Chapter 3-6

1) An ongoing state of physiological arousal in response to ongoing or numerous perceived threats is

chronic stress.

2) An example of a tangible stressor is

a confrontation with an angry coworker.

3) A school examination is an example of a(n)

stressor.

4) The physiological state in which the body’s systems are functioning normally is known as

homeostasis.

4) The physiological state in which the body’s systems are functioning normally is known as

acute stress.

6) An example of an event that is likely to be associated with eustress is

getting a promotion at work.

7) Debilitating tension and strain are associated with negative stress, also known as

distress.

8) Physiological responses such as increased heart rate and blood pressure occur in response to stress during which stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

Alarm

9) The reaction that occurs in our bodies when we perceive danger is the

fight-or-flight response.

10) The function of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is to

return the body to a state of homeostasis.

11) You are speeding down the highway and see the flashing lights of a police car in your rearview mirror. Your heart begins to pound as you slow down, but the police car passes you in pursuit of someone else. Your physical reaction occurs at which stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

Alarm

12) Which part of the nervous system is responsible for triggering the release of stress hormones?

Sympathetic nervous system

13) Sasha wakes up suddenly when she hears a strange noise. After a few moments, she realizes that the noise was caused by her cat jumping up on her dresser and not an intruder. Which part of Sasha’s nervous system is responsible for slowing the body functions that were stimulated by her stress response?

Parasympathetic nervous system

13) Sasha wakes up suddenly when she hears a strange noise. After a few moments, she realizes that the noise was caused by her cat jumping up on her dresser and not an intruder. Which part of Sasha’s nervous system is responsible for slowing the body functions that were stimulated by her stress response?

Hypothalamus

15) As part of the stress response, the hormone epinephrine is released. What are some of the changes that are triggered in the body due to its release?

Heart and respiratory rates increase

16) Common physical effects of unresolved stress include

cardiovascular disease and weight gain.

17) What is the function of cortisol during the stress response?

It mobilizes nutrients to be available for energy.

18) Carrying a heavy course load, working at a demanding part-time job, and having ongoing conflicts with her roommate resulted in Jana becoming so mentally and physically drained that she ended up in the hospital. Which phase of the general adaptation syndrome had she reached?

Exhaustion

19) The 2011 Stress in America survey reported which two concerns to be the leading causes of stress in American adults?

Money and work issues

20) Tiffany has been under a great deal of stress during the past year and has experienced unexplained weight gain. Which of the following hormones may be linked to her weight gain?

Cortisol

21) Which of the following statements is true regarding the effects of long-term stress?

Long-term stress can lead to cardiovascular disease, diabetes, and weight gain.

22) Steps you can take to reduce stress include

exercising regularly and learning to laugh at life’s ups and downs.

23) Increased plaque build-up in the arteries and increased blood pressure can indicate a direct relationship between stress and

cardiovascular disease.

24) When the body’s stress response is activated, which of the following occurs?

Blood-clotting ability increases.

25) According to studies in psychoneuroimmunology, how does long-term stress affect immunity?

Long-term stress impairs the body’s ability to fight infection.

26) Stress created by overuse of technology and the constant state of connection is known as

technostress.

27) Misplacing your cell phone, spilling coffee all over yourself as you are trying to get out the door, and then missing the bus are examples of

hassles.

28) Environmental stressors of which people are often unaware are

background distressors.

29) You just realized that you must take two extra courses this quarter and get straight A’s if you want to go to law school. This situation is an example of

pressure.

30) Susan was anxious about making a presentation at work. In an effort to overcome her anxiety, she practiced her presentation in front of several friends. This is an example of

stress inoculation.

31) A student who gets good grades, is president of her sorority, and works 25 hours a week at her job would likely be experiencing stress due to

overload.

32) Telogen effluvium and alopecia areata are two stress-related conditions that result in

hair loss.

33) Feeling extremely burdened by the demands made on us is a state known as

overload.

34) Among college students, stress related to academic performance is often associated with

more frequent upper respiratory tract infections.

35) Megan’s neighbor plays her stereo so loudly that Megan cannot concentrate. The loud music is an example of which type of distressor?

Background

36) Low self-esteem and low self-efficacy are which type of stressors?

