Chap 1 – 10

Your page rank:

Total word count: 6603
Pages: 24

Calculate the Price

- -
275 words
Looking for Expert Opinion?
Let us have a look at your work and suggest how to improve it!
Get a Consultant

Which is the smallest unit of life that can survive and reproduce on its own?
A. an atom
B. a cell
C. a molecule
D. an organ
E. a population

a cell

Which of the following is defined as "all of the various species living in the same area?"

A. ecosystem
B. community
C. biosphere
D. organism
E. population

community

Organisms designated as producers usually obtain their energy from___
A. other producers
B. dead consumers
C. decomposers
D. the sun
E. all of these

the sun

As energy is transferred among organisms, some escapes from the environment as ____ energy.

A. electrical
B. heat
C. light
D. mechanical
E. nuclear

heat

About 12 to 24 hours after the last meal, a person’s blood sugar level normally varies from 60 to 90 milligrams per 100 milliliters of blood, although it may rise to 130 mg per100 ml after meals high in carbohydrates. That the blood sugar level is maintained within a fairly narrow range, despite uneven intake of sugar, is due to the body’s ability to carry out
A. adaptation
B. homeostasis
C. inheritance
D. metabolism
E. all of these

homeostasis

The instructions for growth and development are in

A. proteins
B. carbohydrates
C. DNA
D. energy
E. homeostasis

DNA

The instructions in DNA are used to make

A. proteins
B. carbohydrates
C. DNA
D. energy
E. homeostasis

proteins

A scientific name consists of which of the following?

A. family name
B. genus name
C. species designation only
D. family name and genus name
E. genus name and species designation

genus name and species designation

The most diverse and inclusive classification group is the

A. domain
B. genus
C. kingdom
D. phylum
E. species

domain

Which domain(s) is(are) made up of organisms without nuclei?

A. Archaea
B. Bacteria
C. Eukarya
D. both Archaea and Bacteria
E. both Bacteria and Eukarya

both Archaea and Bacteria

Members of which kingdom are usually single-celled eukaryotes?

A. Animalia
B. Protista
C. Fungi
D. Plantae
E. Bacteria

Protista

A mutation is a change in

A. homeostasis
B. the developmental pattern in an organism
C. metabolism
D. hereditary instructions
E. the life cycle of an organism

hereditary instructions

The principal point of the Darwinian theory of evolution by natural selection was that

A. Long-term heritable changes in organisms are caused by use and disuse.
B. Those mutations that adapt an organism to a given environment somehow always arise in the greatest frequency in the organisms that occupy that environment.
C. Mutations are caused by all sorts of environmental influences.
D. Survival of characteristics in a population depends on competition between organisms, especially between members of the same species.

Survival of characteristics in a population depends on competition between organisms, especially between members of the same species.

The validity of scientific discoveries should be based on

A. morality
B. aesthetics
C. philosophy
D. economics
E. none of these

none of these

Science is based on

A. faith
B. authority
C. evidence
D. force
E. consensus

evidence

All of the following will strengthen a scientific theory EXCEPT

A. repetitions of experiments
B. increased number of observations
C. time
D. faith
E. confirmation by many scientists

faith

Hypotheses are

A. often in the form of a statement
B. often expressed negatively
C. sometimes crude attempts to offer a possible explanation for observations
D. testable predictions
E. all of these

all of these

When a hypothesis has been repeatedly and rigorously tested and supported, it is called a

A. model
B. testable prediction
C. scientific method
D. scientific theory
E. result

scientific theory

To eliminate the influence of uncontrolled variables during experimentation, one should

A. Increase the sampling error as much as possible and suspend judgment.
B. Establish a control group identical to the experimental group except for the variable being tested.
C. Use inductive reasoning to construct a hypothesis.
D. Both [Increase the sampling error as much as possible and suspend judgment] and [Use inductive reasoning to construct a hypothesis].

Establish a control group identical to the experimental group except for the

How many variable events is it best to test in one experiment?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

1

The negative subatomic particle is the

A. neutron
B. proton
C. electron
D. neutron and proton
E. proton and electron

electron

The neutral subatomic particle is the

A. neutron
B. proton
C. electron
D. neutron and proton
E. none of these

neutron

The atomic number refers to the

A. mass of an atom
B. number of protons in an atom
C. number of both protons and neutrons in an atom
D. number of neutrons in an atom
E. number of electrons in an atom

number of protons in an atom

Isotopes of the same element differ in the number of

A. electrons
B. neutrons
C. protons
D. electrons and protons
E. protons and neutrons

neutrons

Which statement is NOT true?

A. Electrons closest to the nucleus are at the lowest energy level.
B. No more than two electrons can occupy a single orbital.
C. Electrons are unable to move out of the assigned orbital space.
D. The innermost orbital holds two electrons.
E. At the second energy level there are four possible orbitals with a total of eight electrons.

Electrons are unable to move out of the assigned orbital space.

