Combo with -Ch. 23 Digestive System- and 1 other

Which of the following is considered to be an accessory organ of the digestive system?

Gallbladder

The major means of propelling food through the digestive tract is __________.

Peristalsis

Which major process involves the elimination of indigestible substances from the body via the anus?

Deification

Where does the process of segmentation occur?

Small Intestine

How would you classify chewing food?

Mechanical Breakdown

The __________ is the serous membrane that lines the abdominal body wall.

Parietal Peritoneum

In a patient suffering from untreated infection-induced peritonitis, an infection in the visceral peritoneum immediately ______.

spreads directly to the parietal peritoneum

Which histological layer of the digestive tract is composed primarily of epithelial tissue?

Mucosa

The __________ circulation includes all of the major abdominal arteries that serve the digestive organs.

splanchnic

The innermost tissue layer of the alimentary canal is the __________.

Mucosa

The nervous system does not regulate digestive activity.

False

Which layer of the alimentary canal is constructed from either stratified squamous or simple columnar epithelium?

Mucosa

Which layer of the alimentary canal is responsible for segmentation and peristalsis?

Muscularis Externa

Which layer of the alimentary canal contains the nerve supply of the enteric neurons that regulate digestive system activity?

Submucosa

A person with ankyloglossia would likely have difficulty pronouncing the word ______.

All of the listed responses are correct

A mumps viral infection of the two parotid glands may ______.

Spread to the other salivary glands

Hyposalivation can be treated with a drug that ______.

stimulates muscarinic receptors in salivary gland serous cells

Impacted wisdom teeth is a problem that is never observed in children because ______.

They lack their third molar

After root canal therapy, a tooth may become infected again due to poor dental hygiene. The patient might not seek treatment for this newly infected tooth because

The tooth lacks a never that allows the tooth to perceive pain

Saliva does NOT __________.

Aid in the chemical digestion of proteins

The primary dentition consists of __________ teeth.

20

How many total teeth does the following dental formula indicate?

20

How are wisdom teeth (third molars) classified?

permanent teeth

Which teeth are best suited for cutting or nipping off pieces of food in the permanent dentition?

Incisors

What muscle forms the labia of the mouth?

orbicularis oris

What is the function of the soft palate?

The soft palate rises reflexively to close off the nasopharynx when swallowing occurs.

What is the opening to the mouth called?

oral orifice

Which of the following is NOT a function of saliva?

Saliva contains enzymes that begin the chemical breakdown of proteins.

Which of the following inhibits salivation?

sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

Gastric juice does not typically cause a burning sensation within the stomach. But reflux of this gastric juice into the esophagus can cause a burning sensation. One reason why this occurs is that the esophagus ______.

secretes mucus that is not identical to stomach mucus

The __________ guards the entry of food into the stomach.

cardiac sphincter

Which digestive process normally occurs only in the mouth?

Ingestion

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the stomach?

The stomach releases enzymes to digest carbohydrates.

Which of the following components of saliva helps convert food-derived nitrates into nitric oxide (NO)?

bacteria present on the back of the tongue

In a patient suffering from a gastric ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori, the cells most likely to have been damaged first are the ______.

Mucos Cells

Before and during vomiting, the emetic center initiates motor responses that involve ______.

All of the listed responses are correct

What role of the stomach is essential to life?

production of intrinsic factor

In the __________ phase of gastric secretion, chyme is moved into the duodenum.

Intestinal

The __________ is the last segment of the small intestine.

Ileum

Blood draining from the stomach is more alkaline (basic) than blood that serves the stomach.

True

Which tunic of the stomach is constructed of simple columnar epithelium composed entirely of mucous cells?

Mucosa

Which mesentery helps tether the stomach to the liver?

Lesser Omentum

The mucosa collapses inward when the stomach is empty, forming large folds known as __________.

Rugae

Cirrhosis can cause ______.

A bleeding disorder

An obstruction by a gallstone is least likely to occur in the ______.

Common Hepatic Duct

Which organ of the digestive tract is the body's major digestive organ?

Small Intestine

What is the major digestive function of the pancreas?

production of digestive enzymes

Which of the following is NOT a structural modification of the small intestine to increase surface area?

Rugae

Bile is produced by the __________.

Liver

The pancreas secretes __________.

procarboxypeptidase

Most digestion and absorption of nutrients occur in the __________.

Small Intestine

The liver is able to regenerate even after 50% of its original mass is lost.

True

What structural modification of the small intestine slows the movement of chyme through the lumen?

Circular Folds

Which cell in the small intestine's mucosa is a mucus-secreting cell?

Goblet cell

Which cells of the small intestine secrete enterogastrones, such as secretin and cholecystokinin?

enteroendocrine cells

Which duct carries bile out of bile ducts in the liver?

Common Hepatic Duct

Which component of bile emulsifies fats?

Bile Salts

Which vessel delivers nutrient-rich blood to the liver from the digestive tract?

Hepatic Portal Vein

Which chemical activates the transformation of trypsinogen to trypsin?

enteropeptidase

What is a major function of pancreatic juice?

neutralizing chyme entering the small intestine from the stomach

What triggers the release of secretin from the small intestine?

presence of acidic, fatty chyme in the small intestine

Which of the following is NOT inhibited by the intestino-intestinal reflex?

Muscularis Mucosa

The appendix contains masses of lymphoid tissue and therefore has leukocytes capable of attacking bacteria present in the appendix. But during appendicitis, bacteria trapped in the lumen of the appendix are not effectively attacked because ______.

there is an inadequate blood supply to the appendix wall

The formation of diverticula involves, most significantly, the ______.

weakening of the colon's submucosa

An effective way to medically treat diarrhea would be to use a drug that ______.

inhibits the activity of the myenteric nerve plexus

Which of the following processes occurs only in the large intestine?

Defecation

Which vitamins are made by the bacteria in the large intestine?

B complex and K vitamins

The major function of the large intestine is to __________.

absorb water

__________ can result if food passes too slowly through the large intestine.

Constipation

Bacteria that reside in the large intestine make vitamin K.

True

Which of the following propels food residue over large areas of the colon three to four times a day?

Mass Movement

What is the function of the bacterial flora that inhabit the large intestine?

Bacterial flora synthesize B-complex vitamins and some of the vitamin K needed by the liver.

Which of the following is the primary function of the large intestine?

Defecation

One of the direct consequences of lactose intolerance is ______.

increased osmotic pressure of the large intestine contents

Which enzymes are responsible for the final chemical breakdown of carbohydrates, proteins, and nucleic acids?

brush border enzymes

Proteins are digested into __________.

Amino Acids

Which of the following are mismatched?

protease: lipid digestion

When a baby ingests breast milk, the milk's IgA antibodies may be absorbed into the baby's bloodstream because ______.

many pepsinogen molecules remain unchanged

Which part of the digestive system is the major location for absorption of the end products of digestion?

