1. Components of the first line of defense include all the following except
A. the tough cell sheet of the upper epidermis of the skin.
B. nasal hairs.
C. flushing action of tears and blinking.
D. flushing action of urine.
E. phagocytic white blood cells.
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E. phagocytic white blood cells
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2. Nonspecific chemical defenses include
A. lysozyme.
B. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat.
C. skin's acidic pH and fatty acids.
D. stomach hydrochloric acid.
E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct
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3. The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain
bacterial cell walls is
A. lactic acid.
B. hydrochloric acid.
C. lysozyme.
D. histamine.
E. bile.
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C. lysozyme
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4. The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away
from that body site is the
A. skin.
B. respiratory tract.
C. digestive tract.
D. urinary tract.
E. eyes.
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B. respiratory tract
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5. This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier
with its own normal biota.
A. skin
B. respiratory tract
C. digestive tract
D. urinary tract
E. eyes
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A. skin
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6. The reticuloendothelial system
A. is a support network of connective tissue fibers.
B. originates in the cellular basal lamina.
C. provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs.
D. is heavily populated with macrophages.
E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct
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7. Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it
A. is toxic to pathogens.
B. creates a physical barrier against pathogens.
C. destroys pathogens.
D. physically restricts pathogens to a specific region.
E. None of the choices is correct.
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B. creates a physical barrier against pathogens
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8. Each of the following are physical barriers to pathogens except
A. unbroken skin.
B. mucus.
C. hairs.
D. tears.
E. T cells.
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E. T cells
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9. Lysozyme is found in
A. mucous membranes of the respiratory tract.
B. mucous membranes of the gastrointestinal tract.
C. salivary secretions.
D. sweat from sweat glands.
E. All of the choices are correct.
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C. salivary secretions
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10. A properly functioning immune system is responsible for
A. surveillance of the body.
B. recognition of foreign material.
C. destruction of foreign material.
D. All of the above choices are correct.
E. Only recognition of foreign material and destruction of foreign material are correct.
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D. All of the choices are correct
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11. Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their
A. cell walls.
B. biota.
C. markers.
D. skin.
E. cell processes.
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C. markers
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12. The term _____ is given to any foreign substance that stimulates a specific immune
system response.
A. antibody
B. allergen
C. antigen
D. foreign body
E. None of the choices is correct.
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C. antigen
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13. The main function of the reticuloendothelial system is to provide
A. surveillance cells.
B. a connection between tissues and organs.
C. filtration of extracellular fluid.
D. filtration of blood.
E. All of the choices are correct.
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B. a connection between tissues and organs
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14. Which of the following fluid compartments is not a partner in immune function?
A. bloodstream
B. extracellular fluid
C. lymphatic system
D. intracellular fluid
E. reticuloendothelial system
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C. lymphatic system
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15. Plasma
A. is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended.
B. is mostly water.
C. contains albumin and globulins.
D. contains fibrinogen.
E. All of the choices are correct.
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E. All of the choices are correct
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16. Which of the following is incorrect about blood cells?
A. after birth, produced in red bone marrow sites
B. develop from undifferentiated stem cells
C. include mast cells
D. include leukocytes that are either granulocytes or agranulocytes
E. include erythrocytes that, when mature, lose their nuclei
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C. include mast cells
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17. The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase
and lysozyme, and particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are
A. basophils.
B. eosinophils.
C. neutrophils.
D. monocytes.
E. lymphocytes.
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B. eosinophils
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18. The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation
and allergic reactions are
A. basophils.
B. eosinophils.
C. neutrophils.
D. monocytes.
E. lymphocytes.
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A. basophils
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19. Which white blood cells comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBCs and are the cells
that function in the body's third line of defense?
A. basophils
B. eosinophils
C. neutrophils
D. monocytes
E. lymphocytes
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E. lymphocytes
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20. The most numerous WBCs that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are
A. basophils.
B. eosinophils.
C. neutrophils.
D. monocytes.
E. lymphocytes.
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C. neutrophils
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21. Which white blood cells comprise 3% to 7% of circulating WBCs, are phagocytic, and
can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages?
