Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include all of the following, EXCEPT: |
skin blisters |
Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior: |
pesticide |
A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient’s clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: |
smallpox |
As the first arriving emergency responder at the scene of a suspected terrorist or WMD incident, you should request additional resources as needed and then: |
function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive |
At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: |
terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb |
The skin lesions associated with smallpox: |
are identical in there development |
Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or WMD incident is MOST important because: |
a secondary explosive device may detonate |
Which of the following statements regarding the persistency and volatility of a chemical agent is correct? |
VX, a highly persistent nerve agent, can remain in the environment for weeks to months. |
Initial signs and symptoms associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers include: |
headache and sore throat |
The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the: |
skin |
Signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent include: |
salivation, pinpoint pupils, and diarrhea. |
In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: |
weather conditions |
Unlike viruses and bacteria, neurotoxins |
are not contagious |
Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining how to protect oneself against the effects of radiation? |
body size |
Pulmonary hemorrhage and inner ear damage are examples of __________ blast injuries. |
primary |
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should |
ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building |
Botulinum is: |
a potent bacterial neurotoxin |
When multiple patients present with an acute onset of difficulty breathing, chest tightness, and hoarseness or stridor, you should be MOST suspicious of exposure to |
phosgene or chlorine |
Which of the following statements regarding a "dirty bomb" is correct? |
Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it |
Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is correct? |
Pulmonary anthrax is the most deadly form |
Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent? |
soman |
The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a |
violent religious group |
You are treating a patient who experienced a significant exposure to cyanide. He is semiconscious and is breathing inadequately. The MOST appropriate method of providing assisted ventilations to this patient is to: |
use a bag-mask device |
The process performed to artificially maximize the target population’s exposure to a biologic agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired effect, is called: |
weaponization |
All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT |
sarin |
Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or WMD incident is MOST important because |
a secondary explosive device may detonate. |
A disease vector is defined as: |
any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter |
The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to phosgene oxime is: |
skin blistering |
According to the Department of Homeland Security Security Advisory System, the color orange indicates a _______ risk of terrorist attacks. |
high |
To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been |
explosive weapons |
An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a |
single-issue group |
A weapon of mass destruction (WMD) is MOST accurately defined as: |
any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage. |
Most terrorist attacks: |
require multiple terrorists working together |
Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to |
seep out of the blood vessels and tissues. |
A persistent or nonvolatile chemical agent can: |
remain on a surface for more than 24 hours |
Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where |
antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. |
Unlike bacterial agents, viral agents: |
are usually not treatable |
If the incident command system (ICS) is already established at the scene of a WMD or terrorist attack, the EMT should: |
locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment. |
The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: |
domestic terrorism |
The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: |
patient’s distance from the epicenter of the explosion. |
After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: |
assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen. |
Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to 100% oxygen, the MOST important treatment for these patients includes: |
atropine and pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM). |
All of the following biologic agents or diseases can be transmitted from person to person, EXCEPT: |
ricin |
Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? |
Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast |
Exposure to _____ would MOST likely result in immediate respiratory distress? |
chlorine |
The LEAST harmful form of ionizing radiation is? |
Alpha |
When introduced into the body, ricin causes? |
pulmonary edema and circulatory failure. |
The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 qnd 1995 were carried out by a? |
A violent religious group |
A severe risk of terrorist attacks is indicated by the color ______ by the Department of Homeland Security Advisory System? |
red |
international terrorism (also known as cross-border terrorism) |
Terrorism that is carried out by people in a country other than their own |
1. Violent religious groups/doomsday cults 2. Extremist political groups 3. Technology terrorists 4. Single-issue groups |
What are the different types of groups that may turn toward terrorism as a means to achieve their goals? |
weapon of mass destruction (WMD) or weapon of mass casualty (WMC) -these instruments of death and destruction include biologic, nuclear, incendiary, chemical, and explosive weapons (B-NICE), or chemical, biologic, radiologic, nuclear, and explosive (CBRNE) weaponds -to date, the preferred WMD for terrorists has been explosive devices -WMDs are relatively easy to obtain or create and are specifically geared toward killing large numbers of people -chemical warfare may consist of agents in the form of a liquid, powder, or vapor |
Any agent designed to bring about mass death, casualties, and/or massive damage to property and infrastructures (bridges, tunnels, airports, and seaports) |
Chemical agents are manufactured substances that can have devastating effects on living organisms Chemical warfare agents include: |
Chemical Terrorism/Warfare |
Biologic agents are organisms that cause disease Primary types of biologic agents that you may come into contact with during a biologic event include: |
Biologic Terrorism/Warfare |
weaponization |
The creation of a weapon from a biologic agent generally found in nature and that causes disease; the agent is cultivated, synthesized, and/or mutated to maximize the target population’s exposure to the germ |
-includes use of nuclear bombs, such as those used during WWII when Hiroshima and Nagasaki were targeted with nuclear bombs |
Nuclear/Radiologic Terrorism |
