CPT-

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The Coders responsibility is to ensure that the data are as accurate as poosible

True

The Federal Register is the official publication for all Presidential Docum.

True

Natioonal unit values have been assigned for each service by Medicare

True

Fraud is an intentional deception or misrepresentive on that an individual knows to be false or does not believe to be true

True

Kickbacks from patients are allowed under certain circumstance according to Medicare guidelines

False

When using an unlisted code a _____must accompany the claim
A. Modifier
B. Operative Report
C. Special Report
D all of the above

C. Special Report

The surgical package includes:
A. General anesthesia
B. Typical follow-up care
C. E/M visit requiring decision for surgery
D. All of the above

B. Typical follow-up Care

Local anesthesia is defined in the CPT guidelines as
A local infiltration
B metacarpal/digital block
C topic anesthesia
D all the above

D. All of the above

The usual global surgery period for a major procedure is
A 10 Days
B. 30 Days
C. 60 days
D. 90 Days

D. 90 Days

The global surgery period includes
A. All routine preoperative and postoperative care
B. Serious complications requiring a return to the operating room
C. Staged procedures
D. All of the above

A. All routine preoperative and postoperative care

Incision and drainage codes are divided into subcategories according to the
A. Size of the lesion
B. condition for which the procedure is performed
C. depth of the incision
D. amount of the drainage

B. Condition for which the procedure is performed

When an excision is being performed the ‘margins" refer the ______required to adequately excise the lesion based on the physicians judgment
A. Widest diameter
B. narrowest margin
C. Square centimeters
D. length

B. Narrowest margin

What two items are needed to correctly code for local treatment of burns?
A. Length and width of burn
B. width and depth of burn
C. percentage of body surface and depth of burn
D. Percentage of body surface and width of burn

C. Percentage of body surface and depth of burn

This information is placed after some codes in the CPT manual and contains helpful information
A. Parenthetical information
B. Guidelines
C. Index location
D. bracketed information

A. Parenthetical information

What code is used to report routine postoperative care
A. No code
B. 99312
C. 99024
D. 99211

C. 99024

What are divisions of the surgery sections of CPT based on
A. Body area
B. physician subspecialty area
C. body system
D. third-party payer requirements

C. Body System

Excision of pilonidal cyst that was a complicated procedure
A. 11770
B. 11771
C. 11772
D. 10081

C. 11772

When the words "separate procedure" appear after the descriptor of a code, yoou know which of the following about that code
A. The procedure was only service provided on that day
B. The procedure provided was on a day other than the major procedure
C. The procedure was a minor procedure that would only be coded if it was the only service provided

C. The procedure was a minor procedure that would only be coded if it was the only service provided

Excision including closure of benign lessons of the skin including this type of anesthesia
A. Local
B. General
C. Spinal
D. None of the above

A. Local

The CPT code that is used to report material and supplies by the physician for which no other more specific CPT code exists is:
A. 99070
B. 99080
C. 99071
D. 99000

A. 99070

A triangle before a code indicates that the code is or has been
A. Major
B. Partial
C. discontinued
D. Revised

D. Revised

The incentive to Medicare participating is:
A. Direct payment is made on all claims
B. A 5% higher fee schedule
C. Faster processing
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Part B services are billed using
A. RBRVS, GPCI, and RVUs
B. ICD-10-CM, CPT, HCPCS
C. MS-DRGs
D. APCs

B. ICD-10 CM, CPT, HCPCS

Who is the largest third-party payer in the nation
A. Blue Cross Blue Shield
B. Aetna
C. Cigna
D. The Government

D. The Government

The physician fee schedule is updated each April 15 and is composed of
A. The relative value unit for each service
B. A geographic adjustment factor to adjust for regional variations in the cost of operating a health care facility
C. A national conversion factor
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Medicare sets the payment level for assistants at surgery at a percentage of the fee schedule for the _______surgical services
A. Global
B. United
C. Partial
D. Subsequent

A. Global

What are the items that the Medicare beneficiaries are responsible to pay before Medicare will begin to pay for services
A. Personal care items
B. Deductibles, drug costs, personal care items
C. Premiums
D. Deductibles, premiums, and coinsurance

D. Deductibles, premiums, and coinsurance

Medicare funds are collected by
A. US Food and drug administration
B. Social Security Administration
C. National Center for health statistics
D. Department of the Treasury

B. Social Security Administration

Which of the following is NOT a stated goal of the Physician Payment Reform?
A. Decrease Medicare expenditures
B. Assure quality health care at a reasonable cost
C. Limit provider provider liabilities
D. Redistribute physician payment more equitably

C. Limit provider liabilities

The Medicare prescription drug improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003 established these new benefits available under the Medicare program
A. Part A
B. Part B
C. Part C
D. Part D

D. Part D

This Program is also known as Medicare Advantage
A. Part A
B. Part B
C. Part C
D. Part D

C. Part C

The correct code for repairing the following lacerations: 4.2 simple repair of the trunk, 1.3 simple repair of the arm, and 2.8 intermediate repair of the scalp
A. 12032, 12001-51, 12002-51
B. 12004
C. 12034
D. 12032, 12002-51

D. 12032, 12002-51

When reporting a staged procedure what modifier is added to the CPT code?
A. -25
B-51
C. -58
D. -76

C. -58

Destruction of 7 actinic keratoses:
A. -17004
B. 17000 x 7 units
C. -17000, 17003, x7 units
D. -17000, 17003 x 6units

D. -17000, 17003 x 6 units

Which modifier indicates a significant, separately identifiable E/M service
A. -25
B. -51
C. -50
D. -47

A. -25

If you want to bill the removal of skin tags using codes 11200 and 11201. you would need to know with absolute certainty
A. The method of removal
B. whether or not local
C. the number of tags removed
D. The precise area

C. The number of tags removed

Mr. Anderson has dropped a hammer on his big toe resulting in the collection of blood beneath the nail
A. 11740
B. 11760
C. 11765
D. 11730

A. 11740

Jessica Reynolds is a 33 y/o woman with two children. She has been using implantable contraceptives for five years
A. 11976, 11975
B. 11977
C. 11983
D. 11982, 11981

B. 11977

Suffix meaning a technique involving molding or surgically forming
A. -rrhaphy
B. -centesis
C. -plasty
D. None of the above

C-plasty

Oter layer of skin
A. dermis
B. epidermis
C. subcutaneous layer
D. derm

B. epidermis

A graft taken from the patient’s own body is called:
A. Split graft
B. Xenograft
C. autograft
D. pinch graft

C. Autograft

National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI)

Automated edits that identify pairs of services that normally should not be billed by the same physician for the same patient on the same day are part of the

Dr. Wells began surgery on an 86-year-old female with severe hypertension. The patient was satisfactorily anesthetized and the site opened to view. Shortly thereafter, the patient’s blood pressure dropped significantly, and the physician was unable to stabilize the patient. The procedure was discontinued.

Modifier -53

The patient is a 10-month-old boy who fell while trying to walk. He cut the bottom of his lip open. Sutures are necessary, but due to the patient’s age and excessive movement, general anesthesia is needed.

