running (85-90% for short time periods?

a. Fartlek
b. high-intensity interval
c. aerobic-anaerobic interval
d. pace/tempo

a. Fartlek

Which of the following is the maximum recommended weekly increase in training duration for an off-season athlete?

a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%

b. 10%

Approximately how many METs is equal to a of 70 ml·kg-1·min-1?

a. 2
b. 20
c. 35
d. 245

b. 20

A 30-year-old athlete with a resting heart rate of 50 beats/min is training at 60% of her maximal heart rate. Using the Karvonen method, what is her exercise heart rate?

a. 84 beats/min
b. 134 beats/min
c. 140 beats/min
d. 152 beats/min

b. 134 beats/min

A 50-year-old athlete with a resting heart rate of 60 beats/min is training at 70% of his maximal heart rate. Using the maximal heart rate method, what is his exercise heart rate?

a. 102 beats/min
b. 119 beats/min
c. 137 beats/min
d. 154 beats/min

b. 119 beats/min

Agility is similar to speed, except that agility also includes which of the following components that is not part of speed?

a. acceleration
b. maximal velocity
c. capacity to produce force
d. perceptual-cognitive ability

d. perceptual-cognitive ability

Which of the following describes the rate and amplitude of impulses being sent from the nervous system to the target muscles?

a. elastic energy
b. neural drive
c. eccentric-concentric coupling
d. stretch-shortening cycle

b. neural drive

Which of the following is the cause of an athlete’s prematurely having an upright posture when starting a sprint?

a. deficient force production
b. inadequate push-off force
c. insufficient mobility
d. misunderstanding of force application

b. inadequate push-off force

Which of the following is the cause of an athlete’s overstriding when sprinting at maximum velocity?

a. deficient force production
b. inadequate push-off force
c. insufficient mobility
d. misunderstanding of force application

d. misunderstanding of force application

For a sprint athlete, which of the following exercises is best used to help develop the stretch-shortening cycle?

a. squat
b. overhead press
c. snatch
d. walking lunge

c. snatch

Which of the following agility tests requires the longest time to complete?

a. 505 test
b. pro agility test
c. T-test
d. L-run

c. T-test

Which of the following is a field and court drill for a novice athlete who needs to work on eccentric strength?

a. unilateral lifts
b. deceleration drills
c. leaning drills
d. Olympic lifts

b. deceleration drills

When examining factors that provide insight into an athlete’s change-of-direction and agility performance capabilities, all of the following are typically considered EXCEPT

a. duration of the test
b. perceptual-cognitive ability
c. ground contact times during the plant phase
d. ground reaction forces during the plant phase

a. duration of the test

Which of the following has been shown to improve change-of-direction ability?

a. decreased hip extension velocity
b. lower center of mass height
c. reduced braking impulse
d. lessened lateral trunk tilt

b. lower center of mass height

After a needs analysis is performed, which of the following steps comes next when developing a program for agility development?

a. Plan the development of a primary area of need and a secondary area of need.
b. Determine strengths and weaknesses by comparing results to performance standards.
c. Distribute the time available for agility development based on need identification.
d. Provide a preliminary plan for transition of percent distribution through the training blocks.

b. Determine strengths and weaknesses by comparing results to performance standards.

Which of the following is the order of the phases of the stretch-shortening cycle?

a. amortization, concentric, eccentric
b. concentric, eccentric, amortization
c. eccentric, amortization, concentric

c. eccentric, amortization, concentric

Which of the following explains why a static squat jump results in a lower jump height than a countermovement jump?

a. greater stored elastic energy
b. lower potentiation
c. more rapid eccentric element
d. reduced range of motion

b. lower potentiation

What type of lower body plyometric drill requires a higher horizontal speed than the other types of drills?

a. jump in place
b. standing jump
c. multiple hops
d. bounding

d. bounding

Which of the following is a recommended landing surface for performing plyometrics?

a. tile
b. hardwood
c. exercise mat
d. suspended floor

d. suspended floor

When an athlete lands on the ground from a lower body plyometric jump, the shoulders should be in line with the ____ when viewed from the side.

a. toes
b. ankles
c. knees
d. hips

c. knees

What type of drill used to warm up for a plyometric training session emphasizes posture and movement technique?

a. marching
b. jogging
c. skipping
d. footwork

a. marching

Which of the following is a method to increase the intensity of the plyometric lateral barrier hop drill?

a. Use only one leg.
b. Rest after each bound.
c. Pause between jumps over the barrier.
d. Change the barrier from a hurdle to a cone.

a. Use only one leg.

Which of the following is NOT part of the starting position for the plyometric single-arm throw drill?

a. Assume an upright stance with the feet shoulder-width apart.
b. Place the rebounder approximately 3 feet (0.9 m) away.
c. Position the throwing arm to have 90° of shoulder abduction and elbow flexion.
d. Rotate the throwing arm so the forearm is parallel to the floor.

d. Rotate the throwing arm so the forearm is parallel to the floor.

Which of the following is the best recommendation for combining plyometric training with resistance training in a single workout session?

a. high-intensity lower body resistance training with low-intensity upper body plyometrics
b. low-intensity lower body resistance training with low-intensity upper body plyometrics
c. high-intensity upper body resistance training with high-intensity upper body plyometrics
d. low-intensity upper body resistance training with high-intensity upper body plyometrics

a. high-intensity lower body resistance training with low-intensity upper body plyometrics

Which of the following is the maximum recommended depth jump box height for an athlete who weighs over 220 pounds (100 kg)?

a. 16 inches (41 cm)
b. 18 inches (46 cm)
c. 32 inches (81 cm)
d. 42 inches (107 cm)

b. 18 inches (46 cm)

The acronym SAID stands for which of the following?

a. specific arousal to imposed demands
b. specific adaptation to intensity demands
c. specific athletes imposed demands
d. specific adaptation to imposed demands

d. specific adaptation to imposed demands

When developing a resistance training program, which of the following program design variables should be addressed first?

a. exercise order
b. needs analysis
c. exercise selection
d. training frequency

b. needs analysis

Which of the following best describes core exercises and assistance exercises, respectively?

