|
False |
Business enhancements such as encrypted files, joining a domain, and processing Group Policy settings are available in Windows 10 Home. |
|
True |
Cortana can optionally link external accounts that the user has on services such as Office 365. |
|
False |
In Windows 10, the standard protocol for computers to format and exchange data across a network is Remote Assistance. |
|
False |
Windows 10 Enterprise and Education editions do not include support for tablet computers as a standard feature. |
|
True |
The installation process of Windows 10 takes a snapshot of the computer’s hardware and calculates a digital signature to identify that computer. |
|
4GB |
How much RAM is supported by the 32-bit version of Windows 10. |
|
Microsoft Passport |
Which of the following is a feature built into Windows 10 that supports MFA and will use a TPM, if available? |
|
Cortana |
Which Windows feature uses audio and speech to interact with a user to search for information? |
|
Continuum |
Which Windows feature automatically adjusts the display and input methods depending on the form factor being used and whether a hardware keyboard is active? |
|
Action Center |
Where should you go on the Windows 10 desktop if you want to see important notifications from the operating system? |
|
Start menu |
Which Windows feature includes three columns and includes live tiles in the right-hand column? |
|
Virtual Desktop |
What new feature in Windows 10 allows the user to create multiple desktops that can host different open windows? |
|
DLLs |
Applications can share code modules by using which Windows programming feature? |
|
Modern Standby |
Which Windows 10 feature allows a device to sleep but continue to perform basic tasks like downloading Windows updates? |
|
Snap |
Which of the following allows windows to quickly be resized by clicking the title bar of the window and dragging it to the top, sides, or middle of the screen? |
|
process |
Which of the following terms represents a collection of data, files, and instructions with a specific purpose while it is running? |
|
processor affinity |
If a thread is not finished running, perhaps because it had to wait or it was preempted, it is typically restarted on the same processor that previously ran it. What is this known as? |
|
Multiprocessor |
Which of the following systems have more than one physical CPU? |
|
Hyperthreading |
Which of the following types of CPUs have extra hardware built in to allow more than one thread to be processed at the same time on a single CPU? |
|
Plug and Play technology |
Which of the following assumes that hardware components can be connected or activated at any time while the operating system is running? |
|
FAT32 |
Which of the following file systems uses a 32-bit numbering system to increase the number of data blocks that can be managed and organized as part of a single partition? |
|
virtual |
What type of disk can be stored in a single file on a physical disk? |
|
UEFI |
What type of firmware should you look for on a PC if you want the computer to support GPT partitions? |
|
NTFS |
Which file system should you use if you want to use EFS? |
|
Client Hyper-V |
What Windows 10 feature should you use if you need to run an older application on an earlier version of Windows using the same computer you are using to run Windows 10? |
|
domain |
Which of the following terms is a collection of computers and users that are identified by a common security database? |
|
Cortana |
Windows 10 includes a personalized virtual assistant application called |
|
Windows as a Service |
Windows 10 is continuously improved as if it were a service the user has subscribed to. This operating system update strategy is commonly referred to as |
|
Desktop |
mode is designed for a traditional computer with a mouse and keyboard. |
|
threads |
Programmers compile a list of instructions to build their applications. These instructions are typically grouped into units of code called |
|
Preemptive |
multitasking allows a single process to be interrupted by another process, even if the first process has not completed. |
|
Home Professional Enterprise Education |
What are the four mainstream versions of Windows 10 |
|
• 64-bit version supports up to 2048 GB of RAM • Domain join • Group Policy management • Remote Desktop • Client Hyper-V • Enterprise Mode Internet Explorer (EMIE) • Assigned Access • Azure Active Directory join with single sign-on to cloud-hosted apps • Windows Store for Business • BitLocker drive encryption • Enterprise Data Protection • Windows Update for Business• Current Branch for Business • Easy Upgrade from Professional to Enterprise edition |
What are the main features included with Windows 10 Professional |
|
The 64-bit version is becoming popular as users are running applications that demand more RAM than the 32-bit version can use. Most new computers, with the exception of some tablets and low-cost computers, are 64-bit devices.The 64-bit editions can support up to 2048 GB of RAM.The 64-bit version of Windows 10 has a greater theoretical limit for processing data, which may allow it to complete calculations faster than a 32-bit version, even on the same computer hardware. |
Briefly describe Windows 10’s 64-bit computing support. |
|
Each authentication factor is a different form of evidence confirming the user’s identity. Instead of authenticating with one factor, like a password, the user must be able to prove at least two, a challenge known as two-factor authentication |
Describe multifactor authentication and its benefits. |
|
Microsoft Edge is designed to perform much faster than Internet Explorer and many competing third-party browsers. Microsoft Edge presents a new way to surf and interact with the web. When a user signs in to a device running Windows 10 using a Microsoft account, data such as favorite sites and stored web content can be synchronized between all of the user’s Windows 10 devices. The stored web content is known as a reading list, and can be viewed without a live Internet connection at the user’s convenience. Web content can be cluttered with links, ads, and other formatting that make it hard to read some web text. Microsoft Edge allows the user to enable a reading view that can remove that visual clutter, improving the user’s ability to focus on key content. To enrich the browsing experience, Microsoft Edge also allows the user to add notes, highlights, and free-form writing on a webpage. The annotated webpage can be saved for future reference or shared with others. Browsing the web has become a richer experience with Microsoft Edge, and finding information |
What are some of the notable new features of Microsoft Edge |
|
Continuum is a feature on Windows 10 When Windows 10 is installed on a computer with a touch screen, it can be used in desktop mode or tablet mode. Continuum automatically adjusts the display and input methods depending on the form factor being used. When a keyboard is detached or folded away, the device automatically switches to tablet mode. On mobile phones running Windows 10, Continuum for phone allows you to use your phone like a desktop computer when appropriate peripherals are connected. You can attach a mouse, keyboard, monitor, or projector. |
What is continuum? |
|
The left-hand column displays small icons to identify the currently signed-in user and access File Explorer, system settings, and power controls. A description of each small icon can be seen by hovering the mouse over the icon. If desired, this column can be expanded by clicking the menu icon at the top of the column. The middle column lists a series of links, with the user’s most used applications at the top, and a sorted list of installed applications below that. The right-hand column includes application live tiles that display up-to-date information from applications and allow the user to fully launch those applications. The application live tile feature was made popular by Windows 8; however, Windows 8 did not offer the blended experience of a Start menu together with application live tiles. Windows 10 offers the best of both worlds in its Start menu. Jump lists are reintroduced with Windows 10 to identify what content was recently opened by an application, or what content is automatically linked to the menu item. The left-hand column of the Start menu displays an arrow next to the Start menu item if the item has a jump list associated with it. Clicking the arrow will open the jump list for that item. If a user clicks an item on the jump list, the content or listed application is opened. If nothing is selected and the user clicks elsewhere, the jump list disappears |
What are some of the new features of the Windows 10 Start menu? |
|
With power management the latest hardware power standards can consume less power than ever before. This power economy can translate into laptops that can run longer on battery power and buildings full of computers that will reduce companies’ energy bills significantly. Power management features include the Fast Startup feature of Windows 10 captures the state of the computer’s operating system and drivers, saving them to a file on the local hard drive before the computer enters a low-power hibernation mode. When the computer is woken up, the hibernation image is loaded faster than starting the operating system from scratch. If a device running Windows 10 supports hibernation, this feature can be enabled primarily as a software feature. Power management features include the Modern Standby feature allows a device to sleep but continue to perform basic tasks like downloading Windows updates, checking for new email for the user, or notifying users when someone is trying to reach them through an online chat request. This feature is specific to computer hardware that supports Modern Standby and would be used as a shopping criterion during the device acquisition stage. |
What are the power management features included with Windows 10? |
|
Remote Assistance is a stand-alone application included with all versions of Windows 10. A user can ask for help from a trusted professional over the network using email, file transfer, or the Easy Connect service. |
Briefly describe the Remote Assistance feature included with Windows 10. |
|
Workgroup Model When a computer is first connected to a network, it typically is configured as a member of a workgroup. A workgroup is a loosely knit collection of peer computers on a network where no computer has control or superior role to any other computer. The peers share resources with each other over the network. This can be useful for a small number of computers in a typical home or small business network. Domain Model The domain model is a client/server strategy that allows central administrative management of its members. A domain is a collection of computers and users that are identified by a common security database. The database is stored on one or more dedicated servers called domain controllers (DCs). Computers that are part of the domain can reference the domain database and read the user and computer accounts contained within. |
What are the major differences between workgroup and domain models? |
|
Continuum |
the Windows 10 feature that automatically adjusts Windows 10 between desktop mode and tablet mode as the device state changes |
|
Cortana |
a personalized virtual search assistant |
|
Desktop mode |
the traditional configuration for a Windows 10 computer that is optimized for use with a mouse and keyboard |
|
Device driver |
software written by the developer of a hardware component that tells the operating system how to talk to and control the hardware |
|
domain controller |
server responsible for holding a domain security database |
|
Dynamic Link Library |
a file that holds application code modules |
|
hyperthreading |
a technique used in certain Intel processors to improve their overall performance by working on more than one independent piece of code at a time |
|
Multitasking |
term used to describe the appearance of more than one application sharing the CPU of the computer |
|
Quantum |
the amount of time allocated to a program running in a preemptive multitasking environment |
|
unattend.xml |
If you do not specify an answer file, then which of the following will Sysprep search for to use as an answer file? |
|
product activation |
Which process is designed to inform a user that an unscrupulous retailer is selling illegitimate copies of Windows 10? |
|
distribution share |
Which of the following installation methods requires computers to be booted into Windows PE from removable storage and then run the Windows 10 installation from a server? |
|
DVD boot |
Which of the following installation methods is the least suitable method for a large volume of computers? |
|
Windows Deployment Services (WDS) |
When DISM is combined with which of the following, you can completely automate the deployment process to include partitioning and formatting hard drives? |
|
offlineServicing |
Which of the following configuration passes is used to apply packages to a Windows 10 image after it is copied to the computer hard drive, but before it is running? |
|
Enter System Audit Mode |
Which of the following is a system cleanup action you can select when you run Sysprep to generalize an image? |
|
False |
The DVD boot installation method is the most suitable method for a large volume of computers. |
|
Image-based |
Which type of installation requires the creation of a customized image that you apply to each computer? |