Water is an example of a(n)

A. atom
B. ion
C. compound
D. mixture
E. element

compound

Which substance is NOT a compound?

A. salt
B. a carbohydrate
C. carbon
D. a nucleotide
E. methane

carbon

What is formed when an atom loses or gains an electron?

A. a new element
B. ion
C. molecule
D. bond
E. isotope

ion

The bond in table salt (NaCl) is
A. polar
B. ionic
C. covalent
D. double
E. nonpolar

ionic

What type of bond is formed whenever atoms share a pair of electrons?

A. covalent
B. hydrogen
C. ionic
D. double
E. peptide

covalent

A chemical bond with unequal sharing is called

A. ionic
B. nonpolar
C. polar
D. all of these
E. none of these

polar

What bonds usually hold large molecules in their 3-dimensional shape (tertiary structure)?

A. hydrogen
B. ionic
C. covalent
D. inert
E. single

hydrogen

How do hydrophobic molecules react with water?

A. attracted to
B. absorbed by
C. repelled by
D. mixed with
E. polarized by

repelled by

Water is important to living organisms because

A. Of its cohesive properties.
B. Of its temperature stabilizing effect.
C. It is a liquid at room temperature.
D. It has the capacity to dissolve many substances.
E. All of these.

All of these.

Glucose dissolves in water because it

A. ionizes
B. is a polysaccharide
C. is polar and forms many hydrogen bonds with the water molecules
D. has a very reactive primary structure
E. none of these

is polar and forms many hydrogen bonds with the water molecules

Why does ice float on water?

A. Ice is hydrophobic and repels water.
B. Water molecules have less mass the colder they get.
C. Water molecules are spaced farther apart in ice than in liquid water.
D. Vibrating electrons in liquid water push ice to the surface.
E. None of these.

Water molecules are spaced farther apart in ice than in liquid water.

A pH of 10 is how many times as basic as a pH of 7?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 10
D. 100
E. 1,000

1,000

A solution with a pH of 8 has how many times fewer hydrogen ions than a solution with a pH of 6?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 10
D. 100
E. 1,000

100

A reaction of an acid and a base will produce water and

A. a buffer
B. a salt
C. gas
D. solid precipitate
E. solute

a salt

Cellular pH is kept near a value of seven, due to the action of

A. salts
B. buffers
C. acids
D. bases
E. water

buffers

Carbon forms bonds with a maximum of how many other atoms?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

4

An OH group is a(n) ____ group.

A. carboxyl
B. hydroxyl
C. amino
D. methyl
E. carbonyl

hydroxyl

The formation of large molecules from small subunits is known as what kind of reaction?

A. oxidation
B. reduction
C. condensation
D. hydrolysis
E. decarboxylation

condensation

The breakdown of large molecules by the enzymatic addition of water is an example of what kind of reaction?

A. oxidation
B. reduction
C. condensation
D. hydrolysis
E. decarboxylation

hydrolysis

Which is a "building block" of carbohydrates?

A. glycerol
B. nucleotide
C. amino acid
D. fatty acid
E. monosaccharide

monosaccharide

Plants store their excess carbohydrates in the form of

A. starch
B. glycogen
C. glucose
D. cellulose
E. fats

starch

Triglycerides contain

A. fatty acids
B. phosphate
C. glycerol
D. both fatty acids and phosphate
E. both fatty acids and glycerol

both fatty acids and glycerol

Oils are

A. liquid at room temperatures
B. unsaturated
C. found only in animals
D. complex carbohydrates
E. both liquid at room temperature and unsaturated

both liquid at room temperature and unsaturated

An example of a saturated fat is

A. olive oil
B. corn oil
C. butter
D. canola oil
E. soybean oil

butter

Cell membranes are characterized by the presence of

A. triglycerides
B. phospholipids
C. unsaturated fats
D. steroid hormones
E. fatty acids

phospholipids

Sterols are

A. lipids
B. sometimes hormones
C. components of membranes
D. troublesome on walls of arteries
E. all of these

all of these

Amino acids are the building blocks for

A. proteins
B. steroids
C. lipids
D. nucleic acids
E. carbohydrates

proteins

Proteins may function as

A. structural units
B. enzymes
C. storage molecules
D. transport molecules
E. all of these

all of these

What kind of bond exists between two amino acids in a protein?

A. peptide
B. ionic
C. hydrogen
D. amino
E. sulfhydroxyl

peptide

The sequence of amino acids is the ____ structure of proteins.

A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. quaternary
E. stereo

primary

Which of the following can be parts of the secondary structure of proteins?

A. helices
B. sheets
C. amino acid sequence
D. both helices and sheets
E. all of these

both helices and sheets

The association of four subunit peptides in a fully functional molecule of hemoglobin is a good example of ____ protein structure.