Modifier -23

A patient has a hernia repair and 2 days later must be returned to the operating room for a dehiscence of the incision. When coding the secondary hernia repair, which modifier would you add onto the surgical codes?

Modifier -78

A surgeon performed a repair of an enterocele using an abdominal approach and reported the service with 57270. Then patient was morbidly obese with a BMI of 42, and due to this circumstance, the procedure took a significant amount of additional time to perform.

Modifier -22

During a radical right descended orchiectomy for an extensive malignant tumor (54435), the patient began to hemorrhage. After considerable time and effort, the hemorrhage was controlled.

Modifier -22

Modifier -TC means:

Technical Component

Adding modifier ______________, Unusual Services modifier, indicates "additional effort or time":

Modifier -22; May still not be compensated at a higher rate, even with a report, if the carrier doesn’t agree.

The modifier -23, ____________ would not be appropriate for the use of a accupuncture

Unusual anesthesia

Modifier -24 should always be used with:

Evaluation and Management codes.

If general anesthesia is applied, modifier -23 should be used when your CPT manual notes under the CPT code:

Procedure "usually performed without anesthesia or under local anesthesia."

Some CPT codes are "Technical Service only". This means:

Only the "facility", most often a hospital, would bill for services (use of the equipment.)

The use of a magnifying surgical loupe qualifies the use of modifier -20, microsurgery:

Modifier -20 has been deleted from CPT and can no longer be used.

Which of the following modifiers are considered informational only (will not impact reimbursement)?

Modifiers -24, -32, and -57

What is the word that means assigning multiple codes when one code would do?

Unbundling

What is another term for the time after the surgery that the physician provides services to the patient?

Postoperative Services

Anesthesia provided by the ENT physician during a tympanoplasty for repair of a tympanic membrane perforation.

Modifier -47

A patient is seen at the direction of Workers’ Compensation for a complete physical examination for insurance certification.

Modifier -32

The patient returns to the operating room for removal of deep pins during the postoperative period, due to complication (dislodged) after an open repair of a humerus fracture.

Modifier -78

A patient has a surgical procedure on Turesday, and later that day the physician must take the patient back to the operating room to repeat (redo) a coronary bypass, due to complications of initial procedure.

Modifier -76

If you must use two or more modifiers to describe a service, you would use which modifier to indicate this circumstance?

Modifier -99

A surgeon performs a procedure on a neonate weighing 9kg; the procedure was extremely complicated. What modifier would you use to indicate this service, which has an increased level of complexity?

Modifier -22

Dr. Storely performed cataract surgery on 10/31/2008 and Dr. Jones provided postoperative care following discharge. What modifier would you use to indicate the postoperative care following discharge?

Modifier -55

Dr. Merideth serves as an assistant surgeon to Dr. Taylor. What modifiers; would you add to the procedure code to indicate Dr. Merideth’s status during the procedure?

Modifier -80

The third-party payer requires the use of HCPCS/National modifiers; the surgeon performed a surgical procedure on the patient’s left thumb. What Level II modifier would indicate the left thumb?

Modifier -FA

What Level II modifier indicates the upper left eyelid?

Modifier -E1

Which modifier is requests payment for the full fee of the subsequent service because it was unassociated with the first procedure. A new global period should start when modifier _____ is submitted

Modifier -79

The CPT manual was developed by the

American Medical Association (AMA)

Providers of health care are paid based on the codes submitted for _____________ or procedures provided to the patient.

services

The first CPT was published in this year

1966

In which year were CPT codes incorporated as Level I codes into the Healthcare Procedure Coding Sytem (HCPCS)?

1983

What type of codes end with 99?

Unlisted Procedure

Definition of a chief complaint using the E/M Guidelines:

Chief Complaint is a concise statement describing the symptom, problem, condition, diagnosis, or other factor that is the reason for the encounter, usually stated in the patient’s words.

According to the Surgery Guidelines, surgical destruction is a part of a surgical procedure and ____________ methods of destruction are not ordinarily listed separately.

different

According to the Radiology Guidelines, who must sign a written report to have the report considered part of the radiologic procedure?

the interpreting individual

Under whose supervision are the Pathology and Laboratory services provided?

Physician

What is the code listed in the Medicine Guidelines that is to be used to identify materials supplied by the physician that are beyond those ordinarily included in the service provided?

99070

Words following the semicolon in stand-alone codes can indicate the following three things:

Alternative anatomical sites, alternative procedures, or a description of the extent of the service.

If the CPT code is 43820 (gastrojejunostomy without vagotomy) and two primary surgeons performed the services, the service could be stated this way:

43820-62

total

Anesthesia services are based on ____________time the patient is under the anesthesiologist’s care. Calculation of units of time is determined by the third-party payer.

begins preparing the patient to receive anesthesia, continues through the procedure, and ends when the patient is no longer under the personal care of the anesthesiologist.

Anesthesia time begins when the anesthesilogist ___________________and continues ______________ the procedure, and ends when ______________________________________________

qualifying

What type of circumstance identifies a component of anesthesia service that affects the character of the service?

anatomic

Anesthesia procedures are divided by what type of site?

complex, combined total (or total time)

According to the Anesthesia Guidelines, the Separate or Multiple Procedures section, when multiple surgical procedures are performed during a single anesthetic administration, the anesthesia code representing the most ____________ procedure is reported and the time reported is the ________________ or _________________ for all procedures.

Relative Value Guide (RVG)

What is the name of the guide that is published by the American Society of Anesthesiologists and provdides the weights of various anesthesia services?

expanded problem focused history

Which history is more complex: The problem focused history or the expanded problem focused history?

problem focused, expanded problem focused, detailed, comprehensive

The four types of examinations, in order of difficulty (from least difficult to most difficult) are as follows:

problem focused

The examination that is limited to the affected body area is the ___________ ____________ .

straightforward

What medical decision making involves a situation in which the diagnosis and management options are minimal, data amount and complexity that must be reviewed are minimal/none, and there is a minimal risk to the patient of complications or death?

Can modifier -22 be assigned to 99291, 99292 codes ( which are E/M service codes)

No, because it states in the notes for modifier 22 that this modifier should not be appended to an E/M Service

She is incorrect because modifier 32 is only assigned for mandated services, such as police and Workers Compensation and not for requests made by patient, family member, or another physician.

Joan is a new coder at the local clinic. You have been assigned to review her coding before it is submitted to the third-party payer. You note that she assigned modifier -32 to E/M consultation code 99244. The medical record indicates that the request for the second opinion was made by the patient’s spouse. Is Joan correct in modifier -32 assignment? Why or why not?

b

Which of these statements is true about modifier -59? a. It is only appended to E/M codes b. It is only appended to other than E/M codes.

c

Which of the following statemtns is NOT true about modifier -53? a. describes circumstances based on the patient’s condition. b. may be used to describe those times when the physician elects to terminate a procedure due to the well-being of the patient. c. describes circumstances in which the patient cancelled the procedure. d. may be used to describe ASC reporting of previously scheduled procedure that is partially reduced as a result of extenuating circumstances.

a

When adding multiple CPT modifiers to a code, you would list the modifiers from: a. highest to lowest b. lowest to highest c. makes no difference which is listed first.

