Chapter 14—Sexual Difficulties and Solutions, Chapter 13 – Sexuality and the Adult Years, Chapter 11- Conceiving Children- Process and Choice

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1. Sexual problems
a. are common.
b. primarily occur with those who have had some traumatic experience either in childhood or adulthood.
c. are overdiagnosed because of our society’s emphasis on sexuality.
d. occur more in people who have taken human sexuality courses in college.

A

2. The National Health and Social Life survey found all but which one of the following?
a. Women are more likely than men to have a lack of interest in sex.
b. Women are more likely to have pain during sex as they grow older.
c. Women with a college degree report fewer sexual problems than those without one.
d. Women in their 40s and 50s are slightly less likely to have trouble reaching orgasm than those in their 20s and 30s.

B

3. Sexual satisfaction is BEST determined by
a. consulting a therapist specializing in this area.
b. a conversation with one’s sexual partner or partners.
c. taking a test to determine one’s satisfaction according to established standards.
d. the individual’s own subjective perception.

D

4. A sexual problem that occurs in all situations with all partners is referred to as ____. A problem that only occurs in specific situations or with specific partners is ____.
a. generalized; situational
b. comprehensive; situational
c. comprehensive; discrete
d. generalized; discrete

A

5. Many categories and labels for diagnosing sexual dysfunctions come from the
a. Physicians Desk Reference.
b. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of the APA.
c. NHSLS Diagnostic Index.
d. Kinsey reports.

B

6. Maria rarely thinks or fantasizes about sex. When not in a relationship, she rarely masturbates. When in a relationship, she never initiates sex, but if her partner initiates, she is able to lubricate and become orgasmic. Her problem would BEST be described as
a. dyspareunia.
b. female sexual arousal disorder.
c. hypoactive sexual desire.
d. sexual aversion disorder.

C

7. Which of the following is TRUE of hypoactive sexual desire disorder (HSDD) as it is currently defined?
a. HSDD indicates the absence or minimal experience of sexual thoughts, fantasies, during the sexual experience, but does not address sexual desire before the sexual experience.
b. HSDD is defined exclusively by the lack of sexual interest, thoughts, and fantasies outside sexual activity.
c. HSDD does not address the pattern of sexual desire following, rather than preceding, sexual excitement.
d. HSDD is not indicative of relationship problems.

C

8. A woman prefers early morning sex two to three times a week, and her partner prefers late-night sex once a week. How would you define their problem?
a. The male is experiencing nocturnal penile tumescence (NPT).
b. The couple is experiencing sexual aversion.
c. The couple is experiencing desire discrepancy.
d. The couple is experiencing hypoactive sexual desire disorder.

C

9. Whenever a man makes a sexually suggestive remark to her, Susan begins trembling, sweating, and feels dizzy and nauseated. She is probably experiencing
a. hypoactive sexual desire.
b. sexual aversion disorder.
c. female sexual arousal disorder.
d. anorgasmia.

B

10. Which of the following is NOT a desire phase difficulty?
a. HSDD
b. Sexual aversion disorder
c. Desire discrepancy
d. Female sexual arousal disorder

D

11. Neil cringes every time his partner becomes affectionate with him. If his partner persists, Neil becomes nauseated and highly anxious, and his feelings of sexual repulsion escalate. Neil is probably experiencing
a. sexual aversion disorder.
b. hypoactive sexual desire.
c. male arousal disorder.
d. male orgasmic disorder.

A

12. Which one is NOT true of erectile disorder?
a. ED is primarily a result of psychological, not physical, factors.
b. About 20% of men over the age of 20 experience ED.
c. ED rarely occurs in men younger than 50.
d. The incidence of ED increases with age.

C

13. Which of the following statements concerning female orgasmic disorder is TRUE?
a. This disorder focuses on the inability of achieve orgasm during intercourse.
b. This disorder is only diagnosable as a generalized (not situational) disorder.
c. This disorder is usually found in married and older women.
d. This disorder (as it relates to women who have never experienced orgasm) has declined since the 1960s.

D

14. What is the major concern for a woman with situational female orgasmic disorder?
a. She may have orgasm during masturbation, but not when her partner orally stimulates her.
b. She does not experience lubrication.
c. She experiences lubrication, but does not experience psychological arousal.
d. She is at greater risk of developing HSDD.

A

15. Approximately ____% of adult women in the United States have never experienced orgasm by any means of self or partner stimulation.
a. 510
b. 1015
c. 1520
d. 2025

A

16. Which of the following statements concerning male orgasmic disorder is FALSE?
a. Approximately 20% of males are affected by this disorder.
b. Males with this disorder most often prefer to experience orgasm through masturbation.
c. This disorder might also be called partner anorgasmia.
d. This disorder is also referred to as inhibited ejaculation.

A

17. A man can ejaculate when he masturbates, yet when he has vaginal intercourse, he is unable to ejaculate. He would be MOST likely diagnosed with
a. priapism.
b. phimosis.
c. male orgasmic disorder.
d. retrograde ejaculation.

C

18. Premature ejaculation is defined
a. as an orgasm that occurs in less than three minutes.
b. differently depending upon the age of the male.
c. as a pattern of ejaculations within one minute and an inability to delay ejaculation.
d. most accurately by laboratory testing.

C

19. Which of the following is NOT true regarding faking orgasms?
a. Gay males cannot fake orgasms.
b. Men are more likely than women to believe that men can tell if a woman is faking orgasm.
c. Faking orgasms is a conscious decision.
d. One of the most common reasons given by women for faking orgasm is to avoid disappointing or hurting their partners.

A

20. Peyronie’s disease refers to
a. accumulation of smegma under the foreskin of a man’s penis.
b. the fibrous tissue and calcium deposits that develop in the space between the cavernous bodies of the penis.
c. a severe penile urethral infection.
d. a condition in which the foreskin of the penis is abnormally tight.

B

21. The medical term for painful intercourse is
a. pelvic inflammatory disease.
b. vaginismus.
c. dyspareunia.
d. vulvar vestibulitis.

C

22. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of deep pelvic pain?
a. Endometriosis
b. Inadequate stimulation
c. Insufficient lubrication
d. Vestibulodynia

A

23. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to cause deep pelvic pain during intercourse?
a. Jarring of the ovaries
b. Stretching of the uterine ligaments
c. Vestibulodynia
d. Endometriosis

C

24. Which of the following statements regarding vaginismus is FALSE?
a. A woman with vaginismus can experience similar contracting spasms during a pelvic exam.
b. A woman with vaginismus may be orgasmic with manual stimulation.
c. A woman with vaginismus consciously contracts her vaginal muscles to protect herself against potential pain.
d. A woman with vaginismus may be orgasmic with oral stimulation.

C

25. Which of the following is cited in your text as a possible contributing factor to vagnismus?
a. Lack of sexual activity
b. Sexual coercion in marriage
c. Lubrication
d. Infection

B

26. ____ is characterized by strong involuntary contractions of the muscles in the outer third of the vagina.
a. Vaginismus
b. Vestibulodynia
c. Vaginitis
d. Peyronie’s disease

A

27. Which of the following is MOST likely to cause vaginal discomfort and pain related to penetration?
a. Intense arousal
b. Lubricating jelly
c. An overabundance of estrogen
d. A yeast infection

D

28. Spontaneous, intrusive, and unwanted genital arousal is known as
a. combined genital and subjective sexual arousal disorder.
b. female subjective sexual arousal disorder.
c. female genital sexual arousal disorder.
d. persistent genital arousal disorder.

D

29. Tests using MRI and transvaginal ultrasonography have found pelvic varicose veins among women with
a. persistent genital arousal disorder.
b. female subjective sexual arousal disorder.
c. female genital sexual arousal disorder.
d. combined genital and subjective sexual arousal disorder.

A

30. Using or stopping the use of SSRI antidepressants has been related to developing
a. female genital sexual arousal disorder.
b. persistent genital arousal disorder.
c. combined genital and subjective sexual arousal disorder.
d. female subjective sexual arousal disorder.