A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. quaternary
E. none of these

quaternary

In sickle cell disease, the hemoglobin contains an incorrect

A. amino acid
B. heme
C. oxygen atom
D. both amino acid and heme
E. both heme and oxygen atom

amino acid

The nucleotide most closely associated with energy metabolism is

A. cyclic AMP
B. FAD
C. NAD
D. ATP
E. all of these

ATP

DNA

A. is one of the adenosine phosphates
B. is one of the nucleotide coenzymes
C. contains protein-building instructions
D. all of these
E. none of these

contains protein-building instructions

Which of the following is(are) not components of all cells?

A. plasma membrane
B. DNA
C. cytoplasm
D. nucleus
E. plasma membrane and nucleus

nucleus

Large cells work better if they

A. are spherical
B. are flat/thin
C. have folded membranes
D. are both spherical and have folded membranes
E. are both flat/thin and have folded membranes

are both flat/thin and have folded membranes

The relative impermeability of membranes to water-soluble molecules is a result of the

A. nonpolar nature of water molecules
B. presence of large proteins that extend through both sides of membranes.
C. presence of inorganic salt crystals scattered through some membranes
D. presence of cellulose and chemicals such as cutin, lignin, pectin, and suberin in the membranes
E. presence of phospholipids in the lipid bilayer.

presence of phospholipids in the lipid bilayer.

Prokaryotic cells do NOT have

A. nucleoid regions
B. membrane-bound nuclei
C. cytoplasm
D. a plasma membrane
E. DNA

membrane-bound nuclei

These are the primary cellular sites for the production of ATP.

A. chloroplasts
B. ribosomes
C. mitochondria
D. chloroplasts and mitochondria
E. ribosomes and mitochondria

chloroplasts and mitochondria

Which of the following are common in plants but not in animals?

A. chloroplasts
B. central vacuoles
C. mitochondria
D. chloroplasts and mitochondria
E. chloroplasts and central vacuoles

chloroplasts and central vacuoles

Scientists use the word "chromosome" to describe

A. an individual DNA molecule with associated proteins
B. any hereditary material in the nucleus
C. the total collection of DNA in a cell
D. hereditary material that is not duplicated
E. all of these

an individual DNA molecule with associated proteins

An organelle found in the nucleus is a

A. plastid
B. vacuole
C. microvillus
D. nucleolus
E. basal body

nucleolus

Which of the following is NOT true concerning the nuclear envelope?

A. It has two lipid bilayers.
B. There are pores in the membrane.
C. Ribosomal subunits can pass out of the nucleus.
D. DNA molecules are transported out through the pores.
E. Protein filaments are attached to the inner surface.

DNA molecules are transported out through the pores.

These organelles are sometimes referred to as rough or smooth, depending on the structure.

A. Golgi bodies
B. ribosomes
C. mitochondria
D. lysosomes
E. endoplasmic reticula

endoplasmic reticula

These structures are the primary cellular sites for the production of proteins.

A. Golgi bodies
B. ribosomes
C. mitochondria
D. lysosomes
E. smooth endoplasmic reticula

ribosomes

Fatty acids are produced here.

A. Golgi bodies
B. ribosomes
C. mitochondria
D. lysosomes
E. smooth endoplasmic reticula

smooth endoplasmic reticula

These are the primary structures for the packaging of cellular secretions for export from the cell.

A. Golgi bodies
B. ribosomes
C. mitochondria
D. lysosomes
E. chloroplasts

Golgi bodies

These contain enzymes and are the main organelles of intracellular digestion.

A. Golgi bodies
B. ribosomes
C. mitochondria
D. lysosomes
E. endoplasmic reticula

lysosomes

Plasmodesmata are

A. used in energy transformations within the cell
B. typical of animal cells more than plant cells
C. cross-connections between cell walls
D. used in energy transformations in both plant and animal cells
E. found most frequently in bacteria

cross-connections between cell walls

Which type of junctions prevent water leakage between cells?

tight junctions

Which type of junctions allows communication between animal cells?

A. gap junctions
B. plasmodesmata
C. tight junctions
D. adhering junctions
E. blocking proteins

gap junctions

Structural features that contain the protein actin and help to control the shapes of cells are

A. plastids.
B. vacuoles
C. microvilli
D. nucleoli
E. microfilaments

microfilaments

Organelles used to move chromosomes are the

A. cilia
B. flagella
C. microtubules
D. microfilaments
E. pili

microtubules

Four of the five answers listed below are portions of a well-known theory. Select the exception.

A. Cells are the structural and functional components of living things.
B. Cells arise from preexisting cells.
C. All organisms are composed of cells.
D. Cells are the basic living unit or organization of living things.
E. All cells have a nucleus.

All cells have a nucleus.

The second law of thermodynamics states that:

A. Energy can be transformed into matter and, because of this, we can get something for nothing.
B. Energy can only be destroyed during nuclear reactions, such as those that occur inside the sun.
C. If energy is gained by one region of the universe, another place in the universe also must gain energy in order to maintain the balance of nature.
D. Energy tends to become increasingly more disorganized.

Energy tends to become increasingly more disorganized.