|
SIM |
What tool is used to place a customized image on a distribution share? |
|
User State Migration Tool |
Which of the following is a Windows 10 tool for migrating user profiles to a new computer? |
|
Windows PE |
Which of the following is a limited and non-GUI version of Windows based on Windows 10 technologies that can be used for installing, troubleshooting, and repairing Windows 10? |
|
Sysprep |
What tool do you use to generalize an image and select a system cleanup action? |
|
configuration set |
Which of the following is the subset of files in a distribution share that are required for a particular answer file? |
|
User State Migration Tool (USMT) |
Which of the following moves desktop settings and applications from one computer to another? |
|
False |
A clean installation is an installation of Windows 10 performed on a computer that has existing data or applications. |
|
NoRpFix |
Which DISM option prevents files with reparse points outside the specified path from being captured? |
|
False |
Windows 10 maximizes user involvement during attended installation with an abundance of prompts that user must answer in the middle part of the installation. |
|
Deployment Image Servicing and Management |
Which of the following is used to perform offline servicing of WIM images? |
|
image based |
Which installation method is the fastest type of installation and provides the highest level of customization? |
|
ImageX |
The functionality provided by which of the following Windows 7 features has now been included in DISM for Windows 10? |
|
oobeSystem |
Which of the following configuration passes is applied during the portion of the installation where users are asked for information after the second reboot? |
|
Universal Naming Convention (UNC) |
The path to the distribution share should always be referred to by which path to ensure that it can be accessed over the network during unattended installations? |
|
Distribution shares |
Which of the following are software packages containing drivers, service packs, or security updates that are applied to an image during the offlineServicing configuration pass of the installation. |
|
False |
A distribution share installation is always faster than a DVD boot installation. |
|
SID |
What system-specific data does the workstation create when a generalized image is applied to a workstation? Answer: Computer |
|
generalization |
In a corporate environment the most common use for Sysprep is preparing workstations to capture an image. What is this process known as? |
|
install.wim |
What do you need to install on a USB drive to use Windows to Go? |
|
True |
Windows PE includes networking components and allows you to use current Windows drivers for network connectivity. |
|
DVD Boot |
Which installation method is suitable for small organizations that only occasionally install Windows 10? |
|
False |
Control Panel is no longer available in Windows 10, so you should use Settings for all configuration tasks. |
|
True |
Multitasking settings control how you work with multiple windows and apps in Windows 10. |
|
False |
The Ease of Access category of settings is for people that have a touch screen instead of a mouse. |
|
True |
The Recovery option in the Services tool allows you to specify which action is taken after first, second, and subsequent failures. |
|
True |
The ACPI standard defines a number of global power management states. |
|
System |
Notification & actions can be found in which category of the Settings tool? |
|
Ethernet |
Which setting in the Network & Internet category allows you to view information about connections to wired networks such as a connection’s IP address? |
|
Proxy |
Which setting in the Network & Internet category lets you configure Windows 10 to connect to a network through an intermediary server? |
|
Personalization |
If you want to change the background of your display, which settings category should you open? |
|
Accounts |
If you want to configure connectivity for a user’s work or Office 365, which settings category should you open? |
|
Windows Firewall with Advanced Security |
Which tool in Administrative Tools allows you to configure IPSec settings? |
|
Windows Defender |
Which settings in the Update & Security category control anti-malware functionality? |
|
Event Viewer |
Which tool in Administrative Tools should you open if you want to view messages to troubleshoot errors? |
|
iSCSI Initiator |
What tool should you use to configure computers to communicate with external disks over standard Ethernet networks? |
|
Local Security Policy |
What tool should you use to configure password policies and auditing policies? |
|
MMC |
What should you open if you want to add snap-ins to create a custom management console? |
|
service |
Which of the following is a type of Windows application that runs in the background without user interaction? |
|
device drivers |
What does Windows need to properly communicate with and use the functionality of hardware? |
|
ODBC |
What is used to configure data sources for applications that require access to a database? |
|
Windows Memory Diagnostics Tool |
What is used to perform tests on the physical memory of a computer running Windows 10? |
|
Task Scheduler |
Which tool lets you create system maintenance tasks that are performed on a regular schedule or when system events occur? |
|
System Configuration |
What tool should you use to configure which devices and services start when Windows boots? |
|
must be digitally signed by Microsoft |
Which of the following is true about 64-bit drivers that run in kernel mode on Windows 10? |
|
hybrid sleep |
What is the name of the power state in which the computer is in the S3 state, but prepared for the S4 state? |
|
screen resolution |
What is expressed as the number of horizontal pixels by the number of vertical pixels? |
|
Get-Service | Get-Member |
What PowerShell cmdlet shows all the properties and methods available for services? |
|
cmdlet |
Each ______________ in PowerShell is in a verb-noun format |
|
scripts |
You can create PowerShell ______________ using a simple text editor such as Notepad. |
|
AutoPlay |
____________________ is a feature that automatically performs an action when new media is inserted into a removable device such as a DVD player or a USB drive. |
|
iSCSI Initiator |
The ____________________ tool lets you configure Windows 10 to communicate with iSCSI targets and use the iSCSI targets as external disks over the network. |
|
snap-in |
A(n) ____________________ is a component that adds control mechanisms to the MMC console for a specific service or object. |
|
ACPI |
the current standard for power management that is implemented in Windows 10 and by computer manufacturers |
|
an instant-on power-saving mode that keeps the system in the S0 state |
Away Mode |
|
Action Center |
a place to review and resolve system messages |
|
a Windows PowerShell command in verb-noun format |
CMDlet |
|
driver store |
central location in Windows 10 where drivers are located before they are installed |
|
the computer remains in the S0 state but powers down as much hardware as possible |
Modern Standby |
|
S3 state |
an ACPI power-saving mode that disables power to all devices except RAM |
|
S4 state |
an ACPI power-saving mode that saves the contents of RAM to disk and then disables power to all devices including RAM |
|
the number of pixels that are displayed on your display |
Screen resolution |
|
System Devices network & Internet Personalization Accounts Time & language Ease of Access Privacy Update & Security |
What are the categories available in Windows Settings? |
|
This category allows you to configure connectivity to your work or Office 365. If you connect to your work, you are participating in Mobile Device Management (MDM) where policies from your work are applied to your Windows 10 device. For ex- ample, MDM could be used to wipe your device after you lose it |
What is the purpose of the Work access settings in the Accounts category? |
|
These settings configure which types of notifications are displayed and where they are displayed. For example, you can enable or disable tips about Windows. You can also control whether notifications are displayed on the lock screen. You can also configure which system icons are displayed in the notification area of the taskbar. |
What is the purpose and function of Notifications and actions in the System category of Settings? |
|
it disables Wi-Fi and Bluetooth connectivity. |
What is the purpose of Airplane mode in the Network & Internet category of Settings? |
|
provides real-time monitoring of the most common system performance indicators. Key performance indicators are also summarized in graphs at the side of the screen. The performance indicators are listed as tabs under the main menu for each system area that is monitored: CPU, Disk, Network, Memory. |
Briefly describe the Resource Monitor tool. |
|
What is the Microsoft Management Console? |
Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-ins. A snap-in is the standardized format for creating system management utilities in Windows 2000 and later versions of Windows. |
|
Name—Each service is given a name to identify it. You can modify the name of a service, but it is not recommended. For example If you call a vendor for support, the vendor will expect services to be using standard names. |
Describe a service in Windows. Provide and example. |
|
What is a device driver? |
device drivers manage and communicate with hardware components. Device drivers are written specifically for a particular type and model of component. |
|
Windows can’t verify the publisher of this driver software Windows cannot install this driver software This driver software has been altered |
What are the messages that can appear if you attempt to install an unsigned device driver in Windows 10? |
|
Direct memory access (DMA) channels—A legacy method for allowing devices to com- municate directly with system memory instead of passing data through the processor. This method is typically used for sound cards. Input/output (I/O) ranges—Addresses at which a device can be communicated with. A single device can have several addresses, with each address allowing access to a particular device feature or component. Interrupt request (IRQ) lines—A mechanism for devices to request time from the CPU. Memory address ranges—Address ranges in system memory that are dedicated to the device. |
What are the four main resources a hardware component might use? Describe each. |
|
False |
When a new hard disk is added to a computer it is initially configured as a dynamic disk. |
|
True |
The choice of file system can limit the total amount of data stored in a partition or volume. |
|
True |
NTFS stores files and folders in a way that looks very similar to the FAT file system. |
|
False |
Files and folders on an NTFS file system in Windows 7 cannot use Unicode characters in the filename. |
|
False |
Changes in the ownership of a file do not change the amount of data that is considered to belong to a user. |
|
Basic disk |
Which of the following types of storage can be partitioned using MBR or GPT and are supported by all versions of Windows? |
|
partition table |
Most of the partition attributes are stored in a data table that is part of the MBR or GPT specification. What is this table is commonly called? |
|
volumes |
On dynamic disks, the term partition is not used to define the space where a file system is installed. What term is used? |
|
RAID 1 |
What is a mirrored volume also known as? |
|
Parity |
Which of the following storage space types can only be created with three or more physical disks? |
|
Unknown |
Until a new disk is initialized, what is its status reported as? |
|
Foreign Disk |
What will the Disk Management console report as the status of a disk when it recognizes that the disk does not belong to that computer? |
|
Import Foreign Disk |
You must right-click the disk in the graphical portion of Disk Management and select which of the following from the pop-up menu to initiate the import process? |
|
diskpart.exe |
What utility should you use to perform a series of disk maintenance activities as part of a scheduled task? |
|
cluster |
When you format a drive, you must choose the size of which of the following file system attributes? |
|
ReFS |
Which file system is designed to verify and autocorrect data faults on the volume without having to bring the volume down for maintenance? |
|
FAT32 |
Which file system was introduced with Windows 95 OSR2 to support hard disks that were becoming much larger than 2 GB in size. |
|
Windows NT |
With which Windows version was NTFS first introduced? |
|
EFS |
What feature of NTFS encrypts the contents of files? |
|
symbolic links |
What feature of NTFS allows a file or folder to point to another file or folder located somewhere else in the file system? |
|
Bad Cluster File |
Which NTFS system file keeps a record of all the clusters that are considered unusable by the file system within that volume? |
|
Disk Quotas |
Which NTFS feature allows an administrator to restrict the amount of disk space used by a user? |
|
Volume mount points |
Which NTFS feature allows an empty folder in an NTFS-formatted file system to point to another partition or volume in the local computer? |
|
Access Control Entries (ACE) |
Which of the following identifies who can perform a given action to a file or folder and is found in ACLs? |
|
Write |
Which NTFS permission allows a user to open and make changes to files but not delete them? |