a. recruit one or more large muscle areas and receive priority when selecting exercises; recruit smaller muscle areas and are considered less important to improving sport performance
b. can include both multijoint and single-joint exercises and are used primarily for rehabilitation; recruit smaller muscle areas and are considered less important to improving sport performance
c. recruit smaller muscle areas and are considered less important to improving sport performance; recruit one or more large muscle areas and are usually multijoint exercises
d. can include both structural and power exercises; are considered more important to sport performance

a. recruit one or more large muscle areas and receive priority when selecting exercises; recruit smaller muscle areas and are considered less important to improving sport performance

Which of the following is an antagonistic muscle group in the bench press exercise?

a. anterior deltoid
b. serratus anterior
c. rhomboids
d. triceps brachii

c. rhomboids

Which of the following exercises requires the least amount of recovery time between training sessions?

a. lateral raise
b. bench press
c. leg (knee) extension
d. front squat

a. lateral raise

Which of the following is the best example of a pair of exercises that, when performed sequentially with little to no rest between them, constitute a compound set?

a. dumbbell biceps curl and triceps pushdown
b. lat pulldown and lateral raise
c. upright row and shoulder press
d. incline bench press and seated row

c. upright row and shoulder press

All of the following influence an athlete’s volume-load for a resistance training program EXCEPT

a. repetition and set scheme
b. number of sets completed
c. weight lifted for each repetition
d. number of repetitions performed per set

a. repetition and set scheme

If an athlete is tested in the bench press and is found to have a 1RM of 220 pounds (100 kg), approximately what weight should this athlete lift if he is performing six repetitions per set?

a. 200 pounds (91 kg)
b. 195 pounds (88.6 kg)
c. 185 pounds (85 kg)
d. 175 pounds (79.5 kg)

c. 185 pounds (85 kg)

Which of the following percentages of an athlete’s 1RM should be assigned for a non-weightlifting multijoint exercise to maximize power output?

a. 0-30%
b. 40-60%
c. 75-85%
d. 90-100%

a. 0-30%

Which of the following volumes has the greatest potential to increase muscular endurance?

a. 5 sets of 5 repetitions
b. 1 set of 5 repetitions
c. 5 sets of 15 repetitions
d. 1 set of 15 repetitions

c. 5 sets of 15 repetitions

Which of the following is the best exercise to train the anatomical core musculature in individuals who want to improve sport performance?

a. prone plank
b. side plank
c. back squat
d. leg raise

c. back squat

Which of the following is an advantage of machine-based training?

a. enhanced ability to target specific muscle groups
b. greater activation of stabilizer muscles
c. improved muscle activation patterns in athletic movements
d. stronger carryover to sport performance

a. enhanced ability to target specific muscle groups

Which of the following does NOT occur when a ground-based free weight training exercise is performed on an unstable surface?

a. power output decreases
b. total force production decreases
c. rate of force development decreases
d. need to perform other exercises decreases

d. need to perform other exercises decreases

Which of the following factors is held constant during an accommodating resistance training exercise?

a. external load
b. speed of movement
c. range of motion
d. mechanical advantage

b. speed of movement

Which of the following factors is held constant during a traditional resistance training exercise?

a. external load
b. speed of movement
c. range of motion
d. mechanical advantage

a. external load

Which of the following is an advantage of variable-resistance training?

a. minimizes the external load
b. improves compensatory deceleration
c. maximizes the mechanical disadvantage
d. matches the changes in joint leverage

d. matches the changes in joint leverage

Which of the following techniques to flip a heavy-equipment tire commonly uses the narrowest hand position or grip?

a. shoulders against the tire
b. backlift
c. sumo
d. back flip

c. sumo

Weaker individuals often display _______________ and may benefit from the use of unilateral training methods.

a. bilateral facilitation
b. unilateral deficits
c. bilateral deficits
d. unilateral facilitation

c. bilateral deficits

Which of the following muscles are primarily trained during the single-leg Romanian deadlift exercise?

a. gluteus maximus
b. rectus femoris
c. vastus medialis
d. trapezius

a. gluteus maximus

The single-leg Romanian deadlift can be performed with the weight held in the hand of the same side of the body as the support leg (_______) or in the hand of the opposite side of the body as the support leg (_______).

a. ipsilateral; contralateral
b. unilateral; bilateral
c. contralateral; ipsilateral
d. bilateral; unilateral

a. ipsilateral; contralateral

Which of the following grips is used for the hammer curl exercise?

a. open, pronated
b. open, alternated
c. closed, neutral
d. closed, supinated

c. closed, neutral

All of the following are points of contact with the bench or the floor when an athlete is in the five-point body contact position EXCEPT

a. head
b. right hand
c. left foot
d. buttocks

b. right hand

As the bench press exercise is performed, the sticking point occurs at which of the following points within an athlete’s range of motion?

a. at the end of the concentric phase
b. at the beginning of the eccentric phase
c. immediately before the transition from the concentric phase to the eccentric phase
d. soon after the transition from the eccentric phase to the concentric phase

d. soon after the transition from the eccentric phase to the concentric phase

An athlete performing which of the following workouts has the greatest need for a weight belt?

a. back squat at 90% 1RM
b. deadlift at 50% 1RM
c. lat pulldown at 95% 1RM
d. bench press at 85% 1RM

a. back squat at 90% 1RM

Which of the following exercises does not require one or more spotters?

a. barbell shoulder press
b. forward step lunge
c. bench press
d. snatch

d. snatch

Which of the following grip widths can be determined using the fist-to-opposite-shoulder method or the elbow-to-elbow method?

a. wide grip
b. snatch grip
c. common grip
d. clean grip

b. snatch grip

Which of the following is a guideline for proper technique for the first pull of the power clean exercise?

a. Rapidly shrug the shoulders upward.
b. As the bar is raised, keep it as close to the shins as possible.
c. Flex the elbows to begin pulling the body under the bar.
d. Slightly flex the knees to move the thighs against and the knees under the bar.

b. As the bar is raised, keep it as close to the shins as possible.

When an athlete is performing the upward movement phase of the seated barbell shoulder press exercise, all of the following specify the action of the spotter to assist the athlete to perform the first repetition EXCEPT

a. Stand erect behind the bench with the feet shoulder-width apart.
b. Position the knees slightly flexed.
c. Grasp the bar with a closed, alternated grip inside the athlete’s hands.
d. Signal the athlete and then lift the bar off the supports.

c. Grasp the bar with a closed, alternated grip inside the athlete’s hands.