Essentially, the first law of thermodynamics says that:

A. One form of energy cannot be converted into another.
B. Entropy is increasing in the universe.
C. Energy can be neither created nor destroyed.
D. Energy cannot be converted into matter or matter into energy.

Energy can be neither created nor destroyed.

Which reaction is NOT an exergonic reaction?

A. protein synthesis
B. digestion
C. fire
D. respiration
E. movement

protein synthesis

When ATP releases its energy, it forms

A. AMP
B. ADP
C. Pi
D. both AMP and Pi
E. both ADP and Pi

both ADP and Pi

During enzyme-catalyzed reactions, substrate is a synonym for

A. end product
B. byproduct
C. enzyme
D. reactant
E. none of these

reactant

Enzymes increase the rate of a given reaction by lowering what kind of energy?

A. combination
B. activation
C. thermal
D. electrical
E. solar

activation

Although it is too simple an explanation, the concept of a key fitting into a lock is descriptive of the

A. inhibition of enzymes by small molecules
B. fit of coenzymes to enzymes
C. matching of enzyme with substrate
D. regeneration of ATP from ADP
E. stepwise cascade of electrons in the oxidation-reduction reactions

matching of enzyme with substrate

Which of the following may show enzymatic activity?

A. lipids
B. proteins
C. DNA
D. lipids and proteins
E. proteins and carbohydrates

proteins

Which of the following is NOT true of enzyme behavior?

A. Enzyme shape may change during catalysis.
B. The active site of an enzyme orients its substrate molecules, thereby promoting interaction of their reactive parts.
C. All enzymes have an active site where substrates are temporarily bound.
D. Each enzyme can catalyze a wide variety of different reactions.
E. None of these.

Each enzyme can catalyze a wide variety of different reactions.

Allosteric inhibition is generally a result of

A. excess substrates
B. binding regulatory molecules at a site other than the active site
C. a change in the temperature of the system
D. binding of the regulatory molecule at the active site
E. pH inhibition

binding regulatory molecules at a site other than the active site

Enzymatic reactions can be affected by

A. pH
B. salinity
C. temperature
D. cofactors
E. all of these

all of these

Which of the following substances would be unlikely to function as a coenzyme?

A. a water-soluble vitamin
B. an iron ion
C. glucose
D. NAD+
E. a magnesium ion

glucose

A molecule that gives up an electron becomes

A. ionized
B. oxidized
C. reduced
D. both ionized and oxidized
E. both ionized and reduced

both ionized and oxidized

Which affects the rate of diffusion through a semipermeable membrane?
I.
steeper concentration gradients
II.
higher temperatures
III.
size of the molecule diffusing

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III

I, II, and III

The rate of diffusion through a semipermeable membrane will be lowest when which of the following are true?

I.
Concentration gradients are steep.
II.
Temperatures are low.
III.
Solutes are small molecules.

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III

II only

In simple diffusion:

A. The rate of movement of molecules is controlled by temperature and pressure.
B. The movement of individual molecules is random.
C. The movement of molecules of one substance is independent of the movement of any other substance.
D. The net movement is away from the region of highest concentration.
E. All of these.

All of these.

Movement of a molecule against a concentration gradient occurs in

A. simple diffusion
B. facilitated diffusion
C. osmosis
D. active transport
E. passive transport

active transport

A single-celled freshwater organism, such as a protistan, is transferred to salt water. Which of the following is likely to happen?

A. The cell bursts.
B. Salt is pumped out of the cell.
C. The cell shrinks.
D. Enzymes flow out of the cell.
E. All of these.

The cell shrinks.

Which statement is true?

A. A cell placed in an isotonic solution will swell.
B. A cell placed in a hypotonic solution will swell.
C. A cell placed in a hypotonic solution will shrink.
D. A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will remain the same size.
E. A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will swell.

A cell placed in a hypotonic solution will swell.

White blood cells use ____ to get rid of foreign particles in the blood.

A. simple diffusion
B. bulk flow
C. osmosis
D. phagocytosis
E. facilitated diffusion

phagocytosis

Chlorophyll a appears green because it absorbs mainly _____ light.

A. violet and red
B. green
C. yellow
D. blue

violet and red

Light-dependent reactions in plants proceed in the _____.

A. thylakoid membrane
B. plasma membrane
C. stroma
D. cytoplasm

thylakoid membrane

In the light-dependent reactions, ________.

A. carbon dioxide is fixed
B. ATP forms
C. sugars form
D. CO2 accepts electrons
E. ATP forms and sugars form
F. carbon dioxide is fixed and sugars form

ATP forms

What accumulates inside the thylakoid compartment during the light-dependent reactions?

A. glucose
B. hydrogen ions
C. O2
D. CO2

hydrogen ions

Light-independent reactions in plants proceed in the ________.

A. thylakoid membrane
B. plasma membrane
C. stroma
D. cytoplasm

stroma

The Calvin-Benson cycle starts when ____.