Internal

37) Selena and Lucy are servers in the same restaurant. Selena finds the job stimulating and enjoys the fast pace. Lucy, on the other hand, finds the work stressful and exhausting. Which internal factor explains their different perceptions?

Appraisal

38) Being quick to anger, distrusting others, and having a cynical attitude are toxic characteristics of which personality type?

Type A

39) Which of the following best describes a Type C personality?

Stoic

40) Joe is an overachieving sales manager who puts a lot of pressure on his employees. When his sales team doesn’t perform up to his expectations, he often confronts them, criticizing their performance and threatening to fire them. He accuses them of trying to make him appear incompetent to his boss. Which component of Joe’s personality most increases his risk for cardiovascular disease?

Hostility

41) Alyssa is a hard-driven perfectionist who finds her fast-paced job in marketing to be enjoyable and rewarding. She has high self-esteem and takes responsibilities for her mistakes. Which of the following attributes best protect Allison from developing cardiovascular disease?

She has psychological hardiness.

42) Effective coping strategies that can help alleviate daily stress include

being realistic and managing your time.

42) Effective coping strategies that can help alleviate daily stress include

express it constructively.

44) Stress among college students is associated with

lack of physical activity and substance abuse.

45) An effective way to avoid overcommitment is to

say "No" in a kind but firm manner.

46) A corporate executive takes an early retirement from his high-stress city job and moves to a small rural community. He takes up painting again after 30 years and sells his work at weekend art fairs. This is an example of

downshifting.

47) Relaxation techniques are used for stress management because they

calm anxiety and improve coping skills.

47) Relaxation techniques are used for stress management because they

prioritizing your tasks and doing one thing at a time.

49) Creating pleasant mental images that promote relaxation is a technique known as

visualization.

50) Regular exercise helps in stress management by

raising endorphin levels and improving mood.

51) T/F? Both eustress and distress can trigger the fight-or-flight response.

TRUE

52) T/F? At the resistance stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the body achieves complete calm.

FALSE

53) T/F? Katya is afraid of public speaking, but Jim is not. However, both will have the same stress response when they deliver a speech to a large audience.

FALSE

54) T/F? The body’s stress response can be triggered by a dangerous situation that is completely imaginary.

TRUE

55) T/F? Chronic stress may cause weight gain.

TRUE

56) T/F? The parasympathetic nervous system initiates the body’s fight-or-flight response.

FALSE

57) T/F? Extreme stress may cause hair loss.

TRUE

58) T/F? The pituitary gland functions as control center of the sympathetic nervous system, directing the body’s stress response.

FALSE

59) T/F? ACTH signals the adrenal glands to release the hormone cortisol as part of the stress response.

TRUE

60) T/F? A tangible stressor is a thought or fear that initiates a stress response.

FALSE

61) T/F? Stress has been identified as one of the key modifiable risk factors for heart attack.

TRUE

62) T/F? A person with a high stress level has an increased risk for hypertension and cardiovascular disease.

TRUE

63) T/F? T/F? A person with a high stress level has an increased risk for hypertension and cardiovascular disease.

TRUE

64) T/F? Consistently elevated stress hormone levels decrease the immune system’s ability to fight infections.

TRUE

65) T/F? Anger is often the result of frustrations, resentments, perceived threats, or unmet expectations.

TRUE

66) T/F? In the long run, minor hassles are never as stressful as major life changes.

FALSE

67) T/F? College students suffering from overload have a good chance of performing well on tests because they are used to dealing with high-pressure situations.

FALSE

68) T/F? Health care professionals who work long hours are particularly prone to stress, overload, and burnout.

TRUE

69) T/F? Students from other countries who attend college in the United States without a strong social support network will likely experience more stress-related illnesses than American students.

TRUE

70) T/F? Experiencing discrimination due to race, nationality, age, religious beliefs, or sexual orientation is not a significant stressor because it will strengthen an individual’s coping skills.

FALSE

71) T/F? T/F? Experiencing discrimination due to race, nationality, age, religious beliefs, or sexual orientation is not a significant stressor because it will strengthen an individual’s coping skills.

TRUE

72) T/F? When people use cognitive restructuring, they focus on learning to manage stress by modifying how they think and talk to themselves.

TRUE

73) T/F? People who are Type A personalities can incorporate stress management and coping strategies to learn to handle stressful situations more like Type Bs.