Which of the following is a major muscle involved with the leg extension exercise?

a. semimembranosus
b. biceps femoris
c. semitendinosus
d. rectus femoris

d. rectus femoris

Which of the following describes the difference between the upward movement phase of the push press compared to the push jerk?

a. Hip and knee extension thrust is only forceful enough to drive the bar one-half to two-thirds the distance overhead.
b. The hips and knees are slightly flexed after the thrust.
c. The bar is accelerated so forcefully that it ends in the overhead position.
d. Hip and knee extension occurs only at the end of the upward movement phase.

a. Hip and knee extension thrust is only forceful enough to drive the bar one-half to two-thirds the distance overhead.

Which of the following is a temperature-related effect of a well-designed warm-up?

a. enhanced neural function
b. postactivation potentiation
c. increased blood flow to muscles
d. elevated baseline oxygen consumption

a. enhanced neural function

Which of the following are the components of the RAMP protocol?

a. raise, antagonist, mobilize, proprioception
b. regulate, activate, motivate, potentiate
c. raise, activate, mobilize, potentiate
d. regulate, antagonist, motivate, proprioception

c. raise, activate, mobilize, potentiate

An athlete performing ballistic stretching should follow which of the following guidelines?

a. Hold for 15 to 30 seconds.
b. Involve an active muscular effort.
c. Stretch to the point of mild discomfort.
d. Remain in the end position without movement.

b. Involve an active muscular effort.

Which of the following describes a Golgi tendon organ?

a. sensitive to increases in muscular tension
b. monitors changes in muscle length
c. runs parallel to extrafusal muscle fibers
d. located within intrafusal muscle fibers

a. sensitive to increases in muscular tension

During a PNF stretch, all of the following muscle actions are used to facilitate the passive stretch of a muscle EXCEPT

a. isometric muscle action of the agonist
b. concentric muscle action of the antagonist
c. passive stretch of the antagonist
d. concentric muscle action of the agonist

a. isometric muscle action of the agonist

An athlete is performing repeated walking knee lift stretches. Which of the following is the best definition of the type of stretching being completed?

a. passive stretching
b. dynamic stretching
c. ballistic stretching
d. PNF stretching

b. dynamic stretching

Which of the following describes muscle and connective tissue elasticity?

a. the ability of a muscle to stretch
b. ability to return to original resting length after a passive stretch
c. the tendency to gain GTOs from a ballistic stretch
d. the tendency to assume a new and greater length after a passive stretch

b. ability to return to original resting length after a passive stretch

Regarding age and sex of individuals, which of the following is true?

a. Males tend to be more flexible than females.
b. Older people tend to be more flexible than younger people.
c. Flexibility between older men and women is due to structural and anatomical differences.
d. Fibrous connective tissue replaces degenerating muscle fibers in older people.

d. Fibrous connective tissue replaces degenerating muscle fibers in older people.

Which type of joint in the body typically exhibits the greatest ROM?

a. hinge
b. saddle
c. ellipsoidal
d. ball-and-socket

d. ball-and-socket

Which of the following describes the difference between dynamic ROM and static ROM?

a. Dynamic ROM is greater than static ROM.
b. Static ROM is greater than dynamic ROM.
c. Static ROM requires voluntary muscle activity but dynamic ROM does not.
d. Dynamic ROM requires involuntary muscle activity but static ROM does not.

b. Static ROM is greater than dynamic ROM.

Which of the following is an example of a low-speed muscular strength test?

a. power clean 1RM
b. bench press 1RM
c. vertical jump
d. Wingate anaerobic test

b. bench press 1RM

An athlete struggles to return to a "ready" stance after jumping for a ball. This deficiency demonstrates a need to improve which of the following components of athletic performance?

a. balance
b. flexibility
c. stability
d. local muscular endurance

c. stability

Anthropometry generally includes measurements of all of the following EXCEPT

a. height
b. weight
c. body girths
d. BMI

d. BMI

During the 300-yard (274 m) shuttle run, how far away are the lines, and how many round trips are made to complete this test?

a. 15 yards (13.7 m) apart with 20 trips
b. 50 yards (45.7 m) apart with 3 trip
c. 30 yards (27.4 m) apart with 10 trips
d. 25 yards (22.9 m) apart with 6 trips

a. 15 yards (13.7 m) apart with 20 trips

For men and women respectively, which of the following loads should be used for the YMCA bench press test?

a. 40 pounds (18.2 kg) and 15 pounds (6.8 kg)
b. 80 pounds (36.4 kg) and 35 pounds (15.9 kg)
c. 95 pounds (43.2 kg) and 45 pounds (20.5 kg)
d. 135 pounds (61.4 kg) and 65 pounds (29.5 kg)

b. 80 pounds (36.4 kg) and 35 pounds (15.9 kg)

Which of the following is a valid test of local muscular endurance for a well-trained athlete?

a. push-up test
b. Wingate anaerobic test
c. star excursion balance test
d. Yo-Yo intermittent recovery test

a. push-up test

A female athlete’s body fat percentage was measured before the competitive season. If she was classified as "leaner than average," what was her measurement?

a. <15%
b. 16-18%
c. 19-20%
d. 21-25%

c. 19-20%

Which of the following allows for someone to draw conclusions about a population from the information collected in a population sample?

a. magnitude statistics
b. central tendency
c. inferential statistics
d. effect size

c. inferential statistics

Which of the following instructions should the coach give to an athlete when assessing the athlete’s reactive strength index?

a. "Place your hands on your hips while on top of the drop box."
b. "Jump off the box as high as possible."
c. "When you contact the ground, jump as far forward as possible."
d. "Change your strategy with each jump to try to get the greatest distance."

a. "Place your hands on your hips while on top of the drop box."