Small Intestine

How are fats absorbed into the blood?

in the form of chylomicrons

In cystic fibrosis, blockage of the pancreatic duct by thick mucus will prevent the flow of pancreatic juice into the duodenum; this will directly cause ______.

atrophy of the pancreatic acini

Enzymatic breakdown of which of the following compounds doesn't begin until it reaches the stomach?

Proteins

Which of the following enzymes is important for breaking down protein?

Pepsin

Which of the following enzymes is important for the digestion of fat?

Pancreatic Lipase

In the small intestine, which of the following enzymes breaks down maltose?

Maltase

The breakdown products of which of the following are absorbed into lacteals?

Fats

During which phase in the control of the digestive system would bicarbonate and bile be stimulated?

Intestinal Phase

Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter released by which fibers?

sympathetic postganglionic fibers

Enteric interneurons that are inhibitory to smooth muscle use which of the following neurotransmitters?

VIP

Which of the following intestinal hormones stimulates bile from the gall bladder?

CCK

Which of the following GI hormones promotes a pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions?

Secretin

Salivation is controlled almost entirely by the nervous system. Which of the following stimuli would inhibit salivation?

Fear

HCl secretions convert pepsinogen to the active hormone pepsin. What cells in the gastric pits produce pepsinogen?

Chief

In response to a steak dinner, certain secretions are needed to aid digestion. What cells in the pancreas would provide these secretions?

Acinar Cells

An increase in HCl (hydrochloric acid) secretion in the duodenum would stimulate which hormone that would help to counteract the effects of HCl?

Secretin

The secretion in the large intestine consists of which of the following?

bicarbonate- and potassium-rich mucus

The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________.

Digestion

When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called ________.

Chemical Digestion

Peristaltic waves are ________.

waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of ________.

Catabolism

The major means of propulsion through the alimentary canal is peristalsis.

True

The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________.

in the walls of the tract organs

The peritoneum is the most extensive serous membrane in the body.

True

The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ________.

Mesenteries

From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

If an incision has to be made in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, the first layer of tissue to be cut is the ________.

Serosa

The lamina propria is composed of ________.

loose connective tissue

The layer of the digestive tube that contains blood vessels, lymphatic nodules, and a rich supply of elastic fibers is the ________.

Submucosa

Which of these is not part of the splanchnic circulation?

inferior vena cava

The submucosal nerve plexus provides the major nerve supply to the GI tract wall and controls GI motility.

False

The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the ________.

Lamina Propia

Dentin anchors the tooth in place.

False

Mumps is an inflammation of the parotid glands caused by myxovirus.

True

What part of the tooth bears the force of chewing?

Enamel

Which of the following is true concerning the number and type of permanent teeth?

There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge.

Which of the following is not true of saliva?

contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of proteins

The salivary glands are composed of which two types of secretory cells?

serous cells and mucous cells

The solutes contained in saliva include ________.

electrolytes, digestive enzyme, mucin, lysozyme, wastes, and IgA

The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for?

canine tooth

Which of the following are types of papillae on the tongue that contain taste buds?

fungiform and circumvallate

Select the statement that is true concerning primary teeth.

There are 20 primary teeth, and by 24 months of age most children have all 20.

Surgical cutting of the lingual frenulum would occur in which part of the body?

Oral Cavity

Which of these is not a component of saliva?

a cyanide derivative

A patient has esophageal cancer and must have a feeding tube inserted. The nurse tells the patient that the tube will be inserted surgically into the duodenum. The patient's wife asks why the tube will not be inserted into the stomach. What should the nurse say?

There is less risk for vomiting, which could cause complications. Digestion is also completed in the small intestines, so there is no need for the stomach with a liquid food diet.

The pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing is involuntary and is controlled by the swallowing center in the thalamus and lower pons.

False

The soft palate rises reflexively to open the nasopharynx when we swallow food.

False

When swallowing, the epiglottis prevents food from entering the larynx.

True

Some of the microbes that often invade other organs of the body are rarely found in the stomach. The reason for this is the presence of HCl.

True

All the chemical and mechanical phases of digestion from the mouth through the small intestine are directed toward changing food into forms that can pass through the epithelial cells lining the mucosa into the underlying blood and lymphatic vessels.

True

Pepsinogen is the precursor to the gastric enzyme for protein digestion and is secreted by the parietal cells.

False

The intrinsic ability of visceral smooth muscle to exhibit the stress-relaxation response is termed plasticity.

True

The stomach's contractile rhythm is set by pacemaker cells found in the spinal cord.

False

Fats significantly delay the emptying of the stomach.

True

In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach ________.

initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins

Chyme is created in the ________.

STOMACH

Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells of the stomach?

Parietal Cells

Gastrin, histamine, endorphins, serotonin, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin are hormones or paracrines that are released directly into the lamina propria. Which of the following cell types synthesize and secrete these products?

enteroendocrine cells

There are three phases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs ________.

before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought

Gastrin is a digestive hormone that is responsible for the stimulation of acid secretions in the stomach. These secretions are stimulated by the presence of ________.

protein and peptide fragments

Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ________.

chief cells of the stomach

Parietal cells of the stomach produce ________.

hydrochloric acid

Which of the following is not a phase of gastric secretion?

enterogastric

Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

B12

Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by ________.

the vagus nerve and enteric plexus

Which of the following produce intrinsic factor?

parietal cells

What stomach secretion is necessary for normal hemoglobin production in RBCs?

intrinsic factor

Select the correct statement about the regulation of gastric secretion.

Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth.

A baby is admitted to the hospital with a history of projectile vomiting after each feeding. On examination, it is found that the sphincter controlling food passage from the stomach to the duodenum is thickened and does not open readily. Because of the baby's loss of gastric juice, his blood probably indicates ________.

alkalosis

Hormones or paracrines that inhibit gastric secretion include ________.

secretin

A patient was admitted to the hospital because of severe epigastric pain. He has noted that his stools were darker than the usual brown color. He appears pale and very anxious. The history reports that he drinks 2-3 beers per day and smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day. Based on the assessment data, what condition might the nurse determine this patient has, and why?

The patient most likely has a bleeding gastric ulcer. The most distressing symptom of a gastric ulcer is gnawing epigastric pain that seems to bore through to the back. As his stools are darker than usual and he is pale and anxious, he probably has a bleeding ulcer.

The relatively unchanging pressure in a filling stomach is due to the contraction of the stomach oblique muscle layer.

False

Gastric accommodation is an example of smooth muscle plasticity.

True

The only essential function of the stomach is to begin the digestion of proteins.

False

Most gastric ulcers are due to excessive production of hydrochloric acid.

False

Which of the following is not a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier?

production of intrinsic factor

Chief cells ________.

produce pepsinogen

Which of the following is (are) not important as a stimulus in the gastric phase of gastric secretion?

carbohydrates

The circular folds of the small intestine enhance absorption by causing the chyme to spiral, rather than to move in a straight line, as it passes through the small intestine.