What is the word that means assigning multiple codes when one code would do?

unbundling

Term that describes services provided to the patient by the physician BEFORE surgery

Pre-operative

Term that describes services provided to the patient by the physician AFTER surgery

Post-operative

Unlisted procedure codes in the surgery guidelines are listed by…?

anatomic site

Includes an adequate definition or description of the nature, extent, need, time, effort, and equipment necessary to provide the service

Pertinent information in the "special report"according to the CPT manual

There two types of procedures that are designated for the purpose of a surgical package

Minor and major procedures

CPT code for surgical tray

99070

HCPCS code for surgical tray

A4550

This type of anesthesia is not part of the surgical package

General anesthesia

Inclusion or exclusion of a procedure in the CPT does or does not imply health insurance coverage or no health insurance coverage?

coverage is not implied; the CPT manual is a list of procedures and services with a corresponding number only

According to Surgery guidelines, codes designated as separate procedure…?

should not be reported in addition to the code for the total procedure or service of which it is considered an integral component.

According to medicare guidelines ____ complications of a surgical procedure are usually included in the reimbursement for a major surgical procedure

Minor complications

The subsections in the surgery section are usually divided according to…?

Medical specialty or body

Information within parentheses is referred to as…?

Parenthetical Expression or Phrase

Before assigning this type of code, you must be certain that a more specific Category 1 or Category 3 code is not available

unlisted procedure code

This designation within the CPT indicates a procedure that is only reported when it is performed as the only procedure or when another procedure performed at the same time is unrelated to this procedure?

Separate procedure

Can modifier 57 decision for surgery be added to surgery section codes?

No, only to Evaluation and Management codes

Modifier 54 surgical care only notifies the insurance company to

pay for the intra-operative portion

true or false? Listing of subsections that have instructional notes is not included in the surgical section guidelines?

true

Before you can assign an unlisted code, you must first be certain there is no more specific code and that there is not a…?

Category 3 code available

When using an unlisted or Category 3 code, third-party payers usually require the submission of what?

Special report

Synchronous means

occurring at the same time

In the ICD-9-CM manual symbols, abbreviations, punctuation, and notations are termed…?

Conventions

List the four cooperating parties that agree on coding principles:

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS), American Medical Association (AMA), American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA), National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS)

true or false? A code is invalid if it has not been coded to the full number of digits available for the code

true

true or false? It is acceptable to use only the Alphabetic Index to assign ICD-9-CM codes

False

true or false? When separate codes exist to identify acute and chronic conditions, the chronic code is sequenced first

False

true or false? In the outpatient setting, an impending condition should be coded as if it actually exists?

False

true or false? Additional signs and symptoms that may not routinely be associated with the disease process being reported should be coded when present

true

Identify the main_____ in the diagnostic statement

terms

Review any_______ under the main term in the index

subterms

Follow any _______-________ instructions, such as see also

cross-references

refer to any instructional notations in the

Tabular

Code the diagnosis until all _______ are completely identified

elements

Mr Jones is admitted to the hospital by the orthopedic surgeon for severe hip pain. The ortho surgeon provides an initial hospital visit during which it is determined that Mr. Jones has a fractured hip that will require surgical intervention. Mr. Jones is taken later that day to the OR where Dr. Ortho performs the surgical procedure to repair Mr. Jones’ hip. Which modifier would you use for the hosptial visit

-57

Mrs Smith presented to her physician’s office for an office visit for an upper respiratory infection. The physician examines that patient and prescribes antibiotics. The physician notices the patient has a suspicious looking mole. The physician examined the mole and determined that is should be removed. The mole was removed during the same office visit. The physician bills both the E/M code and a procedure code. Which modifier would you use on the E/M code

-25

Procedures that are experimental, newly approved, or seldom used are reported with what type of code?

unlisted/category III

Modifier -57, decision for surgery, is used on what type of service?

E/M

Modifier -79, unrelated procedure or service by the same physician during the postoperative period, is used on what type of service?

surgery

Modifier -51, Multiple Procedure, is used on what type of services?

surgery

Modifier -80, Assistant Surgeon, is used when:

a second surgeon provides assistance to the primary surgeon

Modifier -32 is used to indicate a service is mandated. Which of the following is an example of when a service is "mandated?"

An insurance company requires a second opinion prior to surgery

Modifier -25, significant, separately identifiable E/M service by the same physician on the same day of the procedure or other service, is used to report an E/M service that was:

provided on the same day as a minor procedure performed by the same physician

Modifier -59, distinct procedure service, is used to indicate that:

services that are usually bundled into one payment were provided as separate services

Modifier -58, staged or related procedure or service by the same physician during the postoperative period, is used to indicate:

that a subsequent surgery was planned at the time of the first surgery

Modifier -52, reduced services, is used to indicate:

a service was reduced without changing the definition of the code

Modifier -90

indicates that services of an outside laboratory were used. Hint: Modifier -90 indicates that services of an outside lab were used. See page 275 of the textbook or Appendix A of the CPT® manual.

Mr. Coslett has multiple surgeries performed during the same operative session. Which modifier would you use?
modifier -51

modifier -51

The modifier that indicates multiple procedures is:
Modifier -51

modifier -51

Anesthesia code for a tympanostomy of the left ear performed on an 11-month-old female.

CPT Codes: 00126, 99100.

CPT Codes: 00126, 99100.

Physical status modifier P3 indicates a patient with a(n) ________ systemic disease.
Severe

Severe

Mr. Jones is admitted to the hospital by the orthopedic surgeon for severe hip pain. The ortho- surgeon provides an initial hospital visit during which it is determined that Mr. Jones has a fractured hip that will require surgical intervention. Mr. Jones is taken to the OR later that day and Dr. Ortho performs the surgical procedure to repair Mr. Jones’ hip. Which modifier would you use for the hospital visit?

Modifier -57

Modifier -57

Assign a CPT anesthesia code for debridement of third-degree burns of right arm, 6% body surface area.

CPT Code: 01952.

CPT Code: 01952

________ of the CPT manual lists some HCPCS modifiers.

Appendix A

Appendix A

The society that publishes the Relative Value GuideTM for anesthesia services is the:
American Society of Anesthesiologists

American Society of Anesthesiologists

Moderate or ________ sedation is a type of sedation that may be provided by the physician performing the procedure.

Conscious

Conscious

Modifier -58, staged or related procedure or service by the same physician during the postoperative period, is used to indicate:

that a subsequent surgery was planned at the time of the first surgery.

that a subsequent surgery was planned at the time of the first surgery.

Which codes begin with the number 99 and are used to indicate anesthesia services provided during situations that make the administration of the anesthesia more difficult?

Qualifying Circumstances

Qualifying Circumstances

What modifier would you use if you were coding only the technical component of a diagnostic procedure?