in large-scale terrorist events, it is important to use triage and base patient care on available resources |
EMT Response to Terrorism |
-most terrorist attacks are covert, meaning the public safety community generally has no prior knowledge of the time, location, or nature of the attack -it is your responsibility to make sure you know the advisory level at the start of your workday (DHS website, newspaper, TV, etc. all give up-to-date info on the threat level) |
Recognizing a Terrorist Event (Indicators) |
1. Type of location 2. Type of call 3. Number of patients 4. Victim’s statements 5. Preincident indicators |
In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, on every call you should make the following observations (5) |
multiple victims with similar signs and symptoms -second best indication of a terrorist or WMD event = victim’s statements |
What is the single most important clue that a terrorist attack or an incident involving a WMD has occurred? |
Severe (RED) High (ORANGE) Elevated (YELLOW) Guarded (BLUE) Low (GREEN) |
The Department of Homeland Security Advisory System is posted daily to heighten awareness of the current terrorist threat. What are the 5 threat levels in this system? |
Look at patients’ presenting signs and symptoms -the intentional use of a WMD affects multiple persons and these casualties will generally exhibit the same signs and symptoms |
What is one easy way to distinguish between a nonterrorist MCI and a terrorist event? |
1. Scene safety |
Response Actions — once you suspect that a terrorist event has occurred or a WMD has been used, there are certain actions you must take to ensure that you will be safe and be in the proper position to help the community (5) |
1. Scene Safety Remember following rules: 2. Responder Safety (Personal Protection) 3. Notification Procedures 4. Establishing command 5. Secondary Device or Event (Reassessing Scene Safety) |
Response Actions — once you suspect that a terrorist event has occurred or a WMD has been used, there are certain actions you must take to ensure that you will be safe and be in the proper position to help the community (5 explained) |
= liquids or gases that are dispersed to kill or injure -chemical weapons have several classifications -route of exposure = manner in which toxic substance enters body |
Chemical agents |
evaporates quickly; |
If a chemical agent is highly volatile, it _______, whereas if it’s highly persistent, it _____. |
VX, a nerve agent sarin, another nerve agent |
What’s an example of a highly persistent chemical agent that can remain in the environment for weeks-months? What’s an example of a highly volatile chemical agent that rapidly evaporates? |
1. Vesicants (blister agents) 2. Pulmonary Agents (Choking Agents) 3. Nerve Agents 4. Metabolic Agents (Cyanides) |
Categories of Chemical Agents |
1. Vesicants Signs of vesicant exposure on skin: If vapors were inhaled, the patient may experience: a. Sulfur mustard (H) = brownish, yellowish oily substance that is generally considered very persistent (stays on surfaces a long time) b. Lewisite (L) and phosgene oxime (CX) Treatment: |
Chemical Agents — Vesicants (blister agents) |
2. Pulmonary agents (choking agents) a. Chlorine (CL) = first chemical agent ever used in warfare -with serious exposures, patient may exhibit pulmonary edema, complete airway constriction, and death b. Phosgene should NOT be confused for phosgene oxime Initially, a mild exposure may include: -severe exposure patient may present with dyspnea at rest and excessive pulmonary edema (patient will expel large amounts of fluid because of this, possibly becoming hypovolemic and hypotensive) Treatment: |
Chemical agents — Pulmonary agents (choking agents) |
-among the most deadly chemicals developed and are designed to kill large numbers of people with small quantities
a. G agents a. Sarin (GB) = highly volatile colorless and odorless liquid b. Soman (GD) = twice as persistent (stays on surfaces twice as long) as sarin and five times as lethal c. Tabun (GA) = half as lethal as sarin and 36 times more persistent d. V agent (VX) = most toxic chemical ever created (small LD50) |
Chemical agents — Nerve agents |
V agent (VX), a nerve agent |
What is the most toxic chemical ever created? |
Military = SLUDGEM SLUDGEM: DUMBELS (more useful) *seizures will continue until patient dies or until treatment is given with a nerve agent antidote kit (Mark 1 NAAK) |
What mnemonics are used to describe signs/symptoms of nerve agent exposure? |
cerebrovascular accident, direct light to both eyes, and drug overdose with cholinergic agents |
What medical conditions have bilateral pupil constriction (miosis) seen with nerve agent exposure? |
miosis (bilateral pinpoint constricted pupils) -can remain for days to weeks |
What is the most common symptom of nerve agent exposure? |
respiratory complications, which lead to respiratory arrest -therefore it’s important to provide airway and ventilatory support |
Fatalities from severe nerve agent exposure occur as a result of _______. |
Treatment: |
What is the treatment for nerve agents? |
-hydrogen cyanide (AC) and cyanogen chloride (CK) are both agents that affect the body’s ability to use oxygen Signs/Symptoms (little difference between AC and CK) of higher dose (will appear within several minutes): *death will occur unless patient is treated promptly Treatment: |
Chemical agents — metabolic agents (cyanides) |
-make sure patient is thoroughly decontaminated before you come into contact with them |
General rules to keep in mind when treating patients exposed to chemical agents: |
1. Viruses 2. Bacteria 3. Neurotoxins -can be almost undetectable and most of the diseases caused by these agents will be similar to other minor illnesses commonly seen by EMS providers |
Biologic Agents |
communicability -when communicability is high, such as with smallpox, person is considered contagious |
How easily the disease is spread from one human to another human |
incubation |
Period of time between the person becoming exposed to the agent and when symptoms begin |
=germs that require a living host to multiply and survive a. Smallpox Signs/Symptoms: |
Biologic Agents — Viruses – Smallpox |
Observe the size, shape, and location of the lesions |
What is one way you can distinguish/differentiate the smallpox rash from other skin disorders? |
when blisters begin to form |
When is smallpox in its most contagious phase? |
-consist of a group of diseases caused by viruses that include the Ebola, Rift Valley, and yellow fever viruses, among others that cause the blood in the body to seep out from the tissues and blood vessels -dissemination = direct contact with an infected person’s body fluids; can also be aerosolized for use in an attack Signs/symptoms: |
Biologic Agents — Viruses – Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers (VHF) |
-unlike viruses, bacteria do NOT require a host to multiply and live a. Inhalation and Cutaneous Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) -dissemination = aerosol Signs/symptoms: |
Biologic Agents — Bacteria – Anthrax |
-plague’s natural vectors are infected rodents and fleas -Bubonic plague (Black Death) infects the lymphatic system (a passive circulatory system in the body that bathes the tissues in lymph and works with the immune system) -Pneumonic plague = a lung infection, also known as plague pneumonia, that results from inhalation of plague bacteria -dissemination = aerosol Signs/symptoms: |