A. light is available
B. carbon dioxide is attached to RuBP
C. electrons leave a photosystem II

carbon dioxide is attached to RuBP

In the light-independent reactions, _____.

A. carbon dioxide is fixed
B. ATP forms
C. sugars form
D. CO2 accepts electrons
E. ATP forms and sugars form
F. carbon dioxide is fixed and sugars form

carbon dioxide is fixed and sugars form

All of the following statements are true EXCEPT

A. photons are packages of light energy.
B. the longer the wavelength of light, the more energy it has.
C. chlorophyll absorbs energy from light.
D. photons with different energy levels produce different colors.
E. visible light is a very small portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.

the longer the wavelength of light, the more energy it has.

Discrete packages of light energy are called

A. electrons.
B. photons.
C. protons.
D. neutrons.
E. phycobilins.

photons.

The light reflected most by chlorophyll is

A. red.
B. orange.
C. green.
D. blue.
E. purple.

green.

In Engleman’s 1882 experiment, why did bacteria cluster in red or violet bands of the rainbow?

A. The bacteria used those wavelengths to photosynthesize.
B. Algae photosynthesized best at those wavelengths, producing needed oxygen.
C. The bacteria produced oxygen most efficiently using red and violet light.
D. Algae photosynthesized best at those wavelengths, producing needed carbon dioxide.
E. The bacteria were attracted to bright light.

Algae photosynthesized best at those wavelengths, producing needed oxygen.

Thylakoid disks are

A. stacked
B. separate compartments
C. also called the stroma
D. participants in the light-independent reactions
E. none of these

stacked

Plants need which of the following to carry out photosynthesis?

A. H2O
B. CO2
C. O2
D. both CO2 and O2
E. both CO2 and H2O

both CO2 and H2O

Where in a plant cell is chlorophyll found?

A. on the outer chloroplast membrane
B. inside the mitochondria
C. in the stroma
D. in the thylakoid membrane
E. none of these

in the thylakoid membrane

The oxygen released in photosynthesis comes from

A. carbon dioxide.
B. glucose.
C. ribulose bisphosphate.
D. water.
E. atmospheric oxygen.

water.

The final electron acceptor in the noncyclic pathway of ATP formation is

A. FAD.
B. PGA.
C. NADP+.
D. FMN.
E. PEP.

NADP+.

Which of the following is most descriptive of an electron transfer chain?

A. It generates energy for nothing.
B. It is a mechanism used by cells to dispose of unused electrons.
C. It is activated by sunlight.
D. It transfers energy in a stepwise manner from one compound to another.

It transfers energy in a stepwise manner from one compound to another.

An important electron and hydrogen acceptor in noncyclic pathways of ATP formation is

A. NADP+.
B. ADP.
C. O2.
D. H2O.
E. ATP.

NADP+.

The cyclic pathway of ATP formation functions mainly to

A. fix CO2.
B. produce O2.
C. make ATP.
D. reduce NADP.
E. split H2O.

make ATP.

Which of the following would not be true of CAM plants?

A. fix carbon twice
B. live in desert environments
C. fix carbon mostly during the day
D. open stomata mainly at night
E. grow slowly

fix carbon mostly during the day

Glycolysis starts and ends in the _____.

A. nucleus
B. mitochondrion
C. plasma membrane
D. cytoplasm

cytoplasm

Which of the following metabolic pathways require(s) molecular oxygen (O2)?

A. aerobic respiration
B. lactate fermentation
C. alcoholic fermentation
D. all of these

aerobic respiration

In eukaryotes, aerobic respiration is completed in the _____.

A. nucleus
B. mitochondrion
C. plasma membrane
D. cytoplasm

mitochondrion

In the third stage of aerobic respiration, _____ is the final acceptor of electrons

A. water
B. hydrogen
C. oxygen
D. NADH

oxygen

Your body cells can use _____ as an alternative energy source when glucose is in short supply.

A. fatty acids
B. glycerol
C. amino acids
D. all of these

all of these

Which of these symptoms is NOT characteristic of Luft’s syndrome?

A. excessive perspiration
B. low number of mitrochondria
C. large appetite
D. overheating at room temperature
E. weakness

low number of mitrochondria

When molecules are broken apart in respiration:

A. The heat produced is used to drive biological reactions.
B. The oxygen in the compounds that are broken apart is used as an energy source.
C. The energy released in respiration is channeled into molecules of ATP.
D. ATP is converted into ADP.
E. ADP is released as a waste product.

The energy released in respiration is channeled into molecules of ATP.