Modifier: TC

Modifier: TC

In the Anesthesia section of the CPT manual, the codes are usually divided first by which of the following?
Anatomic Site

Anatomic Site

Modifier -59, distinct procedure service, is used to indicate that:
services that are usually bundled into one payment were provided as separate services.

services that are usually bundled into one payment were provided as separate services.

Assign a CPT anesthesia code and applicable modifiers for anesthesia services for a 9- month-old normal child who received anesthesia for hernia repair in the lower abdomen.

CPT Code: 00834-P1.

CPT Code: 00834-P1

Mrs. Smith presented to her physician’s office for an office visit for an upper respiratory infection. The physician examines the patient and prescribes antibiotics. The physician notices the patient has a suspicious looking mole. The physician examined the mole and determined that it should be removed. The mole was removed during the same office visit. The physician bills both an E/M code and a procedure code. Which modifier would you use on the E/M code?
Modifier: -25

Modifier -25

Modifier -51, Multiple Procedure, is used on what type of services?
Surgery

Surgery

Modifier -80, Assistant Surgeon, is used when:
A second surgeon provides assistance to the primary surgeon.

A second surgeon provides assistance to the primary surgeon.

Daily hospital management of epidural, continuous drug administration.

CPT Code: 01996.

CPT Code: 01996

Assign a CPT anesthesia code and applicable modifiers for anesthesia services for an 81-year-old patient with mild systemic disease who receives anesthesia for revision of total hip arthroplasty.

CPT Codes: 01215-P2, 99100

CPT Codes: 01215-P2, 99100

When time is calculated for anesthesia services, the time begins when

the anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient for anesthesia.

the anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient for anesthesia.

What type of nurse can administer anesthesia under the direction of an anesthesiologist?
CRNA

CRNA

Modifier -79, unrelated procedure or service by the same physician during the postoperative period, is used on what type of service?
Surgery

Surgery

What modifier would you use if you were coding only for the professional component of a diagnostic procedure?
-26

Modifier: -26

The modifier"-AA" is an example of what type of modifier? HCPCS

HCPCS

1.the more the complex subsection referred to in the text were Integ, Musculo, resipratory, Cardio, Digestive, and

Female genital

2. The info in the ___ contains info that is necessary to correctly code in the section, & the info is not repeated elsewhere

Guidelines

3.Notes may appear before subsec, subhead, ___ & subcategories

Categories

4. when a note is present, that note must be read and ___ if the coding is to be accurate

Followed

5. w/in the surgery Guidelines the ___ procedure codes are presented in a list by anatomic site

Unlisted

6. according to the CPT maunal "Pertinent info [in the ___ report] should include an adequate def. or description of the nature, extent, need, time, effort, and equip. necessary to provide the service

Special

7. there are minor and ___ procedure designations for the purposes of a surgical package

Major

8. the breast biopsy and mastectomy of the left breast were preformed during the same operative session would both procedures be reported

Yes

9. if a breast and right knee operation were preformed during the same operative session would both procedures be reported

Yes

10. The CPT manual describes the surg. pkg as including one related preop E/M service the operative procedure, and immediate ____ care

Follow up care

11. Local infiltration is considered ___ anesthesia

Local

12. this term means a worsening as described in the text

Exacerbations

13. this type of anesthesia is not part of the surgical package

General anesthesia

14. the predeifined number of days before and after a surgical package

Global Period

15. what is the CPT code that reports a surgical tray

99070

16. what is the HCPCS code that reports a surgical tray

A4550

17. according to the medicare guidlines a surg, pkg includes the treatment of complications by the ___ physician

Same

18. At an off. visit a decision for surgery was made. the surgical procedure was scheduled 21 days later. would the office visit service be

A. reported separtely

19. Splitting open of the wound is

Dehiscence

20. Inclusion or exclusion of a procedure in the cpt manual implies health insurance coverage or no health insurance coverage

True

21. the code range in the surgical section is

10021-69990

22. the subsection that follows the digestive system is the ___ system

Urinary

23. what type of microscope has a section of the surgery section

Operating scope

24.the difference between 10021 and 10022 is that one is with ___ ____ and one is without

Imaging guidance

25. according to the parenthetical info following the code 10022 for a precutaneousneedle biopsy other than fine needle aspiration, see ____ for salivary gland

42400

26. according to the surgery guidelines codes designated as ____ _____ should not be reported in addition to the code for the totao procedure or service of which it is considered an integral component

Separate procedure

27. according to the surgery guidelines follow up care for ____ surgical procedures includs only that care which is usually a part of the surgical procedure

Therapeutic

28. according to the surgery guidelines the code range for maternity care and delivery is

59000-59899

29. according to the surgery guidelines this is the code for unlisted procedures of the lip

40799

30. according to the surgery guidelines this is the code for unlisted procedures of the urinary system

53899

The Coders responsibility is to ensure that the data are as accurate as poosible

True

The Federal Register is the official publication for all Presidential Docum.

True

Natioonal unit values have been assigned for each service by Medicare

True

Fraud is an intentional deception or misrepresentive on that an individual knows to be false or does not believe to be true

True

Kickbacks from patients are allowed under certain circumstance according to Medicare guidelines

False

When using an unlisted code a _____must accompany the claim
A. Modifier
B. Operative Report
C. Special Report
D all of the above

C. Special Report

The surgical package includes:
A. General anesthesia
B. Typical follow-up care
C. E/M visit requiring decision for surgery
D. All of the above

B. Typical follow-up Care

Local anesthesia is defined in the CPT guidelines as
A local infiltration
B metacarpal/digital block
C topic anesthesia
D all the above

D. All of the above

The usual global surgery period for a major procedure is
A 10 Days
B. 30 Days
C. 60 days
D. 90 Days

D. 90 Days

The global surgery period includes
A. All routine preoperative and postoperative care
B. Serious complications requiring a return to the operating room
C. Staged procedures
D. All of the above

A. All routine preoperative and postoperative care

Incision and drainage codes are divided into subcategories according to the
A. Size of the lesion
B. condition for which the procedure is performed
C. depth of the incision
D. amount of the drainage

B. Condition for which the procedure is performed

When an excision is being performed the ‘margins" refer the ______required to adequately excise the lesion based on the physicians judgment
A. Widest diameter
B. narrowest margin
C. Square centimeters
D. length

B. Narrowest margin

What two items are needed to correctly code for local treatment of burns?
A. Length and width of burn
B. width and depth of burn
C. percentage of body surface and depth of burn
D. Percentage of body surface and width of burn

C. Percentage of body surface and depth of burn

This information is placed after some codes in the CPT manual and contains helpful information
A. Parenthetical information
B. Guidelines
C. Index location
D. bracketed information

A. Parenthetical information

What code is used to report routine postoperative care
A. No code
B. 99312
C. 99024
D. 99211

C. 99024

What are divisions of the surgery sections of CPT based on
A. Body area
B. physician subspecialty area
C. body system
D. third-party payer requirements