TRUE

74) T/F? Psychological hardiness is a desirable trait that involves having a sense of control, commitment, and the ability to thrive on challenge.

TRUE

75) T/F? Utilizing a variety of technological devices reduces a person’s stress levels because it allows for constant access to friends and work- or school-related issues.

FALSE

76) T/F? By simplifying his or her life, a process also known as "downshifting," a person can experience less stress and pressure.

TRUE

77) T/F? Suppressing anger can be as unhealthy as expressing it aggressively.

TRUE

78) T/F? Exercise can "burn off" the stress hormones that would otherwise have deleterious psychological and physiological effects.

TRUE

79) T/F? T/F? Exercise can "burn off" the stress hormones that would otherwise have deleterious psychological and physiological effects.

FALSE

80) T/F? Meditation stimulates the sympathetic nervous system to promote relaxation.

FALSE

81) T/F? The sympathetic nervous system slows body systems as part of recovery from the stress response.

FALSE

82) T/F? The peripheral nervous system regulates body functions that are not under conscious control.

FALSE

83) T/F? Cortisol is the hormone that makes stored nutrients available for energy as part of the stress response.

TRUE

84) T/F? The hypothalamus is the gland that secretes ACTH.

FALSE

85) T/F? As part of the stress response, the adrenal glands release the hormone epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, which stimulates various body functions.

TRUE

86) T/F? The balance or equilibrium of all body systems is known as homeostasis.

TRUE

87) T/F? T/F? The balance or equilibrium of all body systems is known as homeostasis.

FALSE

88) T/F? Massage therapy has been shown to offer some relaxation benefits, but studies show that it has no real benefit in stress management.

FALSE

89) T/F? Allostatic load is the wear and tear on the body caused by prolonged or excessive stress responses.

TRUE

90) T/F? Coping is the process of managing situations or conditions to lessen the physical or psychological effects of excess stress.

TRUE

1) The key to resolving conflict in a relationship is

having open and honest communication with your partner.

2) The characteristic of intimate relationships that causes feelings of love is

emotional attachment.

3) A man loses his wife of 30 years. He feels empty and misses her presence in his daily life. The component of intimacy that he has lost is

behavioral interdependence.

4) Phoebe and Dwight are close friends who share their worries and concerns. Which characteristic of intimate relationships does this reflect?

Need fulfillment

4) Phoebe and Dwight are close friends who share their worries and concerns. Which characteristic of intimate relationships does this reflect?

intimacy.

6) Kayla and Emily are best friends. They know they can depend on each other to listen to their worries and problems. Which relationship need is being met by their friendship?

Social integration

7) Intimate relationships cannot exist without

emotional availability.

8) Inez reminds Leo often that he is a great person and that he matters a lot to her. Which relationship need is Inez fulfilling?

Affirmation

9) The ability to give to and receive from others emotionally, without fear of being hurt or rejected is referred to as

emotional availability.

10) In our early years, our most significant relationships are those with

family.

11) Brian is 13 and lives with his mother, stepfather, half-brother, and stepsister. He is part of a

blended family.

12) During Janine’s early childhood, the other people in her household were her mother and maternal grandparents. This represents her

family of origin.

13) Healthy love relationships and friendships both require

trust and respect.

14) Frank chooses to spend time with his girlfriend even though he is going to miss an important review for his chemistry final. Which quality of a love relationship does this characterize?

Fascination

15) Which two psychological factors influence your ability to establish and maintain healthy relationships?

Self-concept and self-esteem

16) According to Sternberg’s theory of love, which of the following defines consummate love?

Combination of intimacy, passion, and commitment

17) When Adam is alone with his girlfriend, his heart races and he feels sexually aroused. This type of love is

passionate love.

18) Which of the following characterizes passionate love?

Attraction and desire

19) Cynthia has decided to "settle down" and marry Patrick. Which component of Sternberg’s theory of love does her decision demonstrate?

Commitment

20) Trust in relationships is created based on

predictability, dependability, and faith.

21) According to Fisher’s theory of love, "imprinting" involves

a past experience that triggers a romantic reaction.

22) What role does oxytocin play in Fisher’s theory of love?

It stimulates feelings of satisfaction and attachment.

23) After four years, Cole feels as if the excitement and passion is gone from his marriage. According to Fisher’s theory of love, this feeling is due to

a decrease in phenylethylamine (PEA) levels.