Biologic Agents — Bacteria – Plague (Bubonic/Pneumonic) |
pneumonic plauge is contagius and has much higher death rate than bubonic form |
Which form of the plague is contagious? |
neurotoxins |
What are the most deadly substances known to humans? |
= most deadly substances known to humans a. Botulinum toxin = the most potent neurotoxin -dissemination = aerosol or food supply sabotage or injection Signs/symptoms: |
Biologic Agents — Neurotoxins – Botulinum toxin |
-while not as deadly as botulinum, ricin is still five times more lethal than VX -ricin is LEAST toxic by the oral route, most likely as a result of poor absorption in the GI tract, some digestion in the gut, and possibly some expulsion of the agent as caused by the rapid onset of vomiting Signs/symptoms: -inhalation of ricin causes nonspecific weakness, cough, fever, hypothermia, and hypotension Signs/symptoms of ricin inhalation: |
Biologic Agents — Neurotoxin – Ricin |
1 to 3 mg of ricin can kill an adult, and the ingestion of one seed can most likely kill a child |
How much ricin neurotoxin (derived from the mash that is left from the castor bean) would it take to kill an adult? |
seeds |
Although all parts of the castor bean are poisonous, it is the ____ that are the most toxic |
-ricin is LEAST toxic by the oral route, most likely as a result of poor absorption in the GI tract, some digestion in the gut, and possibly some expulsion of the agent as caused by the rapid onset of vomiting Signs/symptoms: |
Through what route is ricin least toxic? Signs/symptoms? |
profuse sweating |
The onset of _____ some hours later after inhalation of ricin neurotixin signifies the termination of the symptoms. |
In both, symptoms appear 4-8 hours after exposure Inhalation: Ingestion: Injection:
Treatment is supportive and includes both respiratory support and cardiovascular support as needed |
Signs and symptoms of inhaled ricin vs. ingested ricin vs. injected ricin? |
-syndromic surveillance |
Other EMT roles during a biologic event |
syndromic surveillance -patients with signs and symptoms that resemble influenza are particularly important |
The monitoring, usually by local or state health departments, of patients presenting to emergency departments and alternative care facilities, the recording of EMS call volume, and the use of over-the-counter medications |
points of distribution (PODs) -these medications may be delivered in large containers known as "push packs" by CDC and National Pharmaceutical Stockpile –> they can deliver one of many push packs to any location in the country within 12 hours of an emergency |
Existing facilities that are established in a time of need for the mass distribution of antibiotics, antidotes, vaccinations, and other medications and supplies |
ionizing radiation -this energy can be found in radioactive material, such as rocks and metals -the energy that is emitted from a strong radiologic source is alpha, beta, gamma (x-ray), or neutron radiation |
The energy that is emitted in the form of rays or particles |
Alpha Radiation Beta Radiation Gamma rays (x-rays) Neutron particles |
What are the types of ionizing radiation (the energy that is emitted from a strong radiologic source)? |
-radiologic materials are generally used for purposes that benefit mankind, such as medications, killing germs in food (irradiating), and construction work These materials can be found at: -not all radioactive material is tightly guarded and the waste is often not guarded (appealing to terrorists) |
What are some sources of radiologic material? |
radiologic dispersal device (RDD) –> generally requires use of a bomb -"dirty bomb" = name given to a bomb that is used as a radiologic dispersal device; disperses radioactive material as well as explosive material overall, the dirty bomb is an effective WMD |
Any container that is designed to disperse radioactive material |
nuclear energy -result is an immense amount of energy that usually takes the form of heat |
What is artificially made by altering (splitting) radioactive atoms? |
special atomic demolition munitions (SADM) (also called "suitcase nuke") -due to collapse of Soviet Union, the whereabouts of many of these is unknown -nuclear weapons are very bad (think mutual annihilation) |
Small suitcase-sized nuclear weapons that were designed to destroy individual targets, such as important buildings, bridges, tunnels, and large ships |
True -patient can inhale radioactive dust or have radioactive liquid absorbed into the body through the skin -the effects of radiation exposure will vary depending on the amount of radiation that a person receives and the route of entry |
True or False: Radiation can be introduced into the body by all routes of entry as well as through the body (irradiation) |
Low exposure Moderate exposure Severe exposure |
What are some common signs of acute radiation sickness? |
-being exposed to radiation –> patient is not contaminated or radioactive |
Medical management of patient exposed to radiation/radioactive material |
-there are NO suits or protective gear designed to completely shield you from radiation Time Distance Shielding |
Protective Measures when responding to a nuclear or radiologic incident |
-come in various shapes and sizes (includes IEDs) |
Incendiary and explosive devices |
-blast injuries from incendiary and explosive devices can occur in a number of ways Primary blast injury Secondary blast injury Tertiary blast injury |
Mechanisms of Injury |
-when a substance is detonated, a solid or liquid is chemically converted into large volumes of gas under high pressure with resultant explosive energy release -propellants like gunpowder are explosives designed to release energy slowly compared to high energy explosives which are designed to detonate very quickly -this generates a pressure pulse in the shape of a spherical blast wave that expands in all directions from the point of explosion |
The physics of an explosion |
-hollow organs such as middle ear, lung, and GI tract are most susceptible to pressure changes |
Tissues at risk |
ear |
What organ is most sensitive to blast injuries? |
primary pulmonary blast injuries –> occur as contusions and hemorrhages -patient may complain of tightness in chest or pain in chest -subarachnoid and subdural hematomas are common |
Pulmonary trauma resulting from short-range exposure to the detonation of high energy explosives |
petechiae (pinpoint hemorrhages) to large hematomas |
What is the most visible sign of damage/injury to hollow organs following a blast/explosion? |
neurologic injuries and head trauma -subarachnoid and subdural hematomas are common |
What are the most common causes of death from blast injuries? |
The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: |
Domestic terrorism. |
A weapon of mass destruction (WMD) is MOST accurately defined as: |
Any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage. |
Most terrorist attacks are: |
Covert. |
In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: |
Weather conditions. |
Cross-contamination occurs when: |
An EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated. |
Which of the following agents blocks the body’s ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds? |
Hydrogen cyanide |
The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: |
Dissemination. |
Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include all of the following, EXCEPT: |