True

Kupffer cells are found in the liver and are responsible for removing bacteria and worn-out cells.

True

Peyer's patches are found in the submucosa of the distal end of the small intestine.

True

The digestive function of the liver is to produce bile.

True

The pancreas has both an endocrine and an exocrine function.

True

Another term for swallowing is deglutition.

True

The major stimulus for production of intestinal fluid is distention or irritation of the intestinal mucosa by hypertonic or acidic chyme.

True

Most nutrients are absorbed through the mucosa of the intestinal villi by active transport.

True

Which hormone causes an increased output of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice and stimulates gallbladder contraction to release bile?

cholecystokinin

Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile.

Bile contains enzymes for digestion.

he ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the ________.

hepatopancreatic ampulla

The ________ contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages) that lead to a central venous structure.

LIVER

The function of the goblet cells is to ________.

produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

A fluid secreted into the small intestine during digestion that contains cholesterol, emulsification agents, and phospholipids is ________.

Bile

How are most nutrients absorbed through the mucosa of the intestinal villa?

active transport driven directly or indirectly by metabolic energy

Chemical digestion in the small intestine involves ________.

cholecystokinin (CCK), an intestinal hormone responsible for gallbladder contraction

The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?

Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum.

The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________.

collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage

The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?

plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli

Hepatocytes do not ________.

produce digestive enzymes

Digestion of which of the following would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged?

lipids

Which of the following is an essential role played by large intestine bacteria?

synthesize vitamin K and B-complex vitamins

synthesize vitamin K and B-complex vitamins

A

A woman is brought to an emergency room complaining of severe pain in her left iliac region. She claims previous episodes and says that the condition is worse when she is constipated, and is relieved by defecation. A large, tender mass is palpated in the left iliac fossa and a barium study reveals a large number of diverticula in her descending and sigmoid colon. Does this woman have diverticulitis or diverticulosis, and why?

She has diverticulitis due to the inflammation of her diverticula.

Which of the following is not characteristic of the large intestine? It ________.

is longer than the small intestine

Paneth cells ________.

secrete enzymes that kill bacteria

The major role of absorption in the ileum is to reclaim bile salts to be recycled back to the liver.

True

You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal?

Amylase

The enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule is called ________.

Hydrolysis

Short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which of the following enzymes is responsible?

Lipase

Which of the following enzymes is specific for proteins?

Trypsin

Select the correct statement about digestive processes.

Chyme entering the duodenum can decrease gastric motility via the enterogastric reflex.

Select the correct statement about absorption.

If intact proteins are transported across the villus epithelium, an immune response may be generated.

Select the correct statement about electrolyte absorption.

Iron and calcium are absorbed mostly by the duodenum.

Ionic iron is actively transported into the mucosal cells, where it binds to the protein ferritin, a phenomenon called the mucosal iron barrier.

TRUE

Except for lactose and some glycogen, the carbohydrates we ingest are mainly from animals.

False

The term essential nutrient refers to the chemicals that can be interconverted in the liver so that the body can maintain life and good health.

False

The most abundant dietary lipids in the diets of most Americans are triglycerides.

True

There are no complete proteins. All animal products should be eaten with plant material to make a complete protein.

False

The body is considered to be in nitrogen balance when the amount of nitrogen ingested in lipids equals the amount excreted in urine.

False

The amount of protein needed by each person is determined by the age, size, and metabolic rate of the person.

True

Vitamins are inorganic compounds that are essential for growth and good health.

False

Processes that break down complex molecules into simpler ones are anabolic.

False

For use as fuel, all food carbohydrates are eventually transformed to glucose.

True

It would not be healthy to eliminate all fats from your diet because they serve a useful purpose in maintaining the body.

True

The primary function of carbohydrates is energy production within cells.

True

Which of the choices below is not a fate of carbohydrate taken into the body?

conversion to a nucleic acid

Cholesterol, though it is not an energy molecule, has importance in the body because it ________.

is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones

It is important to ensure that your diet is adequately rich in vitamins because ________.

most vitamins are coenzymes needed to help the body utilize essential nutrients

In the case of a person who consumes a normal, balanced diet, proteins are essential to the body for all of the following except ________

production of energy

The most abundant dietary lipids are ________.

triglycerides

Prostaglandins play a role in ________.

control of blood pressure

Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement?

The amino acid pool is the body's total supply of amino acids in the body's proteins.

Select the correct statement about proteins.

Proteins will be used by most cells for ATP synthesis if insufficient carbohydrates are ingested.

Which of the following food groups are considered good sources of complete proteins?

eggs, milk, yogurt, meat, and fish

Which of the following best defines negative nitrogen balance?

Protein breakdown exceeds protein synthesis.

The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is ________.

glucose

Which of the following statements best describes complete protein?

must contain all the body's amino acid requirements for maintenance and growth

Minerals required by the body in moderate amounts include all but which of the following?

iron and selenium

Cellular respiration is an anabolic process.

False

Which of the choices below describes the pathway of cellular respiration (the complete oxidation of glucose)?

glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation

Which cell organelle provides the majority of the ATP needed by the cell to carry out its metabolic reactions?

mitochondrion

What is the primary function of the mitochondria?

They are the main sites of ATP production

An effective way to treat galactosemia would be to stop ingesting galactose and ______

lactose

Leptin is a short-term regulator of food intake.

False

The body is able to form glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors.

True

Most ATP in cellular respiration is generated in glycolysis.

False

Which brain region is the main integrating center for thermoregulation?

hypothalamus

Which hormone is called the "metabolic" hormone?

thyroxine

Although both conditions share the common characteristic of elevated body temperature, hyperthermia is technically different from fever because ______.

fever is a condition in which there is a change in the body's temperature set-point

Frostbite is LEAST likely to occur in the skin of a body region (e.g., abdominal region, finger region, etc.) that ______.

is closer to the heart than skin of a body region that is farther from the heart

Heavy sweating can induce heat cramps due to

All of the listed responses are correct.

Metabolism includes both anabolism and catabolism. In hyperthyroidism, the metabolic rate is increased because ______.

the rate of exergonic reactions is increased

A growing child is likely to exhibit negative nitrogen balance

False

Which of the following is NOT an essential role of the liver?

urea disposal

One of the reasons why statins are effective in reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease is

they decrease the incidence of cholesterol deposition in arterial wall

Which of the following would decrease body temperature?

dilation of cutaneous blood vessels

The body's rate of kilocalorie consumption needed to fuel all ongoing activities is called the

total metabolic rate

Which hormone directs essentially all events of the absorptive state?

insulin

The hyperglycemia that occurs during diabetes mellitus is accompanied by ______.

ketosis

__________ are considered "bad" cholesterol; high blood levels are believed to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.