Which of the following is the effect size for a 10-week squat training program? The athletes’ pretraining 1RM squat mean was 150 kg (330 pounds), the posttraining 1RM squat mean was 156 kg (343.2 pounds), and the standard deviation was 6 kg (13.2 pounds).

a. -1.0
b. 1.0
c. -0.03
d. 0.04

b. 1.0

An athlete is having measurements taken to assess her body composition. The coach uses a DEXA scan and a new method he is being asked to test. The purpose of using these two measures is to establish what type of validity of the new test?

a. concurrent
b. predictive
c. construct
d. discriminant

a. concurrent

If an athlete’s test result is high on one day and low the next day, which of the following aspects of test quality appears to be compromised?

a. face validity
b. reliability
c. recognized measure of the test
d. criterion-referenced validity

b. reliability

If a coach is planning to schedule testing and it must all be performed on the same day, which is the most ideal sequence for testing?

a. agility, maximum power and strength, sprints, local muscular endurance, anaerobic capacity, aerobic capacity, nonfatiguing
b. nonfatiguing, agility, maximum power and strength, sprints, local muscular endurance, anaerobic capacity, aerobic capacity
c. aerobic capacity, anaerobic capacity, local muscular endurance, sprints, maximum power and strength, agility, nonfatiguing
d. maximum power and strength, agility, sprints, aerobic capacity, local muscular endurance, nonfatiguing, anaerobic capacity

b. nonfatiguing, agility, maximum power and strength, sprints, local muscular endurance, anaerobic capacity, aerobic capacity

Due to availability of the track, a coach testing her athletes’ 5K time must test them in the early afternoon, which is the hottest part of the day in their location. Which of the following guidelines is LEAST effective for minimizing health risks and obtaining accurate results?

a. Be acclimatized to the heat and humidity for 2 hours before testing.
b. Go shirtless or wear loose-fitting tank tops and shorts.
c. Be attentive to cramps, nausea, and dizziness.
d. Monitor heart rate.

a. Be acclimatized to the heat and humidity for 2 hours before testing.

What is the minimum length of the rest period recommended between trials that are close to an athlete’s maximum?

a. 2 minutes
b. 3 minutes
c. 4 minutes
d. 5 minutes

b. 3 minutes

Which of the following combination of tests would be most relevant for an American football wide receiver?

a. bench press and 10-yard (9 m) sprint
b. vertical jump and 10-yard (9 m) sprint
c. bench press and 30- to 100-yard (27-91 m) sprint
d. vertical jump and 30- to 100-yard (27-91 m) sprint

d. vertical jump and 30- to 100-yard (27-91 m) sprint

One scorer for a group testing allowed a partial last repetition to count toward an athlete’s total score on the pull-up test, while another scorer did not count that repetition. This difference between scorers is related to which of the following?

a. intrasubject variability
b. intrarater variability
c. interrater reliability
d. test-retest reliability

c. interrater reliability

All of the following are athlete-related factors to consider when selecting tests EXCEPT

a. training age
b. sport skill level
c. position within the sport
d. biomechanical movement pattern specificity

d. biomechanical movement pattern specificity

An athlete is able to identify that the back squat 1RM test is being used to test her maximal lower body strength. This is an example of which of the following?

a. reliability
b. face validity
c. convergent validity
d. interrater agreement

b. face validity

Which of the following is LEAST helpful to record to aid in future testing sessions for an athlete?

a. mental state of athlete on testing day
b. order in which the tests were performed
c. setup of the equipment
d. environmental conditions

a. mental state of athlete on testing day

All of the following are typical patterns for the usage of steroids EXCEPT

a. stacking
b. step-up pattern
c. augmented
d. cyclic pattern

c. augmented

Which of the following is the term for hormone precursors that are theorized to increase the body’s ability to produce a given specific hormone?

a. prohormones
b. HCG
c. prior hormones
d. testosterone

a. prohormones

Acromegaly, a disfiguring disease characterized by a widening of the bones, arthritis, organ enlargement, and metabolic abnormalities, is a risk factor for athletes who use which of the following as an ergogenic aid?

a. testosterone
b. HGH
c. HCG
d. erythropoietin

b. HGH

An athlete who is an archer is struggling with anxiety prior to his performance, which is also causing his hands and body to shake. Which of the following would be the most ideal ergogenic aid to help him with these issues?

a.
b. erythropoietin
c. bolasterone
d.

d.

An athlete has been taking a supplement for roughly 40 days. He has seen an increase in his squat 1RM, body weight, and vertical jump height. Which of the following is he most likely supplementing with?

a. creatine
b. insulin
c. sodium citrate
d. HMB

a. creatine

A marathon runner is looking to improve her time to fatigue and ability to run longer distances. A combination of which supplements would best help her to achieve these goals?

a. arginine and sodium bicarbonate
b.
c. sodium citrate, HMB, and nitric acid
d. caffeine, citrus aurantium, and erythropoietin

d. caffeine, citrus aurantium, and erythropoietin

The muscle buffering capacity relates to an athlete’s ability to

a. produce
b. gain lean muscle mass
c. use amino acids
d. regulate H+ concentrations.

d. regulate H+ concentrations.

Which of the following substances should the strength and conditioning professional suspect an athlete is taking if the athlete is experiencing tremors, dizziness, heart palpitations, and insomnia?

a. clenbuterol
b.
c.
d. sodium bicarbonate

a. clenbuterol

Which of the following is the purported ergogenic effect of oral supplementation of arginine?

a. decreased nitric oxide levels
b. increased maximal strength
c. increased muscle blood flow
d. decreased synthesis of creatine

c. increased muscle blood flow

An aerobic endurance athlete is planning a precompetition meal. If she is able to eat 2.5 hours before her event, what is the recommended amount of carbohydrate to consume if she weighs 110 pounds (50 kg)?

a. 25 g
b. 50 g
c. 75 g
d. 110 g

b. 50 g

If an adult athlete is training to increase muscle hypertrophy, which of the following is a primary nutrition recommendation?

a. Consume 10 g of high-quality, high-leucine protein immediately after exercise.
b. Consume 20 g of high-quality, high-leucine protein every 3 to 4 hours.
c. Consume 25 g of high-glycemic carbohydrate immediately after exercise.
d. Consume 65 g of high-glycemic carbohydrate every 3 to 4 hours.

b. Consume 20 g of high-quality, high-leucine protein every 3 to 4 hours.