24) What is one of the most important components of a satisfying and stable relationship?

Effective communication

24) What is one of the most important components of a satisfying and stable relationship?

Endorphins

26) Which of the following are possible underlying causes of jealousy?

Insecurity or possessiveness

27) A person you recently met in one of your classes tells you that she was adopted shortly after her birth. This is an example of

self-disclosure.

28) An important aspect of effective communication is

understanding nonverbal communication.

29) A professor may share information about his experiences as an undergraduate with his students. If done in a positive way, this type of self-disclosure may

help students deal with current issues in their lives.

30) The objective of being a good listener is to enhance relationships by

understanding what others are thinking and feeling.

31) Which listening mode involves restating or paraphrasing what the speaker has said?

Reflective

32) When Ted talks with his classmates, he often points out the weaknesses in their logic. Which mode of listening is he using?

Competitive

33) A slouched posture or leaning forward toward the speaker are examples of

body language.

34) Roberto listens to his friends with genuine interest but rarely asks for clarification or verifies what his friends are saying. What is his listening style?

Passive

34) Roberto listens to his friends with genuine interest but rarely asks for clarification or verifies what his friends are saying. What is his listening style?

repeating what we think we’ve heard to confirm understanding.

36) Your friend Joey describes the fight he had with his girlfriend and you respond, "It sounds to me like you’re angry with her for never being ready on time." Your response is an example of

paraphrasing.

37) Which of the following is true about nonverbal communication?

If verbal and nonverbal communication don’t match, the listener is more likely to believe the nonverbal cues.

38) When Steven has a disagreement with his roommate, he frequently interrupts and angrily stabs his finger at his chest. Steven’s gestures suggest that he is

not being respectful of his roommate’s thoughts or feelings.

38) When Steven has a disagreement with his roommate, he frequently interrupts and angrily stabs his finger at his chest. Steven’s gestures suggest that he is

gender differences in communication.

40) Many men tend to use which type of body language when they communicate?

Making forceful gestures

41) Two key components to resolving conflict within relationships are

negotiation and compromise.

42) Which of the following is an effective strategy for conflict resolution?

Evaluating alternative solutions.

43) Which of the following is an effective strategy for conflict resolution?

Identifying and clarifying the exact nature of the problem.

43) Which of the following is an effective strategy for conflict resolution?

Using "I" statements instead of blaming "you" messages.

45) Jay is getting frustrated by his wife’s nagging him about a chore he forgot to do. Before he loses his temper he decides that they should stop the interaction and cool down. This is an example of

a good conflict resolution strategy.

46) Jerome and Deborah’s relationship has been monogamous. This means that they

only have sex with each other.

47) Ali has had three exclusive relationships in her romantic life. Each relationship lasted two to three years. This is considered

serial monogamy.

48) Common-law marriage refers to

cohabitation for a designated period that is legally binding in some states.

49) In addition to the same issues faced by heterosexual couples, lesbian and gay relationships are often challenged by

discrimination and legal difficulties.

50) Breakdowns in relationships usually begin with changes in

communication.

1) The thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that are associated with being male or female are referred to as

sexuality.

2) The combined factors of biological characteristics, gender roles, and sexual orientation create a person’s

sexual identity.

3) Monica’s ultrasound reveals that the baby she is carrying is a boy. Which chromosome pair is present in her baby?

XY

4) A condition in which a person’s physical anatomy includes both male and female sexual characteristics is known as

intersexuality.

4) A condition in which a person’s physical anatomy includes both male and female sexual characteristics is known as

sex hormones.

6) The primary male sex hormone is

testosterone.

7) At puberty, males develop secondary sex characteristics that include facial and body hair, larger skeleton, and

deepening of the voice.

8) Gonads are which reproductive organs in the male and female?

Testes and ovaries

9) Amber has entered puberty. She is developing breasts and now has underarm and pubic hair. These changes represent the development of

secondary sex characteristics.

9) Amber has entered puberty. She is developing breasts and now has underarm and pubic hair. These changes represent the development of

androgynous.

11) A person’s inner sense or awareness of being male or female is known as

gender identity.

12) A person who is born biologically male, yet has a strong personal sense of being female is considered to be

transgendered.

13) Traditionally, in most cultures, men are expected to be independent, aggressive, and in control of their emotions. This expectation is an example of

gender role stereotyping.