B

31. The most common male sexual difficulty is
a. premature ejaculation.
b. male orgasmic disorder.
c. dyspareunia.
d. erectile disorder.

A

32. Research indicates that compared to men who do not have problems with rapid ejaculation, men with premature ejaculation
a. report more enjoyment of orgasm.
b. underestimate the intensity of their physical arousal.
c. experience low arousal to penile stimulation.
d. ejaculate upon reaching full sexual arousal.

B

33. Traumatic bending of the penis during intercourse can cause
a. Peyronie’s disease.
b. male orgasmic disorder.
c. premature ejaculation.
d. erectile disorder.

A

34. About 10% of women experience severe pain at the entrance of the vagina. This is known as
a. situational female orgasmic disorder.
b. female genital sexual arousal disorder.
c. vestibulodynia.
d. vaginismus.

C

35. Generally speaking, avoiding the use of ____ will contribute to healthy sexual functioning.
a. alcohol
b. tobacco
c. marijuana
d. all of the above

D

36. Which of the following is TRUE concerning the origins of sexual difficulty?
a. Finding a specific cause for a sexual difficulty is fairly straightforward.
b. Experiences that help bring about sexual difficulty in one person may not affect another.
c. Psychological factors should be ruled out before examining physiological causes.
d. One should assume that psychological and physiological factors do not interact with determining the cause of a sexual difficulty.

B

37. With which of the following sexual problems has cigarette smoking MOST been associated?
a. Anorgasmia
b. Ejaculatory inhibition
c. Erectile difficulties
d. Vaginismus

C

38. Cancer and its treatment can interfere with sexual functioning in which of the following ways?
a. Negative body image due to scars, hair loss, etc.
b. Physical pain
c. Changes in hormonal, vascular, and neurological functions
d. All of the above

D

39. According to your text, which of the following is LEAST affected in the person who has multiple sclerosis?
a. Vision
b. Voluntary movement
c. Sensation
d. Cognitive functioning

D

40. Which of the following statements concerning multiple sclerosis is TRUE?
a. MS most impairs the emotional center of the brain.
b. Approximately 20% of MS patients experience sexual problems.
c. MS patients may experience uncomfortable hypersensitivity to genital stimulation.
d. MS most impairs involuntary movement.

C

41. A cerebrovascular accident, or ____, may result in ____.
a. stroke; depression
b. aneurysm; increased genital sensitivity
c. stroke; increased genital sensitivity
d. aneurysm; depression

A

42. Which of the following medications might be used to reverse the adverse sexual side effects from SSRI antidepressants?
a. Paxil
b. Xanax
c. Nicotine
d. Wellbutrin

D

43. Which drug adversely affects small blood vessels in the penis and decreases the frequency and duration of erections?
a. Barbiturates
b. Amphetamines
c. Alcohol
d. Tobacco

D

44. All of the following medications may have undesirable effects on sexual functioning EXCEPT
a. antidepressants.
b. tranquilizers.
c. ginkgo biloba.
d. antihistamines.

C

45. A high waist circumference and low levels of physical activity are associated with an increased likelihood of having
a. male orgasmic disorder.
b. dyspareunia.
c. vestibulodynia.
d. erectile disorder.

D

46. Which illicit drug reduces testosterone levels in men and decreases sexual desire in both sexes?
a. Marijuana
b. Barbiturates
c. Amphetamines
d. Cocaine

A

47. Diabetes is a disease of the ____ system.
a. endocrine
b. neurological
c. hormonal
d. muscular

A

48. Why might cancer treatment interfere with sexual functioning?
a. Because the person with the cancer may be too tired to be sexually active
b. Because of the side effects of cancer treatments
c. Because the cancer may invade the reproductive organs
d. All of the above

D

49. Which of the following statements concerning cerebral palsy is TRUE?
a. Most people with CP are mentally disabled.
b. Genital sensation is lost as the result of CP.
c. CP may disrupt speech and facial expressions.
d. CP most commonly occurs in adolescence.

C

50. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
a. A person with SCI (spinal cord injury) will have loss of desire.
b. A person with SCI (spinal cord injury) will have arousal difficulties.
c. A person with SCI (spinal cord injury) will have orgasmic difficulties.
d. There is variation in sexual desire and behavior according to the specific injury among people with SCI (spinal cord injury).

D

51. ____ is caused by damage to the brain before or during birth or during early childhood, and is characterized by mild to severe lack of muscular control.
a. Spinal cord injury (SCI)
b. Multiple sclerosis (MS)
c. Cerebral palsy (CP)
d. Diabetes

C

52. The BEST way to cope with the sexual limitations of illness or disability is to
a. accept those limitations and develop the options that remain.
b. take medications such as Viagra.
c. resign oneself to a life without sex.
d. compensate with a rich fantasy life.

A

53. The most frequently performed cosmetic surgery in ____, called the "hitch and stitch," creates a fold above each eye to make a woman’s eyes look more Causasian.
a. Asia
b. Latin America
c. Africa
d. the Middle East

A

54. The ability to identify, feel comfortable with, and manage one’s emotions is known as
a. emotional intelligence.
b. self-confidence.
c. empathy.
d. self-concept.

A

55. Performance anxiety
a. primarily affects gay men.
b. primarily affects lesbian women.
c. can produce enough anxiety for the problem to occur in the next sexual encounter as well.
d. oftentimes helps increase the pleasure by first increasing the overall arousal level.

C

56. Which of the following is NOT described in your text as a cultural factor contributing to difficulties in sexual functioning?
a. Negative childhood learning
b. Emotional difficulties
c. Narrow definitions of sexuality
d. Sexual double standard

B

57. The feelings and beliefs we have about ourselves are referred to as
a. self-awareness.
b. self-confidence.
c. self-concept.
d. self-esteem.

C

58. Which illicit drug causes erectile disorder and inhibits orgasm in both sexes?
a. Marijuana
b. Barbiturates
c. Amphetamines
d. Cocaine

D

59. The sexual double standard
a. seems to be less of a problem for same-sex couples.
b. primarily influences men.
c. has increased in the United States.
d. can positively affect sexuality.

A

60. The authors of your text believe that coitus
a. is the ultimate avenue for exploring sexual pleasure.
b. has been underemphasized, and that this may contribute to inadequate stimulation for women.
c. has been overemphasized, and that this may contribute to inadequate stimulation for women.
d. is a term that should be dropped and replaced with the phrase penile-vaginal intercourse.

C

61. Lack of sexual interest and response is a common symptom of
a. depression.
b. visual stimulation.
c. relaxation.
d. cosmetic surgery.

D

62. Gina won’t tell her boyfriend that she needs clitoral stimulation to reach orgasm because she believes that if her boyfriend really loved her, he would know what to do. Gina is showing the impact of which relationship factor on sexuality?
a. Fear of pregnancy
b. Self-concept
c. Emotional difficulties
d. Ineffective communication

D

63. All of the following are relationship factors that might contribute to sexual difficulties EXCEPT
a. ineffective communication.
b. sexual orientation.
c. fears about getting pregnant.
d. self-concept.

D

64. Sensate focus is BEST described as
a. a series of self-pleasuring exercises that an individual does alone and then with a partner.
b. a series of touching exercises experienced with a partner.
c. a technique for reducing premature ejaculation.
d. a series of active listening and feedback exercises.

B

65. Masturbating with a partner present
a. begins with nondemanding manual genital pleasuring.
b. is generally not recommended as this is better done in private.
c. should be performed only as a remedy for differential desire.
d. may be a good way to inform your partner what kind of touch you find arousing.

D

66. A study of Islamic sex therapy centers found that 80% of female clients came for treatment of
a. vaginismus.
b. vestibulodynia.
c. persistent genital arousal disorder.
d. combined genital and subjective sexual arousal disorder.

A

67. Readiness is a vaginal sensation of wanting
a. body exploration.
b. intercourse.
c. oral stimulation.
d. manual stimulation.

B

68. The start-stop technique sessions generally last
a. 15 to 30 minutes.
b. 10 to 15 minutes.
c. 3 to 10 minutes.
d. 20 to 40 minutes.