|
Effective Access |
To see the permissions a user has to a file that takes into account their group memberships, what tab should you open in the Advanced Security Settings window for the file? |
|
virtual |
All file data stored in a __________ hard disk is actually stored in a single file on the file system of a real disk drive. |
|
GUID |
Part of the UEFI specification defines the _________ Partition Table (GPT) as a replacement for MBR disk partitioning. |
|
Storage Spaces |
____________________ technology combines selected physical disks into a managed logical group called a storage pool. |
|
pool |
Each storage _________ is identified by the physical disk members that are grouped within it. |
|
mount points |
Volume ______________ are also known as junction points and are created with the Disk Management console. |
|
USB, eSATA, wireless, and Thunderbolt |
List four external disk interfaces. |
|
A virtual hard disk (VHD) is an image format that replicates the contents of a hard drive, with all the data and structural elements of the drive, but is accessed and installed in a virtual ma- chine infrastructure. |
What is a virtual hard disk? |
|
an inexpensive way to combine, or pool, the storage of multiple physical disk drives. Storage Spaces can also provide fault tolerance with data redundancy across multiple disks. Implementing Storage Spaces is easier and less expensive than most consumer-level, hardware-based solutions for disk redundancy. |
What is Storage Spaces? |
|
Describe the DiskPart utility. |
a command-line tool that allows disk and volume opera- tions to be performed from a text-based screen interactively or from within a scripted file using command-line parameters. |
|
What three tasks are performed by Plug and Play to prepare a disk to work with the computer? |
Components can be powered down to save power, others are unplugged, and some are wireless and are out of range. Plug and Play technology assumes that hardware components can be connected or activated at any time while the operating system is running. The device driver is automatically loaded by the plug and play system and, after a brief initialization period, the hardware is available for use. |
|
a method used to organize disk space for x86 computers into primary, extended, and logical partitions. |
Basic Disk |
|
Disk quota |
a system of tracking owners for file data within an NTFS-formatted partition or volume and the total disk space consumed by each owner |
|
can have a large number of volumes and also supports some fault-tolerant disk configurations |
Dynamic disk |
|
exists at the very first sector of an IBM-formatted hard disk |
MBR |
|
an empty folder in an NTFS-formatted file system that is used to point to another FAT, FAT32, or NTFS partition |
mount point |
|
partition table |
a data structure contained in the MBR that is used to identify reserved areas of disk space |
|
Storage pool |
a logical collection of disks |
|
a virtual disk |
Volume |
|
Local user accounts can be used to access resources on other computers in a workgroup or a domain. |
False |
|
True |
Secure sign-in increases security on your computer by forcing you to press Ctrl+Alt+Delete before signing in. |
|
With fast user switching, only one user can be actively using the computer at a time. |
True |
|
False |
The Administrator and a user-specified initial account are called built-in accounts because they are created on every Windows 10 computer. |
|
True |
In Windows 10, most actions that are triggered by an Administrator do not result in a prompt from User Account Control. |
|
User accounts |
Which of the following are required for individuals to log on to Windows 10 and use resources on the computer? |
|
SAM |
Each time a user logs on locally, which database is used to verify sign-in credentials? |
|
Secure sign-in |
Which of the following is used to protect your computer from malware that may attempt to steal your password? |
|
Fast user switching |
Which Windows 10 feature ensures that a second user can log on to a locked computer without logging off the first user and losing their work? |
|
Shift |
In order to stop the automatic sign-in from occurring, which key should be held down during the boot process? |
|
Administrator |
Which account is the most powerful local user account possible? |
|
Guest |
Which account has extremely limited access to resources and computer activities and is intended for occasional use by low-security users? |
|
Everyone |
The Guest account derives all of its privileges from being a member of the Guests group and which other group? |
|
Backup Operators |
Members of which of the following groups can back up and restore all files and folders on the computer? |
|
Performance Log Users |
Members of which of the following groups are able to monitor performance counters and access performance logs on the computer? |
|
Performance Monitor Users |
Members of which group are able to monitor performance counters on the computer, but cannot access performance logs. |
|
Administrators |
An administrator account derives its privileges from being a member of which local group? |
|
User Accounts |
Which Control Panel applet is considered a simplified interface for user management? |
|
default |
Which profile is used when new user profiles are created? |
|
Sysprep |
In Windows 10, the only supported method to configure the default profile is to use which utility? |
|
mandatory |
Which of the following is a profile that cannot be modified? |
|
roaming |
Which profile is stored in a network location rather than on the local hard drive? |
|
public |
Which profile is different from other profiles because it is not a complete profile? |
|
peer-to-peer |
Which type of network consists of multiple Windows computers that share information, but no computer on the network serves as an authoritative source of user information? |
|
HomeGroup |
What Windows 10 feature simplifies the configuration of peer-to-peer networks by removing the need to synchronize users and passwords on each computer? |
|
10 |
After credentials are cached locally, you can sign in to a computer using a domain user account. By default, how many user sign-ins are cached? |
|
Microsoft |
When a Windows 10 computer is not part of an Active Directory domain, you can sign in by using a local user account or a _________________________ account. |
|
Security Accounts Manager (SAM) |
Local user accounts are stored in the ___________________________________ database of Windows 10. |
|
Assigned Access |
____________________ is an advanced sign-in option for configuring Windows 10 as a kiosk. |
|
Users |
Automatic sign-in is configured on the ____________________ tab of the User Accounts applet. |
|
Users |
A standard user account derives its privileges from being a member of the local ____________________ group. |
|
Name password group membership |
What are some of the user account attributes that describe user and control access? |
|
If a user signs in locally, the SAM database is used to verify sign-in credentials. If a user signs in by using a Micro- soft account, the Microsoft account credentials for the user account in the SAM database are verified with Microsoft over the Internet. SAM database is not used If the computer is part of an Active Directory domain, and the user signs in using a domain user account |
What is the purpose of the Security Accounts Manager (SAM) database? Describe how it is used in Windows 10? When is it not used by Windows 10? |
|
Windows sign-in screen |
What are the sign-in methods supported by Windows 10? |
|
First Name First name and last initial First initial and last name |
What are some of the most common naming conventions for user names? |
|
User names must be unique user names must be 20 characters or less user names are not case sensitive user names cannot contain invalid characters |
What are some of the restrictions imposed by Windows 10 on the user name? |
|
It is not visible on the sign-in screen. |
What are the characteristics of the Windows 10 Administrator account? |
|
It cannot be deleted. |
What are the characteristics of the Windows 10 Guest account? |
|
Initial account is visible on the sign in screen. the admin account is not visible on the sign in screen The administrator account has a blank password by default. the initial account does not have a blank password by default The initial account can be deleted. The admin account cannot be deleted |
What are some of the differences between the Administrator account and the initial account? |
|
Libraries |
What are the folders included in the default public profile? |
|
domain-based networks are much easier to manage than user accounts for peer-to-peer networks. A central server called a domain controller is responsible for maintaining user accounts and computer accounts. All computers in the domain share the user accounts on the domain controller. |
What are the main characteristics of a domain-based network? |
|
value assigned to each user account within the SAM database |
Security Identifier (SID) |
|
increases security on your computer by forcing you to press Ctrl+Alt+Delete before logging on |
Secure sign-in |
|
allows multiple users to have applications running in the background on a Windows 10 computer at the same time |
Fast user switching |
|
a standard process for creating names on a network or standalone computer |
Naming convention |
|
biometric authentication functionality in Windows 10 |
Windows Hello |
|
a user profile that is stored in a network location and is accessible from multiple computers |
roaming profile |
|
a collection of desktop and environment configurations for a specific user or group of users |
User profile |
|
a file that stores user-specific registry information |
NTUSER.DAT |
|
a profile that is merged with all other user profiles |
Ntuser.ini |
|
False |
The Account Policies in the Local Security Policy can be used to control domain accounts. |
|
True |
The most common use for AppLocker is malware prevention. |
|
True |
NTFS permissions can be easily circumvented when you have physical access to a computer. |
|
False |
In Windows 10, advanced audit policies can only be edited at a command-line. |
|
True |
Every object in Windows 10 has audit events related to it. |
|
Spyware |
Which of the following is a threat to privacy and is sometimes installed when you visit a website? |
|
42 days |
What is the default value for the "Maximum password age" setting in the Password Policy? |
|
BitLocker Drive Encryption |
To address the risks to data stored on computers and laptops, which encryption technology is available in Windows 10? |
|
local security policy |
Account policies settings are located in which of the following? |
|
Group Policy |
The local security policy is part of a larger Windows management system known as which of the following? |
|
password |
Which policy controls password characteristics for local user accounts? |
|
account lockout |
Which policy allows you to configure an account to be temporarily disabled after a number of incorrect log-on attempts? |
|
AppLocker |
Which of the following can be used to define which programs are allowed or disallowed in the system? |
|
path |
Which rule condition identifies software by file location? |
|
Auditing |
Which security process records the occurrence of specific operating system events in the Security log? |
|
privilege use |
Which advanced audit policy setting tracks when tasks are performed that require a user rights assignment, such as changing the system time? |
|
manifest |
Newer Windows applications use which of the following to describe the structure of an application? |
|
Application Compatibility Toolkit |
Applications that are not designed for Windows 10 and that require administrative privileges do not properly request elevated privileges, generating an error. You can eliminate this error by using which of the following? |
|
the Internet |
Which of the following is considered one of the biggest sources of malware (malicious software)? |
|
Spyware |
What type of software is silently installed on your computer, monitors your behavior, and performs actions based on your behavior? |
|
NTFS |
Which type of permissions are considered the most basic level of data security in Windows 10? |
|
Encryption |
The process of taking data and making it unreadable is known as which of the following? |
|
symmetric |
What type of encryption algorithm uses the same key to encrypt data and decrypt data? |
|
asymmetric |
What type of encryption algorithm uses two keys to encrypt and decrypt data? |
|
hash |
What type of encryption algorithm is one-way encryption, which means that it encrypts data, but the data cannot be decrypted? |
|
TPM |
Which part of the motherboard in your computer is used to store encryption keys and certificates? |
|
Password |
The Account Policies category contains the ____________________ policy and the account lockout policy. |
|
Security templates |
____________________ are .inf files that contain settings that correspond with the Account Policies and Local Policies in the local security policy. |
|
BitLocker To Go |
____________________ is a method for protecting data on removable storage such as USB drives. |
|
auditpol.exe |
Advanced auditing is enabled through the local security policy, by using Group Policy, or by using ____________________ . |
|
Windows Defender |
In Windows 10, ____________________ provides both antivirus and antispyware capabilities. |