LDLs

The primary goal during the postabsorptive state is to _

maintain blood glucose levels within an adequate range

__________ is the key hormone regulator of the absorptive state.

Insulin

Ammonia, which is a byproduct of protein metabolism, is converted to __________ primarily in the __________.

urea; liver

Which of the following is a characteristic of the electron transport chain (ETC)?

The ETC occurs in the mitochondria.

Which of the following is NOT an end product of the Krebs cycle?

citric acid

Which term describes the breakdown of stored fats into glycerol and fatty acids?

lipolysis

Which of the following is NOT a pathway in the oxidation of glucose?

gluconeogenesis

Which nutrient molecule is the pivotal fuel molecule in the oxidative pathways?

glucose

During ketosis caused by inadequate ingestion of carbohydrates,

the glycogen content of the liver is reduced

If cyanide entered cells, the result would be ______.

a net gain of only 4 ATP molecules produced from each glucose molecule

Glycolysis occurs in the __________ of cells and is an __________ process.

cytosol; anaerobic

Redox reactions __________.

are characterized by one substance gaining an electron while another substance loses an electron

__________ refers to reactions in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules.

Catabolism

Which nutrients are the most important anabolic nutrients?

amino acids

What is the primary function of cellular respiration - its end-purpose?

to generate ATP

Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

Vitamin B

Neurons and red blood cells rely exclusively on __________ to meet their energy needs.

glucose

__________ is a substance in food used by the body to promote normal growth, maintenance, and repair

A nutrient

Which nutrients function as coenzymes and are needed in only small amounts?

vitamins

The primary reason elderly people should decrease their caloric intake is that ________.

muscle mass and metabolism decline with age

The amount of ________ produced is probably the most important hormonal factor in determining BMR.

thyroxine

The ingestion of which nutrient type results in the greatest food-induced thermogenesis?

proteins

The term basal metabolic rate reflects the ________.

energy the body needs to perform only its most essential activities

Which of the following is the major role of leptin in the body?

protect against weight loss during nutritional deprivation

When a person's hypothalamic thermostat is set to a higher level and the actual body temperature is below that level, the person may ________.

shiver

Which of the choices below is not a major route of heat exchange?

shivering

Many factors influence BMR. What is the most critical factor?

the ratio of surface area to volume (weight) of the body

Heat-loss mechanisms do not include

vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels

Which of the choices below is not a mechanism of heat production?

sweating

Which of the following is a normal consequence of the activation of the heat-promoting center?

release of epinephrine

Peptides called NPY and AgRP are powerful appetite enhancers.

True

Ghrelin, produced by the stomach, is a powerful appetite stimulant.

True

Which of the following is not a function of LDLs?

transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver

Which of the following is not an important function of the liver?

synthesis of vitamin K

The major role of HDLs is to store energy in the form of fat.

False

Hank, a 17-year-old high school student, suffered a heart attack during a recreational swim. An autopsy revealed that he had had atherosclerosis and that his death had been caused by coronary artery disease. What might have been the cause of this disease that usually strikes a person much older than Hank?

He suffered from familial hypercholesterolemia

Diets high in cholesterol and saturated fats tend to produce high HDL concentrations.

False

High levels of HDLs are considered good.

True

Triglycerides and cholesterol do not circulate freely in the bloodstream.

True

When blood glucose levels are low, the body begins to use more noncarbohydrate fuels for energy production. This process is called glucose activation

False

The preferred energy fuel for the brain is fat.

False

Glucose can be obtained from ________.

glycogenolysis

Which of the choices below is not a source of glucose during the postabsorptive state?

absorption of glucose from the GI tract

As the body progresses from the absorptive to the postabsorptive state, only the ________ continues to burn glucose while every other organ in the body mostly switches to fatty acids.

brain

Which hormone directs essentially all the events of the absorptive state?

insulin

Which of the choices below happens during the absorptive state?

Anabolic processes exceed catabolic ones.

Glycogen is formed in the liver during the ________.

absorptive state

The increased use of noncarbohydrate molecules for energy to conserve glucose is called glucose sparing.

True

Which of the following is correct?

Each FADH2 yields about 1 1/2 ATP via oxidative phosphorylation.

Which food type is considered to be the most important for athletes to eat to improve performance?

complex carbohydrates

In gluconeogenesis, during the postabsorptive state, amino acids and ________ are converted to glucose.

glycerol

Oxidative deamination takes place in the ________.

liver

Which of the following mechanisms produces the most ATP during cellular respiration?

oxidative phosphorylation

Conditions that promote the oxidative deamination and energy use of amino acids include ________

excessive amounts of protein in the diet

Which of the following is not true of beta oxidation?

It involves the anabolism of fats.

Which of the following does not occur in the mitochondria?

glycolysis

Which of the following nutrients yield the highest amount of energy per gram when metabolized?

fats

When ketone bodies are present in the blood and urine in large amounts, it usually indicates increased metabolism of ________.

fatty acids

In the liver, the amine group of glutamic acid is removed as ________ in the oxidative state

ammonia

What is the outcome of ketosis?

metabolic acidosis

Glycolysis is best defined as a catabolic reaction based upon the ________.

conversion of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid

Gluconeogenesis is the process in which ________.

glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate precursors

Transamination is the process whereby the amine group of an amino acid is ________.

transferred to a keto acid

Lipogenesis occurs when ________.

cellular ATP and glucose levels are high

The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as ______

lipolysis

When proteins undergo deamination, the waste substance found in the urine is mostly________.

urea

Carbohydrate and fat pools are oxidized directly to produce cellular energy, but amino acid pools must first be converted to a carbohydrate intermediate before being sent through cellular respiration pathways.

True

In order for amino acids to be oxidized for energy, the amine group (NH2) must be removed.

True

All athletes require diets high in protein and calories in order to perform and to maintain their muscle mass.

False

Glycogenesis begins when ATP levels are high, and glucose entering cells is phosphorylated to glucose-6-phosphate and converted to its isomer, glucose-1-phosphate.

True

Beta oxidation is the initial phase of fatty acid oxidation, and it occurs in the cytoplasm.

False

The term metabolism is best defined as ________.

the sum of biochemical reactions involved in building breaking down molecules

What process primes a molecule to change in a way that increases its activity, produces motion, or does work?

phosphorylation

Oxidation reduction reactions ________.

may involve the loss of hydrogen and electrons

The primary function of cellular respiration is to ________.

break down food molecules and generate ATP

Catabolism would be best described as a process that ________.

breaks down complex structures to simpler ones

Anabolism includes reactions in which ________.

larger molecules or structures are built from smaller ones

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Which of the following is considered to be an accessory organ of the digestive system?

Gallbladder

The major means of propelling food through the digestive tract is __________.

Peristalsis

Which major process involves the elimination of indigestible substances from the body via the anus?

Deification

Where does the process of segmentation occur?

Small Intestine

How would you classify chewing food?

Mechanical Breakdown

The __________ is the serous membrane that lines the abdominal body wall.