Skin blisters. |
When introduced into the body, ricin causes: |
Pulmonary edema and circulatory failure. |
The LEAST harmful form of ionizing radiation is: |
Alpha. |
__________ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require several inches of lead or concrete to prevent penetration. |
Gamma |
A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient’s clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: |
smallpox. |
A disease vector is defined as: |
any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter. |
A severe risk of terrorist attacks is indicated by the color _____ by the Department of Homeland Security Security Advisory System. |
red |
After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: |
assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen. |
As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: |
know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. |
At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: |
terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. |
Exposure to _________ would MOST likely result in immediate respiratory distress. |
chlorine |
If the incident command system (ICS) is already established at the scene of a WMD or terrorist attack, the EMT should: |
locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment. |
Most terrorist attacks: |
require multiple terrorists working together. |
Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior: |
pesticide. |
Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: |
antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. |
Signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent include: |
salivation, pinpoint pupils, and diarrhea. |
Symptoms of both inhaled and ingested ricin include: |
fever and headache. |
The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a(n): |
violent religious group. |
The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to phosgene oxime is: |
skin blistering. |
The process performed to artificially maximize the target population’s exposure to a biologic agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired effect, is called: |
weaponization. |
The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: |
patient’s distance from the epicenter of the explosion. |
Unlike viruses and bacteria, neurotoxins: |
are not contagious. |
Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? |
Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase. |
You are dispatched to the scene of a building explosion. Upon arrival, you see people frantically fleeing the building, screaming, "Everyone is passing out!" You should: |
carefully assess the situation and ensure your own safety. |
__________ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration. |
Gamma |
After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: |
assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen |
All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT: |
sarin |
An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n): |
C. single-issue group. |
As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: |
D. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. |
At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: |
A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. |
Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is MOST important because: |
D. a secondary explosive device may detonate. |
In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: |
B. weather conditions. |
Most cases of anthrax begin with: |
B. flulike symptoms. |
Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to high-flow oxygen, the MOST appropriate treatment for these patients includes: |
D. atropine and pralidoxime chloride. |
Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: |
B. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. |
The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: |
C. domestic terrorism. |
The EMT should expect that a patient who was exposed to cyanide will have: |
B. a normal pulse oximetry reading. |
The incubation period for Ebola can be up to: |
C. 21 days. |
The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: |
dissemination |
The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: |
A. patient’s distance from the epicenter of the explosion. |
To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been: |
A. explosive weapons. |
Unlike viral agents, bacterial agents: |
B. respond to antibiotics. |
Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? |
C. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase. |
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should: |
A. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building. |
The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a(n): |
violent religious group. |
Which of the following terrorist groups poses the LEAST threat to a person’s physical safety? |
Cyber terrorists |
A weapon of mass destruction is MOST accurately defined as: |
any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage. |
The process performed to artificially maximize the target population’s exposure to a biologic agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired result, is called: |
weaponization. |
Most terrorist attacks are: |
covert |
You are dispatched to the scene of a building explosion. Upon arrival, you see people frantically fleeing the building, screaming, "Everyone is passing out!" You should: |
carefully assess the situation and ensure your own safety. |
Cross-contamination occurs when: |
an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated. |
As the first-arriving emergency responder at the scene of a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident, you should request additional resources as needed and then: |
function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive. |
A persistent or nonvolatile chemical agent can: |
remain on a surface for more than 24 hours. |
Exposure to _________ would MOST likely result in immediate respiratory distress. |
chlorine |
Signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent include: |
salivation, pinpoint pupils, and diarrhea. |
You are treating a patient who experienced a significant exposure to cyanide. He is semiconscious and is breathing inadequately. The MOST appropriate method of providing assisted ventilations to this patient is to: |
use a bag-valve mask. |
Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include all of the following, EXCEPT: |
skin blisters. |
You are assessing a 30-year-old female who presents with respiratory distress and tachycardia after she opened a package that was delivered to her home. The patient tells you that there was a fine white powder on the package, but she did not think it was important. This patient has MOST likely been exposed to: |
anthrax |
When introduced into the body, ricin causes: |
pulmonary edema and circulatory failure. |
The LEAST harmful form of ionizing radiation is: |
alpha |
Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining how to protect oneself against the effects of radiation? |
Body size |
Pulmonary hemorrhage and inner ear damage are examples of __________ blast injuries. |
primary |
Which of the following would you expect to encounter in a patient with moderate radiation toxicity? |
Hair loss and first-degree burns |
Unlike viruses and bacteria, neurotoxins: |
are not contagious. |
international terrorism |