14) Individuals who feel trapped inside their own bodies because they are physically one sex but psychologically the other sex are

transsexual.

15) Biological, psychological, and socioenvironmental factors all play a role in determining a person’s

sexual orientation.

16) Haley had been in a sexual relationship with her boyfriend Miguel for two years when she found that she also had sexual feelings for Amy, her roommate. Haley’s sexual orientation would be described as

bisexual.

17) The external female genitalia (including the mons pubis, labia minora and majora, the clitoris, and the urethral and vaginal opening) are collectively known as the

vulva.

18) The highly sensitive nodule of tissue located at the upper end of the labia minora is the

clitoris.

19) Which of the following external female genitals are folds of mucous membrane?

Labia minora

20) The tubular organ that serves as the birth canal is the

vagina.

21) The lower end of the uterus that opens into the vagina is the

cervix.

22) Fertilization of an egg by sperm takes place in the

fallopian tubes.

23) The average age for menarche is

between 11 and 14 years.

24) At about day 14 of the menstrual cycle, a mature ovum is released near a fallopian tube. This process is known as

ovulation.

24) At about day 14 of the menstrual cycle, a mature ovum is released near a fallopian tube. This process is known as

HCG.

26) The primary difference between PMS and PMDD is that

the severity of symptoms is greater in PMDD.

27) Effectively managing stress, exercising regularly, and reducing salt and caffeine intake will help to alleviate the symptoms of

PMS.

28) Maria is 52 years old and has not had a period in more than a year. She has been having hot flashes and headaches. Maria is probably experiencing

menopause.

29) The external male genitals include the penis and

scrotum.

30) The passageway through the center of the penis through which semen and urine to exit the body is the

urethra.

31) The function of the vasa deferentia is to

store and move sperm.

32) Where does the male human body store sperm until they reach full maturity?

Epididymis

33) An age-related hormonal change in men is known as

andropause.

34) Which male reproductive organ produces chemicals that aid sperm in fertilizing an ovum?

Prostate gland

34) Which male reproductive organ produces chemicals that aid sperm in fertilizing an ovum?

decreased bone density.

36) Which of the following represents the correct order for the stages of sexual response?

Excitement, plateau, orgasmic, resolution

37) Vasocongestion of the genitals occurs during which stage of the sexual response?

Excitement/arousal

38) During which phase of sexual response would a man secrete pre-ejaculatory fluid?

Plateau

39) During which phase of sexual response do rhythmic contractions occur through the genital regions?

Orgasmic

39) During which phase of sexual response do rhythmic contractions occur through the genital regions?

Resolution

41) Most men have to wait a period of time before they can become aroused again after an orgasm. This time is referred to as the

refractory period.

42) Which of the following terms describes areas of the body that that lead to sexual arousal when touched?

Erogenous zones

43) Autoerotic behaviors involve

sexual self-stimulation.

44) The purpose of pornography is to be

sexually arousing.

44) The purpose of pornography is to be

vaginal intercourse.

46) Self-stimulation of the genitals is

masturbation.

47) Bonnie ended an abusive relationship before any severe physical harm occurred, but she now is afraid to engage in sexual contact with any new partner. Her fears and anxiety are related to a sexual desire disorder is known as

sexual aversion disorder.

48) Observing others for the purpose of sexual gratification is a variant sexual behavior known as

voyeurism.

49) Achieving sexual gratification through the infliction of pain or being subject to pain is a variant sexual behavior known as

sadomasochism.

50) The most common sexual arousal disorder is

erectile dysfunction.

1) A woman will release an egg from one of her two ovaries how frequently, on average?

Every 28 days

2) A fertilized ovum in the fallopian tube is a known as a(n)

zygote

3) A significant benefit of using condoms is that they

prevent the spread of some sexually transmitted infections.

4) Which of the following can cause condoms to be less effective?

Storing them in a location that reaches a high temperature.

5) Which contraceptive is most associated with urinary tract infections?

Spermicide

6) The Mirena IUD must be replaced how often to ensure effectiveness?

Every 5 years

7) Which of the following is true about the cervical cap?

It must be kept in place for 6 to 8 hours after intercourse.

8) If a woman inserts the cervical cap and leaves it in place more than 48 hours, she increases her risk of

toxic shock syndrome.