C. Body System

Excision of pilonidal cyst that was a complicated procedure
A. 11770
B. 11771
C. 11772
D. 10081

C. 11772

When the words "separate procedure" appear after the descriptor of a code, yoou know which of the following about that code
A. The procedure was only service provided on that day
B. The procedure provided was on a day other than the major procedure
C. The procedure was a minor procedure that would only be coded if it was the only service provided

C. The procedure was a minor procedure that would only be coded if it was the only service provided

Excision including closure of benign lessons of the skin including this type of anesthesia
A. Local
B. General
C. Spinal
D. None of the above

A. Local

The CPT code that is used to report material and supplies by the physician for which no other more specific CPT code exists is:
A. 99070
B. 99080
C. 99071
D. 99000

A. 99070

A triangle before a code indicates that the code is or has been
A. Major
B. Partial
C. discontinued
D. Revised

D. Revised

The incentive to Medicare participating is:
A. Direct payment is made on all claims
B. A 5% higher fee schedule
C. Faster processing
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Part B services are billed using
A. RBRVS, GPCI, and RVUs
B. ICD-9-CM, CPT, HCPCS
C. MS-DRGs
D. APCs

B. ICD-9CM, CPT, HCPCS

Who is the largest third-party payer in the nation
A. Blue Cross Blue Shield
B. Aetna
C. Cigna
D. The Government

D. The Government

The physician fee schedule is updated each April 15 and is composed of
A. The relative value unit for each service
B. A geographic adjustment factor to adjust for regional variations in the cost of operating a health care facility
C. A national conversion factor
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Medicare sets the payment level for assistants at surgery at a percentage of the fee schedule for the _______surgical services
A. Global
B. United
C. Partial
D. Subsequent

A. Global

What are the items that the Medicare beneficiaries are responsible to pay before Medicare will begin to pay for services
A. Personal care items
B. Deductibles, drug costs, personal care items
C. Premiums
D. Deductibles, premiums, and coinsurance

D. Deductibles, premiums, and coinsurance

Medicare funds are collected by
A. US Food and drug administration
B. Social Security Administration
C. National Center for health statistics
D. Department of the Treasury

B. Social Security Administration

Which of the following is NOT a stated goal of the Physician Payment Reform?
A. Decrease Medicare expenditures
B. Assure quality health care at a reasonable cost
C. Limit provider provider liabilities
D. Redistribute physician payment more equitably

C. Limit provider liabilities

The Medicare prescription drug improvement, and Modernization Act of 2003 established these new benefits available under the Medicare program
A. Part A
B. Part B
C. Part C
D. Part D

D. Part D

This Program is also known as Medicare Advantage
A. Part A
B. Part B
C. Part C
D. Part D

C. Part C

The correct code for repairing the following lacerations: 4.2 simple repair of the trunk, 1.3 simple repair of the arm, and 2.8 intermediate repair of the scalp
A. 12032, 12001-51, 12002-51
B. 12004
C. 12034
D. 12032, 12002-51

D. 12032, 12002-51

When reporting a staged procedure what modifier is added to the CPT code?
A. -25
B-51
C. -58
D. -76

C. -58

Destruction of 7 actinic keratoses:
A. -17004
B. 17000 x 7 units
C. -17000, 17003, x7 units
D. -17000, 17003 x 6units

D. -17000, 17003 x 6 units

Which modifier indicates a significant, separately identifiable E/M service
A. -25
B. -51
C. -50
D. -47

A. -25

If you want to bill the removal of skin tags using codes 11200 and 11201. you would need to know with absolute certainty
A. The method of removal
B. whether or not local
C. the number of tags removed
D. The precise area

C. The number of tags removed

Mr. Anderson has dropped a hammer on his big toe resulting in the collection of blood beneath the nail
A. 11740
B. 11760
C. 11765
D. 11730

A. 11740

Jessica Reynolds is a 33 y/o woman with two children. She has been using implantable contraceptives for five years
A. 11976, 11975
B. 11977
C. 11983
D. 11982, 11981

B. 11977

Suffix meaning a technique involving molding or surgically forming
A. -rrhaphy
B. -centesis
C. -plasty
D. None of the above

C-plasty

Oter layer of skin
A. dermis
B. epidermis
C. subcutaneous layer
D. derm

B. epidermis

A graft taken from the patient’s own body is called:
A. Split graft
B. Xenograft
C. autograft
D. pinch graft

C. Autograft

IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM

I. Immunoglobulins

H2O

H. Water

FX

F. Fracture

Hx

E. History

mmHg

D. millimeters of mercury

LLL

Left lower lobe )lung)

grav. 1,2.3

A. first, second, third pregnancy

g, gm

C. gram

mEq

G. milliequivalent

The words that follow a code number in the CPT manual are called:

procedure/service descriptor

A code that has all of the words that describe the code that follows is what type of code?

stand alone

Procedures that are experimental, newly approved, or seldom used are reported with what type of code?

unlisted/Category III

Who requires a special report with the use of unlisted codes?

third-party payers

Which of the following represents three of the six elements that a special report must contain?

nature, extent, need

Which punctuation mark between codes in the index of the CPT manual indicates a range of codes is available?

hyphen

Which punctuation mark between codes in the index of the CPT manual indicates two codes are available?

comma

A list of unlisted procedures for use in a specific section of the CPT manual is contained in:

Guidelines

In which CPT appendix would additions, deletions, and revisions be found?

Appendix B

In which CPT appendix would all modifiers be found?

Appendix A

CPT stands for:

Current Procedural Terminology

Which terms reflects the technological advances made in medicine that are incorporated into the CPT manual?

revisions

Where is specific coding information about each section located?

Guidelines

This act mandated the adoption of national uniform standards for electronic transmission of financial and administrative health information.

HIPAA

What year was CPT first developed and published?

1966

Who publishes CPT?

AMA

Health care providers are ___ based on the codes submitted on a claim form for procedures and services rendered.

reimbursed

Category I CPT codes have ___ digits

5

The universal health insurance form for submission of outpatient services is the:

CMS-1500

Which of the following is NOT a reason for the CPT coding system?

increased reimbursement

What is the function of an add-on code?

identifies a code that is never used alone

The rules that govern coding in various health care settings are:

nationally established

How many main sections are in the CPT manual?

6

A modifier:

provides additional information to the third-party payer

An unlisted procedure code:

ALL OF THE ABOVE: is a procedure or service not found in the CPT manual, is located in the Section Guidelines, is located at the end of a subsection or subheading

How often are Category III codes released?

twice a year

According to the notes preceding the Category III codes in the CPT manual, the digits of the Category III codes are not intended to reflect the placement of the code in the Category I section of the CPT:

nomenclature

According to the CPT manual, modifier -91 is not to be used when test are __ to confirm inertial results.

rerun

According to the E/M guidelines, time is not a descriptive component for the ___ department levels of E/M service.

emergency

According tothe Radiology Guidelines, these are the methods that qualify as "with contrast."

intavascularly, intra-articularly, intrathecally

Level II codes are not used in which setting?

inpatient

Which of the following would be used to code drugs?