ATP

A. can be produced by photosynthesis
B. is produced in the degradation of organic compounds such as glucose
C. is generated in fermentation
D. is released in aerobic respiration
E. all of these

all of these

How many ATP molecules (net yield) are produced per molecule of glucose degraded during glycolysis?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 36
E. 38

2

The Krebs cycle takes place in the

A. ribosomes
B. cytoplasm
C. nucleus
D. mitochondria
E. chloroplasts

mitochondria

The breakdown of pyruvate in the Krebs cycle results in the release of

A. energy
B. carbon dioxide
C. oxygen
D. energy and oxygen
E. energy and carbon dioxide

energy and carbon dioxide

The first stable intermediate produced in the Krebs cycle is

A. pyruvate
B. acetyl CoA
C. fructose bisphosphate
D. oxaloacetate
E. citrate

citrate

The last intermediate produced in the Krebs cycle is

A. pyruvate
B. acetyl CoA
C. fructose bisphosphate
D. oxaloacetate
E. citrate

oxaloacetate

Which process is a transition from glycolysis to the Krebs cycle?

A. acetyl CoA formation
B. conversion of PGAL to PGA
C. regeneration of reduced NAD+
D. oxidative phosphorylation
E. substrate-level phosphorylation

acetyl CoA formation

When glucose is used as the energy source, the largest amount of ATP is produced is in

A. glycolysis.
B. acetyl CoA formation
C. the Krebs cycle
D. substrate-level phosphorylation
E. electron transfer phosphorylation

electron transfer phosphorylation

When O2 accepts electrons in aerobic respiration, it is converted to

A. O3
B. CO2
C. OH
D. H2O
E. CO

H2O

Yeast fermentation produces

A. CO2
B. ethanol
C. lactate
D. ethanol and CO2
E. ethanol and lactate

ethanol and CO2

Under anaerobic conditions, muscle cells produce

A. ethyl alcohol
B. acetaldehyde
C. pyruvate
D. lactate
E. citrate

lactate

____ twitch muscle fibers are used for prolonged activity and have ____ mitochondria.

A. Fast; few
B. Fast; many
C. Slow; few
D. Slow; many
E. none of these

Slow; many

When proteins are used as energy sources, their breakdown subunits usually enter

A. glycolysis
B. electron transport
C. the Krebs cycle
D. chemiosmosis
E. fermentation

the Krebs cycle

Chromosome number _____.

a. refers to a particular chromosome pair in a cell

b. is an identifiable feature of a species

c. is like a set of books

d. all of these

e. b and c

b and c

The basic unit that structurally organizes a eukaryotic
chromosome is the _____.

a. higher-order coiling

b. double helix

c. base sequence

d. nucleosome

nucleosome

What are the base-pairing rules for DNA?

a. A-G, T-C

b. A-C, T-G

c. A-U, C-G

d. A-T, G-C

A-T, G-C

_____ is an example of reproductive cloning.

a. Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT)

b. Multiple offspring from the same pregnancy

c. Artificial embryo splitting

d. Somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) and Artificial embryo splitting

e. All of these

Artificial embryo splitting

Genetically identical organisms result from _____.

a. SCNT

b. embryo splitting

c. therapeutic cloning

d. all of these

all of these

After chromosomes are duplicated, each of the new copies is called a _____.

a. centromere

b. sister chromatid

c. sister chromosome

d. clone

e. nucleosome

sister chromatid

A human karyotype showing 22 pairs of autosomes and two X chromosomes would be

a. a normal male.

b. a normal female.

c. an abnormal male.

d. an abnormal female.

e. none of these

a normal female.

The significance of Fred Griffith’s experiment in which he used two strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae is that

a. the semiconservative nature of DNA replication was finally demonstrated.

b. it demonstrated that harmless cells had become permanently transformed through a change in the bacterial hereditary system.

c. it established that pure DNA extracted from disease-causing bacteria transformed harmless strains into killer strains.

d. it demonstrated that radioactively labeled bacteriophages transfer their DNA but not their protein coats to their host bacteria.

e. all of these are true.

it demonstrated that harmless cells had become permanently transformed through a change in the bacterial hereditary system.

Bacteriophages are

a. large bacteria.

b. pathogens (disease-producing bacteria).

c. viruses.

d. cellular components

viruses.

What was the significance of the Hershey-Chase experiments in which 32P and 35S were used?

a. The semiconservative nature of DNA replication was finally demonstrated.

b. They demonstrated that harmless bacterial cells had become permanently transformed through a change in the bacterial hereditary system.

c. They established that pure DNA extracted from disease-causing bacteria transformed harmless strains into killer strains.

d. They demonstrated that radioactively labeled bacteriophages transfer their DNA but not their protein coats to their host bacteria.

e. All of these

They demonstrated that radioactively labeled bacteriophages transfer their DNA but not their protein coats to their host bacteria.

Chargaff’s first rule states that

a. A=T and C=G.

b. the DNA molecule is helical.

c. the DNA molecule contains deoxyribose.

d. the proportion of adenine and guanine differs between different species.

e. DNA exhibits a repeating pattern every 0.34 nm.

A=T and C=G.

From X-ray diffraction data, which of the following was determined about DNA?

a. The molecule had uniform diameter.

b. The molecule was long and narrow.

c. Part of the molecule repeated itself often.

d. The shape of the molecule could be spiral.

e. All of these

All of these.