9) When used consistently and correctly, the male condom is how effective in preventing pregnancy?

Up to 98%

10) Which of the following are the major health risks associated with the combination pill?

Blood clots and elevated blood pressure

10) Which of the following are the major health risks associated with the combination pill?

It thickens cervical mucus and interferes with implantation.

12) Which of the following groups of women using oral contraceptives has the highest risk for stroke?

Women over 35 who smoke

13) Which health risk is associated with long-term use of Depo-Provera contraceptive injections?

Loss of bone density

14) Gina uses a hormonal contraceptive that has the effect of reducing her menstrual periods to one every three months. Gina most likely uses

Seasonale or Seasonique pills.

14) Gina uses a hormonal contraceptive that has the effect of reducing her menstrual periods to one every three months. Gina most likely uses

abstinence.

16) After the birth of her third child, Jenna had a laparoscopic surgical procedure to make her sterile. Which procedure did she most likely have?

Tubal ligation

17) What is the earliest point after conception that a home pregnancy test can be used to confirm pregnancy?

2 weeks later

18) Which of the following forms of birth control must be fitted and inserted into the uterus by a physician?

IUD

18) Which of the following forms of birth control must be fitted and inserted into the uterus by a physician?

24 hours

20) Which of the following birth control methods would be an appropriate choice for a couple whose religious beliefs prohibit them from using conventional forms of birth control?

Fertility awareness methods

21) The cervical mucus, body temperature, and calendar methods of birth control are based on

tracking ovulation.

22) In the United States, which type of abortions are illegal unless the mother’s life or health is in danger?

Third trimester

23) Which type of abortion involves the use of one or more drugs?

Medical

24) Why is it so important for a pregnant woman to consume folic acid before and during early pregnancy?

Folic acid reduces the risk of spina bifida in a baby.

25) In addition to obstetrician-gynecologists, which other licensed health care professional has specialized trained in prenatal care and deliveries?

Midwife

26) Which of the following is a risk related to having a baby after the age of 35?

The risk of birth defects increases.

27) Gestational diabetes and high blood pressure can result from

excessive weight gain during pregnancy.

28) Shannon gained 27 pounds during her pregnancy. Approximately how much of her gain represents the weight of a normal-birth-weight baby?

6 to 8 pounds

29) At her first prenatal visit, Sophia tells her doctor that she loves to drink wine. What advice about alcohol consumption during pregnancy will her doctor most likely give?

Abstain from alcohol during pregnancy.

30) Smoking during pregnancy harms the fetus by

restricting blood supply, oxygen, and nutrients to the fetus.

31) Which of the following hormones detected in a woman’s urine will result in a positive home pregnancy test result?

HCG

32) At what point in pregnancy is an embryo referred to as a fetus?

At the beginning of the third month of pregnancy

33) All fetal organ systems are in place at the start of the

third month.

33) All fetal organ systems are in place at the start of the

third trimester.

35) Which imaging procedure is used to determine the size and position of a growing fetus?

Ultrasound

36) The most common genetic abnormality that amniocentesis can identify is

Down syndrome.

37) Greta is 38 years old and 15 weeks into her first pregnancy. Which test will her doctor recommend to detect any genetic abnormalities in the fetus?

Amniocentesis

38) Gillian is at the stage of birth where the cervix becomes fully dilated, and the baby’s head begins to move into the vagina. Which stage is this?

Transition

38) Gillian is at the stage of birth where the cervix becomes fully dilated, and the baby’s head begins to move into the vagina. Which stage is this?

preeclampsia.

40) A miscarriage is also known as

spontaneous abortion.

41) Ectopic pregnancy is a potential side effect of

pelvic inflammatory disease.

42) The leading cause of death among infants 1-12 months of age is

SIDS.

43) Which of the following is the most common cause of female infertility in the United States?

Polycystic ovary syndrome

43) Which of the following is the most common cause of female infertility in the United States?

Parts of the uterine lining migrate to block the fallopian tubes.

45) The most common cause of male infertility is

low sperm count.

46) Which contraceptive methods prevent the meeting of egg and sperm?

Barrier methods

47) Which contraceptive method used by women consists of a pad of foam containing spermicide?

Contraceptive sponge

48) Which sterilization procedure involves cutting the vas deferens and either tying off or cauterizing the ends?