Terrorism that is carried out by people in a country other than their own; also known as cross-border terrorism. |
domestic terrorism |
Terrorism that is carried out by people in their own country |
weapon of mass destruction (WMD) |
Any agent designed to bring about mass death, casualties, and/or massive damage to property and infrastructure (bridges, tunnels, airports, and seaports); also known as a weapon of mass casualty (WMC). |
weapon of mass casualty (WMC) |
Any agent designed to bring about mass death, casualties, and/or massive damage to property and infrastructure (bridges, tunnels, airports, and seaports); also known as a weapon of mass destruction (WMD). |
B-NICE |
A memory device to recall the types of weapons of mass destruction: biologic, nuclear, incendiary, chemical, and explosive. |
weaponization |
The creation of a weapon from a biologic agent generally found in nature and that causes disease; the agent is cultivated, synthesized, and/or mutated to maximize the target population’s exposure to the germ. |
state-sponsored terrorism |
Terrorism that is funded and/or supported by nations that hold close ties with terrorist groups. |
covert |
An act in which the public safety community generally has no prior knowledge of the time, location, or nature of the attack. |
secondary device |
A secondary explosive used by terrorists, set to explode after the initial bomb. |
cross-contamination |
Occurs when a person is contaminated by an agent as a result of coming into contact with another contaminated person. |
persistency |
Describes how long a chemical agent will stay on a surface before it evaporates. |
volatility |
How long a chemical agent will stay on a surface before it evaporates. |
route of exposure |
The manner by which a toxic substance enters the body. |
vapor hazard |
The term used to describe danger posed by an agent that enters the body through the respiratory tract. |
contact hazard |
The term used to describe danger posed by a chemical whose primary route of entry into the body is through the skin; posed by a hazardous agent that gives off very little or no vapors; also called a skin hazard. |
vesicants |
Blister agents; the primary route of entry for this agent is through the skin. |
sulfur mustard (H) |
A vesicant; it is a brownish, yellowish oily substance that is generally considered very persistent; has the distinct smell of garlic or mustard and, when released, is quickly absorbed into the skin and/or mucous membranes and begins an irreversible process of damaging the cells. Also called mustard gas. |
mutagen |
A substance that mutates, damages, and changes the structures of DNA in the body’s cells. |
lewisite (L) |
A blistering agent that has a rapid onset of symptoms and produces immediate, intense pain and discomfort on contact. |
phosgene oxime (CX) |
A blistering agent that has a rapid onset of symptoms and produces immediate, intense pain and discomfort on contact. |
chlorine (Cl) |
The first chemical agent ever used in warfare. It has a distinct odor of bleach and creates a green haze when released as a gas. Initially it produces upper airway irritation and a choking sensation. |
phosgene |
A pulmonary agent that is a product of combustion, resulting from a fire at a textile factory or house or from metalwork or burning Freon. It is a very potent agent that has a delayed onset of symptoms, usually hours. |
nerve agents |
A class of chemical called organophosphates; they function by blocking an essential enzyme in the nervous system, which causes the body’s organs to become overstimulated and burn out. |
DuoDote Auto-Injector |
A nerve agent antidote kit containing atropine and pralidoxime chloride; delivered as a single dose through one needle. |
Antidote Treatment Nerve Agent Auto-Injector (ATNAA) |
A nerve agent antidote kit containing atropine and pralidoxime chloride; delivered as a single dose through one needle. |
cyanides |
An agent that affects the body’s ability to use oxygen. It is a colorless gas that has an odor similar to almonds. The effects begin on the cellular level and are very rapidly seen at the organ and system levels. |
When ________ is on clothing, it has the effect of off-gassing, which renders the victim and the victim’s clothing contaminated. |
Sarin(GB) |
dissemination |
The means by which a terrorist will spread an agent, for example, by poisoning the water supply or aerosolizing the agent into the air or ventilation system of a building. |
disease vector |
An animal that spreads a disease, once infected, to another animal. |
incubation |
The period of time between a person being exposed to an agent to the first time when symptoms appear. |
smallpox |
A highly contagious disease; it is most contagious when blisters begin to form. |
viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF) |
A group of diseases caused by viruses that include the Ebola, Rift Valley, and yellow fevers, among others. This group of viruses causes the blood in the body to seep out from the tissues and blood vessels. |
Anthrax |
is caused by deadly bacteria that lay dormant in a spore (protective shell). |
bubonic plague |
Bacterial infection that affects the lymphatic system. It is transmitted by infected rodents and fleas and characterized by acute malaise, fever, and the formation of tender, enlarged, inflamed lymph nodes that appear as lesions, called buboes. Also called the Black Death. |
pneumonic plague |
A lung infection, also known as plague pneumonia, that is the result of inhalation of plague-causing bacteria. |
neurotoxin |
Biologic agents that are the most deadly substances known to humans; they include botulinum toxin and ricin. |
The most potent neurotoxin is _________, which is produced by bacteria. |
botulinum |
ricin |
A neurotoxin derived from mash that is left from the castor bean; causes pulmonary edema and respiratory and circulatory failure leading to death. |
Syndromic surveillance |
The monitoring, usually by local or state health departments, of patients presenting to emergency departments and alternative care facilities, the recording of EMS call volume, and the use of over-the-counter medications. |
Points of distribution (PODs) |
Existing facilities used as mass distribution sites for antibiotics, antidotes, vaccinations, and other medications and supplies during an emergency. |
ionizing radiation |
Energy that is emitted in the form of rays, or particles. |
decay |
A natural process in which a material that is unstable attempts to stabilize itself by changing its structure. |
Alpha Radiation |
-The least harmful penetrating type of radiation -Cannot penetrate through most objects (a sheet of paper or the body’s skin can easily stop it) |
Beta radiation |
Slightly more penetrating than alpha and requires a layer of clothing to stop it |
Gamma (x-ray) radiation |
These rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration. |
Neutron radiation |
-Neutron particles are among the most powerful forms of radiation. -Neutrons easily penetrate through lead and require several feet of concrete to stop them. |
radiologic dispersal device (RDD) |
Any container that is designed to disperse radioactive material. |
dirty bomb |
Name given to an explosive radiologic dispersal device. |
Special Atomic Demolition Munitions (SADM) |
Small suitcase-sized nuclear weapons that were designed to destroy individual targets, such as important buildings, bridges, tunnels, and large ships. |
pulmonary blast injuries |