|
The user profile is corrupted. |
What are some ways EFS keys may be lost? |
|
Quarantined items |
In Windows Defender, you can view the history of items that were deleted. Describe the three options for viewing the history. |
|
Account policies |
What are the categories of local security policy settings? |
|
Account lockout duration |
What are the settings available to control account lockouts? |
|
Allow log on locally Back up files and directories Change the system time Shut down the system |
What are some of the settings available in the user rights assignment? |
|
Interactive logon Interactive logon Shutdown |
What are some of the settings available in the security options of the local policy? |
|
Executable—These rules apply to mexe and mcom files Windows Installer—it applies to .msi and .msp files Scripts—These rules go to .ps1, .bat, .cmd, .vbs, and .js files DLL—These rules go to .dll and .ocx files |
Briefly describe the rule collections used by AppLocker. |
|
Analyze |
What are the tasks you can perform with the Security Configuration and Analysis tool? |
|
Modified boot files |
What are the most common reasons that the BitLocker Drive Encryption recovery password is required? |
|
Windows Insider Preview Branch |
Describe the four distinct servicing branches in Windows 10. |
|
Malware |
malicious software designed to perform unauthorized acts on your computer |
|
User Account Control (UAC) |
a feature in Windows 10 that elevates user privileges only when required |
|
Windows Defender |
anti-malware software included with Windows 10 |
|
Secedit |
a command-line tool that is used to apply, export, or analyze security templates |
|
Hashing aligorithm |
a one-way encryption algorithm that creates a unique identifier that can be used to determine whether data has been changed |
|
Bitlocker Drive Encryption |
A feature in Windows 10 that can encrypt the operating system partition of a hard drive and protect system files from modification |
|
Auditing |
the security process that records the occurrence of specific operating system events in the Security log |
|
Encrypting File System (EFS) |
an encryption technology for individual files and folders that can be enabled by users |
|
Password policy |
a collection of settings to control password characteristics such as length and complexity |
|
True |
Windows 10 can use a different configuration depending on the network you are connected to. |
|
False |
The domain network category is used when the computer is connected as part of a peer-to-peer network in a trusted location. |
|
True |
Windows 10 includes several interfaces that make it easier for developers to create clients, services, protocols, and network drivers |
|
False |
IPX is the most popular networking protocol in the world today. |
|
True |
If a Windows 10 computer has multiple network interfaces active, each can be assigned a different network location, each with different firewall settings based on their assigned network location. |
|
Network location awareness |
Which of the following allows you to configure the security settings for each location type differently? |
|
Private network |
Which location type is used when the computer is connected as part of a peer-to-peer network in a trusted location? |
|
Public network |
Which location type is used when the computer is connected in an untrusted public location such as an airport? |
|
Domain network |
When Windows 10 can communicate with a domain controller, the network connection is automatically placed in which location category? |
|
Protocols |
Rules for communicating across a network that define how much data can be sent and the format of that data is known as which of the following? |
|
TCP/IPv6 |
Which of the following is an updated version of TCP/IPv4 with a larger address space and additional features? |
|
Link-Layer Topology Discovery Mapper I/O Driver |
Which protocol is responsible for discovering network devices on the network, such as computers and routers? |
|
Link-Layer Topology Discovery Responder |
Which protocol is responsible for responding to discovery requests from other computers? |
|
QoS Packet Scheduler |
Which Windows 10 service controls the flow of network traffic in Windows 10? |
|
network driver |
Which of the following is responsible for enabling communications between Windows 10 and the network device in your computer? |
|
TCP/IP |
Which protocol is included with Windows 10 for network communication? |
|
loopback address |
Data sent to which of the following returns to the computer that sent it and does not appear on the actual network? |
|
host ID |
An IP address is composed of a network ID and which of the following? |
|
DNS |
Which of the following protocols is used for resolving host names to IP addresses? |
|
DHCP |
Which of the following is an automated mechanism used to assign IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, DNS servers, WINS servers, and other IP configuration information to network devices? |
|
APIPA |
If Windows 10 is configured to use dynamic IP configuration and is unable to contact a DHCP server, the default action is to use which type of address? |
|
tracert |
Which IP utility is used to display response times for every router on the path to the destination? |
|
"Share with" method |
Which of the following simplifies folder and file sharing by controlling both NTFS permissions and share permissions at the same time? |
|
PPPoE |
DSL connections usually use which protocol in order to secure connections? |
|
ICS |
The two most common mechanisms for sharing an IP address are a router or which of the following? |
|
security set identifier |
Which of the following is the name assigned to the WAP to identify itself to clients? |
|
Network and Sharing Center |
______________________________ is a central point in Windows 10 for managing the configuration of the network you are currently connected to. |
|
Network discovery |
____________________ provides you with an easy way to control how your computer views other computers on the network and advertises its presence on the network. |
|
Network Driver |
A(n) ____________________ is responsible for enabling communication between Windows 10 and the network device in your computer. |
|
subnet mask |
A(n) ____________________ is used to define which part of an IP address is the network ID and which part of the IP address is the host ID. |
|
Default gateway |
A(n) ____________________ is a router on the local network that is used to deliver packets to a remote network. |
|
Network and Sharing Center Networks Connections |
What are the basic components of Windows 10 that support networking? |
|
View your active networks Change your networking settings |
What are the areas of Network and Sharing Center? |
|
Turn on network discovery |
What are the options for network discovery? |
|
Client for Microsoft Networks |
What are the clients and services included with Windows 10? |
|
If the first octet is zero, the remaining octets identify local machines on the same network as the computer sending data. The special IPv4 address 0.0.0.0 is used in routing logic to represent "all other computers." |
What are the special cases and consideration in the IPv4 class-based system? |
|
Increased address space |
What are some of the improvements found in IPv6? |
|
Turn on sharing so anyone with network access can read and write files in the Public folder |
What are the options for sharing the Public folder in Windows 10? |
|
Full control Change Read |
What are the share permissions available in Windows 10? |
|
Windows Firewall with Advanced Security utility |
What are the tools available to perform advanced firewall configuration in Windows 10? |
|
Allow the connection |
What actions can be specified for a Windows firewall rule? |
|
Network discovery |
a setting that controls how your computer views other computers on the network and advertises its presence on the network |
|
Network location awareness |
the ability for Windows 10 to detect when it is connected to a different network and perform actions based on the change |
|
Protocol |
a standard set of rules that defines how different components of a system operate together |
|
nslookup |
a command-line utility that can be used to view or debug the data returned from a DNS server in response to a DNS name resolution query |
|
netsh |
a command-line utility that can be used to display, change, add, and delete network configuration settings on a computer, including basic and advanced settings |
|
WINS |
a system used to resolve computer NetBIOS names to IP addresses |
|
Teredo |
a system to tunnel IPv6 addressed packets over an IPv4 network, even if NAT is used on the IPv4 network |
|
ping |
A command-line utility that can be used to test IP communications between the computer running the utility and a remote target |
|
NAT |
a system that allows multiple computers to share a single IP address when connecting to the Internet |
|
true |
Windows 10 includes several interfaces that make it easier for developers to create clients, services, protocols, and network drivers. |
|
True |
Local printing requires that a printer be connected directly to a Windows 10 computer by using a cable. |
|
False |
New in Windows 10 is a virtual printer for PDF documents named Microsoft XPS Document Writer. |
|
True |
The option to manage printers in Settings is new for Windows 10. |
|
False |
The Devices and Printers applet is capable of installing printers on remote computers. |
|
True |
ActiveX controls are not available in Microsoft Edge. |
|
Home |
File Explorer contains ribbon tabs that can be used for various functions. Which ribbon tab has buttons for manipulating files and folders? |
|
Printer driver |
Software Windows 10 uses to understand and use the features of a printer is known as which of the following? |
|
page description language |
What is used by Windows 10 to define the layout of content for a print job? |
|
pnputil.exe |
Which utility can be used by a user with administrative rights in order to stage a driver manually? |
|
Postscript |
Which page description language is the oldest and best supported? |
|
OneDrive |
What is the name of the cloud-based storage that is automatically included for free when a Microsoft account is created? |
|
5 GB |
Each Microsoft account is allocated how much storage that can be used for file storage in OneDrive? |
|
Spooling |
Which of the following allows you to begin using an application faster after printing by storing the print job as a file and sending the print job to the printer as a background process? |
|
Branch Office Direct Printing |
What Windows 10 allows you to centralize the administration of printers for remote locations but still keep WAN link utilization low because the print jobs stay local? |
|
Windows Search |
You can modify the locations included in a library, but the location must be indexed by which of the following? |
|
File |
File Explorer contains ribbon tabs that can be used for various functions. Which ribbon tab provides options to open a new File Explorer window, command prompt, or Windows PowerShell prompt that is focused on the current folder? |
|
metadata |
Characteristics of a file such as file name, creation data, and modified date are known as which of the following? |
|
indexing |
Windows 10 includes search functionality that can be used to find files and folders. Which of the following is used to increase the efficiency of searching in Windows 10? |
|
index |
In Windows 10, which of the following is updated each time a file is changed to ensure that search results are current? |
|
file types |
In addition to defining which locations are indexed, what else are you able to configure to be indexed by Windows 10? |
|
recover deleted files |
Besides access and recovery previous version of a file, which of the following is a function that can only be performed in the OneDrive website and not by the OneDrive client? |
|
Printers & Scanners |
A new interface for managing printers in Windows 10 is known as which of the following? |
|
Print Management snap-in |
Which printer management tool would you typically use to manage printer servers rather than individual computers? |
|
Internet Explorer 10 |
Which of the following is a new Web browser included with Windows 10? |
|
Web Slices |
Which Microsoft Edge feature allows you to mark up a webpage with your own content? |
|
Internet |
Which Internet Explorer security zone includes all Internet Web sites that are not specifically assigned to another zone? |
|
Microsoft Print to PDF |
New in Windows 10 is a virtual printer for PDF documents named |
|
Offline Files |
The file locations indexed by default are ____________________, the Start Menu, and C:\Users (except the AppData subfolder in each profile). |
|
OneDrive client |
Files stored in OneDrive can be accessed directly from the OneDrive website or by using the |
|
printer driver store |
Windows 10 has a ____________________ where installed printer drivers are added. |
|
printer driver packages |
All Internet Explorer zones can be configured to run in Protected Mode. Protected Mode works in conjunction with ___________________ to prevent malware from installing through Internet Explorer. |
|