Vasectomy

48) Which sterilization procedure involves cutting the vas deferens and either tying off or cauterizing the ends?

teratogenic.

50) An antigen present in the red blood cells of the majority of people is known as the

Rh factor.

51) T/F? Vasectomies have been shown to decrease male sexual performance.

FALSE

52) T/F? For conception to occur, the following are necessary: a viable egg, a viable sperm, and access to the egg by the sperm.

TRUE

53) T/F? Petroleum jelly is an effective lubricant for use with condoms.

FALSE

54) T/F? When used correctly, the female condom provides protection against some sexually transmitted infections and HIV.

TRUE

55) T/F? Sperm survive an average of 48-72 hours in the fallopian tubes.

TRUE

56) T/F? T/F? Sperm survive an average of 48-72 hours in the fallopian tubes.

FALSE

57) T/F? Some contraceptive methods protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

TRUE

58) T/F? Sterilization has become the leading method of contraception for women.

FALSE

59) T/F? A woman who undergoes a tubal ligation will no longer have menstrual periods.

FALSE

60) T/F? A woman who has had a hysterectomy no longer has her uterus.

TRUE

61) T/F? It is possible for a woman whose partner has had a vasectomy to become pregnant up to one month later.

TRUE

62) T/F? A vasectomy affects sexual response in 50 percent of men who undergo this procedure.

FALSE

63) T/F? Massaging, fondling, and kissing are forms of "outercourse."

TRUE

64) T/F? Withdrawal, or coitus interruptus, is a reliable and effective contraceptive method.

FALSE

65) T/F? T/F? Withdrawal, or coitus interruptus, is a reliable and effective contraceptive method.

FALSE

66) T/F? The Implanon contraceptive implant provides protection from pregnancy and HIV.

FALSE

67) T/F? Mifepristone is the same as the "morning after" pill.

FALSE

68) T/F? The contraceptive patch offers protection against HIV and other STIs.

FALSE

69) T/F? Worldwide, abortion rates have declined as access to and use of contraception has increased.

TRUE

70) T/F? In induction abortion, chemicals are injected into the uterus and the fetus and placenta are expelled after 24-48 hours.

TRUE

71) T/F? Suction curettage abortion can be performed up to the fourteenth week of pregnancy.

FALSE

72) T/F? Studies have shown that an abortion causes long-term psychological trauma for a woman.

FALSE

73) T/F? Preconception care is equally important for the mother-to-be and father-to-be.

TRUE

74) T/F? T/F? Preconception care is equally important for the mother-to-be and father-to-be.

FALSE

75) T/F? An intrauterine device (IUD) is effective immediately after it is placed in the uterus.

TRUE

76) T/F? Physicians recommend that women abstain from alcohol and all drugs during pregnancy.

TRUE

77) T/F? Use of painkilling medications during labor and delivery is not the best choice because it increases risks to the baby.

FALSE

78) T/F? Fertility awareness methods of birth control offer no protection against STIs.

TRUE

79) T/F? Postpartum depression is the same as "baby blues" and is common in new mothers.

FALSE

80) T/F? A woman taking fertility drugs is more likely to conceive twins.

TRUE

81) T/F? Marilyn plans to have children 5 years in the future. She can have a tubal ligation procedure now and have it reversed when she is ready to become pregnant.

FALSE

82) T/F? To lower the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), babies should be laid down to sleep on their stomachs.

FALSE

83) T/F? Diaphragms, cervical caps, and condoms are barrier methods of contraception.

TRUE

84) T/F? Fertilization of an egg in a laboratory and then placing it into a woman’s uterus is a procedure known as alternative insemination.

FALSE

85) T/F? Sperm can survive up to five days in the female reproductive tract.

TRUE

86) T/F? The birth defect characterized by mental retardation and distinctive physical traits that occurs more frequently in babies born to older mothers is called fetal alcohol syndrome.

FALSE

87) T/F? The implantation of a fertilized egg outside of the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes, is a condition known as ectopic pregnancy.

TRUE

88) T/F? An excessive bleeding condition that may develop when a mother’s Rh antibodies attack her fetus’s red blood cells is called hemolytic disease.

FALSE

89) T/F? An episiotomy is an incision made in a mother’s perineum to speed a baby’s exit from the birth canal.

TRUE

90) T/F? The two types of adoption are open and confidential.

TRUE