Pulmonary trauma resulting from short-range exposure to the detonation of high-energy explosives. |
What is a mustard gas considered to be? |
Mutagen |
In which group of agents is miosis a sign of exposure? |
nerve agent |
Which of the following requires a host to survive? |
small pox |
Which is the most deadly route of entry for anthrax? |
inhalation |
Which of the following is the means by which an agent is spread? |
Dissemination |
Which of the following is true regarding a dirty bomb? |
The destructive capability is limited to the explosives that are attached to it |
Which type of blast injury is most likely to produce penetrating trauma? |
Secondary |
You are on scene at a suspected terror attack in which a RDD has detonated. A 67-year-old patient reports tightness in his chest. The patient is coughing up blood and is in respiratory distress. During the physical assessment, you notice subcutaneous emphysema. What is the condition most likely to be? |
Pulmonary blast injury |
__________ rays easily penetrate through the human body and require lead or several inches of concrete to prevent penetration. |
A. Neutron B. Beta C. Gamma Correct D. Alpha |
After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should: |
A. position him supine and elevate his legs. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. assist his ventilations with high-flow oxygen. Correct D. request a paramedic to administer atropine. |
All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT: |
A. phosgene oxime. B. sarin. Correct C. lewisite. D. sulfur mustard |
An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n): |
A. violent religious group. B. extremist political group. C. doomsday cult. D. single-issue group. Correct |
As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: |
A. ask your immediate supervisor if he or she has been watching the local news. B. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. Correct C. ascertain the current situation overseas with regard to the number of casualties. D. check with local businesses to see if they have received any terrorist threats. |
At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: |
A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. Correct B. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. C. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile. D. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for. |
Continual reassessment of the scene at a suspected terrorist or weapon of mass destruction incident is MOST important because: |
A. weather conditions may change quickly. B. bystanders may destroy the evidence. C. a secondary explosive device may detonate. Correct D. terrorists are often at the scene after an attack. |
n determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: |
A. victim’s statements. B. weather conditions. Correct C. the location type. D. the type of call. |
Most cases of anthrax begin with: |
A. respiratory distress. B. signs of shock. C. pulmonary edema. D. flulike symptoms. Correct |
Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to high-flow oxygen, the MOST appropriate treatment for these patients includes: |
A. activated charcoal and glucose. B. amyl nitrate and naloxone. C. atropine and pralidoxime chloride. Correct D. epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen. |
Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: |
A. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled. B. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. Correct C. weapons of mass destruction are distributed. D. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed. |
The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: |
A. state-sponsored terrorism. B. domestic terrorism. Correct C. an ecoterrorist attack. D. apocalyptic violence. |
The EMT should expect that a patient who was exposed to cyanide will have: |
A. an abnormally slow pulse rate. B. an abnormally slow respiratory rate. C. skin that is cherry red and hot. D. a normal pulse oximetry reading. Correct |
The incubation period for Ebola can be up to: |
A. 72 hours. B. 1 week. C. 6 months. D. 21 days. Correct |
The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: |
A. incubation. B. dissemination. Correct C. weaponization. D. aerosolization |
The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: |
A. type of material used to manufacture the device. B. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself. C. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion. D. patient’s distance from the epicenter of the explosion. Correct |
To date, the preferred weapons of mass destruction for terrorists have been: |
A. chemical weapons. B. explosive weapons. Correct C. biologic weapons. D. nuclear weapons. |
Unlike viral agents, bacterial agents: |
A. are far less infectious. B. do not replicate in the body. C. are usually not treatable. D. respond to antibiotics. Correct |
Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct? |
A. The gastrointestinal tract is the organ system most sensitive to blast injuries and is the leading cause of death following an explosion. B. Tertiary blast injuries are penetrating or nonpenetrating injuries that result from flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles. C. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase. Correct D. Solid organs such as the middle ear, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract are the most susceptible to pressure changes. |
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a fire at a large office complex. Witnesses tell you that they heard a loud explosion shortly before the building caught fire. You should: |
A. tell the witnesses that you suspect that the explosion was the work of a terrorist. B. take standard precautions and begin searching for critically injured patients. C. carefully document the witnesses’ statements and report them immediately. D. ensure that your ambulance is parked upwind and uphill from the building. Correct |
It is not uncommon for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: B) Experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted. C) Lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours. D) Have a falsely positive home pregnancy test result. |
B |
Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? B) The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain. C) PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past. D) PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. |
D |
Which of the following conditions does NOT typically present with vaginal discharge? B) Genital herpes C) Gonorrhea D) PID |
B |
As a woman approaches menopause: B) Her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity. C) She cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels. D) Her risk of developing PID lowers significantly. |
B |
Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be: B) Asked to provide a brief description of the perpetrator. C) Encouraged to take a shower and change her clothes. D) Given the option of being treated by a female EMT. |
D |
During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: B) Perform a rapid secondary assessment. C) Assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs. D) Assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. |
D |
When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT’s main focus should be to: B) Keep assessment and treatment to a minimum. C) Ask questions related to her gynecologic history. D) Determine the underlying cause of her problem. |