A

69. There are ____ basic types of penile implants.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five

A

70. Your text suggests all EXCEPT which one of the following?
a. Self-awareness may involve becoming familiar with one’s own genitals.
b. We need to be aware of our own body responses in part to share this information with a partner.
c. We should be careful of sharing too much emotionally because it will take away some of the essential mystery in sex.
d. All of us have the potential for self-help.

C

71. Which of the following is FALSE regarding sensate focus exercises?
a. Early sessions focus on bringing both partners to orgasm.
b. Partners switch roles.
c. The toucher explores for their own pleasure, not their partner’s.
d. The recipient of touch remains quiet, except when touch is uncomfortable.

A

72. The major purpose of doing sensate focus exercises is to
a. experience orgasmic release.
b. deal with vaginismus.
c. increase the possibility of having multiple orgasms.
d. enhance sexual pleasure and to reduce performance pressure.

D

73. Therapy programs for female orgasmic disorder begin with
a. learning to masturbate with a partner present.
b. progressive self-awareness exercises.
c. learning to integrate the bridge maneuver into sexual sharing.
d. improving sexual communication skills between a woman and her partner.

B

74. Which cultural group would be LEAST likely to discuss sexual matters with a therapist?
a. Orthodox Jews
b. Wiccans
c. Asians
d. Native Americans

C

75. According to a study done in Saudi Arabia, for which of the following sexual problems would men and women be MOST likely to seek help?
a. Female hypoactive desire and premature ejaculation
b. Situational anorgasmia and male hypoactive sexual desire
c. Female arousal disorder and premature ejaculation
d. Dyspareunia and erectile disorder

D

76. A sexual relationship between a therapist and his or her client
a. is sometimes therapeutic.
b. has been admitted by 1 or 2% of therapists.
c. is considered acceptable by some counseling professional associations.
d. may likely result in negative effects, e.g., anxiety and depression, for the client.

D

77. Which one is NOT true about sex therapists?
a. Sex therapists should have at least a master’s degree.
b. Good sex therapists will help you improve the marital communication and satisfaction.
c. Sex therapists should ideally be of the opposite sex.
d. Sex therapists should have participated in sex therapy training, supervision, and workshops.

C

78. For women who are learning to become orgasmic for the first time,
a. vibrators are sometimes recommended because they can then be incorporated into sexual sharing with a partner.
b. vibrators are sometimes recommended so a woman knows she can have this response, but then manual stimulation is recommended.
c. vibrators are not recommended because the stimulation they provide is unable to be replicated by self or partner.
d. vibrators are not recommended because they can cause nerve damage in the genital area.

B

79. The EROS Clitoral Therapy Device is designed to
a. work as a vibrator for vaginal insertion.
b. increase blood flow to the clitoris.
c. increase blood flow to the mons and labia.
d. protect the clitoris from direct stimulation.

B

80. A ____ can help anorgasmic women experience sexual climax for the first time.
a. ribbed dildo
b. kitten mitten
c. vibrator
d. cock ring

C

81. All of the following are suggested as ways to increase the possibility of orgasm during intercourse for a woman EXCEPT
a. direct manual stimulation of the clitoris during intercourse.
b. the man-above intercourse position.
c. female-initiated movements.
d. use of a vibrator.

B

82. Which of the following is NOT true about stimulation of the clitoris?
a. This can be done manually by the female
b. This can be done manually by the male.
c. This may be done by using a vibrator.
d. One goal of therapy is to eliminate the need to do this.

D

83. Dilators of graduated sizes are used to treat
a. erectile inhibition.
b. anorgasmia.
c. premature ejaculation.
d. vaginismus.

D

84. Which of the following would NOT be included in a treatment program for vaginismus?
a. Contraceptive creams
b. Relaxation exercises
c. Manual stimulation
d. Insertion of fingers or dilators

A

85. Hypoactive sexual desire
a. can often be treated through therapy that is less intensive than that used for other problems.
b. can be a symptom of unresolved relationship problems.
c. is straightforward to treat.
d. is most often caused by hormonal imbalances.

B

86. Which of the following hormone supplements would MOST likely be used to treat sexual dysfunction?
a. Oxytocin and estrogen
b. Oxytocin and testosterone
c. Steroids and estrogen
d. Estrogen and testosterone

D

87. Which of the following would be the BEST source to find a therapist to help with sexual problems?
a. The NSVRC
b. The American Pharmacists Association
c. The American Association of Sex Educators, Therapists, and Counselors
d. Sex Addicts Anonymous

C

88. Which of the following is NOT true about sex therapy?
a. A first session usually identifies the problem and sets goals.
b. Sex therapy is usually done several times a week.
c. Therapy clients will usually be given homework assignments to do between sessions.
d. A medical history will usually be taken.

B

89. All of the following may happen in sex therapy EXCEPT for
a. identifying the client’s goals for the therapy.
b. screening for major psychological problems.
c. sexual relations with the therapist.
d. gathering extensive sexual, personal, and relationship histories.

C

90. All of the following techniques may delay ejaculation EXCEPT
a. having more frequent orgasms.
b. continuing sexual activity after a first ejaculation.
c. using energetic pelvic movements.
d. using the woman-above position during intercourse.

C

91. Which of the following INCREASES the possibility of premature ejaculation?
a. Ejaculating more frequently
b. Using the man-above intercourse position
c. Starting and stopping stimulation
d. Communicating during coitus

B

92. Which of the following statements regarding the stop-start technique is FALSE?
a. A man can benefit from using this technique on himself during masturbation.
b. A man can benefit from using this technique with his partner.
c. A urologist developed this technique.
d. Masters and Johnson reported only a 60% success rate in treating this problem.

D

93. The stop-start technique involves
a. communicating the level of stimulation one is experiencing to the partner.
b. applying the technique using oral or manual stimulation first.
c. stopping stimulation until pre-ejaculatory sensations are reduced.
d. All of the above

D

94. It appears that small doses of medication used to treat ____ may also help men who wish to delay ejaculation.
a. depression
b. hypogonadism
c. anxiety
d. Peyronie’s disease

A

95. A treatment program to deal with erectile dysfunction would MOST often include
a. sensate focus exercises.
b. viewing erotic films.
c. using manual or genital stimulation to first cause an erection, then beginning penetration immediately to prevent loss of the erection.
d. using the EROS treatment device to produce an erection.

A

96. Which of the following statements is TRUE about Viagra and other related medications for the treatment of erectile dysfunction?
a. In a troubled relationship, the use of such a medication can clarify for the couple that they have other relationship problems, which may lead the couple to work toward resolving them.
b. These medications promote blood flow to the penis.
c. Flushing and headaches are common side effects of these medications.
d. All of the above

D

97. Jack is having problems maintaining an erection, and it has been determined that there is no physiological basis for this problem. His partner may be most helpful to him if he/she
a. persuades him to have intercourse with him/her as soon as he begins to have an erection.
b. is able to increase his blood pressure and thus the vascular flow to his penis.
c. can help reduce his anxiety over sexual performance.
d. shares with him specific ways in which he can stimulate him/her and bring him/her to an orgasm.

C

98. Which one is NOT true of Viagra and other medications used to treat erectile dysfunction?
a. Viagra has emerged among college students and others as a party drug for recreational and casual sex.
b. Many studies have shown significant improvement in the partner’s feelings of sexual desirability and satisfaction as well as her own sexual functioning when the man uses erection-enhancing medications.
c. Viagra has greatly increased general conversation and awareness about erectile problems.
d. Viagra was originally developed for diabetes.