Parietal Peritoneum

In a patient suffering from untreated infection-induced peritonitis, an infection in the visceral peritoneum immediately ______.

spreads directly to the parietal peritoneum

Which histological layer of the digestive tract is composed primarily of epithelial tissue?

Mucosa

The __________ circulation includes all of the major abdominal arteries that serve the digestive organs.

splanchnic

The innermost tissue layer of the alimentary canal is the __________.

Mucosa

The nervous system does not regulate digestive activity.

False

Which layer of the alimentary canal is constructed from either stratified squamous or simple columnar epithelium?

Mucosa

Which layer of the alimentary canal is responsible for segmentation and peristalsis?

Muscularis Externa

Which layer of the alimentary canal contains the nerve supply of the enteric neurons that regulate digestive system activity?

Submucosa

A person with ankyloglossia would likely have difficulty pronouncing the word ______.

All of the listed responses are correct

A mumps viral infection of the two parotid glands may ______.

Spread to the other salivary glands

Hyposalivation can be treated with a drug that ______.

stimulates muscarinic receptors in salivary gland serous cells

Impacted wisdom teeth is a problem that is never observed in children because ______.

They lack their third molar

After root canal therapy, a tooth may become infected again due to poor dental hygiene. The patient might not seek treatment for this newly infected tooth because

The tooth lacks a never that allows the tooth to perceive pain

Saliva does NOT __________.

Aid in the chemical digestion of proteins

The primary dentition consists of __________ teeth.

20

How many total teeth does the following dental formula indicate?

20

How are wisdom teeth (third molars) classified?

permanent teeth

Which teeth are best suited for cutting or nipping off pieces of food in the permanent dentition?

Incisors

What muscle forms the labia of the mouth?

orbicularis oris

What is the function of the soft palate?

The soft palate rises reflexively to close off the nasopharynx when swallowing occurs.

What is the opening to the mouth called?

oral orifice

Which of the following is NOT a function of saliva?

Saliva contains enzymes that begin the chemical breakdown of proteins.

Which of the following inhibits salivation?

sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

Gastric juice does not typically cause a burning sensation within the stomach. But reflux of this gastric juice into the esophagus can cause a burning sensation. One reason why this occurs is that the esophagus ______.

secretes mucus that is not identical to stomach mucus

The __________ guards the entry of food into the stomach.

cardiac sphincter

Which digestive process normally occurs only in the mouth?

Ingestion

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the stomach?

The stomach releases enzymes to digest carbohydrates.

Which of the following components of saliva helps convert food-derived nitrates into nitric oxide (NO)?

bacteria present on the back of the tongue

In a patient suffering from a gastric ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori, the cells most likely to have been damaged first are the ______.

Mucos Cells

Before and during vomiting, the emetic center initiates motor responses that involve ______.

All of the listed responses are correct

What role of the stomach is essential to life?

production of intrinsic factor

In the __________ phase of gastric secretion, chyme is moved into the duodenum.

Intestinal

The __________ is the last segment of the small intestine.

Ileum

Blood draining from the stomach is more alkaline (basic) than blood that serves the stomach.

True

Which tunic of the stomach is constructed of simple columnar epithelium composed entirely of mucous cells?

Mucosa

Which mesentery helps tether the stomach to the liver?

Lesser Omentum

The mucosa collapses inward when the stomach is empty, forming large folds known as __________.

Rugae

Cirrhosis can cause ______.

A bleeding disorder

An obstruction by a gallstone is least likely to occur in the ______.

Common Hepatic Duct

Which organ of the digestive tract is the body’s major digestive organ?

Small Intestine

What is the major digestive function of the pancreas?

production of digestive enzymes

Which of the following is NOT a structural modification of the small intestine to increase surface area?

Rugae

Bile is produced by the __________.

Liver

The pancreas secretes __________.

procarboxypeptidase

Most digestion and absorption of nutrients occur in the __________.

Small Intestine

The liver is able to regenerate even after 50% of its original mass is lost.

True

What structural modification of the small intestine slows the movement of chyme through the lumen?

Circular Folds

Which cell in the small intestine’s mucosa is a mucus-secreting cell?

Goblet cell

Which cells of the small intestine secrete enterogastrones, such as secretin and cholecystokinin?

enteroendocrine cells

Which duct carries bile out of bile ducts in the liver?

Common Hepatic Duct

Which component of bile emulsifies fats?

Bile Salts

Which vessel delivers nutrient-rich blood to the liver from the digestive tract?

Hepatic Portal Vein

Which chemical activates the transformation of trypsinogen to trypsin?

enteropeptidase

What is a major function of pancreatic juice?

neutralizing chyme entering the small intestine from the stomach

What triggers the release of secretin from the small intestine?

presence of acidic, fatty chyme in the small intestine

Which of the following is NOT inhibited by the intestino-intestinal reflex?

Muscularis Mucosa

The appendix contains masses of lymphoid tissue and therefore has leukocytes capable of attacking bacteria present in the appendix. But during appendicitis, bacteria trapped in the lumen of the appendix are not effectively attacked because ______.

there is an inadequate blood supply to the appendix wall

The formation of diverticula involves, most significantly, the ______.

weakening of the colon’s submucosa

An effective way to medically treat diarrhea would be to use a drug that ______.

inhibits the activity of the myenteric nerve plexus

Which of the following processes occurs only in the large intestine?

Defecation

Which vitamins are made by the bacteria in the large intestine?

B complex and K vitamins

The major function of the large intestine is to __________.

absorb water

__________ can result if food passes too slowly through the large intestine.

Constipation

Bacteria that reside in the large intestine make vitamin K.

True

Which of the following propels food residue over large areas of the colon three to four times a day?

Mass Movement

What is the function of the bacterial flora that inhabit the large intestine?

Bacterial flora synthesize B-complex vitamins and some of the vitamin K needed by the liver.

Which of the following is the primary function of the large intestine?

Defecation

One of the direct consequences of lactose intolerance is ______.

increased osmotic pressure of the large intestine contents

Which enzymes are responsible for the final chemical breakdown of carbohydrates, proteins, and nucleic acids?

brush border enzymes

Proteins are digested into __________.

Amino Acids

Which of the following are mismatched?

protease: lipid digestion

When a baby ingests breast milk, the milk’s IgA antibodies may be absorbed into the baby’s bloodstream because ______.

many pepsinogen molecules remain unchanged

Which part of the digestive system is the major location for absorption of the end products of digestion?

Small Intestine

How are fats absorbed into the blood?

in the form of chylomicrons

In cystic fibrosis, blockage of the pancreatic duct by thick mucus will prevent the flow of pancreatic juice into the duodenum; this will directly cause ______.

atrophy of the pancreatic acini

Enzymatic breakdown of which of the following compounds doesn’t begin until it reaches the stomach?

Proteins

Which of the following enzymes is important for breaking down protein?

Pepsin

Which of the following enzymes is important for the digestion of fat?