J codes

Name the six basic location methods to locate main terms in the index of CPT.

procedure/service synonym eponymous anatomic site condition of disease abbreviations

When using an unlisted code a(an) __________ must accompany the claim.

SPECIAL REPORT

The surgical package includes:

TYPICAL FOLLOW-UP CARE

Local anesthesia is defined in the CPT guidelines as:

ALL OF THE ABOVE

This information is placed after some codes in the CPT manual and contains helpful information.

PARENTHETICAL INFORMATION

What code is used to report routine postoperative care?

99024

The usual global surgery period for a major procedure is:

90 days

The global surgery period include

all routine post-up and pre-up

Excision including simple closure of benign lesions of the skin include this type of anesthesia

Local

What are the divisions of the Surgery section based on?

99070

When the words "separate procedure" appear after the descriptor of a code, you know which of the following about that code?

THE PROCEDURE WAS A MINOR PRCEDURE THAT WOULD ONLY BE CODED IF IT WAS THE ONLY SERVICE PROVIDED.

A triangle before a code indicates that the code is or has been:

revised

Which of the following represents the contents of a surgical package?

Preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative services

The correct code for an unlisted procedure for the breast is

19499

The modifier reported when a physician component is reported separately is

-26

A____ procedure that is performed independently of, and is not immediately related to, another service

separate

The divisions of the Radiation Oncology section of the CPT manual are divided into subsections based on what

type of service

What is the standard measure of energy in radiation treatment

MeV

What is the modifier used to identify the technical component of a radiologic procedure<

-TC

What are the radioisotopes that attach themselves to red blood cells called

tracer

What is the name of the high-frequency sound waves in an imaging process that are used to diagnose patient illness

ultrasound

Radiation oncology codes include normal follow-up care during the course of treatment and for ___ months following its completion

Includes 3 months global period

Codes 76801 and 76802 include determination of the number of gestational sacs and fetuses, gestational sac/fetal measurements appropriate for gestation <14 weeks 0 days and :

ALL OF THE ABOVE

A needle with a suture attached is passed through an incision into the stomach. The needle is snared and removed via the mouth. A gastrostomy tube is connected to the suture and passed through the mouth into the stomach and out the abdominal wall. What is the correct code for this procedure

None of the above

The procedure is a percutaneous transhepatic dilation of the biliary duct stricture with or without placement of a stent. How would the radiological supervision and interpretation be coded?

74363

In clinical brachytherapy the superviaion of radio elements and dose interpretation are performed by the therapeutic

Radiologist

Two dimensional ultrasonic scanning procedure with a two dimendiagnostic ultrasoundsional display is the definition of___

B-scan

x-ray films of vessels after injection of radiopaque substance material

Angiography

Fluoroscopy

Procedure for viewing the interior of the body using x-rays and projecting the image onto a television screen

Magnetic resonance imaging MRI

Procedure that uses nonionizing radiation to view the body in a cross-sectional view

Xeroradiography

Photoelectric process of radiographs

Barium

Radiographic contrast medium

Biometry

Application of a statistical method to a biological fact

Arthrography

Joint

Cholangiography

Bile Ducts

Cystography

Veins and tributaries

Discography

Intervertebral join

Epididymography

Epididymis

Hysterosalpingography

Uterine cavity and fallopian tubes

lymphangiography

Lymphatic vessels and nodes

Myelography

Subarachnoid space of the spine

Urography

Kidneys, renal pelvis, ureters, and bladder

Venography

X-ray image of vein or veins following injection of a radiopaque substance

lymphangiography

x-ray visualization of lymph vessel and nodes following injection of a contrast material

myelogram

x-ray phonograph of the spinal cord following administration of radiopaque substance into the subarachnoid space

Tomography

Also known as PET sca, it measures ametabolic or biochemical activity of the brain and other organs by tracking its movement and concentration

Magnetic resonance

Noninvasive diagnostic technique that produces a cross-sectional image of organs and other internal body structures

Cholangiography

x-ray of the bile ducts using radiopaque contrast

Computed tomography

Also known as a CAT scan, this technique allows safe, painless, and rapid diagnosis in previously inaccessible areas of the body

Pelvimetry

Measurement of the diameters of the female pelvis, esp. the birth canal

Ultrasound

The application of ultrasonic waves for diagnostic imaging of internal structures

Anterior (ventral)

In front of

Posterior (dorsal)

In back of

Superior

Toward the head or the upper part of the body: also known as cephalad or cephalic

Inferior

Away from the head or the lower part of the body; also known as caudad or caudal

Medial

Toward the midline of the body

Lateral

Away from the midline ofteh body (to the side)

How many levels of Surgical Pathology are there?

six

What type of drug test measures the presence of a drug in the specimen?

qualitative

What type of drug test measures the amount of a drug in the specimen?

quantitative

What is the name given to grouped laboratory work that represents those tests commonly done together?

panels

In what section would you find codes used to report veinpunctures and arterial punctures?

surgery

What is the name of the subsection within Pathology?Laboratory that deals with the laboratory work done to determine cellular changes?

cytopathology

In the Pathology/Laboratory section of the CPT, drugs are listed by their ____names.

generic

A specimen from a suspect area can be divided into which of the following?

block, section

What name is given to cultures for identification of organisms, as well as the identification of sensitivities of the organism to antibiotics?

culture/sensitivity

Qualitative analysis is defined as:

analysis of a substance in order to ascertain the nature of chemical constituents.

Quantitative analysis is defined as

Determining the amounts and proportions of chemical constituents

Codes in the Pathology/Laboratory section, Evocation/Suppression Testing include which of the following?

Test only

What must always be documented in the patient record and is the major billing factor for reporting codes in the psychiatric subsection. codes divided on time

time

What word is used to describe the pushing of liquid into the body over a long period of time.

infusion

Outpatient dialysis services are reported on this basis

monthly

What is the name of the process that routes the blood including waste products outside the body through filters

hemodialysis

Aphakia

absence of the lens of the eye

Echography

Ultrasound procedure in which sound waves are bounced off an internal organ and the resolution image is recorder

Gonioscopy

Use of a scope to examine the angles of the eye

Hemodialysis

Cleansing of the blood outside the body

Modality

Treatment method

Nystagmus

Rapid involuntary eye movement

Optokinetic

pertaining to eye movements

Percutaneous

pertaining to through the skin

Phlebotomy

cutting into a vein

Retrograde

move in a direction contrary to the usual one

Subcutaneous

tissue below the dermis, primarily fat cells that insulate the body

Tonometry

use of a tonometer to measure intraocular pressure, which is elevated in glaucoma, method used for detecting glaucoma

Tympanometry

process of measuring eardrum function

Transcutaneous

Entering by way of the skin

What is the largest section of the six CPT manual section?

Surgery section

Does Medicare reimburse for every surgical tray?

NO

The subsections in the Surgery section are usually divided according to _______.

Medical specialty or body system.