D

99. What is the BEST treatment approach for reducing male orgasmic disorder?
a. Asking the couple to express affection at times other than intercourse
b. Using antidepressants to increase orgasmic response
c. Using anti-anxiety agents to promote relaxation
d. Using behavioral therapy and psychotherapy to resolve personal or couple issues

D

100. Which of the following is a recommended sequence of events in treating male orgasmic disorder?
a. Sensate focus; self-stimulation with partner present; squeeze technique; ejaculation during penetration
b. Sensate focus; self-stimulation with partner present; manual or oral stimulation by partner to orgasm; ejaculation during penetration
c. Papaverine injections; sensate focus; stop-start techniques; ejaculation during penetration
d. Sensate focus; self-stimulation with partner absent; stop-start technique; ejaculation during penetration

B

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a contributing factor to the increase in the number of single adults?

a. A greater emphasis on advanced education
b. An increase in the number of women who no longer depend on marriage for economic stability
c. An increase in the number of people choosing to not marry at all
d. An increase in the practice of serial monogamy

D

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a contributing factor to the increase in the number of single adults?

a. The tendency of more women to place career goals ahead of marriage
b. The rising divorce rates
c. An increase in number of people who live together outside of marriage
d. An increase in the influence of religion

D

Which of the following is the BEST example of serial monogamy?

a. A married person who has a succession of extramarital affairs, but is never involved in more than one affair at a time
b. A married person who has concurrent extramarital affairs
c. A single person who has a succession of sexually exclusive relationships
d. A single person who has concurrent sexual relationships with a number of different partners

C

Jen has had three boyfriends over the last five years. She has been sexually active with each of them, but never had sex outside of the relationship while she was with a boyfriend. Jen is practicing

a. polyamory.
b. polyandry.
c. serial monogamy.
d. serial polygyny.

C

Single adults comprise ____% of the population in the United States.

a. 15
b. 25
c. 45
d. 60

C

The median age at first marriage in the United States (as of 2010) is ____ for men and ____ for women.

a. 23; 21
b. 28; 26
c. 32; 30
d. 25; 22

B

A research study found that most women and men had

a. more positive than negative emotional reactions to their FWB relationships, although women were even more positive about FWB relationships than men were
b. more negative than positive emotional reactions to their FWB relationships, although women were even more negative about FWB relationships than men were.
c. more positive than negative emotional reactions to their FWB relationships, although men were even more positive about FWB relationships than women were.
d. more negative than positive emotional reactions to their FWB relationships, although men were even more negative about FWB relationships than women were.

C

The largest demographic group using dating sites consists of

a. higher-income, college-educated individuals.
b. lower-income, college-educated individuals.
c. higher-income, high school-educated individuals.
d. lower-income, high school-educated individuals.

A

The fastest-growing segment of Internet dating traffic is the

a. 18-and-younger population.
b. 30-and-younger population.
c. 50-and-older population.
d. 40-and-older population.

C

Neil Warren, founder of the site eHarmony, claims to be responsible for ____% of marriages in the United States.

a. 2
b. 5
c. 9
d. 15

B

Which one is NOT true of cohabitation?

a. The most common reasons people give for deciding to cohabit are to spend more time together, for convenience, to evaluate compatibility, and to share expenses.
b. Men and women with low incomes have the greatest percentages of increases in cohabitation.
c. Census figures reveal that by 2010, about 7.5 million unmarried heterosexual couples were living together in the United States.
d. Many cohabiting couples are simply waiting to marry until after they have a child.

D

In which country do the 30% of couples who share a household and are not married have all the rights and obligations of married couples?

a. Sweden
b. Japan
c. Italy
d. France

A

The year ____ was the first time in the United States that married couples represented a minority of all American households.

a. 2000
b. 2003
c. 2007
d. 2010

D

Domestic partnership laws apply to

a. couples who have been married for less than one year.
b. couples who are committed to each other but live separately.
c. homosexual or heterosexual couples who live together in a committed relationship.
d. only heterosexual couples who live together in a committed relationship.

C

Current social attitudes toward cohabitation can BEST be described as

a. tolerant.
b. negative.
c. increasingly accepting.
d. indifferent.

C

Which of the following would NOT be considered an appropriate reason for living together?
a. A sense of being together simply because a couple wants to be together
b. A feeling of less pressure to take on roles of wife or husband
c. The stigma of failure is less severe than that of divorce if the relationship ends
d. A dissatisfaction with prior sexual relations.

D

17. Laurie and Andy live together as lovers in a committed relationship but are not married. This type of relationship is referred to as
a. a domestic partnership.
b. friends with benefits.
c. an open marriage.
d. polyandry.

A

18. Statistically, where would one find some of the highest rates of divorce in the United States?
a. In the most politically liberal regions
b. In the Pacific Northwest
c. In the most politically conservative regions
d. In the state of California

C

19. In contemporary India, ____% of marriages are arranged.
a. 40
b. 60
c. 90
d. 100

C

20. The religion of Islam allows a man to have up to
a. three wives.
b. four wives.
c. five wives.
d. six wives.

B

21. Which country offers payment of $9,200, longer paid maternity leave, and financial assistance for childcare to encourage couples to have a second child?
a. Japan
b. France
c. China
d. Russia

D

22. Complications from pregnancy are the leading cause of death for young women between ages 15 and 19 in
a. Nepal.
b. Ethiopia.
c. Yemen.
d. Niger.

C

23. Interracial marriage was banned in more than a dozen states as recently as
a. 1947.
b. 1957.
c. 1967.
d. 1977.

C

24. One of the few studies on relationship quality in interracial couples found that interracial and same-race couples were
a. different in conflict and attachment style but experienced the same relationship satisfaction.
b. different in conflict and attachment style; however, interracial couples reported significantly higher relationship satisfaction than same-race couples.
c. similar in conflict and attachment style; however, interracial couples reported significantly lower relationship satisfaction than same-race couples.
d. similar in conflict and attachment style; however, interracial couples reported significantly higher relationship satisfaction than same-race couples.

D

25. Sex between members of different races, whether or not the people involved were married, is known as
a. infidelity.
b. miscegenation.
c. hotwifing.
d. monogamish.

B

26. Around the world, about 60 million girls under age 18 are married. According to your text, what is the youngest age of some of these girls?
a. Five
b. Eight
c. Eleven
d. Fourteen

B

27. The governments and people of India and China are most worried about
a. the millions of men who by 2020 will be without women to marry as a result of the imbalanced ratio of boys to girls.
b. high bride prices.
c. the 33% of single men between ages 30 and 35 who still live at home.
d. the 50% of women between ages 25 and 29 who are single.

A

28. We can assume that the authors believe that a good marriage
a. will have great sex.
b. will be largely problem free.
c. will occur in about one out of five marriages.
d. means a commitment to working on problems.

D

29. When collectivist cultures become more individualist, people are less likely to remain in marriages, as we see in
a. China.
b. the U.S.
c. Brazil.
d. Australia.

A

30. When Gottman’s team videotaped married couples resolving conflict, they identified all of the following patterns as predictors of marital dissatisfaction and separation EXCEPT
a. facial expressions of disgust or fear.
b. defensiveness.
c. verbal expressions of anger.
d. verbal expressions of contempt.

C

31. Gottman and his researchers were able to predict marital discord in about ____% of the cases that they’ve studied.
a. 50
b. 60
c. 90
d. 98

C

32. Gottman’s research team has found that lasting and happy marriages are characterized by a ____ to ____ ratio of positive to negative emotional interactions.
a. two; one
b. three; one
c. four; one
d. five; one

D

33. Which of the following is the BEST predictor of marital satisfaction?
a. Moments of support, kindness, passion, and mutual pleasure that far outweigh moments of disgust, criticism, defensiveness, and anger
b. Having a validating relationship style
c. Sharing similar goals and interests
d. Sharing compatible views on finances and money management

A

34. Which of the following couples would be MOST likely to maintain a happy, stable relationship?
a. One that shares a validating relationship style
b. One that demonstrates a 7:1 ratio of positive to negative interactions in the relationship
c. One where the husband listens to his wife’s requests and concerns and accepts her influence, and she initiates discussions with him in a diplomatic manner
d. One that shares similar short-term and long-term goals and "chooses their battles" by agreeing to avoid conflict in most instances

C

35. Couples who report having a good marriage believe that their marriages ____ them as individuals.
a. solidify
b. enhance
c. stabilize
d. reclaim

B

36. As compared with Kinsey’s research, contemporary American married men and women appear to be
a. engaging in intercourse with about the same frequency.
b. experiencing a wider repertoire of sexual behavior.
c. experiencing a decrease in the duration of precoital activity.
d. experiencing an increase in fellatio and a decrease in cunnilingus.