If an athlete weighs 158 pounds (72 kg) and is 5 feet, 7 inches (170 cm) tall, what is the athlete’s BMI?

a. 20.3 kg/m²
b. 24.7 kg/m²
c. 30.7 kg/m²
d. 42.3 kg/m²

a. 20.3 kg/m² b. 24.7 kg/m² c. 30.7 kg/m² d. 42.3 kg/m²

An athlete is complaining that he is suffering from constipation and frequently feels cold. Coaches have also noticed his skin has a slight yellow tint with dry patches. Which of the following conditions should the strength and conditioning professional suspect?

a. pica
b. binge eating
c. bulimia nervosa
d. anorexia nervosa

d. anorexia nervosa

Which of the following is the main challenge with carbohydrate loading in females?

a. the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle
b. an insufficient overall caloric intake
c. a greater capacity to store glycogen
d. a reduced preference for carbohydrate foods

b. an insufficient overall caloric intake

An individual often eats his meals alone, is overweight, and seems to eat large amounts of food even when not very hungry. Which of the following conditions should the strength and conditioning professional suspect?

a. pica
b. binge eating
c. bulimia nervosa
d. anorexia nervosa

b. binge eating

All of the following are characteristics of sports with an increased prevalence of disordered eating and eating disorders EXCEPT

a. involvement of a strength component
b. emphasis on leanness
c. emphasis on aesthetics
d. involvement of weight classes

a. involvement of a strength component

Which of the following contributes the most to total energy expenditure?

a. exercise
b. fat mass
c. basal metabolic rate
d. diet-induced thermogenesis

c. basal metabolic rate

Which of the following are the appropriate fluid intake recommendations during practice and competition for children weighing 40 kg (88 pounds), even if they do not feel thirsty?

a. 5 ounces (148 ml) every 20 minutes
b. 5 ounces (148 ml) every 40 minutes
c. 9 ounces (256 ml) every 20 minutes
d. 9 ounces (256 ml) every 40 minutes

a. 5 ounces (148 ml) every 20 minutes

All of the following are factors that may affect the amount of muscle damage experienced by athletes in high-intensity intermittent sports EXCEPT

a. duration of the workout
b. body size of the athlete
c. intensity of the workout
d. endurance capabilities of the athlete

d. endurance capabilities of the athlete

equirement adequate for meeting the needs of most healthy people within each life stage and sex"?

a. Estimated Average Requirement
b. Adequate Intake
c. Recommended Dietary Allowance
d. Dietary Reference Intake

c. Recommended Dietary Allowance

Which of the following is a macronutrient?

a. protein
b. fiber
c. sodium
d. water

a. protein

The minimum recommended intake of protein for athletes is ______ g/kg of body weight.

a. 0.7
b. 1.0
c. 1.4
d. 1.7

b. 1.0

A deficiency in which of the following nutrients is the most prevalent nutrition deficiency worldwide and can cause weakness, fatigue, and decreased exercise capacity?

a. calcium
b. B12
c. protein
d. iron

d. iron

After a 2-hour outdoor training session, an athlete lost 3 pounds (1.4 kg). How much fluid should this athlete consume to return to a more ideal hydration state?

a. 1.5 L (50 ounces)
b. 3 L (96 ounces)
c. 1.5 cups (355 ml)
d. 3 cups (710 ml)

a. 1.5 L (50 ounces)

Which of the following conditions is defined as having diluted blood sodium levels (<130 mmol/L)?

a. hypohydration
b. hypernatremia
c. hyponatremia
d. euhydration

c. hyponatremia

A high serum level of which of the following substances is protective against heart disease?

a. cholesterol
b. VLDL
c. triglycerides
d. HDL

d. HDL

An athlete training for a marathon averages around 95 minutes of training a day at 75% of her If she weighs 126 pounds (57 kg), what is her minimum recommended daily intake of carbohydrate?

a. 85.5 g
b. 285 g
c. 456 g
d. 570 g

c. 456 g

Excessive intake of which of the following vitamins can lead to liver damage, dizziness, and joint pain?

a. A
b. D
c. E
d. K

a. A

During prolonged activity in hot weather, an athlete should consume a sport drink that meets which of the following guidelines?

a. 5-10% of carbohydrate
b. 0-5 °C (32-41 °F)
c. 200-300 mEq of sodium per liter
d. 12-15 mEq of potassium per liter

a. 5-10% of carbohydrate

All of the following describe the ideal performance state EXCEPT

a. strong sense of personal control
b. effective analysis of the performance
c. distortion of time and space
d. narrow focus of attention

b. effective analysis of the performance

______ anxiety is the actual experience of apprehension and uncontrolled arousal and ______ anxiety is a personality characteristic, which represents a latent disposition to perceive situations as threatening.

a. Somatic, cognitive
b. Trait, state
c. Cognitive, somatic
d. State, trait

d. State, trait

According to Hull’s drive theory, which of the following factors affect an athlete’s level of arousal and, consequently, the athlete’s performance?

a. skill level, task complexity
b. stress, adrenaline production
c. arousal, attention to detail
d. experience level, cognition

a. skill level, task complexity

Which of the following describes how the individual zones of optimal functioning theory differs from the inverted-U theory?

a. Athletes experience poor performance when feeling flat or underaroused.
b. A specific emotion generates enhanced performance in all athletes.
c. Athletes experience poor performance when feeling too "amped up."
d. Ideal performance does not always occur at the midpoint of the arousal continuum.

d. Ideal performance does not always occur at the midpoint of the arousal continuum.