This symbol indicates new or revised text within the current edition of the CPT manual

Triangle

These are found at the beginning of each section and contain information specific to the section :

Guidelines

Information within parentheses is referred to as _____ expression or phrase.

parenthetical

Before assigning this type of code, you must be certain that a more specific Category I or Category III code is not available

Unlisted procedure

This report contains the nature, extent, need, time, effort, and at times equipment necessary to provide a service :

Special reports

This designation within the CPT manual indicates a procedure that is only reported when it is preformed as the only procedure or when another procedure performed at the same time is unrelated to this procedure. this is a ________ procedure.

When time, effort, and service are bundled together, they form a ________ package.

surgical

_______ anesthesia is defined as local infiltration, metacarpal/ dital block, or topical anesthesia

Local

Modifier -22

Increased Procedural Services

Modifier -23

Unusual Anesthesia Modifier

Modifier -24

Unrelated E/M Services by the Same Physician During a Postoperative Period

Modifier -25

Significant Separately Identifiable E/M Service by the Same Physician on the Same Day of the Procedure or Other Service

Modifier -26

Professional Component

Modifier -32

Mandated Services

Modifier -47

Anesthesia by Surgeon

Modifier -50

Bilateral Procedure

Modifier -51

Multiple Procedures

Modifier -52

Reduced Services

Modifier -53

Discontinued Procedure

Modifier -54

Surgical Care Only

Modifier -55

Postoperative Management Only

Modifier -56

Preoperative Management Only

Modifier -57

Decision for Surgery

Modifier -58

Staged or Related Procedure or Service by the Same Physician During the Postoperative Period

Modifier -59

Distinct Procedural Service

Modifier -62

Two Surgeons

Modifier -63

Procedure Performed on Infants Less than 4 kg

Modifier -66

Surgical Team

Modifier -76

Repeat Procedure or Service by Same Physician

Modifier -77

Repeat Procedure by Another Physician

Modifier -78

Unplanned Return to the Operating/Procedure Room by the Same Physician Following Initial Procedure for a Related Procedure During the postoperative Period

Modifier -79

Unrelated Procedure or Service by the Same Physician During the Postoperative Period

Modifier -80

Assistant Surgeon

Modifier -81

Minimum Assistant Surgeon

Modifier -82

Assistant Surgeon (When Qualified Resident Surgeon Not Available)

Modifier -90

Reference (Outside) Laboratory

Modifier -91

Repeat Clinical Diagnostic Laboratory Test

Modifier -92

Alternative Laboratory Platform Testing

Modifier -99

Multiple Modifiers

Surgical Team

When more than two physicians, with technicians and specialized equipment, work together to complete a complicated procedure and each physician has a specific portion of the surgery to complete, they are term what?

Modifier -22

This modifier indicates an increased service and is overused and results in an increase in payment of 20% to 30%. As such, the assignment of this modifier comes under particularly close scrutiny by third-party payers. What is this modifier?

Modifier -54

Payment for the intraoperative or surgery portion of the surgical procedure is being requested.

Modifier -59

Only to other than E/M codes

What is the weight in pounds of a 4-kilogram infant?

8.8 lbs.

Modifier -55

(Postoperative Management Only) should be assigned when a provider other than the surgeon is responsible for postoperative management.

NCCI

National Correct Coding Initiative

National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI)

Implemented by the American Medical Association

Modifier -52

A service that has been partially reduced at the physician’s discretion is reflected by the modifier

Modifiers -23, -52, and -73

When the provider performs a procedure or service for which there is no CPT code, the coder should assign

National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI)

Automated edits that identify pairs of services that normally should not be billed by the same physician for the same patient on the same day are part of the

What is a functional modifier

It is a pricing modifier, which means that the third-party payer considers it when determining reimbursement

Modifier -62

When two primary surgeons are required during an operative, each performing distinct parts of a reportable procedure, modifier ___________ should be assigned.

Modifier -76

When a procedure was repeated because of special circumstances involving the original service and the same physician performed the repeat procedure, modifier ____ should be recorded.

Modifier -32

Workers’ Compensation referred a patient to a physician for a mandatory examination to determine the legitimacy of a claim (insurance certification). What modifier would be added to the code for the examination service?

Modifier -47

Dr. Ramus administers regional anesthesia by intravenous injection (also known as Bier’s local anesthesia) for a surgical procedure on the patient’s lower arm. Dr. Ramus then performs the surgical procedure. What modifier would be added to the surgical code.

Modifier -25

A patient came to the office twice in one day to see the same physician for unrelated problems. What modifier would be added to the code for the second office visit?

Modifier -51 – There are three significant times when multiple procedures are reported:

1. Same Operation, Different Site 2. Multiple Operation(s), same Operative Session 3. Procedure Performed Multiple Times

Modifier -54, -55, and -56

When reporting his or her own individual services, each physician would use the same procedure code for the surgery, letting the modifier indicate to the third-party payer the part of the surgical package that each personally performed.

Appendix A

What appendix in the CPT manual contains a complete list of all modifiers?

Preoperative Services

What is the term that describes the services provided to a patient by the physician before surgery?

When listing multiple CPT modifiers, you would list them from:

Highest to lowest

Which of the following statements is true about modifier?

may be used to describe those times when the physician elects to terminate a procedure due to the well-being of the patient

Dr. Wells began surgery on an 86-year-old female with severe hypertension. The patient was satisfactorily anesthetized and the site opened to view. Shortly thereafter, the patient’s blood pressure dropped significantly, and the physician was unable to stabilize the patient. The procedure was discontinued.

Modifier -53

The patient is a 10-month-old boy who fell while trying to walk. He cut the bottom of his lip open. Sutures are necessary, but due to the patient’s age and excessive movement, general anesthesia is needed.

Modifier -23

A patient has a hernia repair and 2 days later must be returned to the operating room for a dehiscence of the incision. When coding the secondary hernia repair, which modifier would you add onto the surgical codes?

Modifier -78

A surgeon performed a repair of an enterocele using an abdominal approach and reported the service with 57270. Then patient was morbidly obese with a BMI of 42, and due to this circumstance, the procedure took a significant amount of additional time to perform.

Modifier -22

During a radical right descended orchiectomy for an extensive malignant tumor (54435), the patient began to hemorrhage. After considerable time and effort, the hemorrhage was controlled.

Modifier -22

The modifier -RT and LT are:

Right and Left, Never used with Modifier -50, and HCPCS modifiers

Which group of modifier, are most likely NOT to be recognized by insurance carriers?

Modifiers -63, -53, -54, -55, and -56

Modifiers -54 and -55 most likely would be used.

By two different physicians, on separated claims

Modifier -TC means:

Technical Component

Adding modifier ______________, Unusual Services modifier, indicates "additional effort or time":

Modifier -22; May still not be compensated at a higher rate, even with a report, if the carrier doesn’t agree.

The modifier -23, ____________ would not be appropriate for the use of a accupuncture

Unusual anesthesia

Modifier -24 should always be used with:

Evaluation and Management codes.