Rosalind Franklin’s research contribution was essential in

a. establishing the double-stranded nature of DNA.

b. establishing the principle of base pairing.

c. establishing most of the principal structural features of DNA.

d. sequencing DNA molecules.

establishing most of the principal structural features of DNA.

James Watson and Francis Crick

a. established the double-stranded nature of DNA.

b. established the principle of base pairing.

c. explained how DNA’s structure permitted it to be replicated.

d. proposed the concept of the double-helix.

e. did all of these things.

did all of these things.

The best adjective to describe DNA replication is

a. nondisruptive.

b. semiconservative.

c. progressive.

d. conservative.

e. lytic.

semiconservative.

Replication of DNA

a. produces RNA molecules.

b. produces only new DNA.

c. produces two molecules, each of which is half new and half old DNA joined lengthwise to each other.

d. generates excessive DNA, which eventually causes the nucleus to divide.

e. is too complex to characterize.

produces two molecules, each of which is half new and half old DNA joined lengthwise to each other.

DNA polymerase

a. is an enzyme.

b. adds new nucleotides to a strand.

c. proofreads DNA strands to see that they are correct.

d. makes rare mistakes resulting in mutation.

e. is all of these.

is all of these.

DNA ligase

a. joins together fragments of DNA.

b. replaces mispaired bases.

c. initiates DNA replication.

d. forms new DNA polymers.

e. is all of these.

joins together fragments of DNA.

Somatic cell nuclear transfer currently involves all of the following choices except

a. a nucleus from an adult body cell.

b. reprogramming of a body cell to produce an embryo.

c. a surrogate mother.

d. harvesting of stem cells from the embryo.

e. human reproduction.

human reproduction.

DNA replication requires _____.

a. template DNA

b. free nucleotides

c. DNA polymerase

d. all of the above

all of the above

A binding site for RNA polymerase is called a _____.

a. gene

b. promoter

c. codon

d. protein

promoter

RNAs form by _____; proteins form by _____.

a. replication; translation

b. translation; transcription

c. transcription; translation

d. replication; transcription

transcription; translation

Most codons specify a(n) _____.

a. protein

b. polypeptide

c. amino acid

d. mRNA

amino acid

_____ are removed from new mRNA transcripts.

a. Introns

b. Exons

c. Telomeres

d. Amino acids

Introns

Where does transcription take place in a typical eukaryotic cell?

a. the nucleus

b. ribosomes

c. the cytoplasm

d. ribosomes and the cytoplasm

the nucleus

Where does translation take place in a typical eukaryotic cell?

a. the nucleus

b. ribosomes

c. the cytoplasm

d. ribosomes and the cytoplasm

ribosomes and the cytoplasm

Each amino acid is specified by a set of _____ bases in an mRNA transcript.

a. 3

b. 20

c. 64

d. 120

3

_____ different codons constitute the genetic code.

a. 3

b. 20

c. 64

d. 120

64

_____ can cause mutations.

a. Replication errors

b. Transposons

c. Ionizing radiation

d. Non ionizing radiation

e. Transposons and ionizing radiation

f. all of these

all of these

The poison ricin inactivates which of the following cellular organelles?

a. mitochondria

b. ribosomes

c. smooth ER

d. Golgi bodies

e. all of these

ribosomes

What is the form of RNA that carries the code from the DNA to the site where the protein is assembled?

a. messenger RNA

b. nuclear RNA

c. ribosomal RNA

d. transfer RNA

e. structural RNA

messenger RNA

Transfer RNA differs from other types of RNA because it

a. transfers genetic instructions from the cell nucleus to the cytoplasm.

b. specifies the amino acid sequence of a particular protein.

c. carries an amino acid at one end.

d. contains codons.

e. does none of these.

carries an amino acid at one end.

The nitrogenous base found in DNA but not in RNA is

a. adenine.

b. cytosine.

c. guanine.

d. uracil.

e. thymine.

thymine.

The synthesis of an RNA molecule from a DNA template strand is called

a. replication.

b. translation.

c. transcription.

d. DNA synthesis.

e. metabolism.

transcription.

The relationship between RNA and the DNA that served as the template is

a. antagonistic.

b. opposite.

c. complementary.

d. an exact duplicate.

e. unrelated.

complementary.

The genetic code is made up of units consisting of how many nucleotides?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 5

d. 6

e. 12

3

The first step in translation is called

a. elongation.

b. initiation.

c. replication.

d. termination.

e. translocation.

initiation.

The first amino acid in most proteins is

a. alanine.

b. isoleucine.

c. leucine.

d. methinonine

methinonine

Which of the following can cause mutations?

a. ionizing radiation

b. nonionizing radiation

c. chemicals that alter bases

d. both ionizing and nonionizing radiation

e. ionizing radiation, nonionizing radiation and chemicals that alter bases

ionizing radiation, nonionizing radiation and chemicals that alter bases

Sickle cell anemia has been traced to what type of mutation?

a. frameshift

b. transposable element

c. deletion

d. addition

e. base substitution

base substitution

Which of the following statements about cancer is false?