A |
When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should: B) Place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags. C) Advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes. D) Allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment. |
B |
Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should: B) Provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma. C) Perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries. D) Advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence. |
B |
The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: B) Performed in the presence of at least two police officers. C) As detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented. D) Deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician |
A |
Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is correct? B) The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus. C) The placenta allows for the transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the mother and fetus but prevents most medications from passing between the mother and fetus. D) The placental barrier consists of two layers of cells and allows the mother’s blood that contains high concentrations of oxygen to directly mix with the blood of the fetus. |
B |
A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: B) 10 hours. C) 4 hours. D) 16 hours. |
D |
After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers experience: B) An urge to push. C) Easier breathing. D) Midback pain. |
C |
Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include: B) Headache and edema. C) Marked hypoglycemia. D) Dyspnea and bradycardia. |
B |
Abruptio placenta occurs when: B) A tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage. C) The placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. D) The placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening. |
C |
When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: B) In a supine position with her legs spread. C) In a sitting position with her hips elevated 12. D) On her left side with the right leg elevated. |
A |
When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to: B) Rest and breathe deeply. C) Hold her breath. D) Push for 30 seconds. |
A |
During delivery of the baby’s head, you should suction the mouth before the nose because: B) It is easier to suction larger volumes of fluid from the baby’s oropharynx. C) Suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp and aspirate fluid. D) Babies are primarily mouth breathers and do not breathe through their nose. |
C |
A newborn infant will usually begin breathing spontaneously within _______ seconds following birth. B) 30 to 60 C) 15 to 30 D) 3 to 5 |
C |
The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are: B) Breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord. C) Limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage. D) Nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg. |
B |
Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: B) Based on recommendations of the health department. C) According to the urgency and frequency of their use. D) As directed by the EMS system’s medical director. |
C |
Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must: B) Be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min. C) Be easily identifiable by their bright green color. D) Undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis. |
B |
Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes: B) At least one EMT. C) At least two EMTs. D) An EMT and an AEMT. |
B |
Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: B) Quickly gain access to the patient. C) Determine if additional units are needed. D) Carefully assess the mechanism of injury. |
A |
You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: B) Proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. C) Quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards. D) Advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. |
D |
After assessing your patient, you determine that his condition is stable. You provide the appropriate treatment and then load him into the ambulance. While en route to the hospital, you should: B) Increase your speed to create more distance. C) Slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater. D) Stop the ambulance and confront the driver. |
A |
The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: B) Is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital. C) Signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. D) Legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way. |
C |
Your unit and a fire department vehicle are responding to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest. As you approach an intersection that is highly congested, you should: B) Turn off your lights and siren and proceed with safety. C) Ask the fire department vehicle to remain 1,000 behind you. D) Advise the fire department vehicle to follow you closely. |
A |
It is 10:30 PM and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. When you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should: B) Survey the area for power lines or other hazards. C) Mark the proposed landing area with road flares. D) Provide the flight crew with a patient status update. |
B |
When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should: B) Increase your speed to create more distance. C) Slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater. D) Stop the ambulance and confront the driver. |
A |
Extrication is MOST accurately defined as: B) Immobilizing a patient before moving him or her. C) Removal from a dangerous situation or position. D) Dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. |
C |
In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: B) Request the fire department at all scenes. C) Use the information provided by dispatch. D) Perform a 360° walk-around of the scene. |
D |
You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: B) Break the window and unlock the door. C) Ask the patient if he can unlock the door. D) Request the rescue team to extricate him. |
C |
A 50-year-old female is entrapped in her passenger car after it struck a tree. As the rescue team is preparing to extricate her, you quickly assess her and determine that she is breathing shallowly and that her radial pulse is absent. You should: B) Stabilize her condition before extrication begins. C) Maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated. D) Secure her with a short backboard or vest device. |
C |
Disentanglement involves: B) Gaining access to a patient in a crashed vehicle. C) Extrication techniques that EMTs are trained in. D) The use of simple access tools such as a pry bar. |
A |
A hiker was injured when he fell approximately 20 from a cliff. When you arrive at the scene, a member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline. The MOST appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to: B) Immobilize him to a long backboard and use the four-person carry to move him. C) Immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher. D) Apply a vest-style immobilization device and move him using a stair chair device. |
C |
Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct? B) Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse. C) Most deaths involving cave-ins are caused by head injury. D) A trench deeper than 10 should be shored prior to entry. |