B

37. How does being raised in a collectivist culture affect attitudes about marriage?
a. In collectivist cultures, marriage serves the purpose of uniting families.
b. In collectivist cultures, intense love between two people may actually be seen as a threat to the family.
c. As collectivist cultures become more individualistic, marriage becomes less stable.
d. All of the above

D

38. Marriage has served all of the following functions EXCEPT
a. defining inheritance rights.
b. providing a structured economic partnership.
c. regulating sexual behavior to some degree.
d. providing a secure place to ensure happiness.

D

39. Which of the following is NOT true of individualistic cultures regarding marriage?
a. People in individualistic cultures place a lot of emphasis on love as a reason for marriage.
b. Divorce rates are lower in individualistic cultures than in collectivist cultures.
c. Individual goals and desires may take precedence over family.
d. Arranged marriage is not typically seen in individualistic cultures.

B

40. Traditionally, the most primary function of marriage has been to
a. reproduce until there are enough children to take care of the parents.
b. provide emotional security for women.
c. provide a stable economic unit in which to raise children.
d. provide emotional security for men.

C

41. Which of the following couples is most likely to have married for rational, practical reasons rather than for love?
a. John and Susan, who were born and raised in the United States
b. Maria and Juan, who were born in Western Europe
c. Vindhi and Thomas, who were born and raised in India
d. Clyve and Theodora, who were born and raised in British Columbia

C

42. When observing concerns about marriage around the globe, which statement is FALSE?
a. The UN is campaigning in the Middle East to prevent girls 13 and younger from being married.
b. Leaders in the United Arab Emirates want families to lower the prices of brides.
c. Marriage tends to be stable and of little concern in most industrialized countries.
d. Polyandry is becoming a more common practice in Middle Eastern cultures.

C

43. Which of the following is NOT a culture that has practiced polygamy?
a. Mormons
b. Catholics
c. Swaziland
d. The Middle East

B

44. ____ is the practice of having multiple wives; ____ is the practice of having multiple husbands.
a. Polygamy; polyandry
b. Polyandry; polygamy
c. Serial monogamy; serial androgyny
d. Polygamy; androgyny

A

45. All of the following are traditional elements of MOST Western marriages EXCEPT
a. polyandry.
b. heterosexuality.
c. legality.
d. sexual exclusivity.

A

46. What best defines a matriarchal society?
a. Women are allowed to have multiple husbands.
b. Several men are allowed to share a single bride.
c. Women tend not to marry.
d. Women carry the family name.

D

47. People’s expectations for marriage have ____, and our supportive network for marriage has ____.
a. declined; expanded
b. expanded; declined
c. shrunk; decreased
d. expanded; increased

B

48. According to your text, the main reason MOST people in the United States marry is
a. to regulate sexual behavior.
b. to have children.
c. to have someone to take care of them in old age.
d. to have mutual happiness and fulfillment.

D

49. Which of the following behaviors have NOT increased in married couples?
a. Oral stimulation of the breasts
b. More focus on foreplay
c. Oral sex in general
d. Anal intercourse

D

50. Sharon is married and has promised fidelity to her husband, but engages in a one-night stand. Sharon has experienced all of the following EXCEPT
a. an extramarital relationship.
b. nonconsensual extramarital sex.
c. adultery.
d. an open marriage.

D

51. Polyamory
a. is the same as polyandry.
b. is a form of nonconsensual extramarital sex.
c. emphasizes honest, ethical relationships that consist of trios, groups of couples, and intentionally created families.
d. was popularized through the work of Masters and Johnson.

C

52. Participants in an open marriage
a. encourage each other to have close, meaningful relationships with others.
b. discourage each other from having emotional relationships outside the marriage but encourage sexual encounters.
c. often evolve into "swingers."
d. are committing a felony in most states.

A

53. What effect has the Internet had on extramarital relationships?
a. None, because people cannot engage in an affair unless they actually meet in person.
b. While the Internet makes it easy to find people for extramarital relationships, it also makes it easy for the spouse to find out about them.
c. The sexual release that is available on the Internet has actually decreased the number of extramarital affairs.
d. The Internet is responsible for most extramarital affairs in the 21st century.

B

54. Sexual interaction outside of a couple relationship, whether the couple is married or just living together, is known as
a. monogamy.
b. nonmonogamy.
c. bigamy.
d. polyamory.

B

55. In 2005, the ____ government recognized a three-person cohabitation contract between a married couple and another individual, who formed the first government-recognized polyamorous union.
a. Swiss
b. Norwegian
c. French
d. Dutch

D

56. What has become the term that many people use to describe multiple consensual relationships?
a. Monogamy
b. Nonmonogamy
c. Bigotry
d. Polyamory

D

57. Terms such as cheating, adultery, infidelity, having an affair, and fooling around are used to describe
a. swinging.
b. monogamy.
c. polyamorous relationships.
d. nonconsensual extramarital sex.

D

58. All of the following were cited by the authors as reasons for engaging in nonconsensual extramarital sex EXCEPT
a. the desire to expand emotionally or sexually.
b. the unavailability of sex within the marriage.
c. a way to end a marriage that is no longer satisfying.
d. a manifestation of sexual addiction.

D

59. Research shows that people raised by divorced parents have MORE
a. negative attitudes about marriage but are themselves less likely to divorce than are people raised by parents who remained married.
b. positive attitudes about marriage and are themselves less likely to divorce than are people raised by parents who remained married.
c. negative attitudes about marriage and are themselves more likely to divorce than are people raised by parents who remained married.
d. positive attitudes about marriage but are themselves more likely to divorce than are people raised by parents who remained married.

C

60. Tenderness has been rated as
a. not important to either men or women.
b. equally important to men and women.
c. more important to women than to men.
d. more important to men than to women.

D

61. The nation’s first full-time senior center for sexual minorities was opened in
a. Chicago.
b. Louisville.
c. San Francisco.
d. New York City.

D

62. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to increase the likelihood of extramarital sex?
a. Being at the age of a midlife crisis
b. Out of town travel
c. Higher interest in sex
d. Permissive sexual attitudes

A

63. Javier and Helena go to parties with other married couples and have sexual interactions with other married couples’ partners. Javier and Helena are best described as
a. swingers.
b. polygamists.
c. adulterers.
d. polyamorists.

A

64. Which of the following statements regarding extramarital affairs is MOST accurate?
a. Extramarital affairs are the major cause of divorce.
b. Extramarital affairs are most always symptoms of a troubled marital relationship.
c. Monogamous couples have similar divorce rates as compared to couples in which one or both partners have participated in extramarital affairs.
d. Involvement in an extramarital affair can have serious consequences for the participants, including loss of self-respect, severe guilt, and stress associated with leading a secret life.

D

65. Which of the following statements regarding extramarital affairs is FALSE?
a. Research indicates that monogamous couples had higher divorce rates than couples in which one or both partners had participated in extramarital affairs.
b. Extramarital affairs may have serious consequences for both the participant and his or her spouse.
c. Extramarital affairs may be a symptom of a disintegrating marriage.
d. Extramarital affairs may cause marital breakups.

A

66. Which of the following is an example of a consensual extramarital relationship?
a. Swinging
b. Infidelity
c. Adultery
d. Extramarital affair

A

67. Most societies have restrictive norms pertaining to extramarital sex. Which of the following is the MOST accurate example of such norms?
a. Women in Pakistan who were convicted of adultery being sentenced to death
b. Men in Canada being allowed to commit adultery only with Canadian women
c. American women being convicted of adultery unless in the process of divorce
d. American men being allowed to commit adultery as long as children are not involved

A

68. Of those described below, who is statistically MOST likely to divorce?
a. Rick, who gets married at age 32
b. Kristina, who gets married at age 19
c. Thich, who has a bachelor’s degree
d. Letitica, who has a bachelor’s degree

B

69. All of the following are given as reasons for the high divorce rate in the United States EXCEPT the
a. decreasing expectations for marriage to provide sexual and emotional fulfillment.
b. reduction in the social stigma attached to divorce.
c. increased economic independence of women.
d. liberalization of divorce laws.