Quick access—When you select this node, a list of recently accessed files and folders are displayed. You also have the option to pin folders in Quick access. For example, if you are working on several projects, you can pin the folder that stores files for each project in Quick access. • OneDrive—This node provides access to OneDrive cloud storage that is associated with a Microsoft account. • This PC—This node displays the fifiles and folder for locally attached storage. This includes hard disks, USB drives, and DVDs. • Network—Use this node to display computers on the local area network (LAN). If the computers have shared resources, you can browse file shares and shared printers. • Homegroup—Use this node to browse and connect to existing homegroups. You can also create a new homegroup from this node |
In File Explorer, the left navigation pane provides a way to move quickly to various locations where files may be stored. Describe the file storage locations available by default in the left navigation pane. |
|
Printer Management Tools |
What tools are available for managing printers in Windows 10? |
|
Add a printer—This option adds a new printer to the local computer. This printer can be physically attached or a network printer. This option scans the network just as when you add a printer in Printers & scanners. • See what’s printing—This option allows you to see jobs in the print queue for the selected printer. Within the queue, you can pause or delete individual print jobs. • Set as default printer—This option allows you to configure a printer as the default printer for apps. In an app, such as Microsoft Word, when you click the Print button in the toolbar, the default printer is used. • Select printing preferences—This option allows you to configure basic printer settings and paper configuration. • Configure printer properties—This option allows you to edit all printer properties, including those for printing preferences, sharing, and security. • Configure print server properties—This option allows you to edit print server properties for the local computer. This includes setting available forms (page sizes), configuring ports, and managing drivers. • Remove device—This option removes the printer from your computer |
What are the major tasks you can perform in Devices and Printers? |
|
Everyone—Allowed to print. • All Application Packages—Allowed to print and manage documents. This allows Windows Store apps to print and manage print jobs. • Creator Owner—Allowed to manage documents. This allows all users to manage their own print jobs. • User who installed printer (Userx)—Allowed to print, manage printers, and manage documents. • Administrators—Allowed to print, manage printers, and manage documents |
What are the default permissions for printing? |
|
• Pause—Prevents the job from printing. If a job is partially finished printing, it stops at the end of a page. • Resume—Allows a paused print job to continue printing. • Restart—Restarts printing a job from the fifirst page. • Cancel—Stops a print job and removes it from the queue. The print job might not stop immediately, as it might take a few moments for the printer to remove the job from mem- ory and complete printing the final page. • Edit job properties—Allows you to change the priority of a print job or schedule the job |
What are the management tasks that can be performed for each print job? |
|
• Restarting a print job when there has been a paper jam and some pages have been destroyed • Pausing a large print job to let several other smaller print jobs be completed • Raising the priority of a print job to ensure that it prints next • Changing the schedule of a large print job to prevent it from printing during main office hours • Canceling a corrupted print job that is blocking other jobs in the queue |
What are some of the situations where you might want to manage print jobs? |
|
• When you browse down into a folder from the root of a library, you are viewing a specific location and any files created are in that specific location. • When you are viewing the root of a library and create a new file or folder, the new item is created in the location specified as the default save location in the properties of the library. • If you share a library via a homegroup, then other users can create files in the folder set as the public save location |
What are some of the file management issues to consider for libraries? |
|
• Access files from anywhere • Back up automatically to the cloud • Recover deleted or modified files |
What are some benefits of using OneDrive to store files? |
|
File Settings—You can select whether encrypted files are indexed. You can also select whether words with different accents are treated the same, for example, whether resume and resumé are indexed as the same word. • Troubleshooting—You can rebuild the index if you believe it has become corrupted. You can also run a troubleshooter that guides you through the troubleshooting process. • Index location—You can move the index from the default location of C:\ProgramData\ Microsoft to another location. This can be useful if the C drive is becoming full and you have free space on a different partition. |
What are some of the index settings that can be configured on the Index Settings tab of the Advanced Options dialog box? |
|
internet Local intranet Trusted sites Restricted Sites |
What types of zones are available in the Security tab in the Internet Options of Internet Explorer? |
|
Onedrive |
cloud-based storage that is provided when you create a Microsoft account |
|
Portable Document Format |
a popular document format which is also supported as a page description language by some printers |
|
libraries |
virtual folders in File Explorer that combine content from multiple locations to simplify file access |
|
Branch Office Direct Printing |
a feature that allows Windows 10 computers to print directly to a printer shared from a printer server rather than sending the print job through the print server |
|
Print Driver Store |
a location in Windows 10 that caches printer drivers and is capable of storing multiple versions of a printer driver |
|
Print Management snap-in |
allows you to manage the printers for your entire network from a single workstation |
|
SmartScreen Filter |
an Internet Explorer and Microsoft Edge feature that warns you about websites known to install malicious software or used in phishing attacks |
|
Popup Blocker |
an Internet Explorer and Microsoft Edge feature that prevents most popup advertising from being displayed while you browse websites |
|
InPrivate Browsing |
an Internet Explorer 11 and Microsoft Edge feature that prevents caching of web content and logging of web activity in Internet Explorer |
|
True |
The most recent iteration of Windows Store apps is Universal Windows Platform apps, also known as Universal apps. |
|
False |
Most organizations use the 32-bit version of Windows 10 rather than the 64-bit version of Windows 10. |
|
True |
The preferred method for configuring applications and Windows 10 is to use the interfaces provided for that purpose. |
|
False |
If you do have a legacy DOS or Win16 application that you need to run, you can use a 64-bit version of Windows 10. |
|
True |
The simplest automated deployment method is to create a batch file that does a silent install of the application. |
|
Application programming interfaces (API) |
What do applications use to request services from the application environment subsystem? |
|
User mode |
All of the application environments in Windows 10 restrict apps to running in which of the following modes? |
|
Windows on Windows 64 (WOW64) |
Which of the following terms is used to describe a virtualized environment that hosts Win32 apps on the 64-bit version of Windows 10? |
|
.NET 3.5 |
Besides the .NET Framework 4.6, what other version of the .NET Framework does Windows 10 provide as a feature? |
|
User |
Running apps in which mode ensures that a poorly written app does not affect system stability? |
|
Win32 |
Applications designed to interact with which subsystem were the most common type of application in use with earlier operating systems, such as Windows XP? |
|
User |
Each Win32 application runs in its own virtual memory space and is executed by the processor in which mode? |
|
registry |
When applications or Windows 10 starts, they read their configuration information from which of the following? |
|
ntvdm.exe |
In Windows 10, a virtual instance of DOS is created for each DOS application that is executed. What is another name for this virtual instance of DOS? |
|
hives |
The registry is divided into sections and levels of data. Multiple sections exist to organize data by purpose. What are these individual sections called? |
|
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE |
Which registry hive contains global settings for the entire computer and the applications installed on it? |
|
HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG |
Which registry hive contains details about the current hardware profile in use? |
|
REGEDIT.EXE |
Which tool allows a user to connect to the active registry database and make changes that are effective immediately? |
|
DEFAULT |
Which registry key contains the default registry settings that are copied for new user profiles? |
|
.msi |
Traditional Win32 or .NET Framework apps are commonly packaged as which type of file? |
|
Group Policy |
A more manageable way to deploy .msi-based applications in smaller environments would be to use which of the following? |
|
package management |
If you have obtained the .appx file for a Windows Store app, you can install the app from a source other than the Windows Store. What is this ability known as? |
|
downloading |
Which distribution method delivers the critical components of an application first and allows the users to being using the application before installation is complete? |
|
PackageManagement |
Which Windows 10 feature provides the ability to obtain software from a central repository? |
|
Application Compatibility Manager |
Which ACT component is the administrative console that can be used to control the overall discovery, collection, and analysis process for apps? |
|
Client Hyper-V |
Which Windows 10 feature allows you to create virtual machines with a completely independent operating system that shares the hardware on the computer running Windows 10? |
|
Universal Windows Platform apps |
The most recent iteration of Windows Store apps is _____________________, also known as Universal apps. |
|
reg.exe |
If you need to read or write registry entries from a batch files, then you can use ______________________. |
|
Windows PowerShell |
Currently, administrators are more likely to create new scripts in ___________________ than to create batch files and use reg.exe |
|
System Center Configuration Manager |
In large environments, a better option for .msi application deployment is to use ______________________. |
|
Assessment and Deployment Kit (ADK) |
To help identify and resolve app compatibility issues, the Windows 10 ____________________ includes the Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT). |
|
by using a Windows on Windows 64 (WOW64) virtualized environment to host Win32 apps. |
How does the 64-bit version of Windows support 32-bit applications? |
|
The registry is divided into sections and levels of data. Multiple sections exist to organize data by purpose. The individual sections are called hives. Each hive has a specific role to play and is stored in memory while it is in use. When the computer is shut down, the memory versions of the hives are written to files and folders typically found in the folder C:\Windows\System32\config. Each hive is composed of one or more files. |
Briefly describe the structure of the Windows 10 registry. |
|
Hkey_Classes_Root Hkey_Current_user Hkey_Local_Machine Hkey_users Hkey_current_config |
What are the primary hives found in the Windows 10 registry? |
|
This hive defines file types (classes) and properties associated with those types. for example, file type associations are stored here. This hive is a combination of HkCU\Software\Classes and HKLM\Software\Classes. If settings for a file type are defined in both locations, the user-specific settings take precedence |
What is the purpose of the HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT hive? |
|
This hive contains the user-specific registry information from ntuser.dat stored in the user profile. Any application or operating system settings that are user specific are stored in this hive. If you are attempting to fix a user-specific application issue, the support document will have you review and modify keys here. |
What is the purpose of the HKEY_CURRENT_USER hive? |
|
Before modifying the registry, you should export any keys that you will be changing to a .reg file. If the registry change does not go as planned, you can import the .reg file to restore the previous level of functionality. In this activity, you restore a .reg file and verify that the contents imported properly. |
What precautions should be taken before modifying the registry? |
|
a /q |
What are some of the automated deployment options available in Windows 10? |
|
Application Compatibility manager |
What are the main components of the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT)? |
|
There is no easy way to move data from the virtual machine to the host computer. • The operating system in the virtual machine still needs to be managed with software up- dates and any other management considerations. • Some users find it confusing to use a separate virtual machine for some tasks. |
What are some of the potential downsides to using Client Hyper-V? |
|