B |
You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: B) Grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety. C) Perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety. D) Limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only. |
B |
The reasons for rescue failure can be referred to by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to this mnemonic, the "U" stands for: B) Undertrained to correctly utilize equipment. C) Underutilizing personnel at the scene. D) Underestimating the logistics of the incident. |
D |
You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a residential fire when you hear the incident commander state "We have located a victim" over the radio. You should: B) Immediately locate the incident commander and ask where the victim is located. C) Locate the victim and provide initial care while your partner stays with the ambulance. D) Notify the hospital that you will be transporting a burn patient to their facility. |
A |
The function of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) is to: B) Facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters. C) Educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks. D) Prepare for the potential of a nuclear attack against the United States. |
A |
Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been: B) Communication. C) Accountability. D) Lack of personnel. |
B |
When victims involved in a mass-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area: B) Definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made. C) They will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries. D) Secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered. |
D |
Burn patients without airway compromise and patients with multiple bone or joint injuries should be marked with a __________ triage at a mass-casualty incident. B) Green C) Black D) Yellow |
D |
The JumpSTART triage system is intended to be used for children younger than _____ years or who appear to weigh less than _____. B) 7, 90 lb C) 6, 70 lb D) 5, 50 lb |
A |
Unlike a mass-casualty incident, a natural disaster: B) Often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. C) Usually does not require the ICS process. D) Exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. |
B |
A carboy is a container that would MOST likely be used to store and transport: B) Corrosives. C) Explosives. D) Flammable liquids. |
B |
The MOST appropriate location to park your ambulance at a HazMat incident is: B) Downwind at least 200 from the scene. C) Uphill at least 25 from the incident site. D) Downhill at least 100 from the incident. |
A |
Which of the following activities occurs in the warm zone? B) Personnel staging C) Medical monitoring D) Decontamination |
D |
Following proper decontamination, a 30-year-old male is brought to you. He is semiconscious and has rapid, shallow respirations. A quick visual assessment reveals no obvious bleeding. You should: B) Administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C) Ask a fire fighter what the patient was exposed to. D) Begin some form of positive-pressure ventilation |
D |
The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: B) State-sponsored terrorism. C) An ecoterrorist attack. D) Apocalyptic violence. |
A |
A weapon of mass destruction (WMD) is MOST accurately defined as: B) Any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage. C) Any device used for the express purpose of creating carnage in an effort to make a particular point. D) A device or agent used to destroy a specific area or region within a given geographic location. |
B |
Most terrorist attacks are: B) Unplanned. C) Covert. D) Impulsive. |
C |
In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, EXCEPT: B) Victim’s statements. C) The type of call. D) Weather conditions. |
D |
Cross-contamination occurs when: B) An EMT has direct contact with a chemical agent at a terrorist incident. C) An EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated. D) Two EMTs are exposed to the same agent after being decontaminated. |
C |
Which of the following agents blocks the body’s ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds? B) Carbon monoxide C) Organophosphates D) Hydrogen cyanide |
D |
The means by which a terrorist will spread a particular agent is called: B) Aerosolization. C) Incubation. D) Weaponization. |
A |
Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include all of the following, EXCEPT: B) Body aches. C) Headaches. D) High fever. |
A |
When introduced into the body, ricin causes: B) Necrosis of muscle tissue and cell destruction. C) Pulmonary edema and circulatory failure. D) Enlarged lymph nodes and extreme pain. |
C |
The LEAST harmful form of ionizing radiation is: B) Beta. C) Gamma. D) Neutron. |
A |
The distal cuff on an ET tube should be inflated with no more than ______ of air after it is placed into the trachea. B) 20 mL C) 15 mL D) 25 mL |
A |
You are transporting an intubated 24-year-old female when her level of consciousness improves and she becomes combative. Without assisted ventilation, she appears to be breathing adequately. You should anticipate that your ALS partner will: B) Extubate her to prevent laryngospasm. C) Give her a sedative drug per local protocol. D) Carefully restrain her and continue ventilations. |
C |
A major benefit when using a multilumen airway device is that: B) It can be visualized as it enters the esophagus. C) It can be used on patients of any age and size. D) The airway is better protected than with an ET tube. |
A |
In the prehospital setting, gastric tubes are used primarily to: B) Decompress the stomach. C) Administer medications. D) Remove gastric toxins. |
B |
For which of the following patients would the use of a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device be of MOST benefit? B) 58-year-old man with mild shortness of breath after being diagnosed by his physician with left lower lobe pneumonia C) 62-year-old man with severe respiratory distress, a history of congestive heart failure, and audible rhonchi in the lungs D) 50-year-old woman who is unable to follow verbal commands and is in severe respiratory distress due to asthma |
C |
After sliding the piercing spike of the administration set into the IV bag port, you should next: B) Prime the line and flush the air out of the tubing. C) Ensure that the drip chamber is only half filled. D) Adjust the drip chamber until fluid slowly drains. |
B |
If an IV line is found to be infiltrated, you should: B) Remove the catheter and apply direct pressure. C) Slow the flow rate down to keep the vein open. D) Apply a chemical heat pack to the IV site. |
B |
An IV line is not running as fast as it should be. There are no signs of infiltration. You should: B) Ensure that the tourniquet has been released. C) Lower the IV bag as low as you possibly can. D) Suspect that the patient has circulatory overload. |
B |
The QRS complex is an electrical representation of: B) Atrial contraction. C) Ventricular filling. D) Ventricular contraction. |
D |
It does not matter if you place the arm leads on the patient’s shoulders or arms, as long as: B) The red lead is placed on the right side. C) They are at least 10 cm from the heart. D) The patient is in a supine position. |
C |
Ch 40- Terrorism Response and Disaster Management
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