A coach informs his athletes that at the beginning of the competitive season he will be testing the back squat 1RM on all athletes and he hopes to see at least a 5% improvement for each team member. Shelby is excited by this new goal and the chance to evaluate her abilities. She likely is experiencing what type of motivation?

a. motive to avoid failure
b. motivation to protect her ego
c. motivation to avoid shame
d. motive to achieve success

d. motive to achieve success

Which of the following is a relaxation technique that has been shown to be useful in injured and older athletes?

a. progressive muscular relaxation
b. autogenic training
c. systematic desensitization
d. counterconditioning

b. autogenic training

Winning is typically the primary focus of what type of goal?

a. outcome goal
b. process goal
c. optimal goal
d. master goal

a. outcome goal

What are the five main primary methods of incorporating a practice structure and schedule into an athlete’s program?

a. segmentation, whole, repetitive part, random, observational
b. part, random, pure-part, observational, progressive-part
c. observational, explicit, fractionalization, random, variable
d. whole, part, random, variable, observational

d. whole, part, random, variable, observational

_______ feedback is provided to the athlete by the athlete from the senses, while _______ feedback is provided to the athlete by an observer or other external source.

a. Observational, segmented
b. Personal, team
c. Intrinsic, augmented
d. Guided, explicit

c. Intrinsic, augmented

A coach informs the team running a 40-yard (37 m) sprint that she would like everyone to complete the first trial in under 4.8 seconds. This coach is providing what kind of feedback to her athletes?

a. intrinsic
b. instructional
c. analysis of practice
d. knowledge of results

d. knowledge of results

A strength and conditioning professional is training two 16-year-old males; one has developed facial hair and a deepened voice, while the other has not. Which of the following is the most effective indicator of their physical maturation level?

a. exercise readiness
b. chronological age
c. skeletal age
d. emotional maturity

c. skeletal age

As boys grow, they become taller and gain body mass. During this time, muscle changes as well, first in _______________ and second in _______________.

a. high-level force production; velocity
b. velocity; weight
c. weight; mass
d. mass; high-level force production

d. mass; high-level force production

Which of the following types of body proportions is characterized by a rounder body with broader hips?

a. mesomorph
b. endomorph
c. polymorph
d. ectomorph

b. endomorph

Which of the following is the primary mechanism leading to strength gains in preadolescents?

a. hypertrophy
b. hyperplasia
c. circulating hormones (testosterone and growth hormone)
d. neural factors (motor unit activation and synchronization)

d. neural factors (motor unit activation and synchronization)

All of the following are benefits of resistance training in youth EXCEPT

a. decreased insulin sensitivity
b. decreased body fat
c. increased motor skills
d. increased cardiac function

a. decreased insulin sensitivity

When comparing males and females, which of the following is true regarding strength and power capabilities?

a. Absolute upper body strength of women is generally closer to male values as compared to the absolute values for lower body strength.
b. When expressed relative to body weight, the upper body strength of women is similar to that of men.
c. When strength is expressed relative to muscle cross-sectional area, no significant difference exists between sexes.
d. Women’s absolute power output is about 63% of men’s power output.

c. When strength is expressed relative to muscle cross-sectional area, no significant difference exists between sexes.

The female athlete triad is the interrelationship between what three factors?

a. overtraining, menorrhagia, inadequate protein intake
b. energy availability, menstrual function, bone mineral density
c. inadequate iron intake, osteogenesis, performance decrements
d. prolonged menstruation, gastrointestinal complications, weight-bearing activities

b. energy availability, menstrual function, bone mineral density

Which of the following is generally discouraged in older adults, due to the sudden rise in blood pressure it can create?

a. power training
b. balance and flexibility training
c. Valsalva maneuver
d. stair climbing

c. Valsalva maneuver

Sarcopenia is associated with all of the following changes due to advancing age EXCEPT

a. decreased axial skeletal height
b. denervation of muscle fibers
c. diminished ability to produce force rapidly
d. reduced tendon compliance

a. decreased axial skeletal height

Joint laxity, skill level, limb alignment, and neuromuscular deficiency are all thought to be factors in the occurrence of what common injury?

a. anterior cruciate ligament tear
b. ankle fracture
c. shoulder dislocation
d. carpal tunnel syndrome

a. anterior cruciate ligament tear

Stroke volume is regulated by which of the following mechanisms?

a. end-systolic volume and skeletal muscle pump
b. skeletal muscle pump and end-diastolic volume
c. end-diastolic volume and catecholamines
d. catecholamines and end-systolic volume

c. end-diastolic volume and catecholamines

Which of the following is an effect of the Frank-Starling mechanism?

a. increased cardiac emptying
b. decreased stretch of the myocardial fibers
c. decreased volume of systolic ejection
d. increased parasympathetic stimulation

a. increased cardiac emptying

Which of the following is the standard deviation of the 220 – age in years equation to estimate maximal heart rate?

a. ±2 to 4 beats/min
b. ±6 to 8 beats/min
c. ±10 to 12 beats/min
d. ±14 to 16 beats/min

c. ±10 to 12 beats/min

What is the MET equivalent of a of 55.0 ml·kg-1·min-1?

a. 192.5
b. 55.0
c. 15.7
d. 2.1

c. 15.7

Which of the following areas of the pulmonary system is not functional for gas exchange in healthy athletes?

a. bronchi
b. bronchioles
c. physiological dead space
d. anatomical dead space

d. anatomical dead space

Which of the following physiological characteristics decreases as an adaptation to aerobic endurance training?

a. resting cardiac output
b. resting arteriovenous oxygen difference
c. maximal fiber shortening velocity
d. maximal stroke volume

a. resting cardiac output

Which of the following are the immediate physiological adjustments to elevation (>3,900 ft [1,200 m])?

a. decreased number of mitochondria and increased capillary density
b. excretion of HCO3- and decreased plasma volume
c. increased maximal heart rate and decreased stroke volume
d. hyperventilation and increased cardiac output

d. hyperventilation and increased cardiac output

Which of the following is a potential marker of aerobic overtraining?

a. decreased submaximal exercise heart rate
b. decreased total testosterone concentration
c. increased heart rate variability
d. increased body fat percentage

b. decreased total testosterone concentration

All of the following are reasons why maximal aerobic power decreases with age EXCEPT

a. decreased muscle mass
b. lowered incidence of sarcopenia
c. increased fat mass
d. reduced muscle strength

b. lowered incidence of sarcopenia

Which of the following explains the differences in aerobic power between men and women who are matched by age?

a. Women have a higher percentage of body fat.
b. Women have higher blood hemoglobin values.
c. Men have a smaller heart size.
d. Men have a smaller blood volume.

a. Women have a higher percentage of body fat.