• Session-based virtual desktops—This type of virtual desktop is hosted on a Remote Desktop Session Host (RD Session Host). A single RD Session Host is shared by multiple users at one time. When the users connect, they each get their own independent desktop and run their own applications. However, the core operating system services are shared, which allows many users to share the same server. |
Briefly describe the two types of virtual desktops that Remote Desktop Services can provide. |
|
.msi file |
an app packaged for installation by the Windows Installer service |
|
Windows Store apps |
the newest application environment that is designed to be cross platform with phones, tablets, and desktop computers |
|
RemoteApp |
a feature in Remote Desktop Services that presents clients with a single app in a window |
|
hive |
a discrete body of registry keys and value stored in files as part of the operating system |
|
.appx file |
a file for installing a Windows Store app |
|
Application Virtualization (APP-V) |
a technology that deploys applications by streaming and isolates them in a virtual environment |
|
Registry |
a central store for application and operating system configuration information in Windows 10 |
|
application envirnment subsystem |
a software layer that exists between apps and the operating system to simplify app development |
|
Windows on Windows 64(WOW 64) |
a system in Windows that allows 32-bit Windows apps to run on a 64-bit operating system |
|
True |
When you establish a baseline, it is important to ensure that you are measuring the normal state of the performance indicators. |
|
False |
Network bottlenecks are more common for computers than servers running Windows 10. |
|
False |
The Services tab in Task Manager shows all user applications running on the computer. |
|
True |
Data Execution Prevention (DEP) is a processor feature in Windows 10 that monitors processes to ensure that they do not access unauthorized memory spaces. |
|
False |
Like Resource Monitor, Performance Monitor allows you to select the counters you wish to view. |
|
Histogram bar |
Selecting a counter to display will display information about that counter’s collected data as a chart type. Which chart type displays the current value of each performance counter in decimal format? |
|
Windows ReadyBoost |
Which of the following uses a USB drive as a memory cache similar to a paging file? |
|
Event Viewer |
Which utility is used to browse and manage the records of system events and messages stored in system event logs? |
|
bottleneck |
When a limitation in a single computer system component slows down the entire system, which of the following occurs? |
|
Disk |
What type of bottleneck occurs when Windows 10 and running applications want to read and write information to the physical disk in the system faster than the disk can manage? |
|
memory |
What type of bottleneck occurs when the applications you are running require more memory than is physically available in the computer? |
|
memory |
Running fewer applications at once is a way to resolve which type of bottleneck? |
|
Disk |
Which area of the Resource Monitor is used to monitor disk performance and determine whether the disk subsystem is a bottleneck? |
|
Performance Monitor |
What utility allows you to visually display the data generated by counters, and allows you to select the individual counters you want to view? |
|
Event Trace |
Data Collector Sets organize multiple counters into a single unit. Which type of data can a Data Collector Set monitor to track when system events occur. |
|
alerts |
Instead of logging performance counters to disk, you can configure which of the following to occur? |
|
Task Manager |
Which utility can be used to provide an overview of the current state of a computer? |
|
DEP |
Which processor feature monitors processes to ensure that they do not access unauthorized memory spaces, which is done by various types of malware, such as viruses, to take control of systems? |
|
Reports |
Which of the following are used to process log file data and display it in a meaningful way? |
|
Steps Recorder |
What Windows 10 feature captures a screenshot each time the user clicks on a screen item and saves the screenshots and users actions in a report that can be emailed or saved to a shared storage location? |
|
relog |
What Windows 10 feature is a user-specific data protection mechanism that protects local resources by allowing user files to be backed up to an external hard drive or a network location? |
|
Backup and Restore (Windows 7) |
Windows 10 introduces a newer version of Windows Backup. What did Microsoft decide to call this newer version? |
|
Previous Versions |
If File History or Backup and Restore (Windows 7), or both, had been configured to protect user data, that data can be recovered using which feature? |
|
10% |
The OneDrive Recycle Bin is limited in capacity. What percentage of the storage limit purchased for OneDrive storage is the typical capacity of the OneDrive Recycle Bin? |
|
restore point |
Which term best describes a snapshot of operating system and program files at a specific point in time that can be restored to roll back to a point in time when the operating system or applications were stable? |
|
Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) |
Which Windows 10 feature provides an automated diagnosis and repair of boot problems plus a centralized platform for advanced recovery tool? |
|
Baseline |
A(n) ____________________ is a set of performance indicators captured when system performance is acceptable. |
|
counters |
Performance indicators are often called ____________________ because they display values for system characteristics. |
|
Performance Monitor |
____________________ is an MMC snap-in that is used to monitor system performance indicators. |
|
Resource monitor |
____________________ provides real-time monitoring of the most common system performance indicators. |
|
recovery drive |
A ____________________ is created from an earlier healthy OS installation on a computer, and contains a backup of the Windows system files and recovery tools to assist in the repair process. |
|
Performance tuning lets you optimize the performance of Windows 10 to function at acceptable standards. |
What is performance tuning? |
|
• Verify that no unusual activity is happening on the workstation. For example, ensure that no applications are performing large queries to databases or processing batch jobs, unless that is the normal state of the computer. |
What should you do to ensure that you are measuring the normal state when establishing a baseline? |
|
The most common bottlenecks to system performance are in the areas of disk, memory, processor, or the network. |
What are the most common bottlenecks to system performance? |
|
• Upgrade the disks |
How can you increase disk performance to avoid disk bottlenecks? |
|
• Increase the amount of physical memory |
What can you do to reduce the use of virtual memory? |
|
• Change to a faster processor |
How can you resolve a processor bottleneck? |
|
1. Create a baseline for the computer. 2. Compare the baseline with current performance indicators. 3. Identify possible causes for variations from the baseline. 4. Identify possible fixes for variations from the baseline. 5. Select a fix to implement. 6. Implement the fix and monitor for changes. 7. If the problem is not resolved, undo the fix and repeat Step 5. |
What are the steps to tune performance? |
|
• Log an entry in the application |
What actions can be performed once an alert has been triggered? |
|
Software installs and uninstalls—Software tracked here includes driver and operating system updates. • Application failures—Any application that stops responding is logged here. • Windows failures—Any system failure that results in blue screen errors and boot failures is logged here. • Miscellaneous failures—Any event not included in other categories is logged here. One type of failure recorded here is improper shutdowns. |
Describe the types of data that can be collected by Reliability Monitor. |
|
• Enable-ComputerRestore |
What are the five PowerShell commands that can be used to update and automate the configuration of System Restore? |
|
recovery drive |
an optional drive that you can create with a system image from your currently installed operating system and apps |
|
Baseline |
a set of performance indicators gathered when system performance is acceptable |
|
Performance tuning |
the process for collecting system performance data, analyzing system performance data, and implementing system performance improvements |
|
Counters |
the performance indicators that can be recorded in Performance Monitor |
|
Task Manager |
a utility that allows you to view overall system information and manipulate processes |
|
File History |
a feature that is used to backup user files to an external hard drive or files share. |
|
Resource Monitor |
a utility launched from Performance Monitor that provides real-time monitoring of the most common system performance indicators |
|
Steps Recorder |
a tool that can be used to record the steps required to generate a problem and store the steps and screenshots in a file |
|
Alert |
an event that is triggered when a count value is above or below the specified threshold value |
|
False |
Microsoft Intune requires an on-premises server infrastructure before it can be deployed. |
|
True |
A company commonly sets up only one production Office 365 tenant account, and adds users to that account. |
|
False |
Microsoft Intune cannot share the responsibility of managing mobile devices with other services. |
|
False |
Microsoft Intune policies apply only to domain joined devices. |
|
True |
When deploying Apps with Microsoft Intune, required installs can have a deadline for installation defined. |
|
Windows 7 |
Which of the following is NOT an operating system supported by Microsoft Intune as a mobile device? |
|
Windows 8.1 RT |
Which of the following is NOT a desktop OS supported by Intune with an Intune client installed? |
|
as part of the EMS |
The full Intune product is available through which of the following? |
|
Azure AD |
Where are user accounts inside the Office 365 tenant stored? |
|
nickname.onmicrosoft.com |
What is the default format for an Office 365 tenant account? |
|
UPN |
What is the format for user names used by Office 365 apps? |
|
SecureCopy |
Which of the following is NOT a method for copying user accounts from on-premises Active Directory? |
|
Azure AD |
User accounts that are enrolled to be managed by Microsoft Intune must be linked to which of the following? |
|
certificate |
What is required for Apple iOS devices to establish a trust between the device and the Intune service? |
|
iOS device management will fail |
What happens if an APN certificate expires? |
|
issuing certificates |
Which service is NOT supported by the Intune client for desktop computers? |
|
the SMS client is installed |
Which of the following would prevent the Intune client to be installed on an OS? |
|
Ungrouped Users |
Which of the following is a default Intune user group? |
|
All Mobile Devices |
Which of the following is a default Intune device group? |
|
service administrator |
What is the secondary administrator that can be specified for Intune called? |
|
Health Attestation Reports |
To see a list of Intune-managed devices for which Secure Boot is not enabled, which report should you check? |
|
Monitoring |
Which alert category in Microsoft Intune should you use to get a notification when an automatic service fails to run? |
|
Firewall Policies |
Which of the following is NOT an Intune policy category? |
|
the Intune service waits for the device to check in |
When an Intune policy is deployed, what happens if the device doesn’t acknowledge the notification? |
|
MSP |
Intune can distribute third-party updates in which of the following formats? |
|
deep-linking |
When Intune adds a managed app as a pointer to an external website or store installation URL, what is this called? |
|
on-premises |
Mobile devices can be managed directly or through ______________ connectors. |
|
cloud |
As a _________-based service, Microsoft Intune requires the use of two administrative websites. |
|
tenant |
The Office 365 __________ account has to be identified with a name in Azure AD after which, users can be created as part of that account. |
|
push |
Apple requires the administrator to request an Apple _________ Notification service certificate using a certificate-signing request issued by Intune. |
|
SSL |
To prove that an app can be trusted by a device, the developer signs the code using an _______ code signing certificate. |
|
Microsoft Intune is a service based in the cloud that is used to manage computers and mobile devices. |
Describe Microsoft Intune. |
|
Mobile application management |
List the Intune capabilities for managing mobile devices. |
|
Managing software updates— |
What are the capabilities of the Intune desktop client? |
|
Microsoft Intune users are typically created as identities associated with an Office 365 tenant account. |
How are users typically added to Intune? |
|
The Office 365 tenant account is a subscription container for Office 365 services. A company commonly sets up only one production Office 365 tenant account, and adds users to that account. Purchased Office 365 licenses within the tenant account can be assigned to the user accounts that belong to that tenant. |
What is the Office 365 tenant account and how is it used with Intune? |
|