Pancreatic Lipase

In the small intestine, which of the following enzymes breaks down maltose?

Maltase

The breakdown products of which of the following are absorbed into lacteals?

Fats

During which phase in the control of the digestive system would bicarbonate and bile be stimulated?

Intestinal Phase

Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter released by which fibers?

sympathetic postganglionic fibers

Enteric interneurons that are inhibitory to smooth muscle use which of the following neurotransmitters?

VIP

Which of the following intestinal hormones stimulates bile from the gall bladder?

CCK

Which of the following GI hormones promotes a pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions?

Secretin

Salivation is controlled almost entirely by the nervous system. Which of the following stimuli would inhibit salivation?

Fear

HCl secretions convert pepsinogen to the active hormone pepsin. What cells in the gastric pits produce pepsinogen?

Chief

In response to a steak dinner, certain secretions are needed to aid digestion. What cells in the pancreas would provide these secretions?

Acinar Cells

An increase in HCl (hydrochloric acid) secretion in the duodenum would stimulate which hormone that would help to counteract the effects of HCl?

Secretin

The secretion in the large intestine consists of which of the following?

bicarbonate- and potassium-rich mucus

The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called ________.

Digestion

When we ingest large molecules such as lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins, they must undergo catabolic reactions whereby enzymes split these molecules. This series of reactions is called ________.

Chemical Digestion

Peristaltic waves are ________.

waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another

Chemical digestion reduces large complex molecules to simpler compounds by the process of ________.

Catabolism

The major means of propulsion through the alimentary canal is peristalsis.

True

The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________.

in the walls of the tract organs

The peritoneum is the most extensive serous membrane in the body.

True

The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called ________.

Mesenteries

From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen

mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa

If an incision has to be made in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, the first layer of tissue to be cut is the ________.

Serosa

The lamina propria is composed of ________.

loose connective tissue

The layer of the digestive tube that contains blood vessels, lymphatic nodules, and a rich supply of elastic fibers is the ________.

Submucosa

Which of these is not part of the splanchnic circulation?

inferior vena cava

The submucosal nerve plexus provides the major nerve supply to the GI tract wall and controls GI motility.

False

The capillaries that nourish the epithelium and absorb digested nutrients lie in the ________.

Lamina Propia

Dentin anchors the tooth in place.

False

Mumps is an inflammation of the parotid glands caused by myxovirus.

True

What part of the tooth bears the force of chewing?

Enamel

Which of the following is true concerning the number and type of permanent teeth?

There are 32 permanent teeth, and the wisdom teeth are the last to emerge.

Which of the following is not true of saliva?

contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of proteins

The salivary glands are composed of which two types of secretory cells?

serous cells and mucous cells

The solutes contained in saliva include ________.

electrolytes, digestive enzyme, mucin, lysozyme, wastes, and IgA

The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for?

canine tooth

Which of the following are types of papillae on the tongue that contain taste buds?

fungiform and circumvallate

Select the statement that is true concerning primary teeth.

There are 20 primary teeth, and by 24 months of age most children have all 20.

Surgical cutting of the lingual frenulum would occur in which part of the body?

Oral Cavity

Which of these is not a component of saliva?

a cyanide derivative

A patient has esophageal cancer and must have a feeding tube inserted. The nurse tells the patient that the tube will be inserted surgically into the duodenum. The patient’s wife asks why the tube will not be inserted into the stomach. What should the nurse say?

There is less risk for vomiting, which could cause complications. Digestion is also completed in the small intestines, so there is no need for the stomach with a liquid food diet.

The pharyngeal-esophageal phase of swallowing is involuntary and is controlled by the swallowing center in the thalamus and lower pons.

False

The soft palate rises reflexively to open the nasopharynx when we swallow food.

False

When swallowing, the epiglottis prevents food from entering the larynx.

True

Some of the microbes that often invade other organs of the body are rarely found in the stomach. The reason for this is the presence of HCl.

True

All the chemical and mechanical phases of digestion from the mouth through the small intestine are directed toward changing food into forms that can pass through the epithelial cells lining the mucosa into the underlying blood and lymphatic vessels.

True

Pepsinogen is the precursor to the gastric enzyme for protein digestion and is secreted by the parietal cells.

False

The intrinsic ability of visceral smooth muscle to exhibit the stress-relaxation response is termed plasticity.

True

The stomach’s contractile rhythm is set by pacemaker cells found in the spinal cord.

False

Fats significantly delay the emptying of the stomach.

True

In addition to storage and mechanical breakdown of food, the stomach ________.

initiates protein digestion and denatures proteins

Chyme is created in the ________.

STOMACH

Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells of the stomach?

Parietal Cells

Gastrin, histamine, endorphins, serotonin, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin are hormones or paracrines that are released directly into the lamina propria. Which of the following cell types synthesize and secrete these products?

enteroendocrine cells

There are three phases of gastric secretion. The cephalic phase occurs ________.

before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma, sight, or thought

Gastrin is a digestive hormone that is responsible for the stimulation of acid secretions in the stomach. These secretions are stimulated by the presence of ________.

protein and peptide fragments

Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the ________.

chief cells of the stomach

Parietal cells of the stomach produce ________.

hydrochloric acid

Which of the following is not a phase of gastric secretion?

enterogastric

Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

B12

Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by ________.

the vagus nerve and enteric plexus

Which of the following produce intrinsic factor?

parietal cells

What stomach secretion is necessary for normal hemoglobin production in RBCs?

intrinsic factor

Select the correct statement about the regulation of gastric secretion.

Gastric secretion can be stimulated before food has entered the mouth.

A baby is admitted to the hospital with a history of projectile vomiting after each feeding. On examination, it is found that the sphincter controlling food passage from the stomach to the duodenum is thickened and does not open readily. Because of the baby’s loss of gastric juice, his blood probably indicates ________.

alkalosis

Hormones or paracrines that inhibit gastric secretion include ________.

secretin

A patient was admitted to the hospital because of severe epigastric pain. He has noted that his stools were darker than the usual brown color. He appears pale and very anxious. The history reports that he drinks 2-3 beers per day and smokes 2 packs of cigarettes a day. Based on the assessment data, what condition might the nurse determine this patient has, and why?

The patient most likely has a bleeding gastric ulcer. The most distressing symptom of a gastric ulcer is gnawing epigastric pain that seems to bore through to the back. As his stools are darker than usual and he is pale and anxious, he probably has a bleeding ulcer.

The relatively unchanging pressure in a filling stomach is due to the contraction of the stomach oblique muscle layer.

False

Gastric accommodation is an example of smooth muscle plasticity.

True

The only essential function of the stomach is to begin the digestion of proteins.

False

Most gastric ulcers are due to excessive production of hydrochloric acid.

False

Which of the following is not a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier?

production of intrinsic factor

Chief cells ________.

produce pepsinogen

Which of the following is (are) not important as a stimulus in the gastric phase of gastric secretion?

carbohydrates

The circular folds of the small intestine enhance absorption by causing the chyme to spiral, rather than to move in a straight line, as it passes through the small intestine.