Which of the following are primary neural adaptations to anaerobic training?

a. decreased firing rates and alterations to selective recruitment
b. increased neural drive and reductions in inhibitory mechanisms
c. decreased neuromuscular junction size and increased firing rates
d. lowered EMG at maximal force output and decreased reflex potentiation

b. increased neural drive and reductions in inhibitory mechanisms

_______________ is the enlargement of muscle fiber cross-sectional area, and _______________ is the increase in the number of muscle fibers via longitudinal fiber splitting.

a. Muscle density; hypoplasia
b. Hypertrophy; hyperplasia
c. Hypertrophy; muscle density
d. Hyperplasia; hypoplasia

b. Hypertrophy; hyperplasia

Which of the following have been observed in men in elevated concentrations up to 30 minutes after a resistance training workout?

a. testosterone, growth hormone, and cortisol
b. cortisol, estrogen, and testosterone
c. androgen receptors, melatonin, and growth hormone
d. renin, estrogen, and testosterone

a. testosterone, growth hormone, and cortisol

As an adaptation to anaerobic training, which of the following is the benefit of the myotatic reflex harnessing the involuntary elastic properties of muscle?

a. decreased reflex magnitude
b. decreased reflex potentiation
c. increased force production
d. increased energy expenditure

c. increased force production

As an adaptation to resistance training, which of the following is a beneficial change in pennated muscles?

a. decreased angle of pennation
b. increased fascicle length
c. decreased protein deposition
d. increased mitochondrial density

b. increased fascicle length

Minimal essential strain is the minimal threshold stimulus needed to cause which of the following changes?

a. tendon formation
b. muscular development
c. bone formation
d. hormone production

c. bone formation

Which of the following is an adaptation in tendons from high-intensity anaerobic training?

a. decreased collagen fibril diameter
b. increased packing density of collagen fibrils
c. increased capillary density
d. decreased number of collagen fibrils

b. increased packing density of collagen fibrils

All of the following factors affect the degree to which blood flow is increased in the working muscles during anaerobic training EXCEPT

a. amount of load lifted
b. number of repetitions performed
c. resting heart rate of the athlete
d. size of the muscle mass activated

c. resting heart rate of the athlete

An athlete has spent the last four resistance training sessions overworking his body. He is hoping to see a substantial increase in performance after a week of active rest. Which of the following describes his current condition?

a. prolonged maladaptation
b. parasympathetic overtraining
c. overtraining syndrome
d. functional overreaching

d. functional overreaching

Which of the following is a symptom specific to nonfunctional overreaching?

a. altered neuron function
b. decreased muscle glycogen
c. decreased force production
d. altered sympathetic activity

b. decreased muscle glycogen

Which of the following describes the change in responsiveness of a receptor to insulin?

a. lock and key
b. downregulation
c. cross-reactivity
d. hormone-receptor complex

b. downregulation

All of the following hormones use a second messenger to cause effects in the body EXCEPT

a. norepinephrine
b. serotonin
c. cortisol
d. insulin

c. cortisol

An athlete just completed a resistance training workout. All of the following are factors that influence the magnitude of the postworkout hormonal response EXCEPT

a. amount of effort the athlete gave during the workout
b. quantity of muscle tissue stimulated by the workout
c. degree of connective tissue repair needed after the workout
d. extent of structural remodeling the athlete’s body requires from the workout

a. amount of effort the athlete gave during the workout

All of the following are adaptations of the endocrine system to resistance training EXCEPT

a. amount of hormone synthesis
b. time needed for hormone clearance through the liver
c. number of receptors in muscle tissue
d. type of hormones released

d. type of hormones released

Serum levels of which of the following hormones will increase as a result of performing a resistance training workout that involves large muscle group exercises with loads 85-95% of 1RM and 30- to 60-second rest periods in athletes with two or more years of resistance training experience?

a. testosterone
b. insulin
c. growth hormone
d. thyroid hormone

a. testosterone

Polypeptide hormones are made of chains of which of the following substances?

a. polypeptides
b. secondary messengers
c. amino acids
d. mRNA

c. amino acids

If the stress of a training session is too great, which of the following is true?

a. anabolic reactions = catabolic reactions in the muscle
b. anabolic reactions < catabolic reactions in the muscle
c. anabolic reactions > catabolic reactions in the whole body
d. anabolic reactions > catabolic reactions in the muscle

b. anabolic reactions < catabolic reactions in the muscle

When one examines the effects of a resistance training program via peripheral blood hormone levels, which of the following is false?

a. Higher blood hormone levels do not indicate higher receptor interaction probability.
b. Higher blood hormone levels do not indicate the status of receptor populations.
c. Increases in circulatory concentrations mean an increase in hormone release if plasma volume stays constant.
d. Increases in peripheral hormones must be bound to a receptor in order to be realized.

a. Higher blood hormone levels do not indicate higher receptor interaction probability.

Which of the following is a physiological role of growth hormone and its superfamily?

a. decreased protein synthesis
b. decreased lipolysis
c. increased glycogen synthesis
d. increased immune cell function

d. increased immune cell function

Which of the following substances is an important biomarker for health and performance?

a. cortisol superfamily
b. IGF superfamily
c. sex hormone-binding globulins
d. catecholamines

b. IGF superfamily

The Krebs cycle occurs in which portion of the cell?

a. mitochondria
b. nucleus
c. membrane
d. cytoplasm

a. mitochondria

The law of mass action states which of the following?

a. A stronger action potential cannot produce a stronger contraction.
b. The concentrations of reactants or products will drive the direction of the reactions.
c. The weight or mass of an object creates a stronger action potential.
d. The rate of product formation is greatly influenced by the concentrations of the reactants.

b. The concentrations of reactants or products will drive the direction of the reactions.