Modifier -25

Used for the initial evaluation of a problem for which a procedure is performed.

If general anesthesia is applied, modifier -23 should be used when your CPT manual notes under the CPT code:

Procedure "usually performed without anesthesia or under local anesthesia."

Some CPT codes are "Technical Service only". This means:

Only the "facility", most often a hospital, would bill for services (use of the equipment.)

The use of a magnifying surgical loupe qualifies the use of modifier -20, microsurgery:

Modifier -20 has been deleted from CPT and can no longer be used.

Which of the following modifiers are considered informational only (will not impact reimbursement)?

Modifiers -24, -32, and -57

What the percentage amounts allocated for Modifier -54, -55, and -56, respectively?

70%, 20%, 10%

What the percentage amounts for modifier -54?

Intraoperative: 70%

What the percentage amounts for modifier -55?

Postoperative: 20%

What the percentage amounts for modifier -56?

Preoperative: 10%

What is the word that means assigning multiple codes when one code would do?

Unbundling

What is another term for the time after the surgery that the physician provides services to the patient?

Postoperative Services

A patient is admitted and has bilateral arthroscopy of the knees due to Baker’s cysts.

Modifier -50

A radiological examination of the gastrointestinal tract was ordered by a third-party payer for a confirmation of Crohn’s disease (regional enteritis) of the large bowel.

Modifier -32

Anesthesia provided by the ENT physician during a tympanoplasty for repair of a tympanic membrane perforation.

Modifier -47

A patient is seen at the direction of Workers’ Compensation for a complete physical examination for insurance certification.

Modifier -32

The patient returns to the operating room for removal of deep pins during the postoperative period, due to complication (dislodged) after an open repair of a humerus fracture.

Modifier -78

A patient has a surgical procedure on Turesday, and later that day the physician must take the patient back to the operating room to repeat (redo) a coronary bypass, due to complications of initial procedure.

Modifier -76

The patient underwent a bilateral tympanoplasty.

Modifier -50

If you must use two or more modifiers to describe a service, you would use which modifier to indicate this circumstance?

Modifier -99

A surgeon performs a procedure on a neonate weighing 9kg; the procedure was extremely complicated. What modifier would you use to indicate this service, which has an increased level of complexity?

Modifier -22

Dr. Storely performed cataract surgery on 10/31/2008 and Dr. Jones provided postoperative care following discharge. What modifier would you use to indicate the postoperative care following discharge?

Modifier -55

Dr. Merideth serves as an assistant surgeon to Dr. Taylor. What modifiers; would you add to the procedure code to indicate Dr. Merideth’s status during the procedure?

Modifier -80

The third-party payer requires the use of HCPCS/National modifiers; the surgeon performed a surgical procedure on the patient’s left thumb. What Level II modifier would indicate the left thumb?

Modifier -FA

What Level II modifier indicates the upper left eyelid?

Modifier -E1

Which modifier is requests payment for the full fee of the subsequent service because it was unassociated with the first procedure. A new global period should start when modifier _____ is submitted

Modifier -79

procedure/service coding reference developed by CMS

Health care common procedure coding system (hcpcs)

Two levels of codes are asscoiated with hicpcs , referred to as

hcpcs level I and II codes

HCPCS level I includes the 5 digit CPT codes developed & published by

American Medical Association (AMA)

HCPCS level II were created in 1983 to describe

common medical services & supplies not classified in CPT

HCPCS level II national codes

are 5 characters in length & begin with letters A-V

HCPCS level II codes identify services performed by

physician & nonphysician providers, ambulance companies, & Durable Medical Equipment (DME) companies

Durable Medical Equipment (DME)

defined by Medicare as equp. that can withstand repeated use, is primarily used to serve a medical purpose, is used in the patient’s home & would not be used in the absence of illness or injury

When an appropiate HCPCS level II code exisits

it is often assigned instead of a CPT code (with the same or simialr code description for MEDICARE accounts & for some state Medicaid systems

Coders should check with

individual payers to determine their policies

CMS creates

HCPCS level II codes

New HCPCS level II codes are reported for several years untill

CMS initiates a process to create corresponding CPT codes

When CPT codes are published they are reported

instead of the original HCPCs level II codes

Medicaid Programs use HCPCS codes to report

professional services , procedures, supplies, & equipment

HCPCS is NOT a reimbursement methodology or system, & it is important

to understand that just because codes exist for certain procedures or services, coverage (payment) is not guaranteed

it ensures uniform reporting of
(HCPCS level II coding system charcteristics)

medical procedures or services on claim forms

code descriptors identify
(HCPCS level II coding system charcteristics)

similar products or services

HCPCS is not a reimbursement methdology for making
(HCPCS level II coding system charcteristics)

coverage or payment determinations

Effective JAN. 1st 2005, CMS no longer allows

90 day grace period for reporting discontinued, revised and new HCPCS level II national codes on claims

Types of HCPCS level II codes

permanent national codes, dental , misc., temp. codes, & modifiers

HCPCS level II Permanent national codes are maintained by HCPCS national panel, which is composed of

representitves form Blue Cross/Shield Asscociation, Health Insurance of America and CMS

HCPCS national Panel I responsible for making decisions about

additions, revisions, and deletions to the permanent national alphanumeric codes

dental codes

actually contained in Current Dental erminology , a coding manual copyrighted and published by the American Dental Association that lists codes for billing for dental procedures and supplies

Miscellanous codes

reported when a DMEPOS dealer submits a claim for a product or service which there’s no exsiting HCPCs level II code

Claims that contain miscellanous codes are

manually reviewed by the payer

Following must be provided for use in the review process

Complete description of product or service, Pricing info for product of service, Documentation to explain why the item or service is needed by the benificery

Temporary codes

maintianed by CMS & other members of the HCPCS national panel, independent of permanent HCPCS level II codes

Permanent codes are updated once a year on Jan 1st but temp. codes allow

payers the flexibility to establish codes that are needed before the next jan. 1st anual update

Codes are used exclusivley for OPPS purposes & are only valid for

Medicare claims submitted by hospital outpatient departments

HCPCS modifiers are reported as

to digit character alphabetic or alphanumeric codes added to the 5 character HCPCs level II code

ex: Modifier -UE indicates

product is "used equipment"

AA

anesthesia services performed personally by anesthesiologist

C codes are reported for

new drugs, bilogicals, & devices that are eligible for transitional passthrough payments

It is important never to code directly from the

index & always to verify the code in the tabular section of the coding manual

If you have difficulty locating the service or procedure in the HCPCS level II index

review the contents of the appropiate section to locate the code

HCPCS level II code determines wheter the claim is sent to the

local Medicare administrative contractor or the regional

Unless the payer or insurance plan adivises the provider that it does not pay seperatly for the

medication injected, always report this combination of codes

Medicare gives HCPCS level II codes the highest priorty if the CPT code is

general & the HCPCS level II code is more specific

Most supplies are included in the charge for the

office visit or the procedure

CPT providers code 99070 for all supplies & materials exceding those

usually included in the primary service or procedure performed

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