Apps distributed through Microsoft Intune are defined by the administrator using a utility called the Microsoft Intune Software Publisher. |
How are Apps managed by Microsoft Intune? |
|
Desktop computers can also be managed by Microsoft Intune if the Intune client is installed on them. Supported operating systems include: • Windows Vista—Business, Ultimate, and Enterprise editions • Windows 7—Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise editions • Windows 8/8.1—Professional and Enterprise editions • Windows 10—Pro and Enterprise edition |
How can Intune manage client desktop computers? |
|
Intune groups are managed from the Groups workspace in the Microsoft Intune Admin console (https://manage.microsoft.com). The Intune user accounts are defined in Azure AD, usually as part of an Office 365 tenant account. |
How does Intune work with groups of devices and users? |
|
I am unsure but I didn’t see anything in the chapter on how to "Configure alters with Intune". I think you mean how to configure an alert. Hopefully the below answer is correct Part of configuring an alert is to determine the severity of the problem: Critical, Warning, or Informational. |
How do you configure alters with Intune? |
|
• Configuration Policies— |
What are the main categories of Intune policies? |
|
APNs |
A service created by Apple that allows external apps to send notification data to apps installed on Apple devices |
|
Azure AD |
an identity and access management cloud solution |
|
BYOD |
policy that allows employees to bring their own computers, smartphones, and tablets to work |
|
CYOD |
policy that allows employees to choose a computer, smartphone, or tablet from a corporate-owned pool of devices |
|
DirSync |
a Microsoft tool for synchronizing copies of local identity information into Azure AD |
|
EMS |
a license suite available for purchase from Microsoft that includes Azure AD Premium, Microsoft Intune, and Azure Rights Management Services |
|
MAM |
software and services responsible for provisioning and controlling access to mobile apps |
|
MDM |
security software used to monitor, manage, and secure employee mobile devices |
|
UPN |
the name that uniquely identifies a user within an identity directory |
|
False |
Virtualization allows the software of multiple physical computers to be shared by multiple operating systems running at the same time. |
|
True |
Both Hyper-V on Windows Server and Client Hyper-V on Windows 10 offer the same core functionality that allows you to run virtual machines. |
|
False |
A private network uses a physical network adapter in the Hyper-V host to provide virtual machines with connectivity to a physical network. |
|
False |
Hyper-V only allocates dynamic memory while the virtual machine is turned off. |
|
True |
Client Hyper-V can use either VHD or VHDX virtual hard disks. |
|
Parent partition |
Where in the Hyper-V architecture do device drivers reside? |
|
Hypervisor |
Which component of the Hyper-V architecture controls all communication with the physical hardware on the computer? |
|
checkpoints |
What feature of Hyper-V virtual machines is very useful for testing because you can almost instantly reset a computer back to a previous state? |
|
to make use of old workstations with few resources |
Which of the following is NOT a typical scenario for using Client Hyper-V? |
|
nested virtualization |
You need to enable Client Hyper-V on a virtual machine; what feature do you need to use? |
|
hibernate |
What feature is supported in Client Hyper-V that is not supported in the server version? |
|
Windows 10 Education |
You want to install Client Hyper-V on your new Windows 10 computer. Of the available choices, which version of Windows 10 must be installed? |
|
Intel VT |
Which CPU feature must be present to run Client Hyper-V? |
|
reboot the computer |
After you install Client Hyper-V, what must you do before you can begin using it? |
|
external |
What type of virtual network should you create if your virtual machine should be able to communicate with the Internet? |
|
Allow management operating system to share this network adapter |
Your Client Hyper-V host has a single network adapter. What option should be enabled to allow your virtual machines to communicate with the external network while not disrupting host network communication? |
|
private |
Which type of virtual network should you create if you want a completely isolated test environment for a virtual machine? |
|
private |
Which type of virtual network should you create if you want a completely isolated test environment for a virtual machine? |
|
Generation 1 virtual machines use BIOS-based firmware; Generation 2 virtual machines use UEFI-based firmware |
Which of the following is a correct statement about Generation 1 and Generation 2 virtual machines? |
|
Generation 2, synthetic |
You are running a virtual machine that must boot through the network adapter and provide the best networking performance. Which type of virtual machine and virtual network adapter should you choose? |
|
Down |
Which of the following is NOT a possible state for a virtual machine? |
|
enhanced session mode |
What feature must you enable on a virtual machine to use RDP functionality? |
|
integration services |
What must be installed on a virtual machine to allow PowerShell Remoting from the Hyper-V host? |
|
Automatically start at the following time |
Which of the following is NOT an automatic start action you can choose for a virtual machine? |
|
512 MB |
If you configure a virtual machine with dynamic memory, what is the default minimum RAM that will be configured? |
|
Relative weight |
You have two processors on a computer running Client Hyper-V. You have two virtual machines running, VM1 and VM2. You want to be sure VM1 is allocated twice as much processing power as VM2. What control setting should you configure? |
|
better backward compatibility |
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using VHDX instead of VHD format virtual disks? |
|
ID |
You must configure a VLAN _______ when a switch port allows hosts from multiple VLANs and the virtual machine needs to identify the VLAN where it is located. |
|
spoofing |
You need to enable MAC address _____________ if any network communication from the virtual machine will use a MAC address other than the MAC address configured in the virtual machine. |
|
smart paging |
The _______________ area is used only when overuse of dynamic memory is preventing virtual machines from starting. |
|
checkpoint |
When using virtual machines, you can revert to a __________ and undo recent changes. |
|
differencing |
For virtual hard disks, creating a checkpoint triggers the creation of a ________________ disk. |
|
Nested virtualization allows for a single physical computer enabled as a Hyper-V host to have a virtual machine that is also enabled as a Hyper-V host. |
What is nested virtualization? |
|
Live virtual machine migration |
List two features that are available in Hyper-V on Windows server OSs that are not available in Client Hyper-V. |
|
You can install Client Hyper-V for Windows 10 Pro, Windows 10 Enterprise, and Windows 10 Education editions. |
What are the prerequisites for installing Client Hyper-V in Windows 10? |
|
A private network does not have connectivity to an external network or the host operating system. You can use a private network to create a completely isolated environment for testing. |
What is a private network in Hyper-V and why might you use one? |
|
Generation 1 Firmware is Bios – based Generation 2 is UEFI based |
What are the differences between Generation 1 and Generation 2 virtual machines? |
|
Off Starting Runing Paused Saved |
What are the possible states for virtual machines? |
|
The Memory buffer setting specifies the level of free memory required before additional memory is allocated. For example, with the default setting of 20%, a virtual machine with 2048 MB allocated and only 100 MB free would be allocated more memory because there is less than 20% free. |
What is the Memory buffer setting for dynamic memory? Give an example. |
|
Hyper-Threading presents logical processor cores to Windows instead of physical processor cores. |
What is Hyper-Threading? |
|
a VHD Set is a single virtual hard disk, but it is composed of multiple files. |
What is a VHD Set and why might you use one? |
|
When you need to create many virtual machines, differencing disks can be used to minimize the amount of disk space used. Differencing disks have a single parent disk that does not change. All changes are stored in the differencing disk and there can be multiple differencing disks that attach to a single parent. |
What is a differencing disk and when is it used? |
|
checkpoint |
a saved state of a virtual machine that you can revert to |
|
differencing disk |
a type of virtual hard disk that tracks changes that would have been made to a parent disk |
|
Dynamic Memory |
feature of Hyper-V that allows the memory allocated to a virtual machine to be increased and decreased based on demand |
|
Dynamically expanding disk |
a virtual hard disk that only uses the physical disk space required to store its contents |
|
fixed-size disk |
a type of virtual hard disk that takes the same physical space on disk as the volume of data that it can store |
|
hypervisor |
the software layer that controls access to hardware after virtualization is enabled |
|
integration services |
a set of drivers that allows operating systems to use virtualized hardware in a virtual machine |
|
shared set |
a type of virtual hard disk that is designed to be shared between multiple virtual machines |
|
virtualization |
a technology that allows the hardware of a single computer to be shared by multiple operating systems running at the same time |
|
True |
Active Directory uses the same naming convention for domains and objects contained in these domains as DNS. |
|
False |
Windows 10 is a desktop operating system and is able to function as either a member server or a domain controller. |
|
False |
Active Directory is a single monolithic database with all of the information about the network. |
|
True |
Within a site, Active Directory replication is uncontrolled. |
|
True |
Domain controllers download Group Policy settings every five minutes. |
|
Active Directory |
Which of the following expands on the domain concept by linking domains in logical structures named trees, and multiple trees into forests? |
|
Domain controllers |
Which Active Directory component is responsible for authenticating users when they log on to a workstation? |
|
domain |
Which Active Directory component has a central security database that is used by all computers that are members of it? |
|
organizational units (OUs) |
Each domain can be subdivided into which of the following, that allow you to organize the objects in a domain? |
|
schema |
To make Active Directory more manageable, it is divided into the domain partition, configuration partition, and what other partition? |
|
configuration |
In Active Directory, which partition holds general information about the Active Directory forest? |
|
multimaster |
Active Directory information can be changed on any domain controller and those changes will be replicated to other domain controllers. What is this type of replication called? |
|
Active Directory site |
Which of the following is defined by IP subnets instead of physical locations? |
|
Group Policy object |
The Group Policy settings used by Windows 10 are contained in which of the following? |
|
Group Policy Preference |
Which of the following can be pushed down to a computer and can be changed by the user? |
|
device identification string |
When a new device is installed into a Windows 10 computer, the operating system uses a device setup class and which of the following in order to properly install the new device? |
|
Hardware ID |
What is the most specific device identification string? |
|
Device setup classes |
During the installation process for a new device, what are used in order to describe how the installation should be performed? |
|
User State Migration Tool (USMT) |
What utility can be used to migrate user settings, documents, and application configuration settings from the previous operating system to Windows 10? |
|
Config.xml |
Which USMT file is generated by running ScanState.exe with the /genconfig option? |
|
System Center Configuration Manager |
Which of the following tools can be used to deploy operating systems to the point where you do not need to physically touch the computer? |
|
WDS |
A server role included with Windows Server 2008 and newer that can be used to deploy operating system images over the network is known as which of the following? |
|
WSUS |
Which of the following contacts Microsoft Update and downloads updates rather than each client computer downloading updates? |
|
MBAM agent |
To enable centralized management of BitLocker, you need to install which of the following on each computer? |
|
DFS namespace |
Which of the following appears to be a single, large file structure, but can really be composed of shared folders on multiple servers? |
|
BranchCache |
In which technology are files stored in a file share in a central location, but are cached at the remote site to make it faster to open the files? |
|
Active Directory |
Windows 2000 Server and later versions include ____________________ to create domain-based networks. |
|
forest |
You can create more complex Active Directory structures by combining multiple domains into a tree and multiple trees into a(n) ____________________. |