An aerobic endurance athlete is trying to give himself a competitive edge over his opponents. To improve his lactate threshold, what type of training should he engage in, and in what direction would this shift his threshold?

a. long, slow distance; shifts to the left
b. high intensity; shifts to the right
c. moderate intensity; shifts to the left
d. long, slow distance; shifts to the right

b. high intensity; shifts to the right

Two athletes are competing in upcoming competitions, a weightlifting meet and a marathon. Which energy systems will each be primarily using, respectively?

a. oxidative and phosphagen
b. glycolytic and phosphagen
c. oxidative and glycolytic
d. phosphagen and oxidative

d. phosphagen and oxidative

Which of the following describes the portion of the total energy cost of exercise that must be supplied through anaerobic mechanisms due to the slow response of the aerobic system to the initial increase in the demand for energy?

a. oxygen debt
b. recovery O2
c. oxygen deficit
d. EPOC

c. oxygen deficit

The excess postexercise oxygen consumption experienced by athletes is caused by all of the following EXCEPT

a. changes in energy efficiency during recovery
b. decreases in body temperature
c. ATP-CP resynthesis
d. increased protein turnover

b. decreases in body temperature

If an athlete completes a maximum sprint interval in 10 seconds as part of an interval training workout, which of the following is a recommended length of the rest period before the next sprint?

a. 5 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 1 minute
d. 2 minutes

d. 2 minutes

During higher-intensity exercises, athletes often experience peripheral fatigue. Which of the following is believed to be the reason for this type of fatigue?

a. lactate
b. increase in muscle pH
c. gluconeogenesis
d. metabolic acidosis

d. metabolic acidosis

An athlete is used to performing high-intensity aerobic exercise; however, she will now be changing to longer-duration, submaximal exercise on a regular basis. This change in training strategy will typically result in what changes concerning energy supply?

a. transition from almost exclusively carbohydrate to mostly fat
b. energy substrates will continue to come from fat
c. transition from almost exclusively fat to mostly carbohydrate
d. energy substrates will continue to come from carbohydrate

a. transition from almost exclusively carbohydrate to mostly fat

Which of the following is a branched-chain amino acid?

a. alanine
b. aspartate
c. glutamate
d. isoleucine

d. isoleucine

The pelvis is located _______________ to the patella.

a. inferior
b. medial
c. superior
d. lateral

C. superior

Which of the following is the smallest contractile unit of skeletal muscle?

a. myosin
b. sarcomere
c. epimysium
d. sarcolemma

B. sarcomere

Which of the following describes Type I muscle fibers?

a. inefficient and easily fatigable
b. rapid force development capabilities
c. high myosin ATPase activity
d. fatigue resistant with high aerobic energy supply

D. fatigue resistant with high aerobic energy supply

Which of the following describes the flow of blood?

a. right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body
b. left ventricle, left atrium, body, right ventricle, right atrium, lungs
c. body, right ventricle, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, left atrium
d. right ventricle, right atrium, body, left ventricle, left atrium, lungs

a. right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body

On average, how many times per minute does the SA node discharge at rest?

a. 10-30
b. 35-55
c. 60-80
d. 85-105

c. 60-80

Which of the following are the two main divisions of the skeletal system?

a. upper and lower body
b. appendicular and axial
c. medial and lateral
d. endergonic and exergonic

b. appendicular and axial

Some of the highest bone mineral densities have been seen in which of the following types of athletes?

a. gymnasts
b. cross-country skiers
c. swimmers
d. field hockey players

a. gymnasts

What joint comprises the ankle and wrist joints?

a. hyaline
b. multiaxial
c. biaxial
d. simple

c. biaxial

Which of the following is the order of the phases of a muscle contraction?

a. contraction, relaxation, excitation-contraction coupling, recharge, resting
b. excitation-contraction coupling, relaxation, contraction, resting, recharge
c. resting, excitation-contraction coupling, contraction, recharge, relaxation
d. relaxation, recharge, excitation-contraction coupling, resting, contraction

c. resting, excitation-contraction coupling, contraction, recharge, relaxation

The chronotropic effect is caused by stimulation of the _______________ nervous system and causes the heart rate to _______________.

a. parasympathetic; decrease
b. parasympathetic; increase
c. sympathetic; decrease
d. sympathetic; increase

d. sympathetic; increase

Two individuals of the same body mass are lifting weights. Assuming all other factors to be equal, the person with tendons inserted on the bone _______________ the joint center should be able to lift _______________ weight.

a. closer to; a heavier
b. medial to; less
c. laterally to; less
d. farther from; a heavier

d. farther from; a heavier

Which anatomical plane divides the body into left and right sections?

a. sagittal
b. transverse
c. perpendicular
d. frontal

a. sagittal

An athlete in the weight room is performing the barbell bench press. If he moves a mass of 75 kg with an acceleration of 2 m/s², what force is he exerting?

a. 37.5 N
b. 37.5 kg·m-1·s²
c. 150 N
d. 150 kg·m-1·s²

c. 150 N

Neural control affects the maximal force output of a muscle by determining which and how many motor units are involved in a muscle contraction and the rate at which the motor units are fired. These two factors are known as what, respectively?

a. rate coding; EMG
b. EMG; firing rates
c. recruitment; rate coding
d. firing rates; recruitment

c. recruitment; rate coding

All of the following are considered to be advantages when using weight-stack machines EXCEPT

a. design flexibility
b. simulates real-life activities
c. reduced likelihood of injury
d. easy to use

b. simulates real-life activities

Which of the following is the resistive force encountered when one attempts to move an object while it is pressed against another object?

a. friction
b. inertia
c. obstruction
d. gravity

a. friction

Eighty-five to ninety percent of all intervertebral disk herniations occur at what two locations?

a. T4-T5 and T5-L1
b. L4-L5 and L5-S1
c. T5-L1 and S1-S2
d. S1-S2 and L3-L4

b. L4-L5 and L5-S1

An athlete produced 840 watts of power in 0.6 seconds. How much work did this individual perform during the exercise?

a. 1400 kJ
b. 504 kJ
c. 1400 J
d. 504 J

d. 504 J

Which of the muscles or muscle groups have a fusiform pennation?

a. deltoid
b. biceps brachii
c. rectus femoris
d. tibialis posterior

b. biceps brachii

As an athlete’s body size increases, which of the following describes how body mass and muscular strength change?

a. Muscular strength increases more rapidly than body mass.
b. Body mass increases more rapidly than muscular strength.
c. Muscular strength and body mass increase at the same rate.

b. Body mass increases more rapidly than muscular strength

Share This
Flashcard

More flashcards like this

NCLEX 10000 Integumentary Disorders

When assessing a client with partial-thickness burns over 60% of the body, which finding should the nurse report immediately? a) ...

Read more

NCLEX 300-NEURO

A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) tells the nurse, "Sometimes I feel so frustrated. I can’t do anything without ...

Read more

NASM Flashcards

Which of the following is the process of getting oxygen from the environment to the tissues of the body? Diffusion ...

Read more

Unfinished tasks keep piling up?

Let us complete them for you. Quickly and professionally.

Check Price

Successful message
sending