True

Kupffer cells are found in the liver and are responsible for removing bacteria and worn-out cells.

True

Peyer’s patches are found in the submucosa of the distal end of the small intestine.

True

The digestive function of the liver is to produce bile.

True

The pancreas has both an endocrine and an exocrine function.

True

Another term for swallowing is deglutition.

True

The major stimulus for production of intestinal fluid is distention or irritation of the intestinal mucosa by hypertonic or acidic chyme.

True

Most nutrients are absorbed through the mucosa of the intestinal villi by active transport.

True

Which hormone causes an increased output of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice and stimulates gallbladder contraction to release bile?

cholecystokinin

Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile.

Bile contains enzymes for digestion.

he ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the ________.

hepatopancreatic ampulla

The ________ contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages) that lead to a central venous structure.

LIVER

The function of the goblet cells is to ________.

produce mucus that protects parts of the digestive organs from the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion

A fluid secreted into the small intestine during digestion that contains cholesterol, emulsification agents, and phospholipids is ________.

Bile

How are most nutrients absorbed through the mucosa of the intestinal villa?

active transport driven directly or indirectly by metabolic energy

Chemical digestion in the small intestine involves ________.

cholecystokinin (CCK), an intestinal hormone responsible for gallbladder contraction

The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?

Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum.

The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to ________.

collect absorbed nutrients for metabolic processing or storage

The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?

plicae circulares, villi, and microvilli

Hepatocytes do not ________.

produce digestive enzymes

Digestion of which of the following would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged?

lipids

Which of the following is an essential role played by large intestine bacteria?

synthesize vitamin K and B-complex vitamins

synthesize vitamin K and B-complex vitamins

A

A woman is brought to an emergency room complaining of severe pain in her left iliac region. She claims previous episodes and says that the condition is worse when she is constipated, and is relieved by defecation. A large, tender mass is palpated in the left iliac fossa and a barium study reveals a large number of diverticula in her descending and sigmoid colon. Does this woman have diverticulitis or diverticulosis, and why?

She has diverticulitis due to the inflammation of her diverticula.

Which of the following is not characteristic of the large intestine? It ________.

is longer than the small intestine

Paneth cells ________.

secrete enzymes that kill bacteria

The major role of absorption in the ileum is to reclaim bile salts to be recycled back to the liver.

True

You have just eaten a meal high in complex carbohydrates. Which of the following enzymes will help to digest the meal?

Amylase

The enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule is called ________.

Hydrolysis

Short-chain triglycerides found in foods such as butterfat molecules in milk are split by a specific enzyme in preparation for absorption. Which of the following enzymes is responsible?

Lipase

Which of the following enzymes is specific for proteins?

Trypsin

Select the correct statement about digestive processes.

Chyme entering the duodenum can decrease gastric motility via the enterogastric reflex.

Select the correct statement about absorption.

If intact proteins are transported across the villus epithelium, an immune response may be generated.

Select the correct statement about electrolyte absorption.

Iron and calcium are absorbed mostly by the duodenum.

Ionic iron is actively transported into the mucosal cells, where it binds to the protein ferritin, a phenomenon called the mucosal iron barrier.

TRUE

Except for lactose and some glycogen, the carbohydrates we ingest are mainly from animals.

False

The term essential nutrient refers to the chemicals that can be interconverted in the liver so that the body can maintain life and good health.

False

The most abundant dietary lipids in the diets of most Americans are triglycerides.

True

There are no complete proteins. All animal products should be eaten with plant material to make a complete protein.

False

The body is considered to be in nitrogen balance when the amount of nitrogen ingested in lipids equals the amount excreted in urine.

False

The amount of protein needed by each person is determined by the age, size, and metabolic rate of the person.

True

Vitamins are inorganic compounds that are essential for growth and good health.

False

Processes that break down complex molecules into simpler ones are anabolic.

False

For use as fuel, all food carbohydrates are eventually transformed to glucose.

True

It would not be healthy to eliminate all fats from your diet because they serve a useful purpose in maintaining the body.

True

The primary function of carbohydrates is energy production within cells.

True

Which of the choices below is not a fate of carbohydrate taken into the body?

conversion to a nucleic acid

Cholesterol, though it is not an energy molecule, has importance in the body because it ________.

is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones

It is important to ensure that your diet is adequately rich in vitamins because ________.

most vitamins are coenzymes needed to help the body utilize essential nutrients

In the case of a person who consumes a normal, balanced diet, proteins are essential to the body for all of the following except ________

production of energy

The most abundant dietary lipids are ________.

triglycerides

Prostaglandins play a role in ________.

control of blood pressure

Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement?

The amino acid pool is the body’s total supply of amino acids in the body’s proteins.

Select the correct statement about proteins.

Proteins will be used by most cells for ATP synthesis if insufficient carbohydrates are ingested.

Which of the following food groups are considered good sources of complete proteins?

eggs, milk, yogurt, meat, and fish

Which of the following best defines negative nitrogen balance?

Protein breakdown exceeds protein synthesis.

The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is ________.

glucose

Which of the following statements best describes complete protein?

must contain all the body’s amino acid requirements for maintenance and growth

Minerals required by the body in moderate amounts include all but which of the following?

iron and selenium

Cellular respiration is an anabolic process.

False

Which of the choices below describes the pathway of cellular respiration (the complete oxidation of glucose)?

glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation

Which cell organelle provides the majority of the ATP needed by the cell to carry out its metabolic reactions?

mitochondrion

What is the primary function of the mitochondria?

They are the main sites of ATP production

An effective way to treat galactosemia would be to stop ingesting galactose and ______

lactose

Leptin is a short-term regulator of food intake.

False

The body is able to form glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors.

True

Most ATP in cellular respiration is generated in glycolysis.

False

Which brain region is the main integrating center for thermoregulation?

hypothalamus

Which hormone is called the "metabolic" hormone?

thyroxine

Although both conditions share the common characteristic of elevated body temperature, hyperthermia is technically different from fever because ______.

fever is a condition in which there is a change in the body’s temperature set-point

Frostbite is LEAST likely to occur in the skin of a body region (e.g., abdominal region, finger region, etc.) that ______.

is closer to the heart than skin of a body region that is farther from the heart

Heavy sweating can induce heat cramps due to

All of the listed responses are correct.

Metabolism includes both anabolism and catabolism. In hyperthyroidism, the metabolic rate is increased because ______.

the rate of exergonic reactions is increased

A growing child is likely to exhibit negative nitrogen balance

False

Which of the following is NOT an essential role of the liver?

urea disposal

One of the reasons why statins are effective in reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease is

they decrease the incidence of cholesterol deposition in arterial wall

Which of the following would decrease body temperature?

dilation of cutaneous blood vessels

The body’s rate of kilocalorie consumption needed to fuel all ongoing activities is called the

total metabolic rate

Which hormone directs essentially all events of the absorptive state?

insulin

The hyperglycemia that occurs during diabetes mellitus is accompanied by ______.

ketosis

__________ are considered "bad" cholesterol; high blood levels are believed to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.