|
Microsoft deployment Toolkit (MDT) |
The _________________________ is a solution that helps you configure scripted installations of operating systems and applications. |
|
member server |
Within Active Directory, Windows servers can be either a(n) ____________________ or a domain controller. |
|
global catalog server |
A(n) _________________________ is a domain controller that holds a subset of the information in all domain partitions. |
|
• The domain partition holds the user accounts, computer accounts, and other domain- specific information. This partition is replicated only to domain controllers in the same domain. • The configuration partition holds general information about the Active Directory forest. Also, applications such as Exchange Server use the configuration partition to store application specific information. This partition is replicated to all domain controllers in the Active Directory forest. • The schema partition holds the definitions of all objects and object attributes for the forest. This partition is replicated to all domain controllers in the Active Directory forest. |
Describe the three domain partitions that Active Directory are divided into? |
|
Incorrect DNS configuration can result in: |
Why is a properly configured DNS essential for Active Directory? |
|
• The Domain Admins group becomes a member of the local Administrators group. |
Describe the changes that occur when a workstation joins a domain. |
|
1. If there is no conflict, the settings for all policies are applied. |
What are the steps used to determine which group policy settings to apply in Active Directory? |
|
• MigApp.xml—Used to include or exclude the setting for specifific applications. |
Briefly describe the .xml files used to control USMT. |
|
• Active Directory—The WDS server must be a member server or domain controller in an Active Directory domain. |
What are the requirements for sucessful installation and use of WDS? |
|
• Install image—These are WIM images that include the operating system and may include applications that are deployed to workstations. You can use an unattend.xml file to modify the operating system as part of the deployment process. |
Briefly describe the four types of images used by WDS to accomplish different tasks in the deployment process. |
|
Enable PXE in the client computer and configure it to boot from the network first. |
What are the steps taken by WDS when deploying an image? |
|
• Inventory • Standardized configuration • Software deployment • Operating system deployment • Software updates |
What are some of the tasks you can accomplish with System Center Configuration Manager? |
|
• Synchronization is based on templates for fine-grained control of specific application settings. |
Describe the advanced functionality that UE-V provides over roaming profiles? |
|
domain controller |
a server that hold a copy of Active Directory information |
|
Domain partition |
the Active Directory partition that holds domain-specific information, such as user and computer accounts, that is replicated only between domain controllers within the domain |
|
configuration partition |
the Active Directory partition that holds general information about the Active Directory forest and application configuration information. It is replicated to all domain controllers in the Active Directory forest |
|
schema partition |
holds the definitions of all objects and object attributes for the forest |
|
Group Policy |
feature integrated with Active Directory that can be used to centrally manage the configuration of a Windows 10 computer |
|
group Policy object |
a collection of Group Policy settings applied to the Windows 10 computer |
|
device identification string |
one or more identifiers included in a hardware device that is used by Windows 10 to locate and install an appropriate driver for a hardware device |
|
device setup class |
an identifier included with a hardware device driver that describes how the device driver is to be installed |
|
Windows Deployment Service (WDS) |
a Windows Server service that is used to simplify the process of applying images to computers |
|
True |
Public networks allow traveling users to obtain a remote network connection. |
|
False |
Windows 10 includes a Remote Desktop client, but not Remote Desktop Web access. |
|
False |
Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol provides both authentication and data encryption for the VPN client and remote access server. |
|
true |
DirectAccess relies on IPv6 for connectivity. |
|
True |
One problem with CHAP is that is easy to obtain credentials during authentication. |
|
Remote Access |
Which of the following allows clients to access resources local to the server as if the client was on the same network as the server? |
|
dial-up networking |
Which of the following is considered the oldest technology for remote access? |
|
remote control |
Which of the following software does the remote client use to send keyboard and mouse commands to the computer being remotely controlled? |
|
data synchronization |
What type of technology allows users to work with files whether they are connected to network or not by copying files locally to mobile computers? |
|
Routing and Remote Access |
Windows Server 2016 can be configured as a remote access server by installing which server role? |
|
L2TP |
Which VPN protocol uses IPsec to provide data encryption? |
|
IKEv2 |
When a VPN connection loses connectivity due to a network interruption, which protocol can reconnect automatically once network connectivity is restored using a feature known as VPN Reconnect? |
|
Group Policy Preferences |
For domain-joined computers, what is the simplest way to configure VPN connections? |
|
Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) |
IKEv2 requires the use of which of authentication protocol? |
|
dial-up networking |
What technology behaves like an "always-on" VPN connection? |
|
Network Location Server |
As part of DirectAccess configuration, which of the following is also configured? |
|
Get-DAConnectionStatus |
Which PowerShell cmdlet shows the connection status for DirectAccess? |
|
.rdp file |
When a client connects to a RD Web Access server, what type of file is downloaded that includes all of the necessary configuration information for connecting to the desktop of RemoteApp? |
|
3389 |
Remote Desktop listens on which TCP port number? |
|
Network Level Authentication |
What is used to prevent users to connecting to Remote Desktop until the connection is authenticated? |
|
Experience tab |
In Remote Desktop Connection, which tab allows you to enable and disable various display-related settings that can impact the amount of data sent between the local and remote computers? |
|
/admin |
You can start Remote Desktop Connection from a command prompt by running mstsc.exe. Which option can be used with this command to prevent Remote Desktop Connection from saving information to the local computer? |
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SharePoint Online |
Using Office 365, you can synchronize files from libraries located in which of the following? |
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Sync Center |
Which utility should be used to review any synchronization errors that might occur using the Offline files feature in Windows 10? |
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automatic discovery |
What is the preferred method to configure clients to use Work Folders? |
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Remote Assistance |
Which of the following allows a user to send an invitation to a remote user that invites them to remotely connect to the local computer? |
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Remote Access |
____________________ consists of a dedicated computer acting as a remote access server and clients connecting to that server. |
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Routing and Remote Access |
Windows Server 2016 can be configured as a remote access server by installing the ____________________ server role. |
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GPOs |
Windows 10 is configured for DirectAccess using ___________ which are created during the DirectAccess configuration process. |
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Advanced |
On the ______________________ tab in Remote Desktop Connection, you can configure server authentication settings and Remote Desktop Gateway (RD Gateway) settings. |
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Work folders |
When you implement ____________________, each user is given a unique folder for file storage that can be synchronized across multiple devices. |
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This technology is seldom used now because it is very slow when compared with Internet connectivity. It is much more common for remote access to be done over a virtual private network (VPN). A VPN creates an encrypted connection between the VPN clients and the remote access server over a public network such as the Internet. |
Why is dial-up networking no longer the most common method used for remote access? Explain why it is more common for remote access to be done over a virtual private network. |
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Remote control technologies improve on remote access technologies by reducing the amount of data that needs to be sent between the client and the server. |
How do remote control technologies improve on remote access technologies? Explain how this occurs. |
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• Pre-shared key |
What three things can authentication for IPsec be based upon? |
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Data synchronization copies files locally to mobile computers. Then, users can work with the files whether they are connected to a network or not. At some point, the changed files are copied back (uploaded) to the server. The timing of the synchronization varies depending on the technology used for data synchronization. |
Explain how data synchronization is a valid solution when there is either no connectivity or poor connectivity to connect to a workplace network |
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• Easier for users |
What are the benefits of using DirectAccess as a remote access solution? |
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The most common DirectAccess issues are network connectivity and Group Policy application. If a client has never had DirectAccess working, verify that the computer account is in the proper group for Group Policy application. To troubleshoot the issue You can use gpresult.exe to help identify why the GPO is not being applied. |
What are the most common issues with using DirectAccess? What can be done to troubleshoot those issues? |
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• Enable playback of sound from the remote computer on the local computer. |
What can be configured within the Local Resources tab in Remote Desktop Connection? |
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When Remote Desktop Connection is configured to use an RD Gateway, RDP traffic is tunneled in HTTPS packets to the RD Gateway server. The RD Gateway server sends the RDP packets on to the internal network. |
What is the purpose of configuring an RD Gateway server in Remote Desktop? |
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• Invitation file |
What are some of the ways Remote Assistance can be initiated? |
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Automatic discovery of the Work Folders |
What are some of the methods that can be used to configure clients for accessing Work Folders? |
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Work Folders |
a system that allows users to synchronize a single folder on a file server between multiple devices |
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remote access |
a system that allows dial-up or VPN clients to remotely retrieve and save data as though they are on the local network, but with much slower performance |
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DirectAccess |
an always-on replacement for on-demand VPN connections |
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Remote Assistance |
a feature in Windows 10 that allows a helper to connect to a Windows 10 computer and view the screen or remotely control the computer |
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Extensible Authentication protocol (EAP) |
a framework that allows multiple authentication protocols to be integrated with the VPN sign-in process |
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Virtual Private network (VPN) |
an encrypted connection from a client to a remote access server over a public network |
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Internet Key Exchange V2 tunneling protocol (IKEV2) |
a newer VPN protocol that uses IPsec to secure data, but can authenticate by using a user name and password |
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Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) |
an older VPN protocol that authenticates based on user name and password |
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Remote Control |
a system for remote data or application access where only screen draw commands and keystrokes are sent between the client and computer being remote controlled |
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