A. basophils
B. eosinophils
C. neutrophils
D. monocytes
E. lymphocytes
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D. monocytes
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22. All of the following pertain to platelets except they
A. contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.
B. function primarily in hemostasis.
C. originate from giant multinucleate cells called megakaryocytes.
D. function in blood clotting and inflammation.
E. are not whole cells but are pieces of cells.
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A. contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
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23. Hematopoiesis is the
A. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
B. production of only red blood cells.
C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.
D. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
E. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
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C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
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24. Plasma cells
A. function in cell-mediated immunity.
B. are derived from T lymphocytes.
C. function in blood clotting.
D. produce and secrete antibodies.
E. All of the choices are correct.
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D. produce and secrete antibodies
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25. Which type of white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic worm
infections?
A. monocytes
B. eosinophils
C. basophils
D. neutrophils
E. lymphocytes
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B. eosinophils
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26. Each of the following are granulocytes except
A. neutrophils.
B. eosinophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. basophils.
E. All of the choices are granulocytes.
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C. lymphocytes
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27. The granules of basophils contain
A. antibodies.
B. antigens.
C. digestive enzymes.
D. histamine.
E. lysozyme.
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D. histamine
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28. Which of the following is in the correct order from greatest to least phagocytic activity?
A. neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages
B. neutrophils, macrophages, eosinophils
C. eosinophils, macrophages, neutrophils
D. macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils
E. macrophages, eosinophils, neutrophils
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D. macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils
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29. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called _____ because they have prominent
cytoplasmic inclusions that, in a stained blood smear, appear with identifying, characteristic
colors.
A. leukocytes
B. granulocytes
C. agranulocytes
D. monocytes
E. None of the choices is correct.
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B. granulocytes
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30. _____ function in humoral immunity, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity.
A. B cells, T cells
B. T cells, B cells
C. monocytes, basophils
D. basophils, T cells
E. B cells, neutrophils
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A. B cells, T cells
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31. When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues they are transformed by
inflammatory mediators to develop into
A. primary phagocytes.
B. neutrophils.
C. killer T cells.
D. cytotoxic T cells.
E. macrophages.
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E. macrophages
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32. A type of monocyte that has long, thin processes to trap pathogens are
A. dendritic cells.
B. eosinophils.
C. macrophages.
D. platelets.
E. mast cells.
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A. dendritic cells
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33. Which of the following lymphoid organs or tissues has the immunological function of
filtering pathogens from the blood?
A. lymph nodes
B. thymus
C. spleen
D. GALT
E. tonsils
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C. spleen
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34. What structures are found along lymphatic vessels and are heavily clustered in the armpit,
groin, and neck?
A. lymph nodes
B. thymus
C. spleen
D. GALT
E. tonsils
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A. lymph node
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35. Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood and has hormones that function in
maturation of T lymphocytes?
A. lymph nodes
B. thymus
C. spleen
D. GALT
E. tonsils
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B. thymus
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36. The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as
A. lymph nodes.
B. thymus.
C. spleen.
D. GALT.
E. tonsils.
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D. G.A.L.T.
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37. Diapedesis is the
A. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.
B. production of only red blood cells.
C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets.
D. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding.
E. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.
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E. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
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38. The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following except
A. redness.
B. warmth.
C. swelling.
D. pain.
E. chills.
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E. chills
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39. All the following are events of early inflammation except
A. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.
B. chemical mediators and cytokines are released.
C. brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation.
D. exudate and pus can accumulate.
E. capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema.
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A. macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis
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40. Which of the following is incorrect about inflammation?
A. It can last hours to years.
B. Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.
C. Serotonin causes smooth muscle contraction.
D. Fever could be beneficial to inhibiting the pathogen.
E. Basophils and mast cells release histamine.
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B. pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
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41. Which of the following is mismatched?