A

70. Which of the following individuals would be LEAST likely to get a divorce?
a. A woman who marries at age 18
b. A man who marries at age 24
c. A woman who marries at age 26
d. A man who marries at age 32

D

71. Which of the following BEST summarizes men’s and women’s perceptions regarding the cause of their divorces?
a. Men are more likely to report that their wife’s problematic behavior led to the divorce; women are more likely to say they don’t know what led to the divorce.
b. Men are more likely to blame money problems; women are more likely to blame it on communication difficulties.
c. Women are more likely to report that their husband’s problematic behavior led to the divorce; men are more likely to say they don’t know what led to the divorce.
d. Women and men are both likely to blame it on sexual incompatibility.

C

72. Which of the following individuals would be MOST likely to get a divorce?
a. A woman with a baccalaureate degree who marries at age 25
b. A man with a baccalaureate degree who marries at age 25
c. A woman with a doctoral degree who marries at age 35
d. A man with a doctoral degree who marries at age 35

C

73. People of high socioeconomic status are MORE likely to attribute divorce to
a. financial difficulties.
b. lack of love and communication.
c. irreconcilable differences.
d. infidelity.

B

74. Many people compare the emotions they feel after a divorce to
a. the death of a spouse.
b. winning the lottery.
c. losing a job.
d. apathy and indifference.

A

75. Despite the feelings of divorce being uncomfortable and painful, many people experience
a. a feeling of autonomy.
b. an interest in new sexual orientations.
c. a renewed interest in religion.
d. strengthened ties with their in-laws.

A

76. After a divorce, when do the majority of people feel a sense of relief and acceptance?
a. By one year after the divorce
b. By two years after the divorce
c. By three years after the divorce
d. By four years after the divorce

A

77. All of the following are common reactions experienced by people adjusting to divorce EXCEPT
a. a sense of acceptance.
b. shock.
c. loneliness.
d. unwavering interest in establishing sexual relationships.

D

78. With regard to divorce statistics, which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. The fact that about half of all marriages will end in divorce is a sign of the societal rejection of the institution of marriage.
b. A significant percentage of divorces involve people who have been married and divorced more than once.
c. The proportion of marriages ending in divorce has increased dramatically since the 1950s.
d. Recent statistics reveal that the divorce rate has leveled off and is even declining slightly.

A

79. As the generation that reached adulthood during the ____ moves into senior citizenship, the notion of sexless old age is likely to decline.
a. 1950s
b. sexual revolution
c. stonewall riots
d. 1990s

B

80. Aging in our society is often associated with sexlessness for many reasons. Which of the following is NOT one of these reasons?
a. Many people still equate sex with procreation.
b. There is a disproportionate focus on youth in this culture.
c. There is an unspoken attitude that it is not acceptable for older people to have sexual needs.
d. The majority of older people no longer want or enjoy sexual contact.

D

81. The media usually links the young with all of the following EXCEPT
a. love.
b. sex.
c. romance.
d. commitment

D

82. Which of the following pairings BEST reflects the double standard of aging?
a. A powerful male and female of the same age
b. A powerful older female with a younger male
c. A powerful older male with a younger female
d. An attractive younger male with an unattractive older female

C

83. As a man ages, his achievements and social status are often seen as
a. threats to younger females.
b. threats to older females.
c. associated with his sexual appeal.
d. indications of the impending loss of virility.

C

84. According to your text, which of the following is a recent trend regarding older women?
a. One-third of women over age 40 are dating younger men.
b. More men are choosing to marry older women than in the past.
c. Older women are choosing to appear less often in advertising to avoid stigmatization.
d. More men are more actively recruiting older women to executive positions and to join the "club."

A

85. Susan Sontag’s advice to women as they grow older is
a. to exercise regularly and eat well.
b. to age naturally without embarrassment.
c. to seek plastic surgery in order to maintain a youthful appearance.
d. to cultivate their youthfulness for as long as possible.

B

86. A national survey of men and women age 60 and older defined "sexually active" as performing ____ at least once per month.
a. vaginal intercourse
b. oral sex
c. anal intercourse
d. any of the above

D

87. Which of the following statements regarding sexuality and aging is FALSE?
a. Poor health and illness have a greater effect on sexual functioning than does age itself.
b. Sexual activity of older adults is, unfortunately, evidenced by the rising incidence of HIV/AIDS in this group.
c. The older generation rarely uses vibrators or sexually explicit materials.
d. For older adults, genital contact may become less frequent, but non-intercourse activities remain stable or increase.

C

88. All of the following are discussed as factors influencing sexual activity in later years EXCEPT
a. physical health.
b. religious background.
c. regularity of sexual expression.
d. sexual activity levels in early adulthood.

B

89. Frequency of sexual activity for those who continue to be sexually active does NOT decrease significantly until after age
a. 90
b. 74
c. 62
d. 50

B

90. A nationally representative survey of men and women age 60 and older found that about ____ are sexually active.
a. one-fifth
b. one-third
c. one-fourth
d. half

D

91. Which of the following statements regarding homosexual relationships in later life is FALSE?
a. Challenges and rewards of aging are experienced only by heterosexual adults.
b. Older gays and lesbians match or exceed comparable groups in life satisfaction.
c. Frequency of sexual activity in gay men remains quite stable.
d. Socializing and partnering with same-age peers is an important aspect for older gay men.

A

92. Older lesbians may have all of the following advantages over older heterosexual women EXCEPT
a. a lesbian woman is less likely to be left alone because statistically her partner is not likely to die at a younger age.
b. if a lesbian woman is left alone, she will have more potentially available partners.
c. lesbian women are less likely to be affected by the physiological aspects of aging.
d. the double standard is not an issue for lesbian women, as most older lesbians prefer partners of similar ages.

C

93. People who continue to grow in age can develop a wholeness of self. To do so requires couples to do all of the following EXCEPT
a. convey yourself to each other.
b. see inside each other during sex.
c. face oneself.
d. give up one’s own desires.

D

94. The majority of older gay men
a. are sexually active with younger men.
b. indicate that they experience more sexual variety than ever before.
c. indicate that their current sex lives are satisfying.
d. report that sex is more frequent than when they were younger.

C

95. Which of the following statements regarding sexuality and aging is FALSE?
a. It is extremely rare for new sexual relationships to begin in later adulthood, i.e., over 65.
b. It is possible that homosexuals may be better able to deal with losses with aging because of the adversity that they have already experienced.
c. It is useful for older adults to redefine their affectionate relationships.
d. Sex therapy may be useful even for older individuals and couples.

A

96. Adult eroticism can be described BEST as
a. one of low expectations.
b. an exercise in futility.
c. physiological responsiveness.
d. a function of emotional maturation.

D

97. Which of the following are characteristics of widowhood?
a. Intense grief
b. A feeling that potential relationships will be less intense
c. A lack of the sense of failure in the marriage
d. All of the above

D

98. The ratio of widows to widowers
a. has increased.
b. has decreased.
c. has stayed the same.
d. increased until 1985 and then reached a plateau.

A

99. Which of the following statements regarding postmarital adjustment to widowhood is FALSE?
a. Widowed people do not usually feel that they have failed at marriage in the way that many divorced people do.
b. Widowed people may experience more intense grief than divorced people.
c. More divorced women than widows remarry.
d. Over half of widowed men and women remarry.

D

100. In MOST heterosexual couples,
a. the man dies first.
b. the woman dies first.
c. both the woman and the man die within a year of each other.
d. there is no pattern regarding death of a partner.