LDLs

The primary goal during the postabsorptive state is to _

maintain blood glucose levels within an adequate range

__________ is the key hormone regulator of the absorptive state.

Insulin

Ammonia, which is a byproduct of protein metabolism, is converted to __________ primarily in the __________.

urea; liver

Which of the following is a characteristic of the electron transport chain (ETC)?

The ETC occurs in the mitochondria.

Which of the following is NOT an end product of the Krebs cycle?

citric acid

Which term describes the breakdown of stored fats into glycerol and fatty acids?

lipolysis

Which of the following is NOT a pathway in the oxidation of glucose?

gluconeogenesis

Which nutrient molecule is the pivotal fuel molecule in the oxidative pathways?

glucose

During ketosis caused by inadequate ingestion of carbohydrates,

the glycogen content of the liver is reduced

If cyanide entered cells, the result would be ______.

a net gain of only 4 ATP molecules produced from each glucose molecule

Glycolysis occurs in the __________ of cells and is an __________ process.

cytosol; anaerobic

Redox reactions __________.

are characterized by one substance gaining an electron while another substance loses an electron

__________ refers to reactions in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules.

Catabolism

Which nutrients are the most important anabolic nutrients?

amino acids

What is the primary function of cellular respiration – its end-purpose?

to generate ATP

Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

Vitamin B

Neurons and red blood cells rely exclusively on __________ to meet their energy needs.

glucose

__________ is a substance in food used by the body to promote normal growth, maintenance, and repair

A nutrient

Which nutrients function as coenzymes and are needed in only small amounts?

vitamins

The primary reason elderly people should decrease their caloric intake is that ________.

muscle mass and metabolism decline with age

The amount of ________ produced is probably the most important hormonal factor in determining BMR.

thyroxine

The ingestion of which nutrient type results in the greatest food-induced thermogenesis?

proteins

The term basal metabolic rate reflects the ________.

energy the body needs to perform only its most essential activities

Which of the following is the major role of leptin in the body?

protect against weight loss during nutritional deprivation

When a person’s hypothalamic thermostat is set to a higher level and the actual body temperature is below that level, the person may ________.

shiver

Which of the choices below is not a major route of heat exchange?

shivering

Many factors influence BMR. What is the most critical factor?

the ratio of surface area to volume (weight) of the body

Heat-loss mechanisms do not include

vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels

Which of the choices below is not a mechanism of heat production?

sweating

Which of the following is a normal consequence of the activation of the heat-promoting center?

release of epinephrine

Peptides called NPY and AgRP are powerful appetite enhancers.

True

Ghrelin, produced by the stomach, is a powerful appetite stimulant.

True

Which of the following is not a function of LDLs?

transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver

Which of the following is not an important function of the liver?

synthesis of vitamin K

The major role of HDLs is to store energy in the form of fat.

False

Hank, a 17-year-old high school student, suffered a heart attack during a recreational swim. An autopsy revealed that he had had atherosclerosis and that his death had been caused by coronary artery disease. What might have been the cause of this disease that usually strikes a person much older than Hank?

He suffered from familial hypercholesterolemia

Diets high in cholesterol and saturated fats tend to produce high HDL concentrations.

False

High levels of HDLs are considered good.

True

Triglycerides and cholesterol do not circulate freely in the bloodstream.

True

When blood glucose levels are low, the body begins to use more noncarbohydrate fuels for energy production. This process is called glucose activation

False

The preferred energy fuel for the brain is fat.

False

Glucose can be obtained from ________.

glycogenolysis

Which of the choices below is not a source of glucose during the postabsorptive state?

absorption of glucose from the GI tract

As the body progresses from the absorptive to the postabsorptive state, only the ________ continues to burn glucose while every other organ in the body mostly switches to fatty acids.

brain

Which hormone directs essentially all the events of the absorptive state?

insulin

Which of the choices below happens during the absorptive state?

Anabolic processes exceed catabolic ones.

Glycogen is formed in the liver during the ________.

absorptive state

The increased use of noncarbohydrate molecules for energy to conserve glucose is called glucose sparing.

True

Which of the following is correct?

Each FADH2 yields about 1 1/2 ATP via oxidative phosphorylation.

Which food type is considered to be the most important for athletes to eat to improve performance?

complex carbohydrates

In gluconeogenesis, during the postabsorptive state, amino acids and ________ are converted to glucose.

glycerol

Oxidative deamination takes place in the ________.

liver

Which of the following mechanisms produces the most ATP during cellular respiration?

oxidative phosphorylation

Conditions that promote the oxidative deamination and energy use of amino acids include ________

excessive amounts of protein in the diet

Which of the following is not true of beta oxidation?

It involves the anabolism of fats.

Which of the following does not occur in the mitochondria?

glycolysis

Which of the following nutrients yield the highest amount of energy per gram when metabolized?

fats

When ketone bodies are present in the blood and urine in large amounts, it usually indicates increased metabolism of ________.

fatty acids

In the liver, the amine group of glutamic acid is removed as ________ in the oxidative state

ammonia

What is the outcome of ketosis?

metabolic acidosis

Glycolysis is best defined as a catabolic reaction based upon the ________.

conversion of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid

Gluconeogenesis is the process in which ________.

glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate precursors

Transamination is the process whereby the amine group of an amino acid is ________.

transferred to a keto acid

Lipogenesis occurs when ________.

cellular ATP and glucose levels are high

The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as ______

lipolysis

When proteins undergo deamination, the waste substance found in the urine is mostly________.

urea

Carbohydrate and fat pools are oxidized directly to produce cellular energy, but amino acid pools must first be converted to a carbohydrate intermediate before being sent through cellular respiration pathways.

True

In order for amino acids to be oxidized for energy, the amine group (NH2) must be removed.

True

All athletes require diets high in protein and calories in order to perform and to maintain their muscle mass.

False

Glycogenesis begins when ATP levels are high, and glucose entering cells is phosphorylated to glucose-6-phosphate and converted to its isomer, glucose-1-phosphate.

True

Beta oxidation is the initial phase of fatty acid oxidation, and it occurs in the cytoplasm.

False

The term metabolism is best defined as ________.

the sum of biochemical reactions involved in building breaking down molecules

What process primes a molecule to change in a way that increases its activity, produces motion, or does work?

phosphorylation

Oxidation reduction reactions ________.

may involve the loss of hydrogen and electrons

The primary function of cellular respiration is to ________.

break down food molecules and generate ATP

Catabolism would be best described as a process that ________.

breaks down complex structures to simpler ones

Anabolism includes reactions in which ________.

larger molecules or structures are built from smaller ones

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