A. Cancer begins with a mutation in a gene that regulates cell division.
B. Mutated genes that increase cancer risk may be inherited.
C. Environmental agents may damage DNA, leading to cancer.
D. Cancer cells divide more rapidly than do normal cells.
E. Men cannot get breast cancer.

Men cannot get breast cancer.

The process by which cells become specialized is called

A. differentiation.
B. maturation.
C. expression.
D. activation.
E. transcription.

differentiation.

Approximately what percentage of a cell’s genes is being used at any one time?

A. 1 to 2 percent
B. 5 to 10 percent
C. 25 to 50 percent
D. 70 to 80 percent
E. 90 to 99 percent

5 to 10 percent

Regions of newly replicated DNA can be shut down by chemical modification known as

A. promotion.
B. methylation.
C. sublimation.
D. dehydration.
E. strangulation.

methylation.

Regulatory proteins can exert their effects

A. before transcription.
B. during transcription.
C. after transcription.
D. during translation.
E. all of these.

all of these.

When ____ binds to ____ genes, transcription speeds up.

A. activators; enhancer
B. enhancers; activator
C. promoters; enhancer
D. activators; promoter
E. promoters; activator

activators; promoter

Which of the following are transcription factors?

A. activators
B. promoters
C. repressors
D. activators and promoters
E. activators and repressors

activators and repressors

Expression of a microRNA complementary in sequence to a gene _____ that gene.

A. blocks transcription of
B. replicates
C. speeds transcription of
D. inhibits expression of
E. methylates the bases in

inhibits expression of

Homeotic genes code for

A. enzymes.
B. translation enhancers.
C. transcription factors.
D. both enzymes and translation enhancers.
E. both translation enhancers and transcription factors.

transcription factors.

Experiments that utilize the deletion of a gene are referred to as ____ experiments.

A. ablation
B. control
C. deletion
D. knockout
E. tinman

knockout

Genes located in different regions of the body during embryonic development may be

A. turned on and off.
B. never turned on.
C. turned on and left on.
D. activated for only a short time in one cell and a long time in another cell.
E. all of these.

all of these.

If the PAX6 gene from a human is inserted into an eyeless mutant fly, what would happen?

A. nothing; human genes cannot be expressed in other species
B. the fly will grow normal compound fly eyes in the normal location
C. compound eyes will form wherever the gene is expressed
D. the fly will develop aniridia
E. the fly will grow simple human eyes in the normal location

the fly will grow normal compound fly eyes in the normal location

A mammalian female

A. usually has one Barr body.
B. is a mosaic for the active X chromosomes in her cells.
C. always uses the paternal X chromosome for a Barr body.
D. always uses the maternal X chromosome for a Barr body.
E. usually has one Barr body and is a mosaic for the active X chromosome in her cells.

usually has one Barr body and is a mosaic for the active X chromosome in her cells

In flowering plants, petals form when ____ genes are turned on.

A. only A
B. only B
C. only C
D. both A and B
E. both B and C

D. both A and B

When only C genes are turned on in flowering plants, ____ form.

A. sepals
B. petals
C. stamens
D. carpels
E. leaves

carpels

When the XIST gene is transcribed, all of the following events will occur except

A. the gene’s product is a large RNA molecule.
B. the XIST gene on both X chromosomes is transcribed .
C. RNA coats the chromosome where the XIST gene was located.
D. the chromosome where the XIST gene was located becomes a Barr body.
E. XIST is the only gene on that X chromosome to be transcribed.

the XIST gene on both X chromosomes is transcribed .

In prokaryotes, most of the control of gene expression is at the ____ level.

A. transcriptional
B. transcript processing
C. transport
D. translational
E. post-translational

transcript processing

During the early part of a young mammal’s life, the E. coli in the young offspring’s intestinal tract are exposed to high levels of which of the following, which later generations of E. coli will never be exposed to?

A. glucose
B. ribose
C. cellulose
D. lactose
E. fructose

lactose

A repressor protein binds with

A. messenger RNA.
B. the operator.
C. the regulator.
D. a product.
E. a substrate.

the operator.

The region to which RNA polymerase binds is called

A. the heterogeneous nuclear DNA.
B. the repressor gene.
C. the promoter sequence.
D. the operator sequence.
E. all of these.

the promoter sequence.

Share This
Flashcard

More flashcards like this

NCLEX 10000 Integumentary Disorders

When assessing a client with partial-thickness burns over 60% of the body, which finding should the nurse report immediately? a) ...

Read more

NCLEX 300-NEURO

A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) tells the nurse, "Sometimes I feel so frustrated. I can’t do anything without ...

Read more

NASM Flashcards

Which of the following is the process of getting oxygen from the environment to the tissues of the body? Diffusion ...

Read more

We can Write a Custom Essay

Consectetur labore ullamco magna do irure fugiat Lorem

Check Price

Successful message
sending