A. interferon alpha and beta - inhibits viral replication
B. interleukin-2 - stimulates T-cell mitosis and B-cell antibody production
C. serotonin - causes smooth muscle contraction
D. prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B cells
E. tumor necrosis factor - increases chemotaxis and phagocytosis
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D. prostaglandins - activate eosinophils and B cells
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42. Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all
A. vasoactive mediators.
B. mediators of B-cell activity.
C. mediators of T-cell activity.
D. mediators that increase chemotaxis.
E. fever inducers.
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A. vasoactive mediators
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43. Each of the following is involved in the migration of white blood cells except
A. chemotaxis.
B. diapedesis.
C. motility.
D. vasodilatation.
E. phagocytosis.
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E. phagocytosis
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44. The leakage of excess fluid into tissues is called
A. chemotaxis.
B. edema.
C. diapedesis.
D. vasoactivity.
E. pus.
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B. edema
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45. Which of the following is mismatched dealing with inflammation?
A. rubor - redness
B. calor - warmth
C. tumor - cancer
D. dolar - pain
E. None of these is mismatched.
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C. tumor - cancer
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46. Which of the following is not a chief function of inflammation?
A. start tissue repair
B. destroy microbes
C. mobilize and attract immune components to injury site
D. block further invasion
E. cause a fever
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E. cause a fever
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47. The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are
A. complement.
B. interferons.
C. leukotrines.
D. pyrogens.
E. lysozymes.
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D. pyrogens
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48. A person will typically experience the sensation of _____ when fever is starting to occur
in the body.
A. heat
B. pain
C. chill
D. sweat
E. All of the choices are correct.
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C. chill
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49. Each of the following are benefits of fever except it
A. reduces the ability of temperature-sensitive organisms to multiply.
B. increases the availability of iron.
C. increases phagocytosis.
D. increases metabolism.
E. stimulates hematopoiesis.
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B. increases the availability of iron
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50. Which of the following is not a type of phagocyte?
A. neutrophil
B. macrophage
C. Kupffer cell
D. monocyte
E. lymphocyte
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E. lymphocyte
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51. Which of the following is not an event of phagocytosis?
A. diapedesis
B. chemotaxis
C. phagolysosome formation
D. destruction
E. ingestion
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A. diapedesis
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52. What type of molecules act to draw phagocytes to foreign substances?
A. MALTs
B. RES
C. PAMPs
D. BALTs
E. lysosomes
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C. PAMPs
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53. Which of the following is a chemical used by phagocytes to destroy ingested foreign
substances?
A. hydrogen peroxide
B. nitric oxide
C. lactic acid
D. superoxide anion
E. All of these are used.
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E. All of these are used
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54. All of the following pertain to interferon except it
A. is a protein.
B. is produced by certain white blood cells and tissue cells.
C. includes alpha, beta, and gamma types.
D. inhibits viruses, tumors, and cancer gene expression.
E. increases capillary permeability and vasodilation.
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E. increases capillary permeability and vasodilation
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55. Which of the following is incorrect about complement?
A. is composed of at least 20 blood proteins
B. only appears in the blood during a response to a pathogen
C. acts in a cascade reaction
D. involves a classical pathway
E. involves an alternate pathway
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B. only appears in the blood during a response to a pathogen
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56. The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves
A. initiation of the cascade.
B. production of inflammatory cytokines.
C. a ring-shaped protein that digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes.
D. cleaving of C3 to yield C3a and C3b.
E. C1q binding to surface receptors on a membrane.
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C. a ring-shaped protein that digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes
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57. The _____ system of blood proteins acts to lyse foreign cells and viruses.
A. humoral immunity
B. cell-mediated
C. complement
D. lymphoid
E. None of the choices is correct.
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C. complement
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58. What is the first step in the major events of the inflammation process?
A. formation of pus and edema
B. scar formation and/or resolution
C. vascular reactions
D. injury and mast cells releasing chemical mediators
E. activation of the complement system
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D. injury and mast cells releasing chemical mediators
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59. During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced to destroy
bacteria and inhibit viral replication?
A. inflammation
B. phagocytosis
C. interferon production
D. complement production
E. bradykinin
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B. phagocytosis
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60. Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with
other cells the need to produce antiviral proteins?
A. complement
B. albumin
C. interferon
D. histamine
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C. interferon
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