A

Some studies show that marriages without children
a. are not as fulfilling and satisfying as marriages with children.
b. are more stressful than marriages with children.
c. are happier and more satisfying than marriages with children.
d. tend to last longer than marriages with children.

c

Which of the following might be considered a disadvantage of having children?
a. Children only receive love; they do not give it.
b. Children increase the stress in a marriage.
c. The challenges of raising children can destroy self-esteem.
d. Having children typically gives life less meaning.

b

Which of the following is FALSE with respect to remaining childless?
a. In general, childless marriages are less stressful.
b. Childless marriages leaves more time for intimacy in an adult relationship.
c. Childless marriages often leaves more opportunity for fulfillment in a professional life.
d. Ending a childless marriage by having a baby can often help a troubled relationship.

d

According to research, what is a major source of disenchantment for many couples with children?
a. Disagreement on how much each parent spends with the children
b. Conflict about who does what for the children
c. Disagreement on how much time is spend with each individual child
d. Conflict on who gets to do the "fun" stuff with the children

b

Which of the following is FALSE with regard to laboratory techniques that separate X- from Y-bearing sperm?
a. This is now in widespread clinical usage.
b. This requires artificial insemination.
c. This is of benefit to couples with X-linked disease risks.
d. Success rates are better for male babies than female babies.

d

At what age does a woman’s fertility typically peak?
a. 17 – 18 years
b. 20 – 24 years
c. 25 – 30 years
d. After the age of 30

b

Matt and Sandra want very much to have a baby. To maximize the possibility of pregnancy, they should have intercourse
a. frequently for five days following ovulation.
b. frequently within the six-day period ending on the day of ovulation.
c. once a day for several days beginning the third day of the menstrual cycle.
d. at least seven days a month in the morning.

b

All of the following affects male fertility EXCEPT
a. smoking.
b. low percentage of body fat.
c. alcohol abuse.
d. environmental toxins.

b

Which of the following is NOT a cause of low sperm count and motility?
a. Childhood measles
b. A varicocele
c. Smoking
d. Marijuana use

a

Sixty percent of couples that attempt to become pregnant succeed within ____. If attempts are unsuccessful after ____, a couple should consult with a physician.
a. three months; six months
b. six months; a year
c. nine months; a year
d. one year; three years

a

Which of the following statements regarding infertility is FALSE?
a. Infertility is a result of male factors, female factors, or a combination of both.
b. Once a couple is able to conceive a child the first time, it is highly unlikely they will have fertility problems the second time.
c. Infertility can have a demoralizing effect on the infertile individual’s sense of self and on the couple’s sense of their integrity as a healthy unit.
d. Despite medical and scientific advances, the causes of infertility may be difficult to determine.

b

Approximately ____% of infertility cases involve male factors.
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 60

c

Which of the following would be LEAST likely to cause female fertility problems?
a. Being underweight
b. Smoking cigarettes
c. Severe vitamin deficiencies
d. Being overweight

d

Most causes of male infertility are related to abnormalities in sperm ____ and shape.
a. temperature
b. motility
c. absorbency
d. viscosity

b

____% of men and ____% of women report that fertility problems actually helped their marriage. This is highly dependent on ____ within the relationship.
a. Twenty; 25; communication
b. Ten; 15; the frequency of sex
c. Twenty; 25; the frequency of sex
d. Fifteen; 30; communication

a

With in vitro fertilization (IVF),
a. semen is mechanically introduced into a woman’s vagina.
b. a woman’s eggs are removed and fertilized in the laboratory by her partner’s sperm and then introduced into her uterus.
c. semen is introduced into a woman’s fallopian tube.
d. the sperm and ova are placed directly into the fallopian tube.

b

A method called ____ attempts to facilitate implantation by transferring fertilized ova to a fallopian tube.
a. ZIFT (zygote intrafallopian transfer)
b. IVF (in vitro fertilization)
c. artificial insemination
d. GIFT (gamete intrafallopian transfer)

a

The procedure called ZIFT involves
a. fertilizing an ovum in vitro and then placing the zygote in a woman’s fallopian tube.
b. stimulating the ovaries with fertility drugs to provide multiple mature ova.
c. injecting a sperm into an egg.
d. placing donated sperm and ova into the fallopian tube.

a

Assisted reproductive techniques are
a. inexpensive.
b. low-risk procedures as far as the mother is concerned.
c. expensive with varying success rates.
d. increasingly less expensive with each subsequent attempt.

c

Which of the following does NOT present an ethical dilemma arising from the use of ART?
a. Some techniques result in extra embryos.
b. Women are now able to bear children in their 50s and 60s.
c. More couples are now able to bear their own biological children.
d. Multiple births are increasingly possible.

c

When the quality or quantity of semen is poor, ____ might be a good alternate to conventional conception.
a. IVF
b. GIFT
c. ICSI
d. ZIFT

c

Johnna and Jonathan have decided to try ICSI as a method of becoming pregnant. This means that
a. one of Jonathan’s sperm cells will be injected into a harvested egg from Johnna.
b. they will hire a surrogate mother certified by ICSI.
c. they will make sure to have intercourse at the time of ovulation.
d. a sperm and an egg will be implanted directly into Johnna’s fallopian tube.

a

Semen from a woman’s partner is mechanically introduced into her vagina, cervix, or uterus in order to facilitate conception. This procedure is called
a. IVF (in vitro fertilization).
b. GIFT (gamete intrafallopian transfer).
c. ZIFT (zygote intrafallopian transfer).
d. artificial insemination.

d

Sensitive blood tests for HCG can detect pregnancy as early as ____ after conception.
a. 24 hours
b. two days
c. one week
d. three weeks

c

All of the following may indicate a woman is pregnant EXCEPT
a. breast tenderness.
b. nausea and vomiting.
c. human chorionic gonadotropin in blood test.
d. the presence of HGH in a blood test.

d

The first indication of pregnancy is usually
a. the absence of the menstrual period.
b. nausea.
c. breast tenderness.
d. increased sexual desire.

a

Some tests for pregnancy are based on the fact that the blood and urine of a pregnant woman contain
a. trophoblast hormone.
b. human chorionic gonadotropin.
c. follicle-stimulating hormone.
d. prostaglandins.

b

Currently, home pregnancy tests can detect pregnancy through either ____ or ____.
a. blood; urine
b. urine; saliva
c. saliva; skin cells
d. skin cells; blood

b

The MOST recent technique for sex preselection is based on
a. a laboratory procedure that separates X- from Y-bearing sperm.
b. using an alkaline douche to conceive a boy and an acidic douche to conceive a girl.
c. preimplantation genetic diagnosis.
d. altering hormone ratios prior to attempts at conception.

c

A family in which of the following countries would be MORE likely to selectively abort a female fetus?
a. Western European countries
b. Eastern European countries
c. China, India, and South Korea
d. Iraq, Iran, and Afghanistan

c

Which of the following statements regarding miscarriage is FALSE?
a. Many occur before the woman finds out that she is pregnant.
b. Later miscarriages might involve uncomfortable cramping and heavy bleeding.
c. Early miscarriages may appear as a heavier than usual menstrual flow.
d. A miscarriage is usually indicative of unsuccessful future pregnancies.

d

Which of the following is known as a possible cause of miscarriage?
a. Overactive thyroid gland
b. Rejection of abnormal fetus
c. Maternal age greater than 30 years
d. More than two alcoholic drinks per week

b

Which one is NOT true with respect to miscarriage?
a. The best way to cope with an early miscarriage is to become pregnant again right away.
b. Emotional shock is one possible factor that can cause a miscarriage.
c. An underactive thyroid gland has been suspected of causing miscarriages.
d. Some parents have found it helpful to have a memorial service following a miscarriage.

a

What role might the male partner play in deciding whether or not to seek an elective abortion?
a. He has a legal right to demand an abortion.
b. He has a legal right to demand that the woman carry the child to term.
c. While he has no legal right to demand or deny an abortion, talking with him may help to clarify the situation for the woman.
d. He has no place at all in determining whether or not to seek an abortion.

c

According to research findings, which of the following does NOT increase the likelihood of taking contraceptive risks?
a. Feeling comfortable about having sex as opposed to guilty
b. Using drugs and alcohol
c. A history of abuse
d. The fear of alienating partner by asking for his cooperation in using birth control

a

Which of the following are cited in your text as reasons for choosing abortion?
a. Women who already have one or more children cite their desire to be a good parent and the difficulties in meeting their current responsibilities as a mother.
b. Women without children often say they are unprepared for motherhood.
c. The family is not financially able to support the child.
d. All of the above

d

With respect to the extent of involvement in his partner’s abortion, the male partner:
a. has a legal right to demand an abortion.
b. has a legal right to deny an abortion.
c. can help pay medical expenses as a way to support his partner.
d. rarely experiences much emotional distress.

c

All of the following are ways in which a man might share in his partner’s decision to have an abortion EXCEPT for
a. helping her clarify her feelings about the procedure.
b. sharing the medical expenses.
c. accompanying her to the clinic.
d. refraining from having intercourse with her.

d

____ % of abortions occur after 21 weeks.
a. Approximately 1
b. Greater than 5
c. Nine
d. About 15

a

A medical abortion is 99% effective in ending pregnancies of
a. less than seven weeks.
b. less than eighth weeks.
c. less than nine weeks.
d. less than ten weeks.

a

A medical abortion is 91% effective in the ____ of pregnancy.
a. seventh week
b. eighth week
c. seventh to thirteenth week
d. second trimester

b

Lynn misses one menstrual period and three weeks later confirms the fact that she is pregnant. She decides to have an abortion and schedules the procedure to occur in four weeks. The procedure will MOST likely be
a. prostaglandin induction.
b. intact dilation and evacuation.
c. suction curettage.
d. dilation and evacuation.

c

When a fetus dies after 20 weeks of pregnancy, it is sometimes referred to as a
a. elective abortion.
b. stillbirth.
c. miscarriage.
d. spontaneous abortion.

b

The safest and most widely used technique for pregnancy termination between 13 and 21 weeks is
a. suction curettage.
b. dilation and evacuation.
c. prostaglandin induction.
d. intact dilation and evacuation.

b

Viability is a term used to describe
a. the health of the infant in the first six months.
b. the health of the mother postpartum.
c. the ability of the fetus to survive independently of the woman’s body.
d. the integrity of the sperm upon ejaculation.

c

Which of the following is NOT true concerning Supreme Court decisions about abortion?
a. Roe v. Wade occurred in 1973.
b. Roe v. Wade allowed women to decide for themselves if they wish to have an abortion up until the time of quickening.
c. The Supreme Court has ruled that states may require minors to notify parents prior to an abortion.
d. Since the Hyde Amendment, the Supreme Court has made additional rulings that allow states to place restrictions on abortion.

b

The Hyde Amendment
a. restricted the use of federal Medicaid funds for abortion.
b. established that states are required to provide Medicaid funds for abortion.
c. defined viability at six months of pregnancy.
d. gave state legislatures the right to impose limitations on abortions.

a

Which one is NOT true concerning anti-abortion activists?
a. Anti-abortion activists are also called pro-life extremists.
b. Anti-abortion activists have resorted to killing physicians and other associated personnel who provide legal abortions.
c. Anti-abortion activists have decided to work more with changing individual attitudes than changing laws.
d. Anti-abortion activists have been known to block clinic entrances where abortions occur.

c

____ outlined the Catholic Church’s view that the fetus develops a soul 40 days after conception for males and 90 days for females.
a. Pope Pius IX
b. Pope John Paul II
c. Martin Luther
d. St. Thomas Aquinas

d

About ____% of women have mixed feelings about being pregnant.
a. 5
b. 15
c. 30
d. 40

d

In pregnancies with no risk factors, sexual activity and orgasm may continue
a. through the sixth month of pregnancy.
b. through the seventh month of pregnancy.
c. through the eighth month of pregnancy.
d. as desired until labor begins.

d

Most research shows that there is
a. a progressive decline in sexual interest and activity over the nine months of pregnancy.
b. a progressive increase in sexual interest and activity over the nine months of pregnancy.
c. a progressive decline in sexual interest and activity until the third trimester, at which time there is a dramatic increase.
d. little change in sexual interest or activity over the nine months of pregnancy.

a

Cigarette smoking during pregnancy
a. can cause fetal deformities.
b. accelerates fetal growth.
c. increases the probability of sensory and motor defects in infants.
d. is related to low birth weight and breathing irregularities in infants.

d

Which of the following is the MOST accurate statement regarding pregnancy after age 35?
a. Women over 35 demonstrate more anxiety and depression during pregnancy than first-time mothers in their mid-20s.
b. Women over 35 may have higher rates of premature delivery and low birth weight babies than younger women.
c. Women over 35 have an increase risk of perinatal mortality.
d. Women over 35 have no higher risk than younger women of having a child with birth defects due to chromosomal abnormalities.

b

Which one is NOT true with respect to pregnancy after age 35?
a. Almost twice as many women between the ages of 35 and 44 become pregnant now than was the case in 1980.
b. Most physicians find that pregnancy for healthy women after 35 is safe.
c. Fertility levels remain steady as women get older until a year or so before menopause.
d. Fetal defects due to chromosome abnormalities increase with maternal age.

c

A fertilized ovum is called a(n)
a. blastocyst.
b. varicocele.
c. zygote.
d. embryo.

c

By the end of the ____, the internal organs of the fetus begin limited functioning.
a. first trimester
b. second trimester
c. third trimester
d. first month

a

The multicellular descendant of the united sperm and ovum that implants on the wall of the uterus is known as the
a. zygote.
b. blastocyst.
c. fetus.
d. placenta.

b

The sex of the fetus can often be distinguished by the
a. first trimester.
b. second trimester.
c. third trimester.
d. first month.

b

The vernix caseosa
a. is a protective, waxy substance that covers the fetus.
b. implants on the wall of the uterus one week after fertilization.
c. is a reddish uterine discharge that is expelled after childbirth.
d. is a thick, yellowish fluid secreted by the breasts in late pregnancy.

a

All of the following substances pass through the placenta EXCEPT for
a. nutrients.
b. oxygen.
c. waste products.
d. maternal blood.

d

Which of the following blood tests should a woman have before becoming pregnant?
a. HIV
b. Immunity to rubella
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

c

Who was responsible for developing techniques to reduce the anxiety associated with childbirth?
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Margaret Sanger
c. Fernand Lamaze
d. Charles LeFont

c

What is the leading cause of developmental disabilities and birth defects in the United States?
a. Taking thalidomide during pregnancy
b. Maternal smoking during pregnancy
c. Fetal alcohol syndrome
d. Taking tetracycline during pregnancy

c

The second stage of labor involves
a. the birth of the infant.
b. the delivery of the afterbirth.
c. passing through the transition phase.
d. the discharge of the mucus plug.

a

All of the following are reasons for performing a cesarean section EXCEPT
a. mother’s preference.
b. fetal distress during labor.
c. feet or bottom coming out of the uterus first.
d. large fetal head.

a

Which of the following is one of the LEAST likely symptoms of postpartum depression?
a. Jealousy
b. Insomnia
c. Anxiety and panic attacks
d. Feelings of hopelessness

a

Lactation, or milk production, begins about
a. two to four days before birth.
b. two to four days after birth.
c. one to three days after birth..
d. one to three days before birth.

c

All of the following are advantages of nursing EXCEPT that it
a. provides the infant with antibodies.
b. inhibits ovulation, so it can be used as a reliable method of birth control.
c. is an emotional and sensual experience for the mother.
d. helps the uterus return to prepregnancy size.

b

The most important factor to consider in resuming sexual interaction after childbirth is the point at which
a. the mother’s breasts first produce colostrum.
b. intercourse is physically comfortable for the woman.
c. the flow of lochia has stopped.
d. episiotomy incisions or vaginal tears have healed.

b

There is evidence that for many women, sexual desire and frequency ____ for several months following the birth of a baby.
a. increase significantly
b. increase slightly
c. return to the same level they were prior to pregnancy
d